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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with vomiting blood. The medical team suspects bleeding oesophageal varices and prescribes terlipressin. The patient has a history of alcohol abuse and examination reveals ascites.
Why was terlipressin prescribed in this case?Your Answer: Reduce arterial pressure
Correct Answer: Vasoconstriction of splanchnic vessels
Explanation:Terlipressin works by constricting the splanchnic vessels, which increases systemic vascular resistance and promotes renal fluid reabsorption. This leads to an increase in arterial pressure and helps to treat hypovolaemic hypotension. Terlipressin also has a sympathetic stimulating effect and is an analogue of vasopressin.
Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.
To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 2
Correct
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A 39-year-old patient visits the doctor with complaints of occasional pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. The patient reports that the pain worsens after meals, particularly after a heavy dinner. There are no other accompanying symptoms, and all vital signs are within normal limits.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Biliary colic
Explanation:Biliary colic can cause pain after eating a meal.
Biliary colic occurs when the gallbladder contracts to release bile after a meal, but the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder causes pain during this process. The pain is typically worse after a fatty meal compared to a low-fat meal, as bile is needed to break down fat.
In contrast, duodenal ulcers cause pain that is worse on an empty stomach and relieved by eating, as food acts as a buffer between the ulcer and stomach acid. The pain from an ulcer is typically described as a burning sensation, while biliary colic causes a sharp pain.
Autoimmune hepatitis pain is unlikely to fluctuate as the patient described.
Appendicitis pain typically starts in the center of the abdomen and then moves to the lower right quadrant, known as McBurney’s point.
Ascending cholangitis is characterized by a triad of fever, pain, and jaundice, known as Charcot’s triad.
Understanding Biliary Colic and Gallstone-Related Disease
Biliary colic is a condition that occurs when gallstones pass through the biliary tree. It is more common in women, especially those who are obese, fertile, or over the age of 40. Other risk factors include diabetes, Crohn’s disease, rapid weight loss, and certain medications. Biliary colic is caused by an increase in cholesterol, a decrease in bile salts, and biliary stasis. The pain is due to the gallbladder contracting against a stone lodged in the cystic duct. Symptoms include colicky right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Unlike other gallstone-related conditions, there is no fever or abnormal liver function tests.
Ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool for biliary colic. Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended treatment. However, around 15% of patients may have gallstones in the common bile duct at the time of surgery, which can lead to obstructive jaundice. Other complications of gallstone-related disease include acute cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, acute pancreatitis, gallstone ileus, and gallbladder cancer. It is important to understand the risk factors, pathophysiology, and management of biliary colic and gallstone-related disease to ensure prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 3
Correct
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A 55-year-old inpatient needs to undergo a magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) to investigate possible gallstones. However, it was discovered that the patient had consumed a fatty meal in the morning, and the medical team wants to postpone the procedure. The reason being that the patient's gallbladder would be harder to visualize due to the release of cholecystokinin (CCK) in response to the meal.
What type of cells in the intestine are responsible for secreting CCK?Your Answer: I cells
Explanation:The I cells located in the upper small intestine release cholecystokinin, a hormone that triggers the contraction of the gallbladder when fats, proteins, and amino acids are ingested. Additionally, cholecystokinin stimulates the exocrine pancreas, slows down gastric emptying by relaxing the stomach, and induces a feeling of fullness through vagal stimulation.
K and L cells secrete gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) and glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), respectively. These incretins increase in response to glucose and regulate metabolism. GLP-1 agonists, also known as incretin mimetics, are medications that enhance the effects of these hormones.
ECL cells, found in the stomach, secrete histamine, which increases acid secretion to aid in digestion.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 54-year-old man complains of epigastric discomfort and experiences migratory thrombophlebitis. During examination, he displays mild jaundice. A CT scan reveals a mass in the pancreatic head and peri hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the pancreas
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis is adenocarcinoma of the pancreas, which is often accompanied by migratory thrombophlebitis. Squamous cell carcinoma is a rare occurrence in the pancreas.
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.
Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.
Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following is most crucial in offering assistance to the duodenojejunal flexure?
Your Answer: Uncinate process of the pancreas
Correct Answer: Ligament of Trietz
Explanation:The ligament of Trietz, also known as the suspensory muscle of the duodenum, holds great significance. On the other hand, the ligament of Treves is situated between the caecum and ileum.
Anatomy of the Duodenum
The duodenum is the first and widest part of the small bowel, located immediately distal to the pylorus. It is around 25 cm long and comprises four parts: superior, descending, horizontal, and ascending. The horizontal part is the longest segment and passes transversely to the left with an upward deflection. The duodenum is largely retroperitoneal, except for the first 2-3 cm of the superior part and the final 1-2 cm.
The medial relations of the duodenum include the superior pancreatico-duodenal artery and the pancreatic head. The descending part is closely related to the commencement of the transverse colon, while the horizontal part crosses in front of the right ureter, right psoas major, right gonadal vessels, and IVC. The ascending part runs to the left of the aorta and terminates by binding abruptly forwards as the duodenojejunal flexure.
The region of the duodenojejunal flexure is fixed in position by the suspensory muscle of the duodenum, which blends with the musculature of the flexure and passes upwards deep to the pancreas to gain attachment to the right crus of the diaphragm. This fibromuscular band is known as the ligament of Treitz. The duodenum has important anterior and posterior relations, including the superior mesenteric vessels, the root of the small bowel, the left sympathetic trunk, the left psoas major, the left gonadal vessels, the left kidney, and the uncinate process of the pancreas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 6
Correct
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A 25-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of abdominal pain, diarrhea, and painful aphthous ulcers that have been bothering him for the last four weeks. He has also observed that his clothes have become loose lately.
What is the typical disease pattern associated with his condition?Your Answer: Inflammation anywhere from the mouth to anus
Explanation:Crohn’s disease is characterized by inflammation that can occur anywhere from the mouth to the anus. This patient’s symptoms, including weight loss, abdominal pain, and diarrhea, suggest inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). The presence of mouth ulcers indicates Crohn’s disease, as it is known for causing discontinuous inflammation throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Ulcerative colitis, on the other hand, does not cause mouth ulcers and typically involves continuous inflammation that extends from the rectum. While colorectal polyposis can be a complication of IBD, it alone does not explain the patient’s symptoms. Ulcerative colitis is characterized by continuous inflammation that is limited to the submucosa and originates in the rectum, which is not the case for this patient.
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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During liver mobilisation for a pediatric liver transplant, the hepatic ligaments will need to be mobilized. Which of the following statements regarding these structures is false?
Your Answer: Lesser omentum arises from the porta hepatis and passes the lesser curvature of the stomach
Correct Answer: The right triangular ligament is an early branch of the left triangular ligament
Explanation:The coronary ligament continues as the right triangular ligament.
Structure and Relations of the Liver
The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.
The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.
The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 8
Correct
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A 48-year-old man is under your care after being diagnosed with pneumonia. On the day before his expected discharge, he experiences severe diarrhea without blood and needs intravenous fluids. A request for stool culture is made.
What would the microbiology report likely indicate as the responsible microbe?Your Answer: Gram-positive bacillus
Explanation:Clostridium difficile is a type of gram-positive bacillus that can cause pseudomembranous colitis, particularly after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 50-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of edema around his eyes and ankles. Upon further inquiry, he reports having foamy urine and is diagnosed with hypertension. The physician suggests that a biopsy of the affected organ would be the most informative diagnostic tool.
Considering the organ most likely involved in his symptoms, what would be the optimal approach for obtaining a biopsy?Your Answer: Posteriorly, inferior to the 12 rib and adjacent to the spine
Explanation:The safest way to access the kidneys is from the patient’s back, as they are retroperitoneal structures. Attempting to access them from the front or side would involve passing through the peritoneum, which increases the risk of infection. The kidneys are located near the spine and can be accessed below the 12th rib.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 10
Correct
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Sarah presents to the Emergency Department with acute severe epigastric pain, nausea and vomiting following a holiday in Greece in which she consumed large amounts of alcohol. On investigation, she has a raised amylase of 500 IU/L and is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. She is treated and makes a full recovery.
Eight weeks later she presents again, complaining of persisting moderately severe abdominal pain and early satiety. An ultrasound of her abdomen shows a fluid filled cavity in the pancreas lined with granulation tissue.
What complication of acute pancreatitis has Sarah developed?Your Answer: Pancreatic pseudocyst
Explanation:Alcohol intoxication is a common cause of acute pancreatitis, which can present with persistent abdominal pain and a fluid-filled cavity on ultrasound.
While a pancreatic tumor may also cause acute pancreatitis symptoms and obstructive jaundice, it would not typically show a fluid-filled cavity on ultrasound.
A pancreatic abscess, on the other hand, may present with signs of infection such as fever, rigors, and a tender mass.
Although diabetes can be a late complication of pancreatitis, it does not account for the ongoing abdominal pain or the presence of a fluid-filled cavity.
Complications of Acute Pancreatitis
Local complications of acute pancreatitis include peripancreatic fluid collections, pseudocysts, pancreatic necrosis, pancreatic abscess, and hemorrhage. Peripancreatic fluid collections occur in about 25% of cases and may resolve or develop into pseudocysts or abscesses. Pseudocysts are walled by fibrous or granulation tissue and typically occur 4 weeks or more after an attack of acute pancreatitis. Pancreatic necrosis may involve both the pancreatic parenchyma and surrounding fat, and complications are directly linked to the extent of necrosis. Pancreatic abscesses typically occur as a result of an infected pseudocyst. Hemorrhage may occur de novo or as a result of surgical necrosectomy and may be identified by Grey Turner’s sign when retroperitoneal hemorrhage occurs.
Systemic complications of acute pancreatitis include acute respiratory distress syndrome, which is associated with a high mortality rate of around 20%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following illnesses is not regarded as a risk factor for stomach cancer?
Your Answer: Polya gastrectomy for antral ulcer
Correct Answer: Long term therapy with H2 blockers
Explanation:Currently, the use of H2 blockers does not appear to increase the risk of gastric cancer, unlike certain acid lowering procedures that do.
Gastric cancer is a relatively uncommon type of cancer, accounting for only 2% of all cancer diagnoses in developed countries. It is more prevalent in older individuals, with half of patients being over the age of 75, and is more common in males than females. Several risk factors have been identified, including Helicobacter pylori infection, atrophic gastritis, certain dietary habits, smoking, and blood group. Symptoms of gastric cancer can include abdominal pain, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, and dysphagia. In some cases, lymphatic spread may result in the appearance of nodules in the left supraclavicular lymph node or periumbilical area. Diagnosis is typically made through oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy with biopsy, and staging is done using CT. Treatment options depend on the extent and location of the cancer and may include endoscopic mucosal resection, partial or total gastrectomy, and chemotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Sophie, a 19-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes mellitus, arrives at the emergency department with confusion, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Upon examination, she displays tachycardia and tachypnea. The medical team orders various tests, including an arterial blood gas.
The results are as follows:
pH 7.29 mmol/l
K+ 6.0 mmol/l
Glucose 15mmol/l
The doctors initiate treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis.
What ECG abnormality can be observed in relation to Sophie's potassium level?Your Answer: U waves and T wave depression
Correct Answer: Tall tented T waves and flattened P waves
Explanation:When a person has hyperkalaemia, their blood has an excess of potassium which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. One of the common ECG abnormalities seen in hyperkalaemia is tall tented T waves. Other possible ECG changes include wide QRS complexes and flattened P waves. In contrast, hypokalaemia can cause T wave depression, U waves, and tall P waves on an ECG. Delta waves are typically seen in patients with Wolfe-Parkinson-White syndrome.
ECG Findings in Hyperkalaemia
Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. This condition can have serious consequences on the heart, leading to abnormal ECG findings. The ECG findings in hyperkalaemia include peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves, loss of P waves, broad QRS complexes, sinusoidal wave pattern, and ventricular fibrillation.
The first ECG finding in hyperkalaemia is the appearance of peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves. This is followed by the loss of P waves, which are the small waves that represent atrial depolarization. The QRS complexes, which represent ventricular depolarization, become broad and prolonged. The sinusoidal wave pattern is a characteristic finding in severe hyperkalaemia, where the ECG tracing appears as a series of undulating waves. Finally, ventricular fibrillation, a life-threatening arrhythmia, can occur in severe hyperkalaemia.
In summary, hyperkalaemia can have serious consequences on the heart, leading to abnormal ECG findings. These findings include peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves, loss of P waves, broad QRS complexes, sinusoidal wave pattern, and ventricular fibrillation. It is important to recognize these ECG findings in hyperkalaemia as they can guide appropriate management and prevent life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 13
Correct
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A 30-year-old male is diagnosed with carcinoid syndrome. What hormone is secreted by carcinoids?
Your Answer: Serotonin
Explanation:The rule of thirds for carcinoids is that one-third of cases involve multiple tumors, one-third affect the small bowel, and one-third result in metastasis or the development of a second tumor. It is important to note that carcinoids secrete serotonin, and carcinoid syndrome only occurs when there are liver metastases present, as the liver typically metabolizes the hormone released from primary lesions.
Carcinoid tumours are a type of cancer that can cause a condition called carcinoid syndrome. This syndrome typically occurs when the cancer has spread to the liver and releases serotonin into the bloodstream. In some cases, it can also occur with lung carcinoid tumours, as the mediators are not cleared by the liver. The earliest symptom of carcinoid syndrome is often flushing, but it can also cause diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and right heart valvular stenosis (or left heart involvement in bronchial carcinoid). Additionally, other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may be secreted, leading to conditions like Cushing’s syndrome. Pellagra, a rare condition caused by a deficiency in niacin, can also develop as the tumour diverts dietary tryptophan to serotonin.
To investigate carcinoid syndrome, doctors may perform a urinary 5-HIAA test or a plasma chromogranin A test. Treatment for the condition typically involves somatostatin analogues like octreotide, which can help manage symptoms like diarrhoea. Cyproheptadine may also be used to alleviate diarrhoea. Overall, early detection and treatment of carcinoid tumours can help prevent the development of carcinoid syndrome and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is shot in the abdomen and experiences bleeding. What substance will cause vasoconstriction in response to this event?
Your Answer: Aldosterone
Correct Answer: Angiotensin II
Explanation:Vasoconstriction is not caused by renin. Angiotensin I is not biologically active. Aldosterone can raise blood pressure, but it does not have direct vasospastic effects.
Shock is a condition where there is not enough blood flow to the tissues. There are five main types of shock: septic, haemorrhagic, neurogenic, cardiogenic, and anaphylactic. Septic shock is caused by an infection that triggers a particular response in the body. Haemorrhagic shock is caused by blood loss, and there are four classes of haemorrhagic shock based on the amount of blood loss and associated symptoms. Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a disruption in the autonomic nervous system, leading to decreased vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is caused by heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Adrenaline is the most important drug in treating anaphylaxis and should be given as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 15
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated for an abdominal mass. She delivered her first child vaginally and without any issues. Biopsy results indicate the presence of differentiated fibroblasts in sheets, which is indicative of a desmoid tumor. What is a potential risk factor for this type of tumor?
Your Answer: APC mutations
Explanation:Desmoid tumours are more likely to occur in individuals with APC mutations.
Pancreatic and hepatic cancer have been linked to CA-199.
Breast cancer is strongly linked to BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations.
Burkitt’s lymphoma, a high-grade B-cell neoplasm, is associated with translocation of the C-myc gene.
Desmoid tumours are growths that arise from musculoaponeurotic structures and are made up of clonal proliferations of myofibroblasts. They are typically firm and have a tendency to infiltrate surrounding tissue. These tumours are often seen in patients with familial adenomatous polyposis coli, and are most commonly found in women after childbirth in the rectus abdominis muscle. Bi allelic APC mutations are usually present in desmoid tumours.
The preferred treatment for desmoid tumours is radical surgical resection, although radiotherapy and chemotherapy may be considered in some cases. Non-surgical therapy is generally less effective than surgical resection. In certain cases of abdominal desmoids, observation may be preferred as some tumours may spontaneously regress. However, desmoids have a high likelihood of local recurrence. These tumours consist of sheets of differentiated fibroblasts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 16
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, breathlessness on exertion, skin pallor, and a swollen, painful tongue. She has also been experiencing bloating, diarrhoea, and stomach pain.
On examination her respiratory rate was 18/min at rest, oxygen saturation 99%, blood pressure 120/80 mmHg and temperature 37.1ºC. Her abdomen was generally tender and distended.
The results of a blood test are as follows:
Hb 90 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Ferritin 8 ng/mL (20 - 230)
Vitamin B12 120 ng/L (200 - 900)
Folate 2.0 nmol/L (> 3.0)
What investigation would be most likely to determine the diagnosis?Your Answer: Tissue transglutaminase antibodies (anti-TTG) and total immunoglobulin A levels (total IgA)
Explanation:Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 17
Correct
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A 55-year-old man is having surgery to remove a tumor in the descending colon. What embryological structure does this part of the digestive system originate from?
Your Answer: Hind gut
Explanation:The hind gut is responsible for the development of the left colon, which is why it has its own distinct blood supply through the IMA.
The colon begins with the caecum, which is the most dilated segment of the colon and is marked by the convergence of taenia coli. The ascending colon follows, which is retroperitoneal on its posterior aspect. The transverse colon comes after passing the hepatic flexure and becomes wholly intraperitoneal again. The splenic flexure marks the point where the transverse colon makes an oblique inferior turn to the left upper quadrant. The descending colon becomes wholly intraperitoneal at the level of L4 and becomes the sigmoid colon. The sigmoid colon is wholly intraperitoneal, but there are usually attachments laterally between the sigmoid and the lateral pelvic sidewall. At its distal end, the sigmoid becomes the upper rectum, which passes through the peritoneum and becomes extraperitoneal.
The arterial supply of the colon comes from the superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery, which are linked by the marginal artery. The ascending colon is supplied by the ileocolic and right colic arteries, while the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery. The descending and sigmoid colon are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The venous drainage comes from regional veins that accompany arteries to the superior and inferior mesenteric vein. The lymphatic drainage initially follows nodal chains that accompany supplying arteries, then para-aortic nodes.
The colon has both intraperitoneal and extraperitoneal segments. The right and left colon are part intraperitoneal and part extraperitoneal, while the sigmoid and transverse colon are generally wholly intraperitoneal. The colon has various relations with other organs, such as the right ureter and gonadal vessels for the caecum/right colon, the gallbladder for the hepatic flexure, the spleen and tail of pancreas for the splenic flexure, the left ureter for the distal sigmoid/upper rectum, and the ureters, autonomic nerves, seminal vesicles, prostate, and urethra for the rectum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman experiences jaundice and undergoes an ERCP. After 36 hours, she develops a fever and rigors. What organism is most likely to be cultured from her blood sample?
Your Answer: Enterobacter
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:A surgical emergency is indicated when Charcot’s triad is present. Patients require biliary decompression and administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics. The most frequently identified organism in cholangitis infections is E. coli, with enterobacter being a less common finding.
Ascending Cholangitis: A Bacterial Infection of the Biliary Tree
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. The primary risk factor for this condition is gallstones. Patients with ascending cholangitis may experience Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant pain. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Fever is the most common symptom, occurring in 90% of patients, followed by RUQ pain (70%) and jaundice (60%). In some cases, patients may also experience hypotension and confusion, which, when combined with the other three symptoms, makeup Reynolds’ pentad.
In addition to the above symptoms, patients with ascending cholangitis may also have raised inflammatory markers. Ultrasound is typically the first-line investigation used to diagnose this condition. It is used to look for bile duct dilation and stones.
The management of ascending cholangitis involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction. By understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with ascending cholangitis, healthcare providers can diagnose and treat this condition promptly, reducing the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of persistent fatigue over the past few months. He mentions experiencing confusion and difficulty focusing on tasks that were once effortless. Additionally, he has noticed a tingling sensation in the toes of both feet.
After conducting blood tests, the doctor discovers that the patient has macrocytic anemia. The doctor suspects that the patient may be suffering from pernicious anemia.
What is the pathophysiology of this condition?Your Answer: Autoimmune granulomatous inflammation of the intestinal epithelium causing ulcer formation
Correct Answer: Autoimmune destruction of parietal cells in the stomach
Explanation:Pernicious anaemia is a result of autoimmune destruction of parietal cells, which leads to the formation of autoantibodies against intrinsic factor. This results in decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and subsequently causes macrocytic anaemia. Coeliac disease, on the other hand, is caused by autoimmune destruction of the intestinal epithelium following gluten ingestion, leading to severe malabsorption and changes in bowel habits. Crohn’s disease involves autoimmune granulomatous inflammation of the intestinal epithelium, causing ulcer formation and malabsorption, but it does not cause pernicious anaemia. While GI blood loss may cause anaemia, it is more likely to result in normocytic or microcytic anaemia, such as iron deficient anaemia, and not pernicious anaemia.
Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.
Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 20
Correct
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A 65-year-old male with an indirect inguinal hernia is scheduled for laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair. While performing the laparoscopy, the surgeon comes across various structures surrounding the inguinal canal. What is the structure that creates the anterior boundaries of the inguinal canal?
Your Answer: Aponeurosis of external oblique
Explanation:The aponeurosis of the external oblique forms the anterior boundaries of the inguinal canal. In males, the inguinal canal serves as the pathway for the testes to descend from the abdominal wall into the scrotum.
To remember the boundaries of the inguinal canal, the mnemonic MALT: 2Ms, 2As, 2Ls, 2Ts can be used. Starting from superior and moving around in order to posterior, the order can be remembered using the mnemonic SALT (superior, anterior, lower (floor), posterior).
The superior wall (roof) is formed by the internal oblique muscle and transverse abdominis muscle. The anterior wall is formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique and aponeurosis of the internal oblique. The lower wall (floor) is formed by the inguinal ligament and lacunar ligament. The posterior wall is formed by the transversalis fascia and conjoint tendon.
The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.
The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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