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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man presents to his GP clinic complaining of confusion and difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to his GP clinic complaining of confusion and difficulty sleeping for the past 5 months. According to his wife, his confusion varies in severity from day to day, and he has been experiencing visual hallucinations of people and animals in their home. The patient is currently taking apixaban 5 mg, amlodipine 5mg, and atorvastatin 20 mg, and there is no recent history of infection. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs and no motor or speech impairment, but the patient struggles to draw a clock face and count down from 20 to 1 correctly. A urine dip test is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vascular dementia

      Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      Based on the information provided, Lewy body dementia is the most probable diagnosis. Unlike other forms of dementia, it is characterized by fluctuating cognitive abilities, particularly in attention and executive functioning. The patient may also experience sleep disturbances, visual hallucinations, and parkinsonism. To confirm the diagnosis, the patient will need to undergo cognitive testing, blood tests, and a CT head scan to rule out other conditions. SPECT imaging may also be considered if there is still uncertainty, as it is highly sensitive and specific for Lewy body dementia.

      Alzheimer’s disease is less likely as memory impairment is typically the first cognitive domain affected, and confusion is not as fluctuating. Visual hallucinations are also less common than in Lewy body dementia.

      Chronic subdural hematoma is unlikely as it typically presents with reduced consciousness or neurological deficits rather than cognitive deficits alone. Given the patient’s age and anticoagulation therapy, CT imaging should be performed to rule out any intracranial hemorrhage.

      Frontotemporal dementia is unlikely as it typically presents before the age of 65 with personality changes and social conduct problems, while memory and visuospatial skills are relatively preserved.

      Understanding Lewy Body Dementia

      Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized as a cause of cognitive impairment, accounting for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions, known as Lewy bodies, in certain areas of the brain. While there is a complicated relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia, with dementia often seen in Parkinson’s disease, the two conditions are distinct. Additionally, up to 40% of patients with Alzheimer’s disease have Lewy bodies.

      The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism, but both features usually occur within a year of each other. Unlike other forms of dementia, cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and sometimes delusions and non-visual hallucinations.

      Diagnosis of Lewy body dementia is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Management of Lewy body dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s disease. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to carefully consider the use of medication in these patients to avoid worsening their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.1
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  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old man presents to the General Practice with a 4-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the General Practice with a 4-week history of pain in his left hand and forearm. The pain is concentrated around the thumb and index finger and is worse at night. There is no history of trauma. Shaking his hand seems to provide some relief. The likely diagnosis conclusion is carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS).
      Which of the following would suggest an alternative diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wasting of the hypothenar eminence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Symptoms and Examination Findings

      Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a condition caused by compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. One of the symptoms of CTS is the wasting of the thenar eminence, which is innervated by the median nerve. It is important to note that the hypothenar eminence, which is innervated by the ulnar nerve, is not affected by CTS.

      During examination, weakness of thumb abduction (abductor pollicis brevis) is a common finding in CTS. Tapping along the problematic nerve causes paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist also causes symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Treatment for CTS may include a corticosteroid injection, wrist splints at night, and surgical decompression through flexor retinaculum division.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and examination findings of CTS can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.9
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  • Question 3 - An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found on the floor at home. He is disoriented and unable to provide a clear history. His relatives are yet to arrive. He has a GCS of 12. On examination you note crackles at the left base on auscultation, an ejection systolic murmur over the left sternal edge, and a soft, nontender abdomen. His right pupil is slightly dilated compared to the left and is sluggish to react to light. He has no obvious injuries.
      What is the most appropriate, immediate source of action to aid in diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CT brain

      Explanation:

      Immediate CT scan is necessary to evaluate for raised intracranial pressure and tentorial herniation in a patient with a sluggishly responsive unilaterally dilated pupil. This is the most pressing concern, given the patient’s reduced GCS. Although other investigations will be necessary, the CT brain is the most critical test, as the patient may require urgent neurosurgical intervention to save their life.

      Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. There are different types of traumatic brain injuries, including extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, and secondary brain injury can occur due to cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, or herniation. Management may include IV mannitol/frusemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      365.8
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of metastatic breast cancer experiences a grand...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of metastatic breast cancer experiences a grand mal seizure at home. She has been experiencing worsening headaches over the past few weeks. What is the most suitable initial management to be provided while awaiting brain imaging, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this female patient has cerebral metastases and the recommended initial treatment is administering high-dose dexamethasone to alleviate cerebral edema. Additionally, anti-epileptic medication like phenytoin may be prescribed to decrease the occurrence of seizures.

      Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.

      Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.

      On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      573.4
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  • Question 5 - A 62-year-old man is admitted to the Acute Medical Ward with lower back...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man is admitted to the Acute Medical Ward with lower back pain. He has a past medical history of prostate cancer and hypertension. His pain radiates down the left leg and he has reduced power in that leg. He also has a reduced anal tone. The lumbar spine X-ray shows no obvious fracture and there is no history of trauma.
      Given the likely diagnosis of metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC), he was referred urgently for oncological and neurosurgical assessment.
      Which medication is the patient most likely to be started on?

      Your Answer: High-dose dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression

      Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. Red flags for lower back pain include associated lower limb pain, limb weakness, paraesthesia/numbness, and reduced perianal tone. If these features are present, especially in a patient with an oncological past medical history, urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) should be performed to rule out spinal cord compression.

      Patients with MSCC should be referred urgently to the oncology and neurosurgical teams for immediate treatment and consideration of surgical intervention to relieve the compression. Management should include high-dose oral dexamethasone and urgent oncological assessment for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery. Diclofenac is not indicated in MSCC treatment, and high-dose prednisolone is not the corticosteroid of choice.

      Intravenous ceftriaxone is not effective in treating MSCC, as it is used to treat meningitis. Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy is also not indicated in MSCC treatment, as it is used to treat conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia, Kawasaki disease, and Guillain–Barré syndrome.

      In conclusion, early recognition and prompt treatment of MSCC are crucial to prevent permanent neurological damage. High-dose dexamethasone and urgent oncological assessment for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery are the recommended treatment options for MSCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      250.2
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old woman presents after a fall. She reports pain and weakness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents after a fall. She reports pain and weakness in her hands for several months, stiff legs and swallowing difficulties, and has bilateral wasting of the small muscles of her hands. Reflexes in the upper limbs are absent. Tongue fasciculations are present, and both legs show increased tone, pyramidal weakness and hyperreflexia with extensor plantars. Pain and temperature sensation is impaired in the upper limbs.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Motor neurone disease (MND)

      Correct Answer: Syringobulbia

      Explanation:

      Syringobulbia is a condition where a fluid-filled cyst/syrinx is present in the spinal cord, extending up to the medulla of the brainstem, causing cranial nerve palsies. It results in dissociated sensory loss and LMN signs at the level of the lesion, with UMN signs below the lesion. Cranial nerve involvement may include facial sensory loss, vertigo, nystagmus, facial, palatal, and laryngeal nerve palsy, and weakness, atrophy, and fasciculation of the tongue. This condition is different from cervical spondylosis, multiple sclerosis, and motor neuron disease, which have distinct clinical features. Syringomyelia is a similar condition, but it progresses slowly over years and affects the cervical area of the cord, leading to early loss of pain and temperature sensation, with preservation of light touch and proprioception. Syringobulbia is characterized by LMN lesions of cranial nerve XII, suggesting the lesion extends above the spinal cord and into the brainstem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.6
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  • Question 7 - A client is observed to have a missing triceps reflex. To which nerve...

    Correct

    • A client is observed to have a missing triceps reflex. To which nerve root does this correspond?

      Your Answer: C7-C8

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Reflexes

      Reflexes are automatic responses of the body to certain stimuli. These responses are controlled by the nervous system and do not require conscious thought. Common reflexes include the ankle reflex, knee reflex, biceps reflex, and triceps reflex. Each reflex is associated with a specific root in the spinal cord.

      The ankle reflex is associated with the S1-S2 root, which is located in the lower part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the Achilles tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the calf muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      The knee reflex is associated with the L3-L4 root, which is located in the middle part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the quadriceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      The biceps reflex is associated with the C5-C6 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the biceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the biceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      The triceps reflex is associated with the C7-C8 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the triceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the triceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      Understanding these common reflexes can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various neurological conditions. By testing these reflexes, they can determine if there is any damage or dysfunction in the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman presents with a two-month history of neck and right arm...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with a two-month history of neck and right arm pain, which is exacerbated by neck flexion. She has a medical history of knee osteoarthritis, obesity, and depression. Upon examination, there is no apparent muscle weakness or atrophy in the right arm, but there is some sensory loss in the middle finger and palm of the hand. Which nerve root is most likely to be affected by the impingement?

      Your Answer: C5

      Correct Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics

      Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed, along with helpful mnemonics to remember them.

      Starting from the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt. C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of the thumb and index finger together.

      Moving down to C7, it covers the middle finger and palm of the hand. C8 covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome covers the area of the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. T6 covers the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.

      The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, which can be remembered by thinking of L for ligament, 1 for 1nguinal. L4 covers the knee caps, and to remember this, think of being down on all fours. L5 covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), and can be remembered by thinking of it as the largest of the five toes. Finally, the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe, while S2 and S3 cover the genitalia.

      Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in remembering these important landmarks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.8
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a two-day history...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a two-day history of fever, headache, vomiting, and seizures. She has no significant medical history or allergies. Upon CT head examination, hypodensity of the left temporal lobe is identified, while a lumbar puncture reveals lymphocytes at 57 cells/µL (0-5 cells/µL), protein at 92 mg/100 mL (15-60 mg/100 mL), and glucose at 66 mg/100 mL (50-80 mg/100 mL). Serum blood glucose is normal. A brain MRI is subsequently performed, revealing prominent swelling and increased signal of the left temporal lobe and insular cortex. What is the urgent medication that must be initiated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Aciclovir

      Explanation:

      In cases of encephalitis caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV), urgent administration of IV aciclovir (which is effective against HSV) is necessary. Amantadine, which is used to manage influenza, is not appropriate. Cefotaxime, which is often used for suspected meningococcal disease, is also not appropriate. Fluconazole, an anti-fungal medication, is not appropriate as encephalitis is unlikely to be caused by a fungal infection.

      Encephalitis: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Encephalitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the brain. It presents with symptoms such as fever, headache, psychiatric symptoms, seizures, and vomiting. Focal features such as aphasia may also be present. Peripheral lesions like cold sores are not related to the presence of HSV encephalitis. HSV-1 is responsible for 95% of cases in adults, and it typically affects the temporal and inferior frontal lobes.

      To diagnose encephalitis, cerebrospinal fluid analysis is done, which shows lymphocytosis and elevated protein. PCR for HSV, VZV, and enteroviruses is also performed. Neuroimaging may reveal medial temporal and inferior frontal changes, such as petechial hemorrhages, but it is normal in one-third of patients. MRI is a better diagnostic tool. EEG may show lateralized periodic discharges at 2 Hz.

      The treatment for encephalitis involves intravenous aciclovir, which should be started in all cases of suspected encephalitis. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing complications and improving outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old man presents to the neurology clinic with primary generalised epilepsy and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the neurology clinic with primary generalised epilepsy and is currently taking sodium valproate. Despite being on a therapeutic dose, he is still experiencing seizures and has also noticed weight gain since starting the medication. He expresses a desire to discontinue the current drug and try an alternative. What would be the most suitable second-line treatment option?

      Your Answer: Tiagabine

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Before starting combination therapy, it is advisable to first try monotherapy with a different drug. When combining sodium valproate and lamotrigine, it is important to be cautious as it may lead to the development of severe skin rashes like Steven-Johnson’s syndrome.

      Treatment for Epilepsy

      Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The condition is characterized by recurrent seizures, which can be debilitating and life-threatening. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures and improve quality of life.

      According to NICE guidelines, AEDs should be started after the second epileptic seizure. However, if a patient has a neurological deficit, brain imaging shows a structural abnormality, the EEG shows unequivocal epileptic activity, or the patient or their family considers the risk of having a further seizure unacceptable, AEDs may be started after the first seizure. It is important to note that sodium valproate should not be used during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age unless clearly necessary due to the risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children.

      The choice of AEDs depends on the type of epilepsy. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, lamotrigine or levetiracetam are the first-line treatments, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed lamotrigine.

      In summary, treatment for epilepsy involves the use of AEDs to control seizures and improve quality of life. The choice of AEDs depends on the type of epilepsy, and sodium valproate should be used with caution in women of childbearing age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.4
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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of progressive slurred speech over...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of progressive slurred speech over the past few months. He is embarrassed because he frequently gives presentations for work and some people have joked that he sounds drunk. Upon examination, there is no droop or drooling in his head and face, but he struggles to articulate certain phrases and has difficulty swallowing. His tongue also appears to fasciculate when he sticks it out. In addition, there is mild weakness and hypotonia in his limbs, but his knees and ankles have slight hyperreflexia. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Motor neurone disease

      Explanation:

      The presence of fasciculations, along with upper and lower motor neurone signs, strongly suggests motor neuron disease as the underlying condition. The patient’s difficulty with speech and swallowing may be due to bulbar palsy, which is commonly associated with this disease. A stroke, which typically presents with sudden onset of symptoms, is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s progressive symptoms over weeks or months. While a cerebellar tumour may cause slurred speech, it would typically be accompanied by other symptoms such as ataxia, vertigo, and difficulty with basic movements. Multiple sclerosis is an uncommon diagnosis in late-middle-aged men and is an upper motor neurone disease, whereas this patient has a combination of upper and lower motor neurone signs. There is no evidence of tremor or bradykinesia in this case.

      Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Signs and Diagnosis

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is based on clinical features, including the presence of fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs, and the combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs. Wasting of the small hand muscles and tibialis anterior is also common.

      Other features that can help diagnose motor neuron disease include the absence of external ocular muscle involvement, the absence of cerebellar signs, and preserved abdominal reflexes. Sphincter dysfunction, if present, is usually a late feature. While vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.

      Nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy, while electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is usually performed to exclude other conditions such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy. Understanding the signs and diagnosis of motor neuron disease is crucial for early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.6
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  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old man presents to his GP with a three month history of...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his GP with a three month history of intermittent pain and numbness in his fourth and fifth fingers.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve entrapment

      Explanation:

      Common Hand and Wrist Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Ulnar Nerve Entrapment
      Ulnar neuropathy is a common condition where the ulnar nerve is compressed at or near the elbow. Patients experience numbness and tingling in the fifth finger and ulnar half of the fourth finger, along with weakness of grip and potential muscle wasting. In severe cases, a claw hand deformity may occur.

      De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis
      Also known as mother’s wrist, this condition is caused by tendinitis in the tendons of the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. Patients experience pain during thumb and wrist movement, along with tenderness and thickening at the radial styloid. Finkelstein’s test causes sharp pain at the first dorsal compartment, and a prominent radial styloid may be visible. There is no associated sensory loss.

      Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
      This condition occurs when the median nerve is compressed as it passes through the carpal tunnel at the wrist. Symptoms include numbness and tingling in the thumb and radial fingers, aching and pain in the anterior wrist and forearm, and potential weakness and clumsiness in the hand. Risk factors include female sex, pregnancy, hypothyroidism, connective tissue disease, obesity, trauma, dialysis, and repetitive stress.

      Dupuytren’s Contracture
      This progressive fibrous tissue contracture of the palmar fascia mainly affects men over 40 with a family history. Patients experience difficulty with manual dexterity, palmar nodules, and eventually flexion contractures in the fourth and fifth fingers. There is no sensory deficit. Risk factors include smoking, alcohol, heavy manual labor, trauma, and diabetes.

      Radial Nerve Palsy
      Radial nerve palsy results in wrist drop and loss of triceps reflex, along with potential sensory loss in the dorsal thumb and forearm. The radial nerve does not supply sensory innervation to the fourth and fifth fingers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.4
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  • Question 13 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after being hit on...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after being hit on the side of his head by a cricket ball during a match. According to his teacher, he initially fell to the ground and complained of a sore head. However, he got up after two minutes, claimed to feel fine, and resumed playing. Unfortunately, after 30 minutes, he suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. What kind of injury is he likely to have suffered?

      Your Answer: Subdural haematoma

      Correct Answer: Extradural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Extradural (epidural) hematoma – Head injury with a lucid interval

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. Intra-cranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.8
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  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old man presents with two episodes of painless, transient left monocular visual...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with two episodes of painless, transient left monocular visual loss lasting up to a minute; each episode was like a curtain descending from the upper visual field to affect the whole vision of his left eye. Neurological examination is normal. His blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), glucose and lipids are all within the normal ranges. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus rhythm. Computerised tomography (CT) of the brain is normal. Doppler ultrasound of the carotid arteries shows 50% stenosis of the left internal carotid artery.
      Which of the following is the treatment of choice?

      Your Answer: Right carotid artery endarterectomy

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis

      Transient visual loss can be caused by various factors, including retinal ischemia and emboli from atherosclerotic carotid arteries. In cases where Doppler ultrasound shows 40% stenosis of the internal carotid artery, surgery is not recommended. Instead, best medical treatment should be administered, including control of blood pressure, antiplatelet agents, cholesterol-lowering drugs, and lifestyle advice. Acute treatment with 300 mg aspirin is recommended, followed by high-dose treatment for two weeks before initiating long-term antithrombotic treatment.

      Prednisolone is used in the treatment of giant cell arteritis, which can also cause transient visual loss. Diagnosis requires three out of five criteria, including age over 50, new headache, temporal artery abnormality, elevated ESR, and abnormal artery biopsy.

      Carotid artery angioplasty may be considered as an alternative to carotid endarterectomy for revascularization in select cases. However, there are concerns regarding stent placement and the risk of stroke. Surgical management is only indicated for carotid artery stenosis over 50%.

      Anticoagulation treatment is not routinely used for the treatment of acute stroke. It may be considered for those in atrial fibrillation or at high risk of venous thromboembolism. For patients with a history of transient ischemic attack, high-dose aspirin is recommended for two weeks post-event, followed by long-term secondary prevention with aspirin and modified-release dipyridamole or clopidogrel.

      Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      7.9
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  • Question 15 - A 14-year-old boy presents with difficulty in walking and foot drop. There is...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with difficulty in walking and foot drop. There is weakness of dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot, with a small area of sensory loss over the dorsum of that foot.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve lesion

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve that provides motor and sensory innervation to the lateral and anterior compartments of the leg, as well as the dorsum of the foot. Damage to this nerve, often caused by fibular neck fracture, results in footdrop and sensory loss in the affected areas.

      The sciatic nerve, which originates from the lumbosacral plexus, innervates the posterior compartment of the thigh and indirectly innervates the posterior leg/calf muscles and some intrinsic muscles of the feet. It also provides sensory innervation to the posterolateral leg, lateral foot, and sole of the foot. Sciatica, a common condition that causes pain radiating down the leg, is often caused by irritation of the sciatic nerve root.

      The posterior tibial nerve, another branch of the sciatic nerve, supplies motor innervation to the posterior compartment of the leg and sensory innervation to the posterolateral leg, lateral foot, and sole of the foot. Damage to this nerve, often caused by compression or trauma, results in ankle and sole of foot paraesthesiae.

      The L5 root innervates muscles responsible for ankle and great toe dorsiflexion, hip abduction, and sensory innervation to the buttocks, posterolateral thigh, and lateral calf. L5 radiculopathy, which causes pain radiating from the lower back to the foot, is a common condition associated with damage to this root.

      The deep peroneal nerve, a branch of the common peroneal nerve, innervates the muscles responsible for foot dorsiflexion and provides sensory innervation to the area between the first and second toes. Damage to this nerve, often caused by conditions such as LMD or diabetes, results in footdrop with minimal sensory loss and preserved eversion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - A mother brings her 8-year-old son into surgery. He has been experiencing recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 8-year-old son into surgery. He has been experiencing recurrent headaches. What is the most common feature of migraine in children?

      Your Answer: Prolonged migraines (e.g. 24-48 hours)

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal disturbance

      Explanation:

      Children with migraine often experience nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.

      Diagnostic Criteria for Migraine

      Migraine is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours and having at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness may prompt further investigation or referral.

      In summary, the diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura include specific characteristics of the headache and associated symptoms, while migraine with aura is characterized by typical aura symptoms that may occur prior to the headache. It is important to accurately diagnose migraine to provide appropriate treatment and management for those who suffer from this debilitating condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - You and your consultant are examining a CT head of a middle-aged patient...

    Incorrect

    • You and your consultant are examining a CT head of a middle-aged patient who arrived at the emergency department with decreased consciousness following a fall and hitting the side of their head. Your consultant notes a crescent-shaped lesion on the right frontoparietal region. Which blood vessel is likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Anterior circulating artery

      Correct Answer: Bridging vein

      Explanation:

      The bleeding of damaged bridging veins between the cortex and venous sinuses is the cause of subdural haemorrhage. This condition is the most probable reason for the reduced consciousness in this case. A crescent-shaped lesion is typically seen on CT scans, and it occurs in the subdural space, crossing sutures. Unlike subdural haemorrhage, epidural haemorrhage is linked to the middle meningeal artery, while subarachnoid haemorrhages are associated with vessels of the circle of Willis, such as basilar and anterior circulating arteries.

      Understanding Subdural Haemorrhage

      A subdural haemorrhage is a condition where blood collects deep to the dural layer of the meninges. This collection of blood is not within the brain substance and is referred to as an ‘extra-axial’ or ‘extrinsic’ lesion. Subdural haematomas can be classified based on their age, which includes acute, subacute, and chronic. Although they occur within the same anatomical compartment, acute and chronic subdurals have significant differences in terms of their mechanisms, associated clinical features, and management.

      An acute subdural haematoma is a collection of fresh blood within the subdural space and is commonly caused by high-impact trauma. This type of haematoma is associated with high-impact injuries, and there is often other underlying brain injuries. Symptoms and presentation vary depending on the size of the compressive acute subdural haematoma and the associated injuries. CT imaging is the first-line investigation, and surgical options include monitoring of intracranial pressure and decompressive craniectomy.

      On the other hand, a chronic subdural haematoma is a collection of blood within the subdural space that has been present for weeks to months. Elderly and alcoholic patients are particularly at risk of subdural haematomas since they have brain atrophy and therefore fragile or taut bridging veins. Infants also have fragile bridging veins and can rupture in shaken baby syndrome. If the chronic subdural is an incidental finding or if it is small in size with no associated neurological deficit, it can be managed conservatively. However, if the patient is confused, has an associated neurological deficit, or has severe imaging findings, surgical decompression with burr holes is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman experiences a seizure while in the emergency department. The seizure...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman experiences a seizure while in the emergency department. The seizure began suddenly with an abrupt loss of consciousness and an initial period of stiff muscle contraction, followed by intermittent jerky movements. She has a history of epilepsy and takes carbamazepine, but has been noted to have poor adherence in the past. The seizure persists for more than five minutes despite a dose of IV lorazepam. What is the next best pharmacological approach?

      Your Answer: Intravenous lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Convulsive status epilepticus should be initially managed with IV lorazepam, with a repeat dose given 10 minutes later if the seizure persists or recurs. Buccal midazolam may be used if IV access is not available or if the seizure occurs outside of a hospital setting. It is important to note that a maximum of two doses of IV benzodiazepines should be administered during convulsive status epilepticus. Intravenous carbamazepine is not appropriate for acute seizure management, as it is primarily used for preventing tonic-clonic seizures. Intravenous phenytoin should not be given until two doses of benzodiazepines have been administered, and at this point, critical care and anesthesia should also be involved. Rectal diazepam is typically not used unless there is no IV access or the emergency occurs outside of a hospital setting.

      Status epilepticus is a medical emergency that occurs when a person experiences a single seizure lasting more than five minutes or two seizures within a five-minute period without returning to normal between them. It is crucial to terminate seizure activity as soon as possible to prevent irreversible brain damage. The first step in managing status epilepticus is to ensure the patient’s airway is clear and provide oxygen while checking their blood glucose levels. The first-line treatment is IV benzodiazepines, such as diazepam or lorazepam, with PR diazepam or buccal midazolam given in the prehospital setting. In the hospital, IV lorazepam is typically used and may be repeated once after 10-20 minutes. If the status epilepticus persists, a second-line agent such as phenytoin or phenobarbital infusion may be administered. If there is no response within 45 minutes, induction of general anesthesia is the best way to achieve rapid control of seizure activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old man has been admitted to the stroke ward due to experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has been admitted to the stroke ward due to experiencing dense right-sided weakness and facial droop. The stroke team has treated him for an acute stroke, and he has been making good progress with the help of the physiotherapy and occupational therapy team. Although the CT head did not reveal any abnormalities, the team has arranged for an MRI head and a Doppler ultrasound of the carotid arteries. The MRI head has shown a left-sided infarct, and the carotid doppler has revealed severe stenosis of the left carotid artery. What should be the next appropriate plan for the stroke team?

      Your Answer: Refer to the vascular surgeons for consideration of carotid artery endarterectomy

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled, carotid artery endarterectomy may be a viable option. Additionally, if the patient is making positive strides with physiotherapy and has significant carotid stenosis, they should be evaluated by the surgical team for potential endarterectomy. At this time, there is no need for involvement from the cardiology team as it is unclear what cardiac investigations have already been conducted. An MRI of the C-spine would not provide any additional information for the management plan, and there is no indication for repeat blood tests.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 68-year-old man who has recently had a stroke is here for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man who has recently had a stroke is here for a follow-up appointment. He explains that he was watching a game with his son when he suddenly lost feeling on the left side of his body. Emergency services were called and he was taken to the hospital where a CT scan confirmed a right-sided ischemic stroke. He has no other medical history. What antiplatelet medication should he be prescribed after the stroke?

      Your Answer: Aspirin 300mg for 3 months and then clopidogrel 75mg for 1 year

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg daily for 2 weeks then clopidogrel 75 mg daily lifelong

      Explanation:

      After a stroke, all patients should receive an antiplatelet medication, unless they require an anticoagulant. As per NICE guidelines, individuals with confirmed ischaemic stroke through brain imaging should be given 300 mg of aspirin daily for two weeks. Afterward, long-term treatment with 75 mg of clopidogrel is recommended, provided it is well-tolerated and not contraindicated. If clopidogrel is not suitable, modified-release dipyridamole with low-dose aspirin should be administered.

      Latest Guidance on Antiplatelets

      Antiplatelets are medications that prevent blood clots from forming by inhibiting platelet aggregation. The most recent guidelines recommend different antiplatelet regimens depending on the diagnosis. For acute coronary syndrome, aspirin and ticagrelor are recommended for 12 months, followed by lifelong aspirin and clopidogrel if aspirin is contraindicated. For percutaneous coronary intervention, lifelong aspirin and prasugrel or ticagrelor for 12 months are recommended, with lifelong clopidogrel if aspirin is contraindicated. For TIA and ischaemic stroke, lifelong clopidogrel is recommended as first-line treatment, with lifelong aspirin and dipyridamole as second-line treatment. For peripheral arterial disease, lifelong clopidogrel is recommended as first-line treatment, with lifelong aspirin as second-line treatment. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 40-year-old male visits his GP complaining of pain in his foot and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male visits his GP complaining of pain in his foot and lower limb that worsens at night. He reports that the pain alleviates when he dangles his leg over the bed's edge. Upon further inquiry, he mentions experiencing 'pins and needles' in his fingers, which feel cold. The patient has no medical history but is a heavy smoker, consuming 25 cigarettes per day. What is the probable diagnosis based on the given information?

      Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Correct Answer: Buerger's disease

      Explanation:

      Buerger’s disease (thromboangiitis obliterans) is the likely diagnosis for a young male smoker experiencing symptoms similar to limb ischaemia. This non-atherosclerotic vasculitis primarily affects medium-sized arteries and is most common in young male smokers. Symptoms include cold sensation or paraesthesia in the limbs or fingers, rest pain, and possible ulceration or gangrene. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis and peripheral vascular disease are important differentials to consider, but unlikely in this case. Sickle cell anaemia and vitamin B12 deficiency are also less likely explanations for the symptoms.

      Understanding Buerger’s Disease

      Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a type of vasculitis that affects the small and medium-sized blood vessels. This condition is strongly linked to smoking and can cause a range of symptoms, including extremity ischemia, intermittent claudication, ischaemic ulcers, superficial thrombophlebitis, and Raynaud’s phenomenon.

      Individuals with Buerger’s disease may experience reduced blood flow to their limbs, which can lead to pain, numbness, and tingling sensations. This can make it difficult to walk or perform other activities, and may even result in the development of ulcers or sores on the skin.

      Superficial thrombophlebitis, or inflammation of the veins close to the surface of the skin, is another common symptom of Buerger’s disease. This can cause redness, swelling, and tenderness in the affected area.

      Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is characterized by the narrowing of blood vessels in the fingers and toes, is also associated with Buerger’s disease. This can cause the affected areas to turn white or blue and feel cold and numb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old woman presents for follow-up regarding her frequent migraine attacks. Despite taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents for follow-up regarding her frequent migraine attacks. Despite taking a combination of paracetamol and ibuprofen, she has not experienced significant relief. Her current medications include as-needed paracetamol and ibuprofen, as well as Cerazette, a progestogen-only pill. What is the most suitable medication to consider for reducing the frequency of her migraines?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      For women of childbearing age who suffer from migraines, propranolol is a better option than topiramate. This is because NICE recommends both drugs for migraine prophylaxis, but the combined oral contraceptive pill cannot be used due to the patient’s migraine history. While zolmitriptan can be used to stop attacks, it is not effective for prophylaxis.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old woman presents after an episode of confusion. She had just finished...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents after an episode of confusion. She had just finished cooking dinner when she started to behave in a manner that worried her husband. When he questioned her about what was the matter, she appeared not to know where she was, what day it was or indeed who her husband was. She did, however, have knowledge of her own identity. Her husband mentioned that she also complained of feeling tired, so went to sleep and woke the next day feeling well and having returned to normal, but she was unable to recall exactly what had happened the previous day. She is a non-smoker. On examination there are no abnormalities.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient global amnesia (TGA)

      Explanation:

      Transient Global Amnesia: A Temporary Disorder of Memory

      Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a temporary and isolated disorder of memory that typically affects patients aged over 50. It is characterized by a sudden onset of anterograde amnesia, which can last for several hours. The patient retains remote memories and immediate recall, but has no memory of the event after recovery. TGA can be triggered by various factors, such as sexual intercourse, heavy exercise, and exposure to hot or cold water.

      To diagnose TGA, all of the following criteria must be met: the attack was witnessed and reported, there was obvious anterograde amnesia during the attack, there was no clouding of consciousness, there were no focal neurological signs or deficits during or after the attack, there were no features of epilepsy, the attack resolved within 24 hours, and the patient did not have any recent head injury or active epilepsy.

      Although there is a correlation between TGA and migraine, it is not associated with cerebrovascular disease. The condition usually resolves spontaneously, and there is a small risk of recurrence.

      Other conditions that can cause memory loss or confusion include subarachnoid hemorrhage, right caudate hemorrhage, cerebral venous thrombosis, and right hemisphere TIA. However, these conditions have different clinical presentations and require different diagnostic criteria.

      In conclusion, TGA is a benign condition that can cause temporary memory loss and confusion. It is important to recognize the characteristic features of TGA and differentiate it from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old man describes intermittent unilateral pain above and behind his left eye,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man describes intermittent unilateral pain above and behind his left eye, which has woken him from sleep every night for the previous 7 days. The pain is described as severe and stabbing, lasting about 30 minutes and making him restless and agitated. It is associated with tearing from his left eye and nasal stuffiness. When he looked in the mirror during attacks, he had noted his left eyelid drooping. He remembers he had experienced similar symptoms for about a month last year, but that they had resolved spontaneously and he had not sought medical attention. Physical examination is normal. He is a lifelong smoker.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Temporal arteritis

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Headache Disorders: Cluster Headache, Trigeminal Neuralgia, Migraine, Temporal Arteritis, and Paroxysmal Hemicrania

      Headache disorders can be challenging to diagnose due to overlapping symptoms. However, understanding the distinct characteristics of each disorder can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

      Cluster Headache: This disorder is more common in men and presents with intense pain localized around one eye, lasting from a few minutes up to 3 hours. It may be accompanied by lacrimation and nasal congestion and has a circadian pattern of occurring every day for a number of weeks, followed by a symptom-free period.

      Trigeminal Neuralgia: This disorder is characterized by recurrent unilateral brief electric shock-like pains, limited to the distribution of one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. Pain is triggered by innocuous stimuli such as hair brushing and lasts from a fraction of a second to 2 minutes.

      Migraine: This disorder typically lasts 4-72 hours and is associated with unilateral headache, nausea, vomiting, or photophobia/phonophobia. It may be preceded by an aura.

      Temporal Arteritis: This disorder occurs in patients over 50 years old and presents with abrupt-onset headache, scalp pain/tenderness, jaw claudication, visual disturbances, and constitutional symptoms.

      Paroxysmal Hemicrania: This disorder is related to cluster headache and presents with severe unilateral orbital pain, lacrimation, and nasal congestion. Episodes last only a few minutes and occur multiple times per day.

      It is important to note that each disorder has specific diagnostic criteria, and a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of headache every day for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of headache every day for the past three months. She describes that it is worse in the evening. There are no associated symptoms.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Brain tumour

      Correct Answer: Tension headache

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Headaches

      Headaches are a common ailment that can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some of the different types of headaches and their distinguishing characteristics:

      1. Tension headache: This type of headache is often described as a tight, band-like pain across the forehead and is more common in females. It typically worsens towards the end of the day but does not interfere with daily activities. Chronic tension headaches occur at least 15 days of the month for at least three months.

      2. Brain tumour: Headaches caused by space-occupying lesions tend to be worse in the morning and when bending forward. They may also be associated with vomiting.

      3. Cluster headache: This type of headache is more common in men and presents with intense pain localized around one eye, which can last for a few minutes up to three hours. There may also be simultaneous lacrimation and nasal congestion. Symptoms occur every day or multiple times every day for a number of weeks, followed by a symptom-free period lasting months or even years.

      4. Giant cell arteritis: This type of headache typically occurs in those aged over 50 years and is characterized by an abrupt onset and recurrent daily headache. Common symptoms include scalp pain/tenderness, jaw claudication, visual disturbances, fever, weight loss, and lethargy. A diagnosis of GCA requires three out of five specific criteria.

      5. Migraine: Migraines can occur daily but are typically accompanied by associated features such as nausea or vomiting, photophobia, or phonophobia. The International Headache Society criteria for migraine without aura include at least five attacks fulfilling specific criteria.

      Understanding the different types of headaches and their characteristics can help in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman complains of pressure-type headache and brief visual disturbance upon standing....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman complains of pressure-type headache and brief visual disturbance upon standing.
      What is the most indicative feature that supports the diagnosis of idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH)?

      Your Answer: Lateralised motor weakness

      Correct Answer: An enlarged blind spot and constriction of the visual field

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH)

      Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH) is a headache syndrome that is characterized by raised cerebrospinal fluid pressure in the absence of an intracranial mass lesion or ventricular dilatation. While IIH is associated with visual field defects, reduced visual acuity is not a common presenting feature. Instead, an enlarged blind spot and constriction of the visual field are the classic findings in a patient with papilloedema. Additionally, IIH does not typically present with motor weakness or a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).

      It is important to note that a past history of deep venous thrombosis or lateralized motor weakness would raise suspicions about the possibility of cranial venous thrombosis, which can also cause raised intracranial pressure and papilloedema. Reduced visual acuity, on the other hand, is more consistent with an optic nerve lesion such as optic neuritis.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms of IIH can help healthcare professionals differentiate it from other conditions and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A 60-year-old man had a left mastectomy three years ago for breast cancer....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man had a left mastectomy three years ago for breast cancer. He has now presented with a 4-month history of progressive ataxia and dysarthria. On examination, there is gaze-evoked nystagmus, dysarthria, upper limb ataxia and gait ataxia. Power, tone, reflexes and sensation are normal. Plantar response is flexor bilaterally. Computerised tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) microscopy are normal.
      Which one of the following is the most likely cause of his ataxia?

      Your Answer: Wernicke’s encephalopathy

      Correct Answer: Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with subacute cerebellar dysfunction and normal imaging

      Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome, multiple sclerosis, cerebellar metastasis, malignant meningitis, and Wernicke’s encephalopathy are among the possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with subacute onset of cerebellar signs and normal imaging.

      Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome is a rare immune-mediated complication of many cancers, which may be diagnosed before the underlying tumour. Symptoms develop rapidly and include dizziness, nausea, vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia, oscillopsia, dysarthria, tremor, dysphagia, and blurry vision. MRI may be normal, but CSF may show raised protein and anti-neuronal antibodies.

      Multiple sclerosis is more common in women and usually presents with transient episodes of visual change or limb weakness/paraesthesiae, as well as bladder and cerebellar dysfunction. MRI may visualise plaques of demyelination, and CSF shows oligoclonal bands.

      Cerebellar metastasis could occur in breast cancer, but it would be visualised on MRI.

      Malignant meningitis occurs when cancer spreads to the meninges and presents with confusion, headaches, and weakness. Imaging and CSF would be abnormal.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to thiamine deficiency, typically seen in alcoholics, and presents with acute confusional state, ophthalmoplegia, and gait ataxia. Dysarthria is not usually a feature. Thiamine deficiency is not suggested by this patient’s history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of generalised weakness that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of generalised weakness that has been ongoing for the past six months. During the examination, fasciculation and weakness are observed in both arms with absent reflexes. Additionally, increased tone and exaggerated reflexes are noted in the lower limbs. Sensation is normal and there are no cerebellar signs. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

      Explanation:

      If you experience fasciculations, it may be a sign of motor neuron disease, specifically amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, which is the most prevalent type.

      Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Signs and Diagnosis

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is based on clinical features, including the presence of fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs, and the combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs. Wasting of the small hand muscles and tibialis anterior is also common.

      Other features that can help diagnose motor neuron disease include the absence of external ocular muscle involvement, the absence of cerebellar signs, and preserved abdominal reflexes. Sphincter dysfunction, if present, is usually a late feature. While vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.

      Nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy, while electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is usually performed to exclude other conditions such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy. Understanding the signs and diagnosis of motor neuron disease is crucial for early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - Sophie is a 30-year-old female who presents with a 3 day history of...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 30-year-old female who presents with a 3 day history of muscle weakness and pins and needles in both her feet which has now started to spread up into her legs. She reports having a stomach bug 3 weeks ago.

      During examination, Sophie is apyrexial. There is reduced tone in both lower limbs with reduced knee jerk reflexes and altered sensation. However, upper limb neurological examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Posterior circulation ischaemic stroke

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Stephen’s symptoms of progressive peripheral polyneuropathy and hyporeflexia strongly suggest Guillain-Barre syndrome, likely triggered by a recent gastrointestinal infection. Myasthenia gravis, on the other hand, presents with muscle fatigue and ocular manifestations, but normal tone, sensation, and reflexes. Polymyositis causes proximal muscle weakness, while acute transverse myelitis presents with paralysis of both legs, sensory loss, and bladder/bowel dysfunction. However, Stephen’s lack of bladder/bowel dysfunction and back pain, as well as the history of gastrointestinal infection, make Guillain-Barre syndrome the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.

      Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.

      To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 67-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of experiencing electric shock-like pains...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of experiencing electric shock-like pains on the right side of her face for the past two months. She reports having 10-20 episodes per day, each lasting for 30-60 seconds. She recently had a dental check-up, which was normal. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities were found. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia.

      Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.

      Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.

      The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Neurology
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