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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of an increase in the frequency of her migraine attacks. She experiences episodes every 3 weeks, lasting approximately 24 hours, and finds that zolmitriptan only partially relieves her symptoms. As a result, she is taking time off from her job as a teacher and is worried about losing her employment. Her medical history includes asthma, and she is currently taking zolmitriptan and salbutamol. Additionally, she takes evening primrose oil over-the-counter to alleviate her menopause symptoms, which began 16 months ago. What medication would be the most appropriate for the GP to prescribe to decrease the frequency of her migraine attacks?
Your Answer: Propranolol
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:For the prophylactic management of migraines in a patient with a history of asthma, the recommended medication is topiramate. Propranolol is an alternative first-line option, but should be avoided in patients with asthma. Amitriptyline is a second-line drug for those who are not responsive to initial prophylactic treatment. Diclofenac is an NSAID used for acute management of migraines, while triptans like sumatriptan are used for acute treatment but not prophylaxis. It should be noted that topiramate is teratogenic and should be avoided in women of childbearing age.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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As the on-call duty doctor, you are in your room when a receptionist rushes in, alarmed that an elderly woman has been hit by a car in the surgery car park. The receptionist calls an ambulance while you quickly assess the patient. The patient's airway is clear, with spontaneous breathing at a rate of 18 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. The patient is hemodynamically stable with a heart rate of 70 beats per minute and blood pressure of 138/86 mmHg. The patient is lethargic, but responds to voice and exhibits abnormal flexion in response to pain. The patient mumbles incomprehensible sounds when asked questions. What is the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score based on your assessment?
Your Answer: 5
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:What is the patient’s GCS based on the assessment that he is drowsy, but his eyes open to voice and exhibits abnormal flexion to pain, and mutters incomprehensible sounds in response to questions?
GCS score is 7.Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 45-year-old teacher who was previously healthy was discovered unconscious on the ground. Upon admission, assessment showed weakness on the right side of their body, with their leg more affected than their arm and face, and significant difficulty with speech. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: An occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery (MCA)
Explanation:A blockage in the left middle cerebral artery (MCA) is a common cause of cerebral infarction. The symptoms experienced will depend on the extent of the infarct and which hemisphere of the brain is dominant. In right-handed individuals, over 95% have left-sided dominance. Symptoms may include weakness on the opposite side of the body, particularly in the face and arm, as well as sensory loss and homonymous hemianopia. If the left MCA is affected, the patient may experience expressive dysphasia in the anterior MCA territory (Broca’s area) if it is their dominant side, or neglect if it is their non-dominant side. A tumour in the left cerebral hemisphere or thalamus would have a more gradual onset of symptoms, while an occlusion of the right anterior cerebral artery would produce left-sided weakness. The region affected and presentation of each type of artery involvement is summarized in a table.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with sudden-onset visual disturbance. He denies any other symptoms. He is known to be a heavy smoker and hypertensive. On examination, he has a right incongruous homonymous hemianopia.
Where is the most likely site of the lesion?Your Answer: Left occipital lobe
Correct Answer: Left optic tract
Explanation:Understanding Visual Field Defects: A Guide to Lesion Locations and Symptoms
Visual field defects can provide important clues about the location and nature of neurological lesions. Here is a breakdown of the different types of visual field defects and their associated lesion locations:
– Retina/optic disc: Scotoma
– Optic nerve: Unilateral blindness (ipsilateral) or scotoma
– Lateral optic chiasm: Incomplete/contralateral hemianopia
– Central optic chiasm: Bitemporal hemianopia
– Optic tract: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia (incongruent)
– Temporal lobe/optic radiation: Contralateral superior quadrantanopia
– Parietal lobe/superior optic radiation: Contralateral inferior quadrantanopia
– Complete parieto-occipital interruption of optic radiation: Contralateral congruent homonymous hemianopia (may be macula sparing)It is important to note that incomplete lesions may produce asymmetrical/incongruent homonymous hemianopia, while complete lesions result in congruous homonymous hemianopia, relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD), and optic nerve atrophy. Other symptoms may also be present depending on the lesion location, such as language defects, neglect, and movement or color agnosia. By understanding the different visual field defects and their associated lesion locations, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old patient presents with sudden monocular visual loss on the left, associated with pain behind the eye and alteration of depth perception. Examination on the following day reveals a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) in the left eye.
Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
Your Answer: Temporal arteritis
Correct Answer: Optic neuritis
Explanation:Understanding Optic Neuritis: Symptoms, Causes, and Differential Diagnosis
Optic neuritis is a condition characterized by inflammation, degeneration, or demyelination of the optic nerve. It typically presents with sudden-onset unilateral visual loss, retro-orbital pain, and altered color vision, and is more common in women aged 20-40. Patients with optic neuritis have up to a 50% risk of developing multiple sclerosis (MS) after an episode.
There are three types of optic neuritis: papillitis or anterior optic neuritis, retrobulbar neuritis, and neuroretinitis. Papillitis affects the intraocular portion of the nerve and causes optic disc swelling, while retrobulbar neuritis does not involve the disc and is often associated with MS. Neuroretinitis affects the optic disc and adjacent temporal retina.
The most common cause of retrobulbar neuritis is MS, but it can also be caused by toxic exposure, vitamin deficiency (especially B12), ischaemia (diabetes, giant cell arteritis), or infection. Symptoms include variable loss of central vision, dull aching pain in the eye, and a central scotoma on examination.
Cerebral infarction is an unlikely diagnosis in a young patient without significant risk factors. Optic nerve glioma typically presents with gradual reduction in visual acuity, while migraine aura presents with positive visual phenomena and is associated with unilateral headache. Temporal arteritis, which causes sudden loss of vision associated with ischaemic optic neuropathy, is rare in people under 50 and is associated with polymyalgia rheumatica.
Diagnosis of temporal arteritis requires three of five criteria: >50 years at disease onset, new headache, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), temporal artery abnormality, and abnormal temporal artery biopsy. Understanding the symptoms, causes, and differential diagnosis of optic neuritis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman complains of experiencing multiple instances of sharp, shooting 'electric shock' like pain on the right side of her face over the last 8 months. These episodes usually occur while she is brushing her hair. What is the recommended treatment for this likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Typical symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia are present in this woman. The initial treatment recommended for this condition is carbamazepine, which should be initiated at a dosage of 100 mg twice daily and gradually increased until pain relief is achieved.
Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia
Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.
Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.
The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman is admitted with acute confusion caused by a urinary tract infection. Despite treatment with antibiotics, environmental changes, and reassurance, she continues to be agitated. You are contemplating prescribing haloperidol. What is one condition that may be significantly exacerbated by the use of haloperidol?
Your Answer: Essential tremor
Correct Answer: Parkinson's disease
Explanation:If possible, antipsychotics should be avoided as they can exacerbate Parkinson’s disease symptoms. Instead, a low dose of oral lorazepam may be considered as an alternative.
Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to hospital. It is more common in patients over the age of 65, those with a background of dementia, significant injury, frailty or multimorbidity, and those taking multiple medications. The condition is often triggered by a combination of factors, such as infection, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and underlying medical conditions.
The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but may include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep, and poor attention. Treatment involves identifying and addressing the underlying cause, modifying the patient’s environment, and using sedatives such as haloperidol or olanzapine. However, managing the condition can be challenging in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen Parkinsonian symptoms. In such cases, careful reduction of Parkinson medication may be helpful, and atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine and clozapine may be preferred for urgent treatment.
Overall, acute confusional state is a complex condition that requires careful management and individualized treatment. By addressing the underlying causes and providing appropriate sedation, healthcare professionals can help patients recover from this condition and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to right-sided limb weakness, facial droop, and slurred speech. A CT head scan shows a left-sided infarct but no haemorrhage. Her admission ECG reveals new atrial fibrillation (AF). Aspirin 300mg is given for the acute stroke, and she is recovering well on the ward. After two weeks, what medication should be initiated to lower the risk of future strokes?
Your Answer: Dipyridamole
Correct Answer: Warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor
Explanation:For patients with AF who have experienced a stroke or TIA, the recommended anticoagulant is warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor. Aspirin/dipyridamole should only be used if necessary for the treatment of other conditions, which is not the case in this scenario. Clopidogrel is typically prescribed for TIA patients without AF, but in this case, the patient had a stroke and would require long-term treatment with a different medication.
Managing Atrial Fibrillation Post-Stroke
Atrial fibrillation is a significant risk factor for ischaemic stroke, making it crucial to identify and treat the condition in patients who have suffered a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA). However, before starting any anticoagulation or antiplatelet therapy, it is important to rule out haemorrhage. For long-term stroke prevention, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor. The timing of when to start treatment depends on whether it is a TIA or stroke. In the case of a TIA, anticoagulation for AF should begin immediately after imaging has excluded haemorrhage. For acute stroke patients, anticoagulation therapy should be initiated after two weeks in the absence of haemorrhage. Antiplatelet therapy should be given during the intervening period. However, if imaging shows a very large cerebral infarction, the initiation of anticoagulation should be delayed.
Overall, managing atrial fibrillation post-stroke requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and imaging results. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent future strokes and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friends. Around 2 hours ago he was allegedly assaulted outside of a bar. He was repeatedly punched in the head and has sustained some bruising around his eyes. His friends report that he is 'concussed' and say that he is confused. On examination his GCS is 14 (M6 V4 E4) and he has trouble explaining where he is. There are no focal neurological features. There is no past medical history of note. Tonight he has drunk around four pints of lager. What is the most appropriate management with regards to a possible head injury?
Your Answer: Discharge, outpatient CT head within 72 hours
Correct Answer: CT head scan within 1 hour
Explanation:According to the latest NICE guidelines, a CT head scan is necessary for this patient as their GCS remains below 15 after 2 hours.
NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old male presents with a four-month history of gradual slurring of speech and trouble swallowing. The patient reports more difficulty with liquids than solids, frequently choking while drinking water. During the examination, the patient exhibits facial weakness and low-volume speech. Ocular examination shows no signs of ptosis or ophthalmoplegia. What is the probable cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Oesophageal carcinoma
Correct Answer: Motor neurone disease
Explanation:Motor neurone disease often presents with spared eye movements. This is particularly common in cases of bulbar-onset amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), where patients may struggle with swallowing liquids more than solids in the early stages. Other symptoms may include facial weakness, hypophonic speech, fasciculations, and reduced jaw jerk reflex (a lower motor neuron sign). In contrast, achalasia typically causes difficulty swallowing both liquids and solids due to a loss of normal peristalsis and failure of the lower sphincter to relax during swallowing. This condition does not typically involve fasciculation of the tongue. Oesophageal carcinoma may also cause difficulty swallowing, but patients usually report difficulty with solids before liquids and may experience constitutional symptoms such as weight loss.
Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Signs and Diagnosis
Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is based on clinical features, including the presence of fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs, and the combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs. Wasting of the small hand muscles and tibialis anterior is also common.
Other features that can help diagnose motor neuron disease include the absence of external ocular muscle involvement, the absence of cerebellar signs, and preserved abdominal reflexes. Sphincter dysfunction, if present, is usually a late feature. While vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.
Nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy, while electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is usually performed to exclude other conditions such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy. Understanding the signs and diagnosis of motor neuron disease is crucial for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is being evaluated after experiencing an ischemic stroke. He has a history of being unable to tolerate clopidogrel. What is the best treatment option to decrease his risk of having another stroke?
Your Answer: Aspirin lifelong
Correct Answer: Aspirin + dipyridamole lifelong
Explanation:Lifelong use of aspirin and dipyridamole. Age: 55.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Correct
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What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia? Choose one option from the list provided.
Your Answer: Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment
Explanation:Trigeminal Neuralgia: Diagnosis and Treatment
Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition characterized by sharp, shooting pain in the distribution of one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve. While the cause is unknown, it can be due to compression of the nerve as it exits the foramen. The pain is intermittent and often exacerbated by light touch, eating, talking, or exposure to the cold.
Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia, with an initial dose of 100 mg up to twice daily. The dosage can be increased in increments of 100-200 mg every 2 weeks until the pain is under control.
Contrary to popular belief, trigeminal neuralgia usually affects the face unilaterally, with only 3% of cases being bilateral. A CT scan of the head is not recommended for all patients with the diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia, but may be necessary if red flag symptoms are present.
It is important to note that patients with trigeminal neuralgia do not typically experience constant pain, as the pain is episodic in frequency. Tramadol is not the first-line treatment for trigeminal pain, carbamazepine is.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner with his daughter. She reports that her father’s behavior has changed over the past year. He used to be a very sociable and outgoing man but recently he has become withdrawn and uninterested in his hobbies. He has also become forgetful and has difficulty completing tasks that he used to do easily. The patient tells you that he does not think there is anything wrong with him and he is just getting older.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Parkinson’s disease
Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Dementia: A Brief Overview
Dementia is a broad term used to describe a decline in cognitive function that interferes with daily activities. However, there are different types of dementia, each with unique characteristics. Here are some key features to help differentiate between frontotemporal dementia, Alzheimer’s disease, Huntington’s disease, normal-pressure hydrocephalus (NPH), and Parkinson’s disease.
Frontotemporal Dementia
This type of dementia is rare and typically affects individuals between the ages of 55 and 65. Early personality and behavior changes are core symptoms, while memory impairment is not typical. Other key features include a gradual progression, decline in social conduct, emotional blunting, and loss of insight.Alzheimer’s Disease
Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, affecting individuals over the age of 65. Memory loss is a key early symptom, followed by agitation and obsessive behavior later in the disease course.Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a neurodegenerative condition that is often inherited. Symptoms include memory impairment, depression, clumsiness, mood swings, and difficulty concentrating. However, this patient’s symptoms are more consistent with early frontotemporal dementia.Normal-Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH)
NPH is a reversible cause of dementia characterized by gait abnormality, memory impairment, and incontinence. It may be mistaken for Parkinson’s disease, but symptoms will not improve with levodopa.Parkinson’s Disease
While dementia and hallucinations may develop during the course of Parkinson’s disease, it is primarily a movement disorder characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man is brought to the hospital after experiencing a generalized seizure. He complains of feeling ill with a fever and headache for the past 48 hours, and his mother notes that he has been unusually irritable lately. The patient has no prior medical history. During the examination, there is mild nuchal rigidity and hyperreflexia in the lower limbs. A CT scan of the head reveals bilateral hypodensities in the temporal lobes. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus encephalitis
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex encephalitis
Explanation:Consider herpes simplex encephalitis as the possible cause for the observed temporal lobe changes on the CT head.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Encephalitis
Herpes simplex encephalitis is a common topic in medical exams. This viral infection affects the temporal lobes of the brain, causing symptoms such as fever, headache, seizures, and vomiting. Focal features like aphasia may also be present. It is important to note that peripheral lesions, such as cold sores, are not related to the presence of HSV encephalitis.
HSV-1 is responsible for 95% of cases in adults and typically affects the temporal and inferior frontal lobes. Diagnosis is made through CSF analysis, PCR for HSV, and imaging studies like CT or MRI. EEG patterns may also show lateralized periodic discharges at 2 Hz.
Treatment involves intravenous aciclovir, and prompt initiation of treatment is crucial for a good prognosis. If treatment is started early, the mortality rate is around 10-20%. However, if left untreated, the mortality rate can approach 80%.
In summary, understanding the symptoms, pathophysiology, and treatment of herpes simplex encephalitis is important for medical professionals and students alike. Early recognition and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 70-year-old female presents with hypothenar eminence wasting and sensory loss in the little finger. What is the probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:The Ulnar Nerve: Overview, Branches, and Patterns of Damage
The ulnar nerve is a nerve that arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 spinal nerves. It provides motor innervation to several muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. It also provides sensory innervation to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects.
The ulnar nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm before entering the palm of the hand via the Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone. The nerve has several branches, including the muscular branch, palmar cutaneous branch, dorsal cutaneous branch, superficial branch, and deep branch. These branches supply various muscles and skin areas in the hand.
Damage to the ulnar nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow. When damaged at the wrist, it can result in a claw hand deformity, which involves hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals) and hypothenar muscles, as well as sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers. When damaged at the elbow, the same symptoms may occur, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to note that in distal lesions, the clawing may be more severe, which is known as the ulnar paradox.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 50-year-old female with multiple sclerosis reports experiencing tingling in her hands when she flexes her neck. What type of symptom is this?
Your Answer: Lhermitte's sign
Explanation:Lhermitte’s sign is a well-known symptom that suggests the presence of an underlying condition in the cervical cord’s dorsal column nuclei. This sign is also observed in cases of subacute combined degeneration of the cord and cervical stenosis.
Multiple Sclerosis: Common Features and Diagnostic Criteria
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a disease that can present with various non-specific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis of MS can be made based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion together with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.
MS can affect different parts of the body, leading to a range of symptoms. Visual symptoms are common, with optic neuritis being a frequent presenting feature. Other visual symptoms include optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon (worsening of vision following a rise in body temperature), and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome (paraesthesiae in limbs on neck flexion). Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms such as ataxia and tremor may also occur.
In addition to these symptoms, MS can also cause urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration. It is important to note that not all patients with MS will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity and frequency of symptoms can vary widely between individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 63-year-old man presents with a complaint of neck and arm pain that has been ongoing for four months. He describes the pain as similar to 'electric shocks' and notes that it worsens when he turns his head. There is no history of trauma or any other apparent cause. The patient is in good health and not taking any medications. During the examination, it is noted that he has reduced sensation on the back of his thumb and middle finger. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: C6 radiculopathy
Explanation:Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics
Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed with helpful mnemonics to remember them.
Starting from the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt. C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of the thumb and index finger together.
Moving down to C7, it covers the middle finger and palm of the hand. C8 covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome covers the area of the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. T6 covers the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.
The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, which can be remembered by thinking of L for ligament, 1 for 1nguinal. L4 covers the knee caps, and to remember this, think of being down on all fours. L5 covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), and can be remembered by thinking of it as the largest of the five toes. Finally, the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe, while S2 and S3 cover the genitalia.
Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in remembering these important landmarks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left-sided weakness, facial droop, and dysphasia that started 3 hours ago. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus, and asthma.
Upon examination, his pulse is regular at 88 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 15 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. His temperature is 37.4ºC, blood pressure is 215/120 mmHg, and blood sugar is 6.8mmol/L. Heart sounds are normal, lungs are clear, and abdomen is soft and nontender. Neurological examination reveals left hemianopia and 0/5 power in the left upper and lower limbs.
Before considering thrombolysis, what additional steps should be taken based on the patient's examination findings?Your Answer: Prescribe salbutamol nebulisers
Correct Answer: Prescribe labetalol
Explanation:Before considering thrombolysis for a patient, it is crucial to ensure that their blood pressure is well-controlled. If the patient’s blood pressure is above 200/120mmHg, thrombolysis cannot be performed. In such cases, medications like Labetalol are administered to rapidly lower the blood pressure. The other options mentioned are not suitable as the patient’s chest and BM examinations were normal. Additionally, statins do not play a role in the acute management of stroke.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 25-year-old man complains of recurring headaches. He experiences these headaches about 2-3 times per month. The headaches are severe and occur on the right side of his head. They are throbbing in nature and last for approximately 8-12 hours. During these episodes, he finds it difficult to continue working and prefers to rest in a dark room. Paracetamol has not been effective in relieving his symptoms. What medication should be prescribed to decrease the frequency of these headaches?
Your Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:For the acute treatment of migraine, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended. Prophylaxis options include topiramate or propranolol. In this case, the patient’s history is consistent with migraine and prophylaxis with propranolol or topiramate should be considered. Zolmitriptan is not indicated for prophylaxis, but rather for acute treatment of migraine.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman presents to the Stroke Clinic for review after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA). It is suspected that the patient’s TIA was caused by an issue with her carotid arteries.
A magnetic resonance angiogram (MRA) is requested followed by catheter angiography. The MRA shows a right internal carotid with narrowed eccentric lumen, surrounded by a crescent-shaped mural thrombus and thin annular enhancement. The catheter angiogram shows a ‘string sign’ in the right internal carotid.
What internal carotid abnormality is most likely the cause of this patient’s TIA?
Your Answer: Carotid-artery stenosis
Correct Answer: Carotid-artery dissection
Explanation:Cervico-cerebral arterial dissections (CADs) are a common cause of strokes in younger patients, accounting for almost 20% of strokes in those under 45 years old. The majority of cases involve the extracranial internal carotid artery, while extracranial vertebral dissections make up about 15% of cases. A high level of suspicion is necessary to diagnose CAD, and confirmation can be obtained through various imaging techniques such as Doppler ultrasonography, magnetic resonance imaging/magnetic resonance angiography (MRA), computed tomography angiography (CTA), or catheter angiography. CTA can reveal several characteristic features of CAD, including an abnormal vessel contour, enlargement of the dissected artery, an intimal flap, and a dissecting aneurysm. The traditional method of diagnosing arterial dissections is catheter angiography, which typically shows a long segment of narrowed lumen known as the string sign. Other conditions such as carotid-artery pseudoaneurysm, carotid-artery aneurysm, carotid-artery occlusion, and carotid-artery stenosis can also be identified through imaging techniques, but they are not evident in this particular angiogram.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman is referred to the general medical clinic with a history of about 10 attacks of pins and needles in her right arm and leg over a period of 4 weeks. Her GP is concerned that this patient will soon have a completed stroke despite already being on aspirin. Typical attacks lasted for about 5 min and there were no additional symptoms. On closer enquiry she said that the sensation started in her right foot and then, over a period of about 1 min, spread ‘like water running up my leg’ to involve her whole leg and arm. Each attack was identical. Her past medical history includes hypertension and diabetes, for which she already takes aspirin. There are no abnormalities on neurological examination, but her blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: TIAs affecting the right hemisphere
Correct Answer: Partial epileptic seizure affecting the right hemisphere
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Recurrent Neurological Symptoms
Recurrent neurological symptoms can be caused by a variety of conditions, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause. In the case of a patient experiencing march-like progression of symptoms affecting the left side of the body, several possibilities must be considered.
A partial epileptic seizure affecting the right hemisphere is a likely cause, as the positive sensory symptoms and stereotyped nature of the episodes are typical of epilepsy. The rapid progression of symptoms over seconds to a minute is also characteristic of seizure activity.
Transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs) affecting the right hemisphere are less likely, as the march-like progression of symptoms and positive sensory symptoms are not typical of a vascular cause. TIAs are more likely to present with loss of sensation rather than abnormal sensations.
Recurrent, deep, white-matter microhaemorrhages are a possibility due to the patient’s risk factors, but the stereotyped nature of the attacks and positive sensory symptoms make this diagnosis less likely. Microhaemorrhages would typically present with numbness affecting the entire left side at onset.
Migraine equivalent is a rare possibility, but the rapid progression of symptoms and frequency of episodes make this diagnosis unlikely. Migraine aura without headache typically spreads over 20-30 minutes and is more common in patients with a history of previous migraine.
Cerebral venous thrombosis is also unlikely, as the absence of headache makes this diagnosis less probable. CVT typically presents with headache and other neurological symptoms.
In conclusion, the positive sensory features, stereotyped nature, and march of symptoms suggest epilepsy as the most likely cause of the patient’s recurrent neurological symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 30-year-old woman who has been admitted under Section 2 of the Mental Health Act. She has a history of depression and was recently referred for a Mental Health Act assessment because her family were concerned about her. She has been talking about her insides rotting and believes that she is going to die in her sleep. She cannot be convinced otherwise. She is not eating, barely drinking and lacks energy, concentration and motivation. Just prior to the Assessment she used a biro pen to cut into her forearm to 'prove that there is nothing inside that will bleed', and this required reconstructive surgery.
She is admitted to a psychiatric hospital and is commenced on an SSRI and an antipsychotic. One week into her admission the nurses call you because she is scoring highly on the Early Warning Score.
On examination you find Sarah to be confused. She has a temperature of 39ºC and is sweating. Her heart rate is 130 beats/min and her blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. She complains of muscle stiffness but is not sure when this began. Cogwheel rigidity is present.
Urgent blood tests reveal the following:
Hb 155 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 18 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Creatine Kinase 2032 9/L (32-294)
Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 3.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 118 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Sepsis secondary to forearm wound
Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Explanation:Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a severe reaction that can occur in response to antipsychotic medication and can be life-threatening. The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with NMS, including muscle rigidity and elevated creatine kinase levels. Amphetamine intoxication is an unlikely cause as there is no history of drug use and the patient is under Section 2 of the MHA. Encephalitis and sepsis are important differential diagnoses to consider, but cogwheel rigidity would not be expected in encephalitis and sepsis would not typically cause muscle rigidity or elevated creatine kinase levels.
Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication. It can also happen with dopaminergic drugs used for Parkinson’s disease. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion.
A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases. Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. Intravenous fluids may be given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene or bromocriptine may be used in selected cases. It is important to differentiate neuroleptic malignant syndrome from serotonin syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by excessive serotonin activity.
In summary, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs. Early recognition and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with recent onset of left-sided weakness. She has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin, with an INR of 2.5 upon admission. A CT scan of her head reveals an intracerebral haemorrhage in the left basal ganglia. What steps should be taken regarding her warfarin medication?
Your Answer: Stop the warfarin, give 5mg of vitamin K intravenously and give fresh frozen plasma
Correct Answer: Stop the warfarin, give 5mg of vitamin K intravenously and give prothrombin complex concentrate intravenously
Explanation:In the event of major bleeding, such as an intracranial haemorrhage, it is crucial to discontinue warfarin and administer intravenous vitamin K 5mg and prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC). PCC is a solution that contains coagulation factors II, VII, IX and X, specifically designed to reverse the effects of warfarin. It is recommended over fresh frozen plasma (FFP) for warfarin reversal.
Management of High INR in Patients Taking Warfarin
When managing patients taking warfarin who have a high INR, the approach will depend on whether there is bleeding or not. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped immediately and intravenous vitamin K 5mg should be given along with prothrombin complex concentrate. If this is not available, fresh frozen plasma can be used instead. For minor bleeding, warfarin should also be stopped and intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg should be given. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, the dose of vitamin K can be repeated. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is below 5.0.
If there is no bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and vitamin K 1-5mg can be given orally using the intravenous preparation. The dose of vitamin K can be repeated if the INR remains high after 24 hours. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is below 5.0. In cases where the INR is between 5.0-8.0, warfarin should be stopped for minor bleeding and intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg should be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is below 5.0. For patients with no bleeding and an INR between 5.0-8.0, one or two doses of warfarin can be withheld and the subsequent maintenance dose can be reduced.
It is important to note that in cases of intracranial hemorrhage, prothrombin complex concentrate should be considered instead of fresh frozen plasma as it can take time to defrost. These guidelines are based on the recommendations of the British Committee for Standards in Haematology and the British National Formulary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Correct
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Which of the following side-effects is not acknowledged in individuals who are prescribed sodium valproate?
Your Answer: Induction P450 system
Explanation:The P450 system is inhibited by sodium valproate.
Sodium Valproate: Uses and Adverse Effects
Sodium valproate is a medication commonly used to manage epilepsy, particularly for generalised seizures. Its mechanism of action involves increasing the activity of GABA in the brain. However, the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy is strongly discouraged due to its teratogenic effects, which can lead to neural tube defects and neurodevelopmental delays in children. Women of childbearing age should only use this medication if it is absolutely necessary and under the guidance of a specialist neurological or psychiatric advisor.
Aside from its teratogenic effects, sodium valproate can also inhibit P450 enzymes, leading to gastrointestinal issues such as nausea, increased appetite, and weight gain. Other adverse effects include alopecia, ataxia, tremors, hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, hyponatremia, and hyperammonemic encephalopathy. In cases where hyperammonemic encephalopathy develops, L-carnitine may be used as a treatment option.
Overall, while sodium valproate can be an effective medication for managing epilepsy, its use should be carefully considered and monitored due to its potential adverse effects, particularly during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of various neurological symptoms that have persisted for the past few weeks. The doctor suspects that he may be experiencing idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH).
What is the primary symptom associated with IIH?Your Answer: Diplopia
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:Understanding the Clinical Features of Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH)
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is a condition that presents with non-specific complaints, making it difficult to diagnose. However, there are several clinical features that can help identify the condition. The most common symptom is a severe daily headache, often described as pulsatile, that may be associated with nausea and vomiting. Other symptoms include pulse-synchronous tinnitus, transient visual obscurations, visual loss, neck and back pain, diplopia, and photophobia. IIH can occur in any age group but is most commonly seen in women of childbearing age. Horizontal diplopia occurs in about 33% of patients with IIH, while hearing loss is a rare presentation. Tinnitus is described by two-thirds of patients, with pulse-synchronous tinnitus being a relatively specific symptom for elevated intracranial pressure. By understanding these clinical features, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage IIH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man who works as a teacher presents with a headache that feels like a tight band around his head and is most severe at the end of the day. He is interested in learning more about headaches and their treatments. He reports that he has tried paracetamol without relief and wonders if oxygen therapy could be an option, as one of his colleagues also uses it for their headaches.
What type of headache is oxygen therapy typically used to treat?Your Answer: Temporal arteritis
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster headaches cause severe pain around one eye and are often accompanied by tearing and redness of the eye. The duration of these headaches is typically between 15 minutes to 2 hours, and they can be treated with triptans and oxygen.
However, the man in question is experiencing a tension-type headache, which is not typically treated with oxygen. It would be beneficial to inquire about any stressors he may be experiencing and suggest alternative pain relief methods. Oxygen therapy is not typically used to treat migraines, post-coital headaches, or temporal arteritis.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain typically occurs once or twice a day, lasting between 15 minutes to 2 hours. The pain is intense and sharp, usually around one eye, and is accompanied by redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, and nasal stuffiness. Some patients may also experience miosis and ptosis.
To manage cluster headaches, 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan can be used for acute treatment, with response rates of 80% and 75% respectively within 15 minutes. Verapamil is the drug of choice for prophylaxis, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches, especially with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 54-year-old woman complains of facial asymmetry. She noticed that the right corner of her mouth was drooping while brushing her teeth this morning. She is in good health but experienced pain behind her right ear yesterday and reports dryness in her right eye. Upon examination, she exhibits complete paralysis of the facial nerve on the right side, from the forehead to the mouth. There are no abnormalities found during ear, nose, and throat examination or clinical examination of the peripheral nervous system. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bell's palsy
Explanation:The diagnosis of an ear infection is unlikely based on the patient’s symptoms and the results of their ear exam.
Understanding Bell’s Palsy
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.
If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of a severely painful headache mainly around his left eye, associated with left-sided eye watering. He has had several similar episodes of pain over the past few months, each lasting about 2–3 hours.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Brain tumour
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Distinguishing Cluster Headache from Other Headache Disorders
Cluster headache is a severe headache disorder that primarily affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. The pain is localized around one eye and can last from a few minutes up to three hours. Lacrimation and nasal congestion may occur simultaneously, and symptoms tend to occur frequently for several weeks followed by a symptom-free period lasting months or even years. It is important to distinguish cluster headache from other headache disorders, such as brain tumors, giant cell arteritis (GCA), migraine, and tension headache. Brain tumors may present with signs of raised intracranial pressure, while GCA typically affects those over 50 years old and presents with abrupt-onset headache, scalp pain/tenderness, and jaw claudication. Migraine is characterized by recurrent episodes of headache accompanied by photophobia, phonophobia, nausea, and vomiting, while tension headache is typically bilateral and described as a band-like pain across the forehead. Associated eye watering is not a feature of tension headache.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a headache that she describes as worsening over the past three weeks. She reports that the headache wakes her during the night, and is worse when she coughs.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Brain tumour
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a headache caused by increased pressure within the skull, which is often associated with a space-occupying lesion such as a brain tumor. This type of headache is typically worse in the morning and aggravated by bending forward, coughing, or sneezing. As the tumor grows, other symptoms such as vomiting, seizures, and neurological deficits may develop. Brain tumors can be primary or metastatic, with the most common types being astrocytoma, glioblastoma, oligodendroglioma, ependymoma, meningioma, and primary CNS lymphoma.
The patient’s history does not support a diagnosis of giant cell arteritis, which typically affects individuals over 50 years old and presents with an abrupt-onset headache, scalp tenderness, jaw pain, visual disturbances, and constitutional symptoms such as fever and weight loss. The diagnosis of GCA requires specific criteria, including age at onset, new headache, temporal artery abnormality, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and abnormal artery biopsy.
The patient’s symptoms are also not consistent with cluster headaches, which typically affect younger males and present with severe, unilateral pain around the eye, accompanied by lacrimation and nasal congestion. Cluster headaches have a circadian pattern and occur in episodes, followed by symptom-free periods.
Migraine is another type of headache that is not likely in this case, as the patient’s symptoms do not fit the typical pattern of unilateral, pulsating pain lasting 4-72 hours, accompanied by nausea/vomiting and photophobia.
Finally, subarachnoid hemorrhage is a medical emergency that presents with a sudden, severe headache, often described as the worst headache of one’s life, along with other symptoms such as vomiting, loss of consciousness, seizures, and neurological deficits. However, the patient’s headache has been progressing over weeks, which is not consistent with SAH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 25-year-old man is brought into the emergency department resus, after being involved in a road traffic collision, where he, a motorbike rider, collided with a car. As one of the doctors receiving the patient into resus, you are tasked with calculating the current Glasgow coma score (GCS) of the patient. The patient's eyes are open, but he seems disoriented and asks you if he's on a spaceship.
Your Answer: 13
Explanation:The patient’s GCS score is 13, with a breakdown of 4 out of 4 for eye opening, 4 out of 5 for verbal response (due to confusion), and 5 out of 6 for motor response (exhibiting localisation to pain). A helpful mnemonic to remember this breakdown is 654…MoVE.
Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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