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  • Question 1 - Which type of neurone has its cell body situated in the central nervous...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of neurone has its cell body situated in the central nervous system and is primarily responsible for connecting other neurones?

      Your Answer: An afferent neurone

      Correct Answer: An association neurone (inter-neurone)

      Explanation:

      Association Neurones and neuroglial Cells in the Central Nervous System

      Association neurones are present in the central nervous system and their primary function is to connect afferent neurones that bring information into the central nervous system to efferent neurones that carry information away from the central nervous system. Afferent neurones are responsible for transmitting sensory information from peripheral receptors to the central nervous system, while efferent neurones transmit motor information from the central nervous system to effectors such as muscles or glands.

      In addition to neurones, the nervous system also contains neuroglial cells. These non-neuronal cells provide support and nutrition to the nervous system. neuroglial cells are essential for the proper functioning of the nervous system and play a crucial role in maintaining the health of neurones.

      the role of association neurones and neuroglial cells is essential for comprehending the functioning of the central nervous system. These cells work together to ensure that the nervous system can receive and transmit information effectively. By studying these cells, researchers can gain insights into the mechanisms underlying various neurological disorders and develop new treatments to address them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
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  • Question 2 - A 16-year-old girl who recently returned from a trip to Italy visits her...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl who recently returned from a trip to Italy visits her doctor with complaints of a headache and sore throat. During the examination, the doctor observes swollen tonsils and cervical lymphadenopathy. The girl also has swollen axillary lymph nodes and a palpable mass in the left hypochondriac region upon abdominal examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Generalised lymphadenopathy can be caused by several conditions, including CMV and Infectious mononucleosis (IM), which are mentioned in the question. However, the presence of large swollen tonsils and a palpable mass in the left hypochondriac regions, which suggests splenomegaly, together with the patient’s history, highly suggests IM. Tonsillitis, viral throat infection, and dengue fever do not typically present with generalised lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophile antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

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      • Medicine
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  • Question 3 - An elderly woman, aged 76, visits her GP complaining of breathlessness and leg...

    Correct

    • An elderly woman, aged 76, visits her GP complaining of breathlessness and leg swelling. She has a medical history of heart failure (ejection fraction 33%), rheumatoid arthritis, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her current medications include 7.5mg bisoprolol once daily, 10 mg lisinopril once daily, 20 mg furosemide twice daily, 500 mg metformin three times daily, and 1g paracetamol four times daily. During the examination, the GP notes mild bibasal crackles, normal heart sounds, and bilateral pedal pitting oedema. The patient's vital signs are heart rate 72 beats per minute and regular, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations 94% on room air, blood pressure 124/68 mmHg, and temperature 36.2oC. The patient's blood test results from two weeks ago show Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Bicarbonate 23 mmol/L (22 - 29), Urea 6.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and Creatinine 114 ”mol/L (55 - 120). What would be the most appropriate medication to initiate?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      For individuals with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction who are still experiencing symptoms despite being on an ACE inhibitor (or ARB) and beta-blocker, it is recommended to add a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist such as Spironolactone. Prior to starting and increasing the dosage, it is important to monitor serum sodium, potassium, renal function, and blood pressure. Amiodarone is not a first-line treatment for heart failure and should only be prescribed after consulting with a cardiology specialist. Digoxin is recommended if heart failure worsens or becomes severe despite initial treatment, but it is important to note that a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist should be prescribed first. Ivabradine can be used in heart failure, but it should not be prescribed if the patient’s heart rate is below 75, and it is not a first-line treatment.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenzae and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

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      • Medicine
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  • Question 4 - A 78-year-old woman is admitted to a geriatric ward and is found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman is admitted to a geriatric ward and is found to have an unsafe swallow by the speech and language therapy team. As a result, the ward team is instructed to keep her nil by mouth. The doctor is asked to prescribe maintenance fluids for her. She weighs 60kg and is 157cm tall. Which of the following fluid regimes correctly replaces potassium for this patient?

      Your Answer: 60 mmol K+ per 12 hours

      Correct Answer: 30 mmol K+ per 12 hours

      Explanation:

      Fluid Therapy Guidelines for Junior Doctors

      Fluid therapy is a common task for junior doctors, and it is important to follow guidelines to ensure patients receive the appropriate amount of fluids. The 2013 NICE guidelines recommend 25-30 ml/kg/day of water, 1 mmol/kg/day of potassium, sodium, and chloride, and 50-100 g/day of glucose for maintenance fluids. For an 80 kg patient, this translates to 2 litres of water and 80 mmol potassium for a 24 hour period.

      However, the amount of fluid required may vary depending on the patient’s medical history. For example, a post-op patient with significant fluid losses will require more fluids, while a patient with heart failure should receive less to avoid pulmonary edema.

      When prescribing for routine maintenance alone, NICE recommends using 25-30 ml/kg/day of sodium chloride 0.18% in 4% glucose with 27 mmol/l potassium on day 1. It is important to note that the electrolyte concentrations of plasma and commonly used fluids vary, and large volumes of 0.9% saline can increase the risk of hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis. Hartmann’s solution contains potassium and should not be used in patients with hyperkalemia.

      In summary, following fluid therapy guidelines is crucial for junior doctors to ensure patients receive the appropriate amount of fluids based on their medical history and needs.

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      • Medicine
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  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with constipation, confusion, and fatigue....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with constipation, confusion, and fatigue. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and prostate cancer. His blood work shows a significantly elevated calcium level. What is the expected ECG result?

      Your Answer: Shortening of the QT interval

      Explanation:

      Patients with cancer have a high risk of developing hypercalcemia, which is linked to a shortened QT interval. The QT interval can also be prolonged due to electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypocalcemia, as well as hypothermia, myocardial ischemia, and congenital long QT syndrome. First-degree heart block is characterized by a fixed prolonged PR interval, while hyperkalemia is indicated by tall T waves that may be followed by flattened P waves, PR prolongation, and a sine-wave appearance. S1Q3T3, which refers to an S wave in lead I, a Q wave in lead III, and an inverted T wave in lead III, is a rare finding that is often associated with pulmonary embolism (PE), but it is not a reliable indicator of this condition.

      Hypercalcaemia: Symptoms and Signs

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. The symptoms and signs of hypercalcaemia can be remembered by the phrase ‘bones, stones, groans and psychic moans’. This means that patients with hypercalcaemia may experience bone pain, kidney stones, constipation, and changes in mood or behavior. In addition, corneal calcification and a shortened QT interval on an electrocardiogram (ECG) may also be present. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is another common feature of hypercalcaemia. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are present, as hypercalcaemia can lead to serious complications if left untreated.

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      • Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 34-year-old woman is seeking preconception advice from her GP as she plans...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman is seeking preconception advice from her GP as she plans to start trying for a baby. Despite feeling relatively well, she has several pre-existing medical conditions. She is classified as grade 2 obese and has type 2 diabetes (which is managed with metformin), hypertension (treated with ramipril), gastro-oesophageal reflux (using ranitidine), and allergic rhinitis (taking loratadine). Additionally, she experiences back pain and takes paracetamol on a daily basis.
      Which medication should she avoid during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women should avoid taking ACE inhibitors like ramipril as they can lead to fetal abnormalities and renal failure. These medications are believed to hinder the production of fetal urine, resulting in oligohydramnios, and increase the likelihood of cranial and cardiac defects. However, other drugs do not pose any known risks during pregnancy and can be continued if necessary.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with difficulty swallowing and blurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with difficulty swallowing and blurred vision. He is worried about his slurred speech which started the day before. He has no past medical history or current medications.

      Upon examination, the patient appears disheveled and has multiple track marks on both arms with surrounding redness. His vital signs are normal. Cranial nerve examination reveals bilateral ptosis, diplopia, impaired pupil accommodation, and impaired gag reflex. The patient's speech is also slurred. Upper limb examination shows hypotonia and 4/5 power bilaterally, while sensation is intact. Lower limb examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most likely causative organism for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Clostridium botulinum

      Explanation:

      There are various bacterial infections that can cause different diseases. For example, Salmonella can cause food poisoning, while Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of diarrhoea and can also be linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome. Additionally, Clostridium tetani infection can lead to tetanus.

      Understanding Botulism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Botulism is a rare but serious illness caused by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. This gram-positive anaerobic bacillus produces botulinum toxin, a neurotoxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine, leading to flaccid paralysis and other symptoms. There are seven serotypes of the bacterium, labeled A-G. Botulism can result from eating contaminated food, particularly tinned food, or from intravenous drug use.

      The neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum often affects bulbar muscles and the autonomic nervous system, leading to symptoms such as diplopia, ataxia, and bulbar palsy. However, patients are usually fully conscious and do not experience any sensory disturbance.

      Treatment for botulism involves administering botulism antitoxin and providing supportive care. It is important to note that the antitoxin is only effective if given early, as once the toxin has bound, its actions cannot be reversed. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening illness.

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      • Medicine
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  • Question 8 - A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of 'flutters in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of 'flutters in his chest' for the past 24 hours. He is aware of when his symptoms started and mentions having had 2 non-ST-elevation myocardial infarctions before. He has hypertension, which is controlled with perindopril monotherapy, and hypercholesterolaemia treated with atorvastatin. He has no other relevant medical history.

      During the examination, the patient is alert and oriented. His blood pressure is 135/90 mmHg, heart rate is 112 beats per minute, temperature is 37.3ÂșC, and respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute. An ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm. After discussing with the patient, a management plan is suggested.

      What is the most likely management plan to be initiated for this patient based on his presentation?

      Your Answer: Begin anticoagulation, discharge and return in 3 weeks for definitive management

      Correct Answer: Begin anticoagulation, undergo immediate direct current (DC) cardioversion

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with new-onset atrial fibrillation (AF), the management plan depends on the duration and recurrence of symptoms, as well as risk stratification. If symptoms have been present for less than 48 hours, electrical cardioversion is recommended, but anticoagulation should be started beforehand. Heparin is a good choice for rapid onset anticoagulation. However, if symptoms have been present for more than 48 hours, there is a higher risk of atrial thrombus, which may cause thromboembolic disease. In this case, a transoesophageal echocardiogram (TOE) should be obtained to exclude a thrombus before cardioversion, or anticoagulation should be started for 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. Amiodarone oral therapy is not adequate for cardioversion in acute AF. If cardioversion is not possible, a DOAC such as apixaban or rivaroxaban should be started. Discharge home is appropriate for patients with chronic AF or after cardioversion. While pharmacological cardioversion with intravenous amiodarone is an option, electrical cardioversion is preferred according to NICE guidelines, especially in patients with structural heart disease.

      Atrial Fibrillation and Cardioversion: Elective Procedure for Rhythm Control

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used in atrial fibrillation (AF) to restore the heart’s normal rhythm. There are two scenarios where cardioversion may be used: as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. In the elective scenario, cardioversion can be performed either electrically or pharmacologically. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.

      According to the 2014 NICE guidelines, rate or rhythm control should be offered if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and rate control should be started if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain. If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised and may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological means. However, if the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately.

      NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological. If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.

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      • Medicine
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old homeless woman is brought to the emergency department by paramedics after...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old homeless woman is brought to the emergency department by paramedics after being found unconscious. An ECG reveals a broad complex polymorphic tachycardia, which is suggestive of torsades de pointes. What could be a potential cause of this arrhythmia in the patient?

      Your Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Torsades de pointes can be caused by hypothermia. Other causes include hypocalcaemia, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesaemia, but not their hyper counterparts. There is no known link between hypoglycemia or hyperthyroidism and Torsades de Pointes.

      Torsades de Pointes: A Life-Threatening Condition

      Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which can cause sudden death. There are several causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like antiarrhythmics, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other causes include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      The management of torsades de pointes involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate. This can help to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further complications.

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      • Medicine
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  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with symptoms of chest pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with symptoms of chest pain, palpitations, shortness of breath and dizziness. She has a medical history of depression, poorly controlled COPD and allergies. Recently, she has been taking medications such as salbutamol, sertraline, erythromycin, gentamicin and promethazine.
      During the physical examination, her heart rate is 120 beats/min and her blood pressure is 83/50 mmHg. An ECG reveals ventricular tachycardia with prolonged QT intervals and rapid polymorphic QRS complexes.
      Based on this information, which medication is most likely responsible for her presentation?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Macrolides have the potential to cause torsades de pointes, a type of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that is linked to a prolonged QT interval. Symptoms of torsades de pointes may include chest pain, hypotension, palpitations, shortness of breath, syncope, and tachycardia. Erythromycin is the correct answer as it is a macrolide that can lead to a prolonged QT interval and increase the risk of torsades de pointes. Other potential side effects of erythromycin include acute cholestatic hepatitis, eosinophilia, and gastrointestinal upset. Gentamicin, on the other hand, is an aminoglycoside that is not associated with torsades de pointes but can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Promethazine is a first-generation antihistamine that can cause sedation and anticholinergic effects, but it is not linked to torsades de pointes. Similarly, salbutamol, a beta-2-agonist, can cause headaches, palpitations, and tremors, but it is not associated with torsades de pointes.

      Torsades de Pointes: A Life-Threatening Condition

      Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which can cause sudden death. There are several causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like antiarrhythmics, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other causes include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      The management of torsades de pointes involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate. This can help to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further complications.

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  • Question 11 - A 54-year-old man complains of fatigue, overall weakness, and weight loss for the...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man complains of fatigue, overall weakness, and weight loss for the past 3 months. He also reports experiencing pain in his second and third fingers for the last month and worsening erectile dysfunction. You suspect that he may have hereditary hemochromatosis and order blood tests. Which of the following results would support your suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ferritin - high; serum iron - high; total iron binding capacity - low; transferrin saturation - high

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis is identified by an iron study profile that shows elevated levels of transferrin saturation and ferritin, along with a low total iron-binding capacity. This condition is inherited and leads to an excessive buildup of iron in the body. To rule out other possibilities, any options that do not show increased levels of ferritin and transferrin saturation can be eliminated during initial screening. Transferrin is a protein that transports iron in the blood, and its levels rise during iron deficiency to maximize the use of available iron. Total iron-binding capacity reflects the number of iron-binding sites on transferrin, and its levels increase during iron deficiency and decrease during iron overload.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy with Perl’s stain. A typical iron study profile in a patient with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC.

      The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis. It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene.

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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old man from Ghana presents to the neurology outpatient department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man from Ghana presents to the neurology outpatient department with a one-month history of progressive weakness following a recent diarrheal illness. Upon examination, there is 4/5 power at hip flexion and knee extension, which improves to 5/5 after a brief period of exercise. Knee reflexes are absent, but facial muscles and cranial nerves are normal. Creatinine kinase levels are elevated at 420 U/L (40-320), and EMG testing shows an increment in muscle action potentials after exercise. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Correct Answer: Lambert-Eaton syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a possible diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms. It is a rare disorder that can affect both the upper and lower motor neurons, causing proximal muscle weakness. It can occur as a paraneoplastic syndrome in a small percentage of cases, but it can also be an idiopathic autoimmune disorder in younger patients. Unlike Guillain-BarrĂ© syndrome, the weakness in LES does not improve with exercise, and the EMG shows an increment in muscle action potentials after exercise. Inclusion body myositis is unlikely as it typically affects the finger flexors rather than the hip flexors and the weakness is distal rather than proximal. Myasthenia gravis is also a differential diagnosis, but the weakness in this disorder worsens with exercise, whereas in LES, it does not.

      Understanding Lambert-Eaton Syndrome

      Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a rare neuromuscular disorder that is often associated with small cell lung cancer, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. However, it can also occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. This condition is caused by an antibody that attacks the presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system.

      The symptoms of Lambert-Eaton syndrome include limb-girdle weakness, hyporeflexia, and autonomic symptoms such as dry mouth, impotence, and difficulty micturating. Unlike myasthenia gravis, ophthalmoplegia and ptosis are not commonly observed in this condition. Although repeated muscle contractions can lead to increased muscle strength, this is only seen in 50% of patients and muscle strength will eventually decrease following prolonged muscle use.

      To diagnose Lambert-Eaton syndrome, an incremental response to repetitive electrical stimulation is observed during an electromyography (EMG) test. Treatment options include addressing the underlying cancer, immunosuppression with prednisolone and/or azathioprine, and the use of 3,4-diaminopyridine, which blocks potassium channel efflux in the nerve terminal to increase the action potential duration. Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy and plasma exchange may also be beneficial.

      In summary, Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a rare neuromuscular disorder that can be associated with cancer or occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. It is characterized by limb-girdle weakness, hyporeflexia, and autonomic symptoms. Treatment options include addressing the underlying cancer, immunosuppression, and the use of 3,4-diaminopyridine, intravenous immunoglobulin therapy, and plasma exchange.

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  • Question 13 - A 90-year-old man is referred to the memory clinic for evaluation due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 90-year-old man is referred to the memory clinic for evaluation due to his family's concerns about his increasing forgetfulness in recent months. He scores 14/30 on the Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE). The consultant requests that you initiate treatment with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.
      Which of the following drugs would you prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      Donepezil is classified as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor and is considered a first-line treatment option for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia, along with galantamine and rivastigmine. Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is typically used as a second-line or adjunctive treatment for mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia, although it may be used as a first-line option for severe cases. Oxybutynin and tolterodine are anti-muscarinic medications that are commonly prescribed for urge incontinence, but immediate release oxybutynin should be avoided in frail older women, according to NICE guidelines. Finally, rotigotine is a dopamine agonist that is used to treat Parkinson’s disease and restless legs syndrome.

      Managing Alzheimer’s Disease: Non-Pharmacological and Pharmacological Approaches

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. To manage this condition, there are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches available.

      Non-pharmacological management involves offering a range of activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy is recommended for patients with mild to moderate dementia, while group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation are also options to consider.

      Pharmacological management involves the use of medications. The three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is considered a second-line treatment and is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.

      When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.

      It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. By utilizing both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches, patients with Alzheimer’s disease can receive comprehensive care and management.

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  • Question 14 - A 35 year old female patient visits her GP clinic complaining of recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female patient visits her GP clinic complaining of recent paresthesia in her left leg. She was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis 4 months ago by the neurology department. The paresthesia has been ongoing for 3 days and is accompanied by increased fatigue and urinary frequency/urgency symptoms. A urine dip test shows no abnormalities. What is the most suitable treatment to initiate in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methylprednisolone

      Explanation:

      In the case of this patient, it is probable that she is experiencing an acute relapse of her multiple sclerosis. A urine dip has been conducted to rule out a urinary tract infection, which could also cause a flare in her symptoms (known as Uhthoff’s phenomenon). As her symptoms are new and have persisted for more than 24 hours, it is likely that she requires treatment with methylprednisolone (either intravenous or oral) to manage the relapse.

      While Fingolimod, Natalizumab, and Beta-interferon are all disease modifying drugs that may reduce the frequency of relapses, they are not appropriate for treating acute relapses and should only be started in secondary care with proper drug counseling.

      Amantadine may be useful in managing fatigue, but it is recommended by NICE to only be trialed for fatigue once other potential causes have been ruled out. It is unlikely to be effective in treating the patient’s other symptoms.

      Multiple sclerosis is a condition that cannot be cured, but its treatment aims to reduce the frequency and duration of relapses. In the case of an acute relapse, high-dose steroids may be administered for five days to shorten its length. However, it is important to note that steroids do not affect the degree of recovery. Disease-modifying drugs are used to reduce the risk of relapse in patients with MS. These drugs are typically indicated for patients with relapsing-remitting disease or secondary progressive disease who have had two relapses in the past two years and are able to walk a certain distance unaided. Natalizumab, ocrelizumab, fingolimod, beta-interferon, and glatiramer acetate are some of the drugs used to reduce the risk of relapse in MS.

      Fatigue is a common problem in MS patients, and amantadine is recommended by NICE after excluding other potential causes such as anaemia, thyroid problems, or depression. Mindfulness training and CBT are other options for managing fatigue. Spasticity is another issue that can be addressed with first-line drugs such as baclofen and gabapentin, as well as physiotherapy. Cannabis and botox are currently being evaluated for their effectiveness in managing spasticity. Bladder dysfunction is also a common problem in MS patients, and anticholinergics may worsen symptoms in some patients. Ultrasound is recommended to assess bladder emptying, and intermittent self-catheterisation may be necessary if there is significant residual volume. Gabapentin is the first-line treatment for oscillopsia, which is a condition where visual fields appear to oscillate.

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  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset, pleuritic chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset, pleuritic chest pain that worsens on inspiration. She also experiences shortness of breath. She has no significant medical history or family history. Upon examination, she appears dyspnoeic, and a positive D-dimer test leads to a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism, confirmed by a subsequent CT pulmonary angiogram. There is no clear cause for the embolism. As a result, she is started on anticoagulation therapy. How long should this treatment continue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      The typical duration of treatment for unprovoked pulmonary embolisms is 6 months, with first-line treatment now being direct oral anticoagulants. Patients are usually reviewed after 3 months, and if no cause was found, treatment is continued for a further 3 months. 3 months would be appropriate for provoked embolisms, but as there was no clear cause in this case, 6 months is more appropriate. 4 months is not a standard duration of treatment, and 12 months is not usual either, although the doctor may decide to extend treatment after review. In some cases, lifelong anticoagulation may be recommended if an underlying prothrombotic condition is found, but for this patient, 6 months is appropriate.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.

      Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.

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  • Question 16 - A patient with uncontrolled asthma is initiated on montelukast. What is the mechanism...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with uncontrolled asthma is initiated on montelukast. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.

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  • Question 17 - A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with dyspnea. A chest x-ray...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with dyspnea. A chest x-ray is performed, and pleural fluid is aspirated for analysis. The pleural fluid results reveal:
      - Fluid Protein 58 g/L (normal range: 10-20g/L)
      - Fluid LDH 1048 IU/L (less than 50% of plasma concentration)
      - Fluid Glucose 1.2 mmol/L (normal range: 4-11 mmol/L)
      - Fluid pH 7.23 (normal range: 7.60-7.64)
      - Cell Cytology shows normal cytology with benign reactive changes

      His admission blood results are as follows:
      - Hb 145 g/L (normal range: 135-180)
      - Platelets 376 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - Total Protein 73 g/L (normal range: 60-83)
      - PT 11.2 s (normal range: 11-13.5)
      - LDH 145 IU/L (normal range: 135-225)
      - Glucose 5.8 mmol/L (normal range: 4-8)
      - pH 7.38 (normal range: 7.35-7.45)

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insert a chest drain and commence antibiotic therapy

      Explanation:

      Prompt drainage alongside antibiotic therapy is necessary for the management of an empyema. Therefore, the correct course of action is to insert a chest drain and commence antibiotic therapy. The diagnosis of empyema can be confirmed using Light’s criteria, which indicates an exudative effusion with a pleural fluid protein to serum protein ratio greater than 0.5 and/or a pleural fluid LDH to serum LDH ratio greater than 0.6. A pleural fluid pH <7.3 and a very low pleural glucose concentration (<1.6 mmol/L) are also indicative of empyema. The normal cell cytology makes malignancy unlikely. The patient's platelet and PT levels are appropriate for chest drain insertion, so there is no need to refer for investigation under the oncology team or to gastroenterology to investigate for liver cirrhosis. Starting IV antibiotics alone is insufficient for managing an empyema, as prompt drainage is necessary to give antibiotics the best chance of success. A chest drain is a tube that is inserted into the pleural cavity to allow air or liquid to move out of the cavity. It is used in cases of pleural effusion, pneumothorax, empyema, haemothorax, haemopneumothorax, chylothorax, and some cases of penetrating chest wall injury in ventilated patients. However, there are relative contraindications to chest drain insertion, such as an INR greater than 1.3, a platelet count less than 75, pulmonary bullae, and pleural adhesions. The patient should be positioned in a supine position or at a 45Âș angle, and the area should be anaesthetised using local anaesthetic injection. The drainage tube is then inserted using a Seldinger technique and secured with either a straight stitch or an adhesive dressing. Complications that may occur include failure of insertion, bleeding, infection, penetration of the lung, and re-expansion pulmonary oedema. The chest drain should be removed when there has been no output for > 24 hours and imaging shows resolution of the fluid collection or pneumothorax. Drains inserted in cases of penetrating chest injury should be reviewed by the specialist to confirm an appropriate time for removal.

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  • Question 18 - A 58-year-old male with a past of chronic alcohol abuse comes in with...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male with a past of chronic alcohol abuse comes in with a two-day history of worsening confusion. During the examination, he appears drowsy, has a temperature of 39°C, a pulse of 110 beats per minute, and a small amount of ascites. The CNS examination reveals a left-sided hemiparesis with an upward left plantar response. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebral abscess

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for a Man with Chronic Alcohol Abuse

      This man, who has a history of chronic alcohol abuse, is exhibiting symptoms of a fever and left-sided hemiparesis. The most probable diagnosis for this individual would be cerebral abscess. It is unlikely that a subdural hematoma or a simple cerebrovascular accident (CVA) would explain the fever, nor would they be associated with hemiparesis. Delirium tremens or encephalopathy would not be linked to the hemiparesis either. Therefore, cerebral abscess is the most likely diagnosis for this man with chronic alcohol abuse who is experiencing a fever and left-sided hemiparesis.

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  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old man visits a neurovascular clinic for a check-up. He had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits a neurovascular clinic for a check-up. He had a stroke caused by a lack of blood flow to the brain four weeks ago but has since made a remarkable recovery. However, the patient experienced severe abdominal discomfort and diarrhea when he switched from taking 300mg of aspirin daily to 75 mg of clopidogrel. Consequently, he stopped taking clopidogrel, and his symptoms have subsided.
      What would be the most suitable medication(s) to recommend for preventing a secondary stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg plus modified release dipyridamole

      Explanation:

      When clopidogrel cannot be used, the recommended treatment for secondary stroke prevention is a combination of aspirin 75 mg and modified-release dipyridamole. Studies have shown that this combination is more effective than taking either medication alone. Ticagrelor is not currently recommended for this purpose by NICE, and prasugrel is contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants like warfarin are generally not used for secondary stroke prevention, with antiplatelets being the preferred treatment.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

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  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of jaundice that has been present...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of jaundice that has been present for 2 days. He has a medical history of Crohn's disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient takes metformin, sitagliptin, infliximab, and bisoprolol regularly. He recently completed a course of clindamycin for a lower limb cellulitis and started taking glipizide for poor glycaemic control. The patient has unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia and recalls experiencing a similar episode of jaundice as a child after consuming fava beans. Which medication is the most likely cause of the patient's jaundice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glipizide

      Explanation:

      The drug that can trigger haemolysis in a patient with G6PD deficiency from the given options is glipizide. G6PD deficiency is commonly caused by the consumption of fava beans/broad beans and can lead to haemolysis. Various drug classes, including sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, and sulphonylureas, among others, are also associated with haemolysis in G6PD deficiency. Glipizide is a sulphonylurea and, therefore, the correct answer. Other examples of sulphonylureas include gliclazide and glimepiride. Bisoprolol, clindamycin, and infliximab are not associated with haemolysis in G6PD deficiency. Nitrofurantoin, sulfamethoxazole, and ciprofloxacin are antibiotics that can cause haemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency. Bisoprolol does not cause jaundice, and infliximab may rarely cause cholestasis, leading to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which is not associated with G6PD deficiency.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are thought to be safe.

      Comparing G6PD deficiency to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent, while hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent. G6PD deficiency is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, gallstones, and Heinz bodies on blood films, while hereditary spherocytosis is characterized by chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the possibility of hemolytic crisis precipitated by infection. The diagnostic test for G6PD deficiency is measuring enzyme activity, while the diagnostic test for hereditary spherocytosis is EMA binding.

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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old man has visited his doctor complaining of feeling unwell. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has visited his doctor complaining of feeling unwell. He has been experiencing flu-like symptoms, nausea, and joint pain for the past 3 weeks. Additionally, he has noticeable yellowing of the skin. The patient recently returned from a trip to Mallorca, a Spanish island, 6 weeks ago. Although he did not engage in unprotected sex, he frequently dined at local seafood restaurants. He has no medical history. Upon examination, the doctor noted an enlargement of the liver and spleen. What is the most likely cause of this patient's hepatosplenomegaly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes

      Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly, with a hard and irregular liver edge. Right heart failure can result in a firm, smooth, and tender liver edge, which may be pulsatile.

      Other causes of hepatomegaly include viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hepatomegaly to determine the appropriate treatment and management plan.

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  • Question 22 - You perform a home visit for an 80-year-old man diagnosed with terminal bronchial...

    Incorrect

    • You perform a home visit for an 80-year-old man diagnosed with terminal bronchial carcinoma. The patient has palliative care support in place, including anticipatory medications should he develop end-of-life symptoms. He is lucid and eating well, although unfortunately has developed shortness of breath and worsening pains from his metastases. The patient is a smoker and has a background of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and stage 4 chronic kidney disease.

      Which medication would be the most suitable to relieve his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxycodone

      Explanation:

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

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  • Question 23 - A young man with asthma presented to the ED complaining of shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A young man with asthma presented to the ED complaining of shortness of breath. He was unable to speak in complete sentences and his PEFR was 50% of predicted. His heart rate was 90/min and respiratory rate was 24/min. Despite using his regular inhaler, he did not experience any relief. The patient was given nebulised salbutamol, oral prednisolone and ipratropium bromide, and his acute treatment was discontinued 10 hours ago. Currently, his PEFR is 80% of predicted and he has been stable on discharge medication. The doctor's notes indicate that he demonstrated proper inhaler technique. What other criteria must he meet before being discharged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She needs to be stable on discharge medication for at least 12-24 hours before discharge

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.

      Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.

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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with vague abdominal pain, nausea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with vague abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of alcohol abuse and depression, and has been feeling particularly low following a recent breakup. He has not been eating much in the past few days.
      Observations: heart rate 94 beats per minute, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, temperature 37.2ÂșC, oxygen saturations 99% on air.
      Initial investigations are done including a capillary glucose, capillary ketones, arterial blood gas and electrocardiogram(ECG).
      ECG: sinus tachycardia
      Capillary glucose 4.8 mmol/L (4-7)
      Capillary ketones 3.5 mmol/L (0-0.6)
      pH 7.34 (7.35-7.45)
      pO2 13 kPa (10-14)
      pCO2 4.5 kPa (4.5-6)
      Lactate 1.7 mmol/L (0-2)
      What is the most appropriate management plan at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV saline 0.9% and thiamine

      Explanation:

      Alcoholic ketoacidosis is treated by administering saline and thiamine through an infusion. This condition is characterized by acidosis, elevated ketones, and normal or low blood glucose levels, and typically occurs in chronic alcoholics who have not eaten enough food. When the body becomes malnourished, it starts breaking down body fat, leading to the production of ketones and the development of ketoacidosis. The first steps in managing this condition involve rehydration with IV fluids like saline and administering thiamine to prevent the onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy. It is important to note that simply replacing glucose without also replacing thiamine can be dangerous, as glucose promotes metabolism and thiamine acts as a co-factor. In contrast, IV insulin fixed rate infusion is used to manage diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which is characterized by high glucose levels. However, diabetic patients taking a sodium-glucose transport protein 2 inhibitor are at risk of developing euglycemic DKA. While chlordiazepoxide can help prevent alcohol withdrawal, preventing Wernicke’s should be the primary focus of initial management.

      Alcoholic ketoacidosis is a type of ketoacidosis that occurs in individuals who consume large amounts of alcohol regularly. This condition is not related to diabetes and is characterized by normal blood sugar levels. Alcoholics often suffer from malnutrition due to their irregular eating habits and may vomit the food they consume, leading to starvation. When the body becomes malnourished, it starts breaking down body fat, which produces ketones and leads to ketoacidosis.

      The typical symptoms of alcoholic ketoacidosis include metabolic acidosis, elevated anion gap, elevated serum ketone levels, and normal or low glucose concentration. The most effective treatment for this condition is an infusion of saline and thiamine. Thiamine is essential to prevent the development of Wernicke encephalopathy or Korsakoff psychosis. Therefore, it is crucial to provide timely and appropriate treatment to individuals suffering from alcoholic ketoacidosis to prevent further complications.

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  • Question 25 - A 27-year-old construction worker comes to you with a puncture wound that got...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old construction worker comes to you with a puncture wound that got contaminated with rusted metal while working on a construction site. You want to know if he needs protection against tetanus and find out that he received 5 doses of tetanus vaccine in the past, with the last dose being 6 years ago. What is the recommended course of action for tetanus treatment in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No booster vaccine or immunoglobulin required

      Explanation:

      If the patient has received all 5 doses of tetanus vaccine and the last dose was administered less than 10 years ago, they do not need a booster vaccine or immunoglobulins, regardless of the severity of the wound.

      In case the last vaccine was administered more than 10 years ago, a booster vaccine would be required for a lower risk wound.

      For a high-risk wound or if the vaccination status is unknown, both a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin would be necessary.

      Currently, there is no need for two consecutive booster vaccines.

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

      Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.

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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old construction worker has had a fall from scaffolding at work and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old construction worker has had a fall from scaffolding at work and you suspect a midshaft humeral fracture. Which nerve would be most at risk in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extend the wrist

      Explanation:

      Fractures in the middle of the humerus bone often result in damage to the radial nerve. Therefore, it is important to test the function of the radial nerve. Among the options given, only extending the wrist can effectively test the radial nerve as it provides innervation to the extensor muscles. If the radial nerve is affected, it can cause wrist drop.
      While extending the elbow can also test the radial nerve, it may not provide as much information as wrist extension because the injury may be located proximal to the innervation of the triceps. This means that a more distal injury could be missed. Nonetheless, it is still likely to be performed as part of the testing process.
      Reference:
      Shao YC, Harwood P, Grotz MR, et al. (2005). Radial nerve palsy associated with fractures of the shaft of the humerus: a systematic review. J Bone Joint Surg Br; 87(12):1647-52.

      Anatomy and Function of the Radial Nerve

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It has both motor and sensory functions, innervating muscles in the arm and forearm, as well as providing sensation to the dorsal aspect of the hand.

      The nerve follows a path from the axilla, where it lies posterior to the axillary artery on subscapularis, latissimus dorsi, and teres major, to the arm, where it enters between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. It spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. Damage to the nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. In the forearm, the nerve innervates the supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, extensor indicis, extensor digiti minimi, extensor pollicis longus and brevis, and abductor pollicis longus. Paralysis of these muscles can result in weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Understanding the anatomy and function of the radial nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect its function.

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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old male presents to the acute medical unit with severe jaundice and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents to the acute medical unit with severe jaundice and gross ascites. He has a history of alcohol abuse and was diagnosed with liver cirrhosis two years ago. He has been admitted to the hospital multiple times due to confusion and altered consciousness caused by his cirrhosis. What medications should be evaluated for preventing the recurrence of the aforementioned complication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lactulose and rifaximin

      Explanation:

      Lactulose and rifaximin are the recommended medications for secondary prophylaxis of hepatic encephalopathy. This condition is characterized by confusion, altered consciousness, asterixis, and triphasic slow waves on EEG, and is caused by excess absorption of ammonia and glutamine from bacterial breakdown of proteins in the gut. Lactulose promotes the excretion of ammonia and increases its metabolism by gut bacteria, while rifaximin modulates the gut flora to decrease ammonia production. Spironolactone and furosemide are not used for hepatic encephalopathy, but rather for managing ascites and edema in patients with hypoalbuminemia due to cirrhosis. Propranolol is also not used for prophylaxis against hepatic encephalopathy, but rather to lower portal pressure and prevent variceal bleeding.

      Understanding Hepatic Encephalopathy

      Hepatic encephalopathy is a condition that can occur in individuals with liver disease, regardless of the cause. The exact cause of this condition is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the absorption of excess ammonia and glutamine from the breakdown of proteins by bacteria in the gut. While hepatic encephalopathy is commonly associated with acute liver failure, it can also be seen in chronic liver disease. In fact, many patients with liver cirrhosis may experience mild cognitive impairment before the more recognizable symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy appear. It is also worth noting that transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting (TIPSS) can trigger encephalopathy.

      The symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy can range from irritability and confusion to incoherence and coma. The condition can be graded based on the severity of the symptoms, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade IV being the most severe. There are several factors that can precipitate hepatic encephalopathy, including infection, gastrointestinal bleeding, constipation, and certain medications.

      The management of hepatic encephalopathy involves treating any underlying causes and using medications to alleviate symptoms. Lactulose is often the first-line treatment, as it promotes the excretion of ammonia and increases its metabolism by gut bacteria. Antibiotics such as rifaximin can also be used to modulate the gut flora and reduce ammonia production. In some cases, embolization of portosystemic shunts or liver transplantation may be necessary.

      Overall, hepatic encephalopathy is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options, healthcare providers can provide the best possible care for patients with this condition.

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  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old male presents to the nephrology unit with a complaint of recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents to the nephrology unit with a complaint of recurrent visible haematuria following upper respiratory tract infections. He denies any abdominal or loin pain. The urine dipstick is unremarkable, and blood tests reveal normal electrolyte levels and kidney function. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Understanding IgA Nephropathy

      IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by the deposition of IgA immune complexes in the mesangium, leading to mesangial hypercellularity and positive immunofluorescence for IgA and C3. The classic presentation is recurrent episodes of macroscopic hematuria in young males following an upper respiratory tract infection. Unlike post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy is not associated with low complement levels and typically does not present with nephrotic range proteinuria or renal failure.

      Management of IgA nephropathy depends on the severity of proteinuria and renal function. Isolated hematuria without or minimal proteinuria and normal GFR requires only follow-up to monitor renal function. Persistent proteinuria with normal or slightly reduced GFR can be treated with ACE inhibitors. If there is active disease or failure to respond to ACE inhibitors, immunosuppression with corticosteroids may be necessary. The prognosis of IgA nephropathy varies, with 25% of patients developing ESRF. Factors associated with a poor prognosis include male gender, proteinuria, hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidemia, and ACE genotype DD, while frank hematuria is a marker of good prognosis.

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  • Question 29 - A 42-year-old man presents with sudden onset perineal and testicular pain, accompanied by...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with sudden onset perineal and testicular pain, accompanied by redness and a rash. The pain is most severe over the rash site and he reports reduced sensation to the surrounding skin. His vital signs are heart rate 97 beats/min, respiratory rate 18 with 98% oxygen saturation in room air, temperature 36.9ÂșC, and blood pressure 122/93 mmHg. On examination, there is an erythematous rash over the perineum and testicles which has spread since he last checked 30 minutes ago. The cremasteric reflex is present and both testicles are of equal height. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and takes dapagliflozin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Necrotising fasciitis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that necrotising fasciitis is the most likely diagnosis, as they have a rapidly spreading rash and severe pain in the testicular and perineal area, reduced sensation, and comorbid diabetes mellitus and use of an SGLT-2 inhibitor. This is a surgical emergency that requires immediate debridement and IV antibiotics to prevent tissue loss, including the loss of testicles in this case.

      While Neisseria gonorrhoeae can cause a skin rash in disseminated infection, the absence of traditional symptoms such as dysuria or discharge makes it unlikely. Testicular torsion is also unlikely as the preservation of the cremaster reflex and equal height of both testicles suggest otherwise. Tinea corporis is an incorrect answer as it is rare for the fungus to affect the genitals and it would not cause sudden onset rash and severe pain.

      Understanding Necrotising Fasciitis

      Necrotising fasciitis is a serious medical emergency that can be difficult to identify in its early stages. It can be classified into two types based on the causative organism. Type 1 is the most common and is caused by mixed anaerobes and aerobes, often occurring post-surgery in diabetics. Type 2 is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. There are several risk factors associated with necrotising fasciitis, including recent trauma, burns, or soft tissue infections, diabetes mellitus, intravenous drug use, and immunosuppression. The most commonly affected site is the perineum, also known as Fournier’s gangrene.

      The features of necrotising fasciitis include an acute onset, pain, swelling, and erythema at the affected site. It often presents as rapidly worsening cellulitis with pain that is out of keeping with physical features. The infected tissue is extremely tender and may have hypoaesthesia to light touch. Late signs include skin necrosis and crepitus/gas gangrene. Fever and tachycardia may be absent or occur late in the presentation.

      Management of necrotising fasciitis requires urgent surgical referral for debridement and intravenous antibiotics. The prognosis for this condition is poor, with an average mortality rate of 20%. It is important to be aware of the risk factors and features of necrotising fasciitis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 30 - A 39-year-old man presents to the emergency department with multiple episodes of forceful...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man presents to the emergency department with multiple episodes of forceful retching resulting in the expulsion of approximately 3 tablespoons of blood. He reports consuming 24 units of alcohol daily for the past week due to job loss. Although his Glasgow coma score is 15, he complains of dizziness. His vital signs include a blood pressure of 105/68 mmHg, pulse rate of 105 bpm, oxygen saturations of 98%, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and fever.
      Currently, blood tests and results are pending. What is the most crucial step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Upper gastrointestinal tract endoscopy within 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Pyriform cortex

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