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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman presents with progressive weakness and fatigue. She experiences difficulty standing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with progressive weakness and fatigue. She experiences difficulty standing for prolonged periods and struggles to rise from a seated position. Upon examination, her hands appear excessively dry and cracked, with rough erythematous papules and plaques present on the extensor surfaces of her fingers. Additionally, there is reduced power in her hips and shoulders. The patient has a history of anxiety and frequently washes her hands due to fear of spreading germs during the COVID-19 pandemic. She has also been a heavy smoker for the past 30 years, consuming 40 cigarettes per day.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Offer skin emollients + high-potency corticosteroid

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to rheumatology

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is characterized by the presence of Gottron’s papules, which are roughened red papules primarily located over the knuckles.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      51.9
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  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman attends her 12 week booking appointment at the antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman attends her 12 week booking appointment at the antenatal clinic. She has no previous medical history and is pregnant for the first time. During the appointment, the midwife takes a blood sample to screen for HIV, rubella, and syphilis, and sends a midstream urine sample for culture to check for asymptomatic bacteriuria. What other infectious disease is routinely screened for during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Screening for Hepatitis C is not a standard practice during pregnancy, as per NICE guidelines, due to insufficient evidence of its clinical and cost-effectiveness. However, screening for Hepatitis B is conducted during the booking appointment to reduce the risk of mother-child transmission through post-natal interventions. While chlamydia screening is not routinely offered in antenatal care, individuals under 25 years of age are provided with information about their local National Chlamydia Screening Programme, given the higher prevalence of chlamydia in this age group. There is currently no regular screening programme for Group B streptococcus in the UK.

      Antenatal Screening Policy

      Antenatal screening is an important aspect of prenatal care that helps identify potential health risks for both the mother and the developing fetus. The National Screening Committee (NSC) has recommended a policy for antenatal screening that outlines the conditions for which all pregnant women should be offered screening and those for which screening should not be offered.

      The NSC recommends that all pregnant women should be offered screening for anaemia, bacteriuria, blood group, Rhesus status, and anti-red cell antibodies, Down’s syndrome, fetal anomalies, hepatitis B, HIV, neural tube defects, risk factors for pre-eclampsia, syphilis, and other conditions depending on the woman’s medical history.

      However, there are certain conditions for which screening should not be offered, such as gestational diabetes, gestational hypertension, and preterm labor. These conditions are typically managed through regular prenatal care and monitoring.

      It is important for pregnant women to discuss their screening options with their healthcare provider to ensure that they receive appropriate care and support throughout their pregnancy. By following the NSC’s recommended policy for antenatal screening, healthcare providers can help identify potential health risks early on and provide appropriate interventions to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.1
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  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain and nausea. He reports not...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain and nausea. He reports not having a bowel movement in 3 days, despite normal bowel habits prior to this. The patient has a history of coronary stents placed after a heart attack 10 years ago. He has been asymptomatic since then and takes aspirin for his cardiac condition and NSAIDs for knee arthritis. He has not consumed alcohol in the past 5 years due to a previous episode of acute gastritis.

      On examination, there is mild tenderness over the epigastrium but no guarding. Bowel sounds are normal. An erect CXR and abdominal X-ray are unremarkable. Blood gases and routine blood tests (FBC, U&E, LFTs) are normal, with a normal amylase. Upper GI endoscopy reveals gastric erosions.

      What is the most important differential diagnosis to consider for this patient?

      Your Answer: Duodenal ulcer

      Correct Answer: Myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Epigastric Pain and History of Cardiac Stents

      Introduction:
      A patient with a history of cardiac stents presents with epigastric pain. The following are possible diagnoses that should be considered.

      Myocardial Infarction:
      Due to the patient’s history of cardiac stents, ruling out a myocardial infarction (MI) is crucial. An electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed early to treat any existing cardiac condition without delay.

      Duodenal Ulcer:
      A duodenal ulcer would have likely been visualized on an oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD). However, a normal erect CXR and absence of peritonitis exclude a perforated duodenal ulcer.

      Acute Gastritis:
      Given the patient’s history of aspirin and NSAID use, as well as the gastric erosions visualized on endoscopy, acute gastritis is the most likely diagnosis. However, it is important to first exclude MI as a cause of the patient’s symptoms due to their history of MI and presentation of epigastric pain.

      Pancreatitis:
      Pancreatitis is unlikely, given the normal amylase. However, on occasion, this can be normal in cases depending on the timing of the blood test or whether the pancreas has had previous chronic inflammation.

      Ischaemic Bowel:
      Ischaemic bowel would present with more generalized abdominal pain and metabolic lactic acidosis on blood gas. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      62.4
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  • Question 4 - A 3-month-old girl is brought to the morning clinic by her father. Since...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old girl is brought to the morning clinic by her father. Since last night she has been taking reduced feeds and has been 'not her usual self'. On examination the baby appears well but has a temperature of 38.5ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      The latest NICE guidelines classify any infant under 3 months old with a temperature exceeding 38ºC as a ‘red’ feature, necessitating immediate referral to a paediatrician. While some seasoned GPs may opt not to adhere to this recommendation, it is crucial to stay informed about recent examination guidelines.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.

      The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old patient presents with an abdominal mass that is primarily located around...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient presents with an abdominal mass that is primarily located around the caecum and also involves the terminal ileum. There are no signs of weight loss or lymphadenopathy. The patient has a history of multiple oral ulcers and severe perianal disease, including fissures, fistulae, and previous abscesses that have required draining.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a condition that affects different parts of the digestive tract. The location of the disease can be classified as ileal, colonic, ileo-colonic, or upper gastrointestinal tract. In some cases, the disease can cause a solid, thickened mass around the caecum, which also involves the terminal ileum. This is known as ileo-colonic Crohn’s disease.

      While weight loss is a common symptom of Crohn’s disease, it is not always present. It is important to note that the range of areas affected by the disease makes it unlikely for it to be classified as anything other than ileo-colonic Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A client of yours has been diagnosed with Horner's syndrome. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A client of yours has been diagnosed with Horner's syndrome. What is the most probable symptom that will be observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Miosis + ptosis + enophthalmos

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 7 - A 58-year-old woman, with a history of fibromyalgia, presents to her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman, with a history of fibromyalgia, presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of a constant soreness in the pelvic and perineal area. She reports it is there most of the time, and she struggles to carry on with her daily activities and sleep. She is tearful and fatigued. She tried paracetamol and ibuprofen, but these have not worked. She denies any postmenopausal bleeding or vaginal discharge.
      Examination is unremarkable. She had a recent abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan for investigation of acute diverticulitis that revealed no abnormality in the uterus and ovaries.
      Which of the following is the next step in the patient’s management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Management of Unprovoked Vulvodynia: Medications, Referrals, and Other Modalities

      Unprovoked vulvodynia is a chronic pain syndrome characterized by chronic vulvovaginal pain lasting at least three months, without identifiable cause. The pain can be localized or generalized, has no triggers, and cannot be provoked by light touch on examination. In addition, there is associated dyspareunia. The intensity of the pain and the impact on the patient varies greatly between cases. The mainstay of first-line treatment is pain-modifying medication such as amitriptyline, an oral tricyclic antidepressant medication, which is also used in the management of depression, migraines, and chronic pain. However, if an adequate trial of amitriptyline fails to improve symptoms or if the side-effects are not tolerated by the patient, then gabapentin or pregabalin can be offered as second line. Other modalities that should be considered in the management of unprovoked vulvodynia include cognitive behavioural therapy, acupuncture, and pelvic floor exercise training. Severe unprovoked vulvodynia that persists despite the above measurements should be dealt with in secondary care by the pain team. Referral to the Gynaecology team is unnecessary unless there are concerning factors in the history or examination to point towards causes like carcinoma, sexually transmitted infections, or chronic inflammatory skin conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman presents with swelling and pain in several joints of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with swelling and pain in several joints of her right hand and left wrist. The affected joints are also stiff, erythematosus, and warm to touch. She denies any recent injury to the joints and is otherwise healthy. Upon joint aspirate, the sample appears turbid and yellow with a WBC count of 25,000/mm³ and 70% neutrophils. Viscosity is reduced and polarised light microscopy is unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      The joint aspirate in rheumatoid arthritis typically displays a high count of white blood cells, with a majority being neutrophils. The appearance is usually cloudy and yellow, and there are no crystals present.

      In contrast, gout would reveal needle-shaped urate crystals that are negatively birefringent under polarised light microscopy. Osteoarthritis would show fewer white blood cells and a lower proportion of neutrophils, with a clear appearance. It is more commonly found in larger weight-bearing joints. Pseudogout would display rhomboid-shaped crystals that are positively birefringent.

      Therefore, the correct answer is rheumatoid arthritis, which is characterised by an elevated white cell count, predominantly neutrophils, and a cloudy appearance.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentations

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The typical features of rheumatoid arthritis include swollen and painful joints in the hands and feet, with stiffness being worse in the morning. The condition gradually worsens over time, with larger joints becoming involved. The presentation of rheumatoid arthritis usually develops insidiously over a few months, and a positive ‘squeeze test’ may be observed, which causes discomfort on squeezing across the metacarpal or metatarsal joints.

      Late features of rheumatoid arthritis include Swan neck and boutonnière deformities, which are unlikely to be present in a recently diagnosed patient. However, other presentations of rheumatoid arthritis may include an acute onset with marked systemic disturbance or relapsing/remitting monoarthritis of different large joints, known as palindromic rheumatism. It is important to recognize the symptoms and presentations of rheumatoid arthritis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old yoga instructor presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old yoga instructor presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of feeling constantly fatigued. During the consultation, she also mentions experiencing widespread, non-specific itching. Upon examination, the GP observes generalised excoriation, but no other significant findings. Blood tests reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase level, leading to a suspicion of primary biliary cholangitis. What is the most specific symptom of primary biliary cholangitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

      Explanation:

      Autoantibodies and their association with autoimmune conditions

      Autoimmune conditions are characterized by the body’s immune system attacking its own tissues and organs. Autoantibodies, or antibodies that target the body’s own cells, are often present in these conditions and can be used as diagnostic markers. Here are some examples of autoantibodies and their association with specific autoimmune conditions:

      1. Anti-mitochondrial antibodies (type M2) are highly specific for primary biliary cholangitis, an autoimmune condition affecting the liver.

      2. Anti-smooth muscle antibodies are associated with type 1 autoimmune hepatitis, a condition in which the immune system attacks the liver.

      3. Anti-liver kidney microsomal antibodies are classically associated with type 2 autoimmune hepatitis, another condition affecting the liver.

      4. Anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a systemic autoimmune condition that can affect multiple organs.

      5. p-ANCA antibodies occur in several autoimmune conditions, including microscopic polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - The arterial blood gas results show a pH of 7.2, p(O2) of 16.3...

    Incorrect

    • The arterial blood gas results show a pH of 7.2, p(O2) of 16.3 kPa, p(CO2) of 3.9 kPa, HCO3– of 16 mmol/l, and SaO2 of 94% on high-flow oxygen. Based on these results, which clinical scenario is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bowel ischaemia

      Explanation:

      Bowel ischaemia leads to a metabolic acidosis, as evidenced by a low pH, low HCO3–, and low p(CO2). This is caused by the release of lactate due to the lack of blood flow to the bowel. Pneumonia may cause a type 1 respiratory failure with low p(O2) and normal or low p(CO2), but it is less likely to cause an acidosis without hypoxia. Cardiogenic shock may result in pulmonary oedema and hypoxia, but it is unlikely to cause an acidosis. Chronic furosemide ingestion can cause metabolic acidosis, but it is not a likely cause for this patient. Hyperventilation can lead to an elevated pH and low p(CO2) due to the loss of p(CO2) faster than the kidneys can compensate with HCO3– reduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 11 - A healthy toddler is playing outside but suddenly stops breathing. The toddler's heart...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy toddler is playing outside but suddenly stops breathing. The toddler's heart rate is over 100 bpm, but the skin colour is blue and the toddler is not moving. After calling for help and checking for a pulse, what is the most appropriate action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give five breaths of air via a face mask

      Explanation:

      Steps for Neonatal Resuscitation

      Neonatal resuscitation is a crucial process that can save a newborn’s life. Here are the steps to follow:

      1. Dry the baby and assess its tone, breathing, and heart rate. If the baby is not breathing or gasping, open the airway by placing the baby on its back with the head in a neutral position. Give five inflation breaths of air via a face mask.

      2. If the heart rate increases but the baby still cannot breathe, give breaths at a rate of 30-40 per minute until the baby can breathe independently.

      3. Cardiac massage should only be done if the chest is not moving or the heart rate drops below 60 bpm. In this case, commence cardiac massage at a rate of three compressions to one breath.

      4. Suction of the airways should only be done if there is an obvious airway obstruction that cannot be corrected by airway repositioning manoeuvres.

      5. While it is important to keep the baby warm, avoid wrapping it tightly in a towel as it can obstruct the resuscitation process.

      6. Intubation is not the first step in the resuscitation process. It is an option when resuscitation is failing and is the decision of a senior paediatrician.

      By following these steps, you can increase the chances of a successful neonatal resuscitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old woman in the delivery room experienced a primary postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman in the delivery room experienced a primary postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) 3 hours after delivery. Following adequate resuscitation, she was assessed and diagnosed with uterine atony as the underlying cause. Pharmacological treatment was initiated, but proved ineffective. What is the most suitable initial surgical intervention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrauterine balloon tamponade

      Explanation:

      The majority of cases of postpartum hemorrhage are caused by uterine atony, while trauma, retained placenta, and coagulopathy account for the rest. According to the 2009 RCOG guidelines, if pharmacological management fails to stop bleeding and uterine atony is the perceived cause, surgical intervention should be attempted promptly. Intrauterine balloon tamponade is the recommended first-line measure for most women, but other interventions may also be considered depending on the clinical situation and available expertise. These interventions include haemostatic brace suturing, bilateral ligation of uterine arteries, bilateral ligation of internal iliac (hypogastric) arteries, selective arterial embolization, and hysterectomy.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 13 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, crying...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, crying and holding her elbow. She had been playing on the monkey bars when she fell and landed on her outstretched arm. On examination, she is holding her elbow in slight flexion and the forearm is pronated. There is no obvious deformity or swelling over the elbow, but there is localised pain and tenderness on the lateral aspect. Radiographs are normal and there are no obvious fractures.
      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perform a closed reduction of a suspected radial head subluxation

      Explanation:

      Closed Reduction of Radial Head Subluxation in Children: Procedure and Management

      Subluxation of the radial head, commonly known as nursemaid’s elbow, is a common injury in children aged 2 to 5 years. It occurs when longitudinal traction is applied to an extended arm, causing subluxation of the radial head and interposition of the annular ligament into the radiocapitellar joint. The child typically presents with pain and tenderness on the lateral aspect of the elbow, holding the elbow in slight flexion and forearm pronation. Radiographs are usually negative, and the treatment of choice is a closed reduction of radial head subluxation.

      The closed reduction procedure involves manually supinating the forearm and flexing the elbow past 90 degrees of flexion while holding the arm supinated. The doctor then applies pressure over the radial head with their thumb while maximally flexing the elbow. A palpable click is often heard on successful reduction. Another technique that can be attempted is hyperpronation of the forearm while in the flexed position.

      It is important to reassure parents that there is no fracture and only simple analgesia and rest are required. Splinting and immobilisation are not necessary, and the child may immediately use the arm after reduction of the subluxation. There is no role for a bone scan or elbow arthroscopy in diagnosing or managing subluxation of the radial head.

      In conclusion, closed reduction of radial head subluxation is a simple and effective procedure that can be performed in the clinic setting. With proper management and follow-up, children can quickly return to their normal activities without any long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old man presents to a psychiatrist after his wife demands he sees...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to a psychiatrist after his wife demands he sees someone to manage his ‘endless nagging’. He has no interest in being here. He reports that his wife is always frustrating him because she simply will not do things the right way. He cites frequent eruptions over how to load the dishwasher properly and how his wife continues to load it improperly. When asked what happens if she loads it her way, the patient describes feeling frustrated that it is not loaded the right way and expressing his frustration to his wife. When asked what he hopes to get out of this visit, the patient wants to learn if there are better ways of effectively communicating the right way to do things.

      Which of the following is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s behavior of being fixated on the right way to load a dishwasher could be indicative of either obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) or obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). The key difference between the two is whether or not the individual experiences distress over their obsession. In this case, the patient does not seem to experience any distress and instead wants to control how his wife loads the dishwasher. This suggests OCPD rather than OCD. Histrionic personality disorder, antisocial personality disorder, and narcissistic personality disorder are not as applicable to this situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - What is the primary function of mitochondrial cytochromes in the process of electron...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary function of mitochondrial cytochromes in the process of electron transport?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Electron acceptors and donors

      Explanation:

      The Role of Cytochromes in ATP Production and Drug Metabolism

      Cytochromes are metalloproteins that contain haem and play a crucial role in the electron transport chain, which is part of oxidative phosphorylation. They act within enzyme complexes to accept and donate electrons, establishing a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane. This gradient, known as the proton motive force (PMF), drives ATP synthesis catalysed by ATP synthase. Cytochromes are necessary for ATP production, but they do not directly catalyse the reaction.

      The cytochrome P450 family, also known as the CYP family, is a group of enzymes involved in the metabolism of various drugs. Their name comes from their peak spectrophotometric absorption wavelength, which is 450 nm. However, the cytochromes of the electron transport chain do not perform this role.

      Cytochromes contain iron as part of a haem ring, and their capacity to act as electron acceptors and donors comes from the oxidoreduction between Fe2+ and Fe3+. Although they do store iron, this is not a major role. Overall, cytochromes play a crucial role in ATP production and drug metabolism, making them important for various biological processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 16 - A 51-year-old man is admitted with an ischaemic left leg which is unviable...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man is admitted with an ischaemic left leg which is unviable and requires amputation. He becomes increasingly unwell while awaiting surgery, including experiencing episodes of difficulty breathing. An arterial blood gas (ABG) was taken.
      pH 7.23, pO2 12.4, PCO2 ?, HCO3− ?, lactate 10.3 mmol/l.
      What are the most likely PCO2 and HCO3−?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PCO2 2.5 + HCO3− 17.5

      Explanation:

      Interpreting ABG Results: Understanding Metabolic Acidosis

      Metabolic acidosis is a common condition that can be identified through arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis. When interpreting ABG results, two key factors should be considered: the anion gap and the degree of respiratory compensation.

      An abnormal anion gap (>12 mmol/l) suggests an exogenous source of acid, such as lactate, which can be caused by conditions like ischemia or drug overdose. The anion gap can be calculated using the formula (Na+ + K+) − (HCO3− + Cl−).

      Respiratory compensation occurs quickly in response to metabolic acidosis, with the body attempting to get rid of CO2 through hyperventilation. However, complete compensation is rare and usually only partial.

      When analyzing ABG results, it is important to note the levels of PCO2 and HCO3−. In cases of metabolic acidosis, HCO3− will be below normal limits, while PCO2 may be low due to respiratory compensation. A combination of PCO2 2.5 + HCO3− 17.5, for example, indicates profound metabolic acidosis with an exogenous source of acid (lactate) and respiratory compensation.

      It is also important to note that a normal HCO3− level does not fit with metabolic acidosis. In cases where HCO3− is above normal limits, it suggests metabolic alkalosis instead.

      Understanding ABG results is crucial for diagnosing and treating metabolic acidosis, as well as other respiratory and metabolic conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 17 - The parents of an 8-year-old child are worried about his recent bed wetting,...

    Incorrect

    • The parents of an 8-year-old child are worried about his recent bed wetting, as he has been consistently dry at night for the past two years. What steps should be taken for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Investigate for secondary causes

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Bed Wetting in Children

      Bed wetting is not normal for children who have been dry for a significant period of time. It is important to rule out other possible causes such as psychological effects, urinary tract infections, and diabetes. Psychological effects are the most common cause of bed wetting in children. This may be due to stress, anxiety, or other emotional issues. Urinary tract infections can also cause bed wetting as they can irritate the bladder and cause the child to feel the need to urinate frequently. Diabetes can also be a cause of bed wetting as it can affect the body’s ability to regulate urine production. It is important to consult a healthcare professional if bed wetting persists in order to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Practice
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  • Question 18 - What condition is non-alcoholic steatohepatitis linked to? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition is non-alcoholic steatohepatitis linked to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insulin resistance

      Explanation:

      Non-Alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH)

      Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a liver condition that is linked to insulin resistance, hyperlipidaemia, and chronic moderately elevated liver enzymes. Unlike alcoholic liver disease, NASH is not caused by excessive alcohol consumption. Instead, it is associated with metabolic disorders such as obesity, type 2 diabetes, and high blood pressure.

      Diagnosing NASH requires a liver biopsy, which is the only way to confirm the presence of lesions that are suggestive of ethanol intake in a patient who consumes less than 40 g of alcohol per week. It is important to note that NASH is not a benign condition and can lead to serious complications such as cryptogenic cirrhosis, which is a type of liver disease that can be fatal.

      To prevent NASH, it is important to maintain a healthy lifestyle by eating a balanced diet, exercising regularly, and avoiding excessive alcohol consumption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - A 73-year-old man visits the optician after hearing that individuals over 70 can...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man visits the optician after hearing that individuals over 70 can receive a complimentary eye exam. He has been wearing glasses for his entire adult life due to being long-sighted. His doctor recently informed him that he has pre-diabetes, but he feels fine and hasn't noticed any issues with his vision. During the eye exam, the optometrist discovers that he has high intraocular pressure and advises him to see a specialist for further testing.
      What symptom is he most likely to encounter based on the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced peripheral vision

      Explanation:

      The patient’s optic nerve fibers may have suffered irreversible damage, putting her at increased risk of developing glaucoma due to her age, pre-diabetes, and raised intraocular pressure. The optometrist detected this pressure, which is caused by impaired drainage of aqueous fluid within the eye. However, the patient is asymptomatic and therefore unlikely to have closed-angle glaucoma, which causes intense eye pain, redness, headaches, halos around lights, and nausea. Cloudy vision is more likely to be caused by cataracts, but there are no other features to suggest this diagnosis. Open-angle glaucoma can sometimes cause color blindness, but it more commonly affects the visual fields. It does not cause dry eyes, which can be caused by autoimmune conditions such as Sjogren’s syndrome and systemic lupus erythematosus.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 20 - A 63-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. On examination, bibasilar wet pulmonary crackles are noted with mild bilateral lower limb pitting oedema. His jugular vein is slightly distended. An S4 sound is audible on cardiac auscultation. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows evidence of left ventricular (LV) hypertrophy. Chest radiography shows bilateral interstitial oedema without cardiomegaly.
      Which one of the following findings is most likely to be found in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impaired LV relaxation – increased LV end-diastolic pressure – normal LV end-systolic volume

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Types of Left Ventricular Dysfunction in Heart Failure

      Left ventricular (LV) dysfunction can result in heart failure, which is a clinical diagnosis that can be caused by systolic or diastolic dysfunction, or both. Diastolic dysfunction is characterized by impaired LV relaxation, resulting in increased LV end-diastolic pressure but normal LV end-systolic volume. This type of dysfunction can be caused by factors such as LV hypertrophy from poorly controlled hypertension. On the other hand, impaired LV contraction results in systolic dysfunction, which is characterized by LV dilation, increased LV end-systolic and end-diastolic volumes, and increased LV end-diastolic pressure. It is important to differentiate between these types of LV dysfunction in order to properly diagnose and manage heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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