-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 50-year-old woman came to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the inside of her mouth and the front of her chest, with some areas appearing red and weeping. The dermatologist performed a skin biopsy, which revealed a superficial intra-epidermal split just above the basal layer with acantholysis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation:Skin Disorders: Pemphigus Vulgaris, Bullous Pemphigoid, Dermatitis Herpetiformis, Epidermolysis Bullosa, and Tuberous Sclerosis
Skin disorders can manifest in various ways, including blistering and erosions on the skin and/or mucous membranes. Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering and erosions on the skin and mucous membranes, with IgG autoantibodies to desmoglein 3 being a key characteristic. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid involves sub-epidermal splitting and tense blisters that are less easily ruptured. Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterised by intensely pruritic blisters on specific areas of the body, often associated with coeliac disease. Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare inherited disorder that causes fragile skin, while tuberous sclerosis is not associated with blistering. Diagnosis and treatment vary depending on the specific disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 6-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by her mother. She has suffered an insect bite, and her mother is concerned about a small lump on the back of her hand.
Which of the following conditions is not pre-malignant?Your Answer: Dermatofibroma
Explanation:Common Pre-Malignant Skin Conditions
There are several pre-malignant skin conditions that can occur due to various factors. One such condition is dermatofibroma, which is an overgrowth of fibrous tissue in the dermis. It is usually benign and can be caused by minor skin trauma like an insect bite.
Another pre-malignant condition is Bowen’s disease, which is a type of intraepidermal carcinoma. It presents as scaly, erythematosus lesions and is often associated with sun exposure.
Lentigo maligna, also known as melanoma in situ, is an early form of melanoma that develops slowly over time. It typically appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin.
Leukoplakia is a pre-malignant condition that presents as white or grey patches in the oral cavity. It is important to have these patches evaluated by a healthcare professional.
Actinic keratoses, or solar keratoses, are pre-malignant conditions that occur due to chronic exposure to ultraviolet light. They are more common in fair-skinned individuals and typically affect sun-exposed areas of the skin. Regular skin checks and sun protection can help prevent these conditions from developing into skin cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man was seen in the Dermatology Outpatient Clinic with a chronic ulcer on his left forearm. On enquiry by the consultant, he revealed that he suffered full-thickness burn at the site of the ulcer nearly 20 years ago. The consultant told the patient he had a Marjolin’s ulcer.
Which of the following statements best describes a Marjolin’s ulcer?Your Answer: It is usually associated with secondary deposits in the regional lymph nodes
Correct Answer: It is often painless
Explanation:Understanding Marjolin’s Ulcer: A Squamous Cell Carcinoma in Scar Tissue
Marjolin’s ulcer is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that develops in scar tissue. This condition is often associated with chronic wounds and scar tissues, which are prone to an increased risk for skin cancer. While it most frequently occurs in old burn scars, it can also develop in relation to other types of injuries and wounds.
One of the unique characteristics of Marjolin’s ulcer is that it grows slowly due to the scar tissue being relatively avascular. Additionally, it is painless because the tissue contains no nerves. While it typically appears in adults around 53-59 years of age, the latency period between the initial injury and the appearance of cancer can be 25-40 years.
Contrary to popular belief, Marjolin’s ulcer is not a sarcoma. Instead, it is a squamous cell carcinoma that can invade normal tissue surrounding the scar and extend at a normal rate. While secondary deposits do not occur in the regional lymph nodes due to the destruction of lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes can become involved if the ulcer invades normal tissue.
In conclusion, understanding Marjolin’s ulcer is crucial for individuals who have experienced chronic wounds or scar tissue. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes and prevent further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic with several small fleshy nodules around and under his finger and toe nails. Upon further inquiry, it is revealed that the patient has a history of seizures that are hard to manage.
What is the probable underlying condition?Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis II
Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:Genetic Tumor Disorders and Their Skin Manifestations
There are several genetic disorders that predispose individuals to the formation of tumors, including those in the nervous system. These disorders can also have distinct skin manifestations that aid in their diagnosis.
Tuberous Sclerosis: This rare multisystem genetic disease is caused by abnormalities on chromosome 9 and leads to the formation of benign tumors (hamartomas) in various organs, including the brain, eyes, skin, kidney, and heart. Skin problems associated with tuberous sclerosis include periungual fibromas, adenoma sebaceum, ‘ash leaf’ hypomelanotic macules, café-au-lait patches, subcutaneous nodules, and shagreen patches. Neurological symptoms such as seizures, developmental delay, behavioral problems, and learning difficulties can also occur.
Neurofibromatosis I: This inherited condition causes tumors (neurofibromas) to grow within the nervous system and is characterized by café-au-lait spots on the skin.
Von Hippel-Lindau Disease: This inherited tumor disorder is caused by a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 3 and is commonly associated with angiomatosis, hemangioblastomas, and pheochromocytomas.
Neurofibromatosis II: This disorder presents with bilateral hearing loss due to the development of bilateral acoustic neuromas.
Sturge-Weber Syndrome: This congenital disorder is identified by a port-wine stain on the forehead, scalp, or around the eye.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a lump on the side of his head. During the examination, the GP suspects that the lump may be a basal cell carcinoma. What characteristic is most indicative of this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bleeding
Correct Answer: Telangiectasia
Explanation:Understanding Basal Cell Carcinomas: Characteristics and Warning Signs
Basal cell carcinomas are the most common type of skin cancer, typically found in sun-exposed areas such as the face and neck. They can be familial and associated with certain syndromes. A basal cell carcinoma often appears as a slow-growing, skin-colored, pearly nodule with surface telangiectasia, or fine vessels on the surface. It may also be an ulcerated lesion with rolled edges. Biopsy confirms the diagnosis, and treatment involves excision with a clear margin. While basal cell carcinomas rarely metastasize, they can be locally invasive and destructive. Pigmentation is a feature of melanocytic lesions, but basal cell carcinomas may rarely show pigmentation. Size is not a specific feature of malignancy, but sudden increases in size should be referred for further assessment. Other warning signs include crusted edges and unprovoked bleeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman presents with severe itching, mainly affecting her groin. The problem has been worsening over the past few weeks and is now unbearable. She admits to having slept with a new partner a few weeks before she noticed the problem. You notice an erythematosus, papular rash affecting the web spaces on the hands. She also has erythematous papules and scratch marks around the groin in particular. Investigations reveal normal values for haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, sodium, potassium, and creatinine. When you draw on the web spaces between her fingers with a felt-tip, rubbing off the excess reveals a number of burrows. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei hominis infection
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Differential Diagnosis
Scabies Infection
A scabies infection is a likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with itching between the web spaces and in the groin. The infection is typically acquired through skin-to-skin contact, often after sexual intercourse. Symptoms may not appear until three to four weeks after initial contact, and treatment involves the use of a topical agent such as permethrin cream.Atopic Dermatitis
Atopic dermatitis, or eczema, is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically presents with a rash and itching on the flexor aspects of the joints and is unrelated to sexual activity.Folliculitis
Folliculitis is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically presents with pinpoint erythematosus lesions on the chest, face, scalp, or back and is unrelated to sexual activity.Erythema Infectiosum Infection
Erythema infectiosum infection is a very unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It primarily affects children and results from infection with parvovirus B19. Symptoms include a slapped cheek appearance, fever, headache, and coryza.Keratosis Pilaris Infection
Keratosis pilaris is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms in the groin and web spaces. It typically affects the upper arms, buttocks, and thighs and presents with small white lesions that make the skin feel rough. It results from the buildup of keratin and is more common in patients with dry skin. It is unrelated to sexual activity.Differential Diagnosis of Skin Conditions
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 6-month-old infant has been diagnosed with diaper rash. What is the best course of action for treating a mild case of diaper rash?
Your Answer: Exposure to air
Explanation:Napkin Rash: Causes and Treatment
Napkin rash, also known as nappy rash, is a common skin condition that affects infants. It is caused by a variety of factors, including contact dermatitis, bacterial and fungal infections, psoriasis, and atopic dermatitis. The condition is often exacerbated by the presence of infantile eczema, but it is not more common in boys or less common in soy-fed infants.
The primary cause of napkin rash is contact dermatitis, which occurs when the skin comes into contact with ammonia from urine. This can cause burning and irritation, leading to a rash. Infection with bacteria and Candida yeasts can also cause nappy rash, as can psoriasis and atopic dermatitis affecting the nappy area. Infection is often superimposed, making the condition more severe.
Prevention is the best treatment for napkin rash. Frequent nappy changing and fluid feeding early in the day can help lessen night-time urination, reducing the risk of contact dermatitis. Anti-fungal lotions may also be useful in treating the condition. By the causes and treatment options for napkin rash, parents can help their infants avoid this uncomfortable and painful condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old nursing home resident with a history of hypothyroidism and heart failure presents to you with a complaint of dry, itchy skin that is particularly bothersome on her legs. Upon examination, you observe erythematosus, dry skin on her legs with an unusual pattern. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lichen planus
Correct Answer: Asteatotic eczema
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Asteatotic Eczema, Contact Dermatitis, Lichen Planus, Scabies, and Venous Ulceration
Asteatotic eczema is a skin condition that commonly affects elderly individuals due to over-washing and dry winter climate. It can also be associated with diuretic use and hypothyroidism. The condition causes dry, itchy skin with a unique crazy paving pattern on the limbs. Treatment involves using emollients and mild topical steroids.
Contact dermatitis, on the other hand, is caused by friction and environmental factors such as cold or exposure to chemicals like detergents and solvents. It typically affects the hands and does not display the crazy paving pattern seen in asteatotic eczema.
Lichen planus is characterized by a pruritic, papular eruption with a violaceous color and polygonal shape. It presents with a lace-like pattern, unlike the crazy paving pattern seen in asteatotic eczema.
Scabies is an itchy rash caused by mites that burrow under the skin’s surface. It often affects the very young and elderly, particularly those who live in crowded areas or institutional care. It presents with burrows, particularly on the web spaces between fingers, followed by a hypersensitivity rash. Treatment involves using topical insecticides like 5% permethrin.
Finally, venous ulceration is present on the lower limbs and can be itchy if associated with venous eczema. However, the legs often display a brown pigmentation of haemosiderin, and a venous ulcer would not present as described in this question.
In summary, understanding the characteristics of these common skin conditions can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Which statement about nail changes is accurate?
Your Answer: Bacterial endocarditis is the most common cause of splinter haemorrhages
Correct Answer: Ridges in the nails may be seen in psoriasis
Explanation:Common Nail Changes and Their Causes
Nail changes can be a sign of underlying health conditions. Here are some common nail changes and their causes:
Psoriasis: Ridges, pits, and onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed) are features of psoriasis.
Splinter haemorrhages: Although splinter haemorrhages occur in bacterial endocarditis, trauma is the most common cause. They can also be associated with rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, systemic lupus erythematosus, and psoriasis.
White nails: White nails are a feature of hypoalbuminaemia.
Koilonychia: Iron deficiency causes koilonychia and may cause onycholysis. Vitamin B12 deficiency does not cause nail changes.
Clubbing: Ischaemic heart disease does not cause clubbing.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A mother brings her 9-month old to her General Practitioner (GP) worried about a raised red mark on the baby's cheek. The mark is now 7 mm in diameter, has a smooth outline, and is a regular circular shape with consistent color all over. It appeared about four months ago and has been gradually increasing in size. The baby was born at full term via normal vaginal delivery and has been generally healthy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infantile haemangioma (strawberry mark)
Explanation:Types of Birthmarks in Children: Characteristics and Considerations
Birthmarks are common in children and can vary in appearance and location on the body. Understanding the characteristics of different types of birthmarks can help parents and healthcare providers determine if further evaluation or treatment is necessary.
Infantile haemangiomas, also known as strawberry marks, are raised and red in color. They typically grow for the first six months of life and then shrink, disappearing by age 7. Treatment is usually not necessary unless they affect vision or feeding.
Café-au-lait spots are flat, coffee-colored patches on the skin. While one or two are common, more than six by age 5 may indicate neurofibromatosis.
Capillary malformations, or port wine stains, are dark red or purple and not raised. They tend to affect the face, chest, or back and may increase in size during puberty, pregnancy, or menopause.
Malignant melanoma is rare in children but should be considered if a lesion exhibits the ABCD rules.
Salmon patches, or stork marks, are flat and red or pink and commonly occur on the forehead, eyelids, or neck. They typically fade after a few months.
By understanding the characteristics and considerations of different types of birthmarks, parents and healthcare providers can ensure appropriate evaluation and treatment if necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A toddler is brought to the clinic with severe eczema. What is the appropriate treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Should be given a course of oral steroids
Correct Answer: Might benefit from a diet free of cow's milk
Explanation:Managing Eczema in Infants
Eczema is a common skin condition in infants that can cause discomfort and distress. Cow’s milk allergy may trigger severe eczema, but switching to a soy-based formula may help alleviate symptoms. While complete cure may not be possible, appropriate preventative measures and topical preparations can minimize the condition’s impact. Most infants outgrow eczema by the age of 2-3 years.
There is no evidence to suggest that infants with eczema should not receive measles or pertussis immunization, but they should avoid immunization if they have a concurrent skin infection. Oral steroids are a last resort and are rarely used in infants with severe eczema. By following these guidelines, parents and caregivers can help manage eczema in infants and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old woman with a 28-year history of psoriasis presents to the Dermatologist. Despite treatment with ciclosporin, she has multiple patches on her arms, legs and scalp, which affect her sleep and work. The Dermatologist decides to initiate biological therapy with a TNF-alpha inhibitor. The patient has a past medical history of inactive tuberculosis.
Which TNF-alpha inhibitor is the Dermatologist likely to prescribe for the patient's severe psoriasis?Your Answer: Infliximab
Correct Answer: Adalimumab
Explanation:Biological Agents for the Treatment of Psoriasis
Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the skin and joints. Biological agents have revolutionized the treatment of psoriasis by targeting specific molecules involved in the immune response. Here are some commonly used biological agents for the treatment of psoriasis:
Adalimumab: This agent targets tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), a cytokine involved in systemic inflammation. Adalimumab is used when other systemic treatments have failed and the disease is severe.
Brodalumab: This agent targets the interleukin 17 receptor found on CD8+ cytotoxic T cells. It is used when methotrexate or ciclosporin have failed.
Infliximab: This agent is also a TNF-alpha inhibitor, but it has been shown to reactivate latent tuberculosis. Therefore, it should be used with caution in patients with a history of tuberculosis.
Guselkumab: This agent targets interleukin 23, which is involved in the activation of T17 lymphocytes. It is used in the treatment of moderate to severe psoriasis.
Secukinumab: This agent targets interleukin 17, which is found on CD8+ cytotoxic T cells. It is used in the treatment of moderate to severe psoriasis.
Before starting any of these agents, certain criteria must be met, such as failure of other treatments and severity of the disease. Additionally, some agents may be contraindicated in patients with certain medical histories, such as a history of tuberculosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician with skin lesions. Upon conducting a thorough examination and taking a medical history, the doctor informs the mother that the skin lesions are likely caused by a viral infection.
What is the most probable condition that could be caused by a virus in this case?Your Answer: Molluscum contagiosum
Explanation:Common Skin Infections and Their Causes
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral infection that spreads through direct contact and causes pink papules with a central umbilicus. The lesions contain cheese-like material and can be treated with cryotherapy or imiquimod.
Cellulitis is a bacterial infection that affects the lower dermis and subcutaneous tissue, causing red, swollen, and painful skin. It is commonly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus.
Folliculitis is an inflammation of the hair follicles, often caused by staphylococcal infections.
Impetigo is a bacterial infection that results in pustules and honey-colored, crusted erosions. It is commonly caused by S. aureus.
Necrotizing fasciitis is a severe bacterial infection that affects soft tissue and fascia. The bacteria release toxins and enzymes that lead to thrombosis and destruction of soft tissue and fascia. Bacterial causes include S. aureus and Clostridium perfringens, among others.
Overview of Common Skin Infections and Their Causes
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
An 18-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of painful lesions on his face, neck, and upper back. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Upon examination, the GP observes multiple pustules on erythematous bases that express serosanguinous fluid and occasional pus. Based on these findings, the GP makes a tentative diagnosis and recommends daily application of topical benzoyl peroxide. What structure is most likely responsible for the development of this patient's skin condition?
Your Answer: Sebaceous glands
Explanation:The Skin and its Glands: A Brief Overview
The skin is the largest organ of the human body and is responsible for protecting the body from external factors such as bacteria, viruses, and physical trauma. It is composed of several layers, with the outermost layer being the stratum corneum, a keratinised squamous epithelial layer.
One of the most common skin conditions is acne, which is caused by the sebaceous glands associated with hair follicles secreting sebum and plugging the hair follicle. If left untreated, acne can cause scars or pock marks after the lesions heal. Treatment options include benzoyl peroxide, tetracycline antibiotics, or retinoic acid.
Apocrine glands secrete a viscous, milky substance and are found in the axillary and genital regions. They become active during puberty and are associated with a characteristic foul odor due to bacteria consuming the fluid expressed from these glands.
Eccrine glands are sweat glands and are found all over the body. They play a crucial role in regulating body temperature and eliminating waste products.
Hemidesmosomes connect basal cells to the underlying basal membrane. Antibodies to hemidesmosomes can lead to the formation of bullous pemphigoid, a rare autoimmune disorder that causes blistering of the skin and mucous membranes.
Understanding the different glands and layers of the skin can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various skin conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A lesion is observed on the left cheek of a 4-year-old child, and impetigo is being considered as a possible diagnosis.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding impetigo?Your Answer: With dry, itchy and scaly lesions
Correct Answer: Characterised by scab-covered weeping lesions
Explanation:Impetigo: A Contagious Skin Infection
Impetigo is a skin infection that can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, or both. This condition results in the formation of yellow-crusted sores and small blisters filled with yellow fluid, which can appear anywhere on the body but are most commonly found on the face, arms, or legs. The infection is highly contagious and can be spread through direct person-to-person contact.
While impetigo does not require formal isolation, it is important to take precautions to prevent its spread. Children who are affected should stay home from school until they have received 48 hours of effective treatment. Personal hygiene, particularly hand washing and drying, should be emphasized, and children should have their own towels to prevent the spread of infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after developing a severe cutaneous hypersensitivity reaction. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he was taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), but his symptoms did not improve and his general practitioner prescribed him methotrexate a few days ago. On examination, Nikolsky’s sign is present and affects 45% of his body’s surface area.
Which of the following is the underlying condition?Your Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis
Explanation:Common Skin Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Causes
Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a severe skin hypersensitivity reaction that can be fatal and affects a large portion of the body’s surface area. It is often caused by drugs such as NSAIDs, steroids, and penicillins.
Morbilliform rash is a milder skin reaction that appears as a generalised rash that blanches with pressure. It is caused by drugs like penicillin, sulfa drugs, and phenytoin.
Erythema nodosum is an inflammatory condition that causes painful nodules on the lower extremities. It can be caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, and inflammatory bowel disease.
Fixed drug reaction is a localised allergic reaction that occurs at the same site with repeated drug exposure. It is commonly caused by drugs like aspirin, NSAIDs, and tetracycline.
Erythema multiforme is characterised by target-like lesions on the palms and soles. It is caused by drugs like penicillins, phenytoin, and NSAIDs, as well as infections like mycoplasma and herpes simplex.
Understanding Common Skin Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Causes
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old female has been experiencing multiple, non-tender, erythematosus, annular lesions with a collarette of scales at the periphery for the past two weeks. These lesions are only present on her trunk. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea
Explanation:Pityriasis Rosea
Pityriasis rosea (PR) is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents and young adults. It is often associated with upper respiratory infections and is characterized by a herald patch, which is a circular or oval-shaped lesion that appears on the trunk, neck, or extremities. The herald patch is usually about 1-2 cm in diameter and has a central, salmon-colored area surrounded by a dark red border.
About one to two weeks after the herald patch appears, a generalized rash develops. This rash is symmetrical and consists of macules with a collarette scale that aligns with the skin’s cleavage lines. The rash can last for up to six weeks before resolving on its own.
Overall, PR is a benign condition that does not require treatment. However, if the rash is particularly itchy or uncomfortable, topical corticosteroids or antihistamines may be prescribed to alleviate symptoms. It is important to note that PR is not contagious and does not pose any serious health risks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman presents with four episodes of oral ulceration in the course of 1 year. These have taken up to 3 weeks to heal properly. She has also suffered from painful vaginal ulceration. Additionally, there have been intermittent headaches, pain and swelling affecting both knees, and intermittent diarrhoea. On examination, there are several mouth ulcers of up to 1 cm in diameter. She also has erythema nodosum.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 129 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 190 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 45 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
C-reactive protein (CRP) 50 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Elevated level of immunoglobulin A (IgA)
ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody) negative
antiphospholipid antibody negative
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Herpes simplex
Correct Answer: Behçet’s disease
Explanation:Differentiating Behçet’s Disease from Other Conditions: A Guide
Behçet’s disease is a syndrome characterized by recurrent painful oral ulceration, genital ulcers, ophthalmic lesions, skin lesions, and possible cerebral vasculitis. However, these symptoms can also be present in other conditions, making diagnosis challenging. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) mainly affects the lungs, kidneys, and upper respiratory tract, but does not typically present with ulceration. Herpes simplex is not associated with systemic features, while bullous pemphigoid affects the skin and rarely the mouth. Pemphigus, on the other hand, presents with oral bullae and skin bullae but does not involve elevated levels of IgA. Treatment for Behçet’s disease is complex and depends on the extent of organ involvement and threat to vital organ function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with scaly patches on his scalp. Upon examination, circular areas of hair loss with scaling and raised margins, measuring 2-5 cm in diameter, are observed. There is no scarring. What is the probable cause of this condition in the patient?
Your Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Tinea capitis
Explanation:Causes of Non-Scarring and Scarring Alopecia
Non-scarring alopecia is a condition where hair loss occurs without any visible scarring on the scalp. The most common causes of this type of alopecia include telogen effluvium, androgenetic alopecia, alopecia areata, tinea capitis, and traumatic alopecia. In some cases, non-scarring alopecia can also be associated with lupus erythematosus and secondary syphilis.
Tinea capitis, caused by invasion of hairs by dermatophytes, most commonly Trichophyton tonsurans, is a common cause of non-scarring alopecia. This type of alopecia is characterized by hair loss in circular patches on the scalp.
On the other hand, scarring alopecia is a condition where hair loss occurs with visible scarring on the scalp. This type of alopecia is more frequently the result of a primary cutaneous disorder such as lichen planus, folliculitis decalvans, cutaneous lupus, or linear scleroderma (morphea). Scarring alopecia can be permanent and irreversible, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.
In conclusion, the different causes of non-scarring and scarring alopecia is important in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients experiencing hair loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 25-year-old man without prior history of skin issues comes in with severe itching that worsens at night. The rash is made up of small, red, extremely itchy bumps on the limbs and torso. His girlfriend is also experiencing itching. Upon closer examination of his skin, what finding would most likely confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Burrows
Explanation:Understanding Scabies: Symptoms and Characteristics
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the infestation of the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, variety hominis. The female mite burrows into the skin, creating characteristic lesions known as burrows. However, the absence of burrows does not rule out a diagnosis of scabies. Other symptoms include erythema, or redness and scaling of the skin, and excoriations, or skin abrasions caused by scratching. In severe cases, crusting patches may develop, particularly in crusted scabies, a highly contagious variant of the condition. Prurigo nodules, or small bumps on the skin, may also occur in scabies, especially in young children. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have scabies, as prompt treatment can prevent the spread of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment. He has been experiencing facial flushing and developed a red rash on his face a few months ago. Upon examination, there are numerous erythaematous papules scattered across his cheeks and his nose appears red and bulbous.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acne rosacea
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Acne Rosacea, Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus, Seborrhoeic Dermatitis, Acne Vulgaris, and Nodulocystic Acne
Skin conditions can be a source of discomfort and embarrassment for many people. Here are five common skin conditions and their features:
Acne Rosacea is a chronic rash that affects the central face, typically in those aged 30 to 60. Symptoms include facial flushing, telangiectasia, rhinophyma, papules, and pustules. Treatment options include topical metronidazole and oral antibiotics.
Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus is an autoimmune disorder that can affect various organs, including the skin. Common dermatological signs include a butterfly malar rash and discoid lupus.
Seborrhoeic Dermatitis is a chronic or relapsing form of eczema that mainly affects the scalp, face, and upper trunk. Symptoms include indurated hyperpigmented plaques and creases around the nose, behind ears, and within eyebrows.
Acne Vulgaris is a common variety of acne that affects the pilosebaceous unit. It is most common in young adults with high levels of sex hormones and is graded according to the number of comedones and inflammatory lesions seen.
Nodulocystic Acne is a severe form of acne that affects the face, chest, and back, mainly in men. Symptoms include multiple inflamed and uninflamed nodules and scars.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old woman presents with acne vulgaris. On examination there are mixed comedones and pustules. She has three slight acne scars to her left cheek. The lesions are multiple and prominent but do not extend beyond the face. She has not tried any medications for the acne to date and is requesting your advice on treatment. You note that she last attended for an emergency contraception prescription, which was in the last 6 weeks. She does not use any regular contraception and does not want to commence contraception as she indicates she is no longer sexually active. She says that she does not feel overly self-conscious about her acne but wants something to help improve the appearance of the spots.
Which treatment plan is most appropriate?Your Answer: Topical application of benzoyl peroxide alone
Correct Answer: Topical application of clindamycin and benzoyl peroxide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acne Vulgaris: A Comprehensive Guide
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that affects many individuals, particularly during adolescence. It is characterized by blocked hair follicles and sebaceous glands, resulting in inflammatory and non-inflammatory lesions on the face, back, and chest. The severity of acne can range from mild to severe, with the latter causing scarring and significant distress to the patient.
There are several treatment options available for acne vulgaris, depending on the severity of the condition. For mild to moderate acne, topical benzoyl peroxide can be prescribed as monotherapy. However, for moderate acne with a risk of scarring, a combination therapy of a topical antibiotic and benzoyl peroxide, such as clindamycin aqueous solution, is recommended.
In cases of extensive acne on the back or shoulders, or if there is a significant risk of scarring or skin pigmentation, an oral antibiotic may be considered for an 8-week period. However, it is important to note that oral antibiotics should be used judiciously to avoid the development of antibiotic resistance.
For severe acne or acne causing severe distress to the patient, referral to a dermatologist for treatment with isotretinoin may be necessary. Isotretinoin is a retinoid that is used for systemic treatment of severe acne. However, it should only be given to women on contraception as it is teratogenic.
In conclusion, the treatment of acne vulgaris requires a tailored approach based on the severity of the condition and the risk of scarring or other complications. A combination of topical and oral therapies, as well as referral to a dermatologist when necessary, can help to effectively manage this chronic skin condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man presents with erythema, vesicles and crusted ulcerations on the right scalp, forehead and periorbital region. The affected area is swollen and causing him pain. Additionally, there are some vesicles present at the tip of his nose. He reports experiencing a headache in that area several days prior to the onset of the rash. What is the most probable causative organism for this rash?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Varicella-zoster virus
Explanation:Common Skin Infections and Their Causes
Skin infections can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses, fungi, and bacteria. Here are some common skin infections and their causes:
Varicella-zoster virus: This virus causes shingles, which is a reactivation of the virus that has been dormant in the dorsal root ganglia after the patient’s initial exposure to the virus in the form of chickenpox. A live attenuated vaccine is now available that is effective in preventing shingles.
Herpes simplex virus infection: This virus can occasionally appear in a dermatomal distribution, mimicking shingles. It presents with erythema and vesicles, but the area of skin involved is usually much less than in shingles and pain is not as prominent.
Malassezia furfur: This fungus causes tinea versicolor, a common benign, superficial cutaneous fungal infection characterized by hypopigmented or hyperpigmented macules and patches on the chest and back.
Trichophyton verrucosum: This dermatophyte fungus of animal origin (zoophilic) causes a kerion, a severely painful inflammatory reaction with deep suppurative lesions on the scalp or beard area.
Staphylococcus aureus: This bacterium causes impetigo, sycosis, ecthyma, and boils.
Common Skin Infections and Their Causes
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman is worried about the appearance of her toenails. She has noticed a whitish discoloration that extends up the nail bed in several toes on both feet. After confirming a dermatophyte infection, she has been diligently cutting her nails and applying topical amorolifine, but without success. What is the best course of treatment for her condition?
Your Answer: Topical fluconazole
Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine
Explanation:Treatment for Fungal Nail Infection
Fungal nail infection is a common condition that affects many adults. If self-care measures and topical treatments are not successful or appropriate, treatment with an oral antifungal agent should be offered. The first-line treatment recommended is Terbinafine, which is effective against both dermatophytes and Candida species. On the other hand, ‘-azoles’ such as fluconazole do not have as much efficacy against dermatophytes. It is important to seek medical advice and follow the recommended treatment plan to effectively manage fungal nail infection. For further information, resources such as CKS Fungal nail infections, GP Notebook, and Patient.info can be consulted. The British Association of Dermatologists also provides guidelines for the treatment of onychomycosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old diabetic patient presents with an abscess on the nape of his neck with multiple discharging sinuses.
Which one of the following terms would you use to describe the presentation?Your Answer: Necrotising fasciitis
Correct Answer: Carbuncle
Explanation:Common Skin Infections and Conditions
Carbuncles, cellulitis, furuncles, infected sebaceous cysts, and necrotising fasciitis are all common skin infections and conditions that can cause discomfort and pain. Carbuncles are collections of pus that discharge to the surface via multiple sinuses and are usually caused by staphylococcal infection. Cellulitis is a bacterial infection of the lower dermis and subcutaneous tissue, presenting with a localised area of painful, red, swollen skin and fever. Furuncles are perifollicular abscesses, also typically caused by staphylococcal infection. Infected sebaceous cysts are round, dome-shaped, encapsulated lesions containing fluid or semi-fluid material. On the other hand, necrotising fasciitis is a serious bacterial infection of the soft tissue and fascia that can result in extensive tissue loss and death if not promptly recognised and treated with antibiotics and debridement. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these conditions are suspected, especially in patients with diabetes or those who are immunosuppressed. Clinical assessment and appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted to ensure proper treatment and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
For her 4-year-old son Oliver's atopic eczema, Mrs Simpson takes him to the general practice surgery. Despite using aqueous cream regularly, Oliver has not seen much improvement. The general practitioner suggests trying a topical steroid cream. Which topical steroid would be the most suitable option to try next?
Your Answer: Eumovate
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone 1%
Explanation:Understanding Topical Steroid Creams for Atopic Eczema Treatment
Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that can be managed with the use of topical steroid creams. These creams come in different potencies, and it is important to use the least potent effective cream for children to avoid side effects. The first step in treatment is emollients such as aqueous cream, followed by mild potency hydrocortisone 1-2.5%. If there is no response, a moderately potent cream like Eumovate may be used. Potent creams like Betnovate and very potent creams like Dermovate are not appropriate next steps in management. Trimovate is a moderate steroid cream with antimicrobial effect. The goal is to achieve control of eczema and step down the ladder of potency until maintenance is achieved on the least potent agent. Understanding the different types of topical steroid creams can help in the effective management of atopic eczema.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of extensive psoriasis affecting the trunk, arms, buttock and nail beds is seen for review in Dermatology Outpatients. He has previously completed a course of phototherapy, with minimal improvement, and has shown no benefit on methotrexate for the past 12 months.
What is the next most appropriate step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Further course of phototherapy
Correct Answer: Infliximab
Explanation:Management of Severe Extensive Psoriasis: Consideration of Anti-TNF Alpha Therapy
Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that is managed in a stepwise manner, as per the National Institute of Health Care and Excellence (NICE) guidelines. For patients with extensive psoriasis who have failed topical therapy, phototherapy, and systemic agents such as methotrexate, acitretin, and ciclosporin, or where these are not tolerated and/or contraindicated, the next step in management is to trial an anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) alpha, such as infliximab, etanercept, or adalimumab, given by injection.
While on anti-TNF alpha therapy, patients are at an increased risk of pneumococcal and seasonal influenzae, and should receive vaccination against these illnesses. Live vaccines should be avoided.
Repeating a further course of phototherapy may not be the most appropriate answer for patients who have already failed systemic therapy and previously showed only minimal response to phototherapy. Hydroxychloroquine is not commonly used in the management of plaque psoriasis, and rituximab is not indicated for psoriasis.
Topical tacrolimus may be used in the management of psoriasis affecting the face or flexural regions, but for patients with severe extensive psoriasis on the trunk, arms, and buttocks who have already tried and failed management with oral regimes and phototherapy, it is unlikely to be of benefit. If it has not already been used, it would not be unreasonable to trial tacrolimus for a short period. However, the next most appropriate step in management is an anti-TNF alpha.
In summary, for patients with severe extensive psoriasis who have failed previous therapies, consideration of anti-TNF alpha therapy is the next step in management, with appropriate vaccination and monitoring for potential adverse effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) with an irregular mole on her back. The mole is oval in shape, 2 cm in length, and has an irregular border throughout. The colour is uniform, and there has been no change in sensation. The GP wants to evaluate the lesion using the weighted 7-point checklist for assessment of pigmented lesions to determine if the lesion requires referral to Dermatology.
What is a significant feature that scores 2 on the checklist?Your Answer: Oozing or crusting of a lesion
Correct Answer: Irregular shape or border
Explanation:The 7-Point Checklist for Assessing Pigmented Lesions
The 7-point checklist is a tool used to assess pigmented lesions for potential malignancy. Major features, such as a change in size, irregular shape or border, and irregular color, score 2 points each. Minor features, including a largest diameter of 7 mm or more, inflammation, oozing or crusting of the lesion, and change in sensation (including itch), score 1 point each. The weighted 7-point checklist is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for use in General Practice. Lesions scoring three points or more should be referred urgently to Dermatology. Malignant melanomas can present with the development of a new mole or a change in an existing mole. The features highlighted in the 7-point checklist should be ascertained in the history to determine how urgently a mole needs to be referred to exclude malignancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A teenage care assistant from a local nursing home presents with sudden onset of an intensely itchy rash. This covers her whole body. She has no history of skin problems. On examination there is a combination of raised erythematous papules covering her arms and trunk and linear marks to her forearms. There is excoriated skin in the inter-digital spaces.
What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Oral antihistamines
Correct Answer: Permethrin cream
Explanation:Understanding Scabies Treatment: Permethrin Cream and Other Options
Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which can lead to symptoms such as itching and a rash with superficial burrows and pimples. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is permethrin 5% dermal cream, which needs to be applied to the whole body and repeated a week later. In cases of moderate eczema, a regular emollient plus a moderately potent topical steroid may be used in addition to permethrin. However, a combination of moderately potent topical steroid and topical antifungal agent is not appropriate for scabies treatment. Oral antihistamines may provide symptomatic relief but are not a treatment for scabies. Malathion 5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment option for patients allergic to chrysanthemums who cannot use permethrin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
What is the dermatological condition that is linked to neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Café au lait spots
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis Type 1 and Type 2
Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects the 17th chromosome and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. There are two types of neurofibromatosis: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is also known as von Recklinghausen’s disease and is characterized by flat, light-brown skin lesions called café au lait spots, axillary freckling, small purple-colored lesions called dermal neurofibromas, nodular neurofibromas that can cause paraesthesia when compressed, and Lisch nodules on the iris. Complications of type 1 neurofibromatosis include nerve compression, phaeochromocytoma, mild learning disability, and epilepsy.
Type 2 neurofibromatosis is much rarer than type 1 and also demonstrates autosomal dominant inheritance. In addition to café au lait spots, individuals with type 2 may also develop vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas) and premature cataracts. It is important to note that while both types of neurofibromatosis share some similarities, they also have distinct differences in their clinical presentation and associated complications. these differences can aid in accurate diagnosis and management of these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)