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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man visits his optician for routine screening and is discovered to have elevated intraocular pressure without any symptoms. The diagnosis of primary open-angle glaucoma is confirmed. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Can you identify a potential treatment and its mode of action?
Your Answer: Topical pilocarpine - reduces aqueous production
Correct Answer: Topical timolol - reduces aqueous production
Explanation:Timolol eye drops are effective in treating primary open-angle glaucoma by reducing the production of aqueous fluid in the anterior chamber. This helps to lower the intraocular pressure and prevent further fluid buildup. Other medications, such as acetazolamide, latanoprost, brimonidine, and pilocarpine, work by different mechanisms such as reducing aqueous production or increasing uveoscleral outflow. However, timolol is specifically known for its ability to reduce aqueous production and is commonly used as a first-line treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which region of the brain is most likely affected in a child displaying hyperactivity, elation, inappropriate conduct, superficial emotional response, juvenile humor with puns and word games (witzelsucht)?
Your Answer: Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (parvicellular projections of the medial dorsal thalamus)
Correct Answer: Orbital, medial prefrontal cortex (magnocellular projections of the medial dorsal thalamus)
Explanation:The Effects of Brain Damage on Specific Regions: A Brief Overview
Different regions of the brain are responsible for various functions, and damage to these regions can result in specific symptoms. Here are some examples:
Orbital, medial prefrontal cortex: Damage to this area can cause euphoria, shallow emotions, disinhibition of sexual and aggressive impulses, peculiar verbal humor, and distractibility.
Dominant parietal lobe: Damage to this area can lead to Gerstmann syndrome, which includes agraphia, acalculia, right-left disorientation, and finger agnosia.
Posterior frontal cortex (Broca area): Damage to this area can affect language comprehension and production, resulting in fluent aphasia.
Superior and inferior occipital gyri: Damage to these areas can cause problems with visual recognition, including cortical blindness, prosopagnosia, color agnosia, and alexia.
Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex: Damage to this area can result in apathy, poverty of speech, hypokinesis, decreased drive or initiative, and diminished capacity to abstract. This syndrome resembles the deficit state of schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosurgery
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old primiparous female is at 39 weeks gestation. Upon examination by a midwife, her Bishop score is determined to be 4. What is the significance of this score?
Your Answer: Labour is unlikely to start spontaneously
Explanation:To determine if induction is necessary, the Bishop scoring system evaluates cervical characteristics such as position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and foetal station. If the score is less than 5, induction is likely required. However, if the score is above 9, spontaneous labour is expected.
Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.
Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.
The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 45-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is struggling to manage his high blood pressure despite being on medication. His current treatment includes atenolol, amlodipine, and ramipril, but his blood pressure consistently reads above 170/100 mmHg. During examination, grade II hypertensive retinopathy is observed. His test results show sodium levels at 144 mmol/L (137-144), potassium at 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), urea at 5.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine at 100 mol/L (60-110), glucose at 7.9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and HbA1c at 53 mmol/mol (20-46) or 7% (3.8-6.4). An ECG reveals left ventricular hypertrophy. What possible diagnosis should be considered as the cause of his resistant hypertension?
Your Answer: Conn’s syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)
Explanation:Primary Hyperaldosteronism and Resistant Hypertension
This patient is experiencing resistant hypertension despite being on an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi), which should typically increase their potassium concentration. Additionally, their potassium levels are low, which is a strong indication of primary hyperaldosteronism.
Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by either an adrenal adenoma (known as Conn syndrome) or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia. To diagnose this condition, doctors typically look for an elevated aldosterone:renin ratio, which is usually above 1000. This condition can be difficult to manage, but identifying it early can help prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl presents with haematuria, hearing loss, and poor eyesight caused by lens dislocation. After conducting additional tests, the diagnosis of Alport syndrome is made. What type of collagen is typically affected by a molecular defect in this disease?
Your Answer: Type IV
Explanation:Types and Effects of Collagen Defects on Human Health
Collagen is an essential protein that provides structural support to various tissues in the human body. Defects in different types of collagen can lead to various health conditions. Type IV collagen is crucial for the integrity of the basement membrane, and mutations in its genes can cause Alport syndrome, resulting in haematuria, hearing loss, and visual disturbances. Type III collagen defects cause Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, characterized by joint hypermobility, severe bruising, and blood vessel defects. Type I collagen defects lead to osteogenesis imperfecta, characterized by brittle bones, abnormal teeth, and weak tendons. Kniest dysplasia is caused by defects in type II collagen, leading to short stature, poor joint mobility, and eventual blindness. Kindler syndrome is characterized by the absence of epidermal anchoring fibrils due to defects in type VII collagen, resulting in skin fragility. Understanding the effects of collagen defects on human health is crucial for diagnosis and treatment of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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De Quervain's syndrome is a condition that involves the stenosing tenosynovitis of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus of the thumb. What condition is strongly linked to De Quervain's syndrome?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Associations with De Quervain’s Syndrome
De Quervain’s syndrome is a condition that involves the stenosing tenosynovitis of the short extensor or long abductor tendon of the thumb within the first extensor compartment. While it is not associated with malignancy or cirrhosis, it does have a strong association with rheumatoid arthritis. Patients with diabetes and hypothyroidism are more likely to develop carpal tunnel syndrome rather than De Quervain’s syndrome. It is important to consider these associations when diagnosing and treating patients with hand and wrist pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 7
Correct
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An 81-year-old patient is admitted with dysuria and confusion. She is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and treated with ciprofloxacin. After 3 days, she develops a profuse offensive diarrhoea. Her pulse is 82 bpm, blood pressure 140/78 mmHg and temperature 37.4 °C. Her abdomen is mildly tender throughout, but no guarding. Bloods show a white cell count of 28.7 × 109/l (was 11.6).
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Clostridium difficile diarrhoea
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Diarrhoea: Clostridium difficile, Ulcerative Colitis, Pyelonephritis, Quinolone-resistant UTI, and Overflow Diarrhoea
When a patient presents with diarrhoea, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of a patient who recently started antibiotics and developed profuse diarrhoea, Clostridium difficile infection is the most likely cause. This infection is characterized by foul-smelling diarrhoea, a tender abdomen, fever, and vomiting, along with a raised white cell count.
While ulcerative colitis can also present with similar symptoms, it typically has a longer history of gastrointestinal issues and does not occur acutely after starting antibiotics. Pyelonephritis, on the other hand, can cause fever, vomiting, and abdominal pain, but it does not typically cause diarrhoea. Quinolone-resistant UTI may cause continued fevers and UTI symptoms, but it would not cause diarrhoea. Finally, overflow diarrhoea is a possible diagnosis in elderly patients, but it would not typically present with foul-smelling diarrhoea and a raised white cell count.
In summary, when a patient presents with diarrhoea, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses, including Clostridium difficile, ulcerative colitis, pyelonephritis, quinolone-resistant UTI, and overflow diarrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of facial pain and diplopia. Clinical examination reveals CN III, CN IV and CN VI palsies, a Horner’s syndrome, and facial sensory loss in the distribution of the V1 (ophthalmic) and V2 (maxillary) divisions of the trigeminal cranial nerve.
Where is the causative abnormality located?Your Answer: Cavernous sinus
Explanation:Anatomy of Cranial Nerves and the Cavernous Sinus
The cavernous sinus is a crucial location for several cranial nerves and blood vessels. Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI, as well as the ophthalmic (V1) and maxillary (V2) divisions of the V cranial nerve, pass through the cavernous sinus with the internal carotid artery. The V2 division of the trigeminal nerve exits via the foramen rotundum, while the rest of the cranial nerves enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure.
Damage to these nerves can result in ophthalmoplegia, facial pain, and sensory loss. Involvement of sympathetic nerves around the internal carotid artery can lead to Horner’s syndrome. Tolosa Hunt syndrome is an idiopathic inflammatory process that affects the cavernous sinus and can cause a cluster of these symptoms.
Dorello’s canal carries cranial nerve VI (abducens) from the pontine cistern to the cavernous sinus. The zygomatic branch of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve passes through the inferior orbital fissure. Meckel’s cave houses the trigeminal nerve ganglion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman and her partner have come to seek advice from their GP on how to conceive as they are planning to start a family. The woman has a medical history of asthma and obesity with a BMI of 32 kg/m², while her partner has Crohn's disease that is being managed with methotrexate. They have no significant family history and the woman hopes to have a vaginal birth. She has never been pregnant before. What is the primary advice that should be given?
Your Answer: She should take 400 micrograms of folic acid until the end of the first trimester
Correct Answer: Her husband should use contraception and wait for 6 months after stopping treatment first
Explanation:Patients who are using methotrexate must use effective contraception during treatment and for at least 6 months after treatment, whether they are male or female. In this case, the patient’s husband is taking methotrexate, which inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and folic acid metabolism. Therefore, both partners should stop taking methotrexate for 6 months and use effective contraception before attempting to conceive. Methotrexate can damage sperm in men and eggs in women, which can lead to severe complications such as neural tube defects in the fetus. Additional folic acid supplements will not significantly reduce the risk of complications associated with methotrexate. Therefore, both partners should use effective contraception during the time the husband is taking methotrexate. The advice to take 400 micrograms or 5 milligrams of folic acid until the end of the first trimester is incorrect in this case, as the couple should delay trying for a pregnancy for 6 months due to the husband’s methotrexate use.
Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.
The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.
When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.
In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness. They have previously been diagnosed with a condition by their former GP. The GP orders blood tests and the results are as follows:
Adjusted calcium 2.0 mmol/L (2.2-2.4)
Phosphate 2.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
PTH 12.53 pmol/L (1.05-6.83)
Urea 22.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.8)
Creatinine 540 µmol/L (60-120)
25 OH Vit D 32 nmol/L (optimal >75)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute renal failure
Correct Answer: CKD 5
Explanation:Differentiating Chronic Kidney Disease from Acute Renal Failure
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) and acute renal failure (ARF) can both result in elevated creatinine levels, but other factors can help differentiate between the two conditions. In the case of a patient with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and an elevation of parathyroid hormone, CKD is more likely than ARF. These metabolic changes are commonly seen in CKD 4-5 and are not typically present in ARF of short duration. Additionally, the relatively higher creatinine result compared to urea suggests CKD rather than ARF, which can be caused by dehydration and result in even higher urea levels.
This patient likely has CKD and may already be dependent on dialysis or under regular review by a nephrology team. The decision to start dialysis is based on various factors, including fluid overload, hyperkalaemia, uraemic symptoms, life expectancy, and patient/clinician preference. Most patients begin dialysis with an eGFR of around 10 ml/min/1.73m2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency department by her father. She states that she accidentally swallowed 20 tablets of ferrous sulphate from the family medicine cabinet. What is the recommended treatment for acute iron toxicity?
Your Answer: Ferrous gluconate
Correct Answer: Desferrioxamine
Explanation:Treatment for Acute Iron Toxicity
Acute iron toxicity can be effectively treated with the use of an iron chelating agent called desferrioxamine. It is important to note that ferrous gluconate and ferrous succinate, which are commonly used for iron supplementation, should not be given in this situation as they can worsen the toxicity. Folinic acid, a derivative of folic acid, is not useful in treating acute iron toxicity.
Symptoms of acute iron toxicity include necrotising gastritis with severe vomiting, gastrointestinal haemorrhage, diarrhoea, and circulatory collapse. To treat this condition, desferrioxamine can be administered enterally via an NG tube to bind ingested iron that is still in the stomach. This binding process prevents iron absorption, and the iron-desferrioxamine complex will be eliminated in the faeces. Alternatively, desferrioxamine can be given intramuscularly or intravenously to bind iron in the intravascular and extravascular fluid compartments. The iron-desferrioxamine complex is then excreted in the urine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 65-year-old male is seeking treatment for hypertension related to his type 2 diabetes. He is currently taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently high at around 160/92 mmHg.
What medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes Patients
Patients with type 2 diabetes who have inadequately controlled hypertension should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, which is the preferred antihypertensive medication for diabetes. Combining an ACE inhibitor with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine can also be effective. However, beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is a medication used specifically for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is reserved for cases where other medications have failed to control blood pressure. If blood pressure control is still insufficient with ramipril and amlodipine, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the treatment plan.
It is important to note that hypertension management in diabetic patients requires careful consideration of medication choices and potential interactions. Consulting with a healthcare provider is crucial to ensure safe and effective treatment. Further reading on this topic can be found in the Harvard Medical School’s article on medications for treating hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Correct
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As an F1 in the emergency department, you receive a 15-year-old girl who has been brought in from her high school due to complaints of abdominal pain and nausea. Upon examination, you discover that she is septic and can only provide a brief medical history before becoming drowsy. The surgical team suspects that she may have a perforated appendicitis and requires immediate surgery. Unfortunately, the patient's parents cannot be reached with the contact numbers provided by the school, and the patient is not in a state to provide consent for the operation. What would be the most appropriate course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: Take the patient to surgery immediately
Explanation:According to GMC, it is permissible to administer emergency treatment to a child or young person without their consent in order to save their life or prevent their health from seriously deteriorating. This means that obtaining consent from their parents, seeking permission from others, or obtaining a court order is not required.
Understanding Consent in Children
The issue of consent in children can be complex and confusing. However, there are some general guidelines to follow. If a patient is under 16 years old, they may be able to consent to treatment if they are deemed competent. This is determined by the Fraser guidelines, which were previously known as Gillick competence. However, even if a child is competent, they cannot refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest.
For patients between the ages of 16 and 18, it is generally assumed that they are competent to give consent to treatment. Patients who are 18 years or older can consent to or refuse treatment.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years old, the Fraser Guidelines outline specific requirements that must be met. These include ensuring that the young person understands the advice given by the healthcare professional, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to engage in sexual activity with or without treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without treatment. Ultimately, the young person’s best interests must be taken into account when deciding whether to provide contraceptive advice or treatment, with or without parental consent.
In summary, understanding consent in children requires careful consideration of age, competence, and best interests. The Fraser Guidelines provide a useful framework for healthcare professionals to follow when providing treatment and advice to young patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother who reports that her daughter becomes breathless when climbing stairs at home. The mother is concerned as her daughter is unable to keep up with her peers. During the examination, multiple small bruises of varying ages are observed on both lower legs. The patient is afebrile and appears to be in good health. A soft systolic murmur is heard on the left sternal edge during cardiac examination. Palpation of the abdomen reveals a mass in both the left and right hypochondriac regions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Correct Answer: Acute lymphoid leukaemia
Explanation:Children under the age of 6 are less likely to be affected by TTP, which typically occurs in individuals between the ages of 30 and 50 and is often accompanied by neurological and renal symptoms. ITP is characterized by bleeding and petechiae, with low platelet counts but normal levels of other blood cells. DIC is typically a result of an underlying condition such as trauma, burns, or sepsis, and is often accompanied by systemic symptoms and circulatory collapse.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.
There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl, originally from India, has been exhibiting behavioural problems at school. After a few months, she started experiencing involuntary movements of her limbs and is now having tonic-clonic seizures. A diagnosis of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis has been confirmed through an EEG. Which infectious agent is likely to be detected in her cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) antibodies?
Your Answer: Mumps
Correct Answer: Measles
Explanation:Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis: A Rare Complication of Measles
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a progressive neurological disorder caused by the measles virus and is a rare complication of measles. It typically occurs 5-10 years after the initial measles infection. The diagnosis of SSPE is based on clinical symptoms such as behavioural changes, myoclonus, dementia, and visual disturbances, along with the presence of characteristic periodic EEG discharges called Rademecker complexes, and a raised antibody titre against measles in the plasma and cerebrospinal fluid.
Treatment for SSPE involves lifelong oral isoprinosine and intraventricular interferon. However, if the patient does not respond, SSPE usually causes death within 1-3 years. The best way to prevent SSPE is through vaccination against measles.
Other viral infections such as mumps, rubella, varicella zoster, and malaria are not associated with SSPE. Cerebral malaria may present with an unarousable coma, which is unlikely to be seen in SSPE until the very end stage of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 16
Correct
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A school caretaker receives a letter inviting him to attend for an ultrasound scan, as part of the NHS Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) Screening Programme. He has never attended AAA screening before.
What is the age range of patients who are typically invited to attend AAA screening for the first time?Your Answer: 65
Explanation:AAA Screening Guidelines for Men Aged 65 and Over
Men aged 65 and over are at the highest risk of developing an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). To detect this condition early, ultrasound scanning is offered to men during the year they turn 65. If the scan shows no signs of AAA, the patient will not be invited for further screening tests as the condition is unlikely to develop in their lifetime.
However, if the scan shows a small AAA (3.0-4.4 cm), the patient will be invited for annual screening. If the AAA is medium-sized (4.5-5.4 cm), the patient will be invited for screening every three months to monitor the aneurysm’s progress. If the AAA is 5.5 cm or more, the patient will be referred to vascular surgeons and advised to consider surgical repair.
It’s important to note that the risk of developing AAA is much smaller in patients under 65, so screening is not recommended for this age group. Women are also excluded from the screening program. The NHS screening for AAA is carried out at or around 65 years of age to detect and treat the condition early, reducing the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 17
Correct
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A 4-week-old infant, born at term, presents to the Emergency Department with persistent jaundice since birth, pale stools and dark urine. The infant is currently being breastfed.
What is the most probable reason for this infant's jaundice?Your Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Jaundice in Infants
Jaundice in newborns that lasts for more than two weeks is considered pathological and requires medical attention. In this case, the infant is exhibiting signs of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which is characterized by jaundice with pale stools and dark urine. This is indicative of biliary atresia, a condition that affects the liver and bile ducts.
Cystic fibrosis is another condition that may present in infants with recurrent respiratory infections, but it is not associated with jaundice. Cholelithiasis, or gallstones, is a common cause of obstructive jaundice, but it is more prevalent in middle-aged individuals. Breastfeeding jaundice occurs due to suboptimal milk intake, but it does not cause conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
Physiological jaundice is common in infants and typically lasts for 1-2 weeks. However, if jaundice persists for more than two weeks, it is considered pathological and requires medical attention. It is important to understand the various causes of jaundice in infants to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Correct
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Emily is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by concerned parents who are worried about her loud snoring and frequent interruptions in breathing which have been getting progressively worse. Her parents have been receiving complaints from the school teachers about her disruptive and inattentive behaviour in class. On examination, Emily has a short, thick neck and mildly enlarged tonsils but no other abnormalities.
What is the next best step in management?Your Answer: Order an overnight polysomnographic study
Explanation:Childhood Obstructive Sleep Apnoea: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Childhood obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a pathological condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. A polysomnographic study should be performed before booking for an operation, as adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice for childhood OSA.
The clinical presentation of childhood OSA is non-specific but typically includes symptoms such as mouth breathing, abnormal breathing during sleep, poor sleep with frequent awakening or restlessness, nocturnal enuresis, nightmares, difficulty awakening, excessive daytime sleepiness or hyperactivity, and behavioural problems. However, parents should be reassured that snoring loudly is very normal in children his age and that his behaviour pattern will improve as he matures.
Before any intervention is undertaken, the patient should be first worked up for OSA with a polysomnographic study. While dental splints may have a small role to play in OSA, they are not the ideal treatment option. Intranasal budesonide is an option for mild to moderate OSA, but it is only a temporising measure and not a proven effective long-term treatment.
In conclusion, childhood OSA requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice, but a polysomnographic study should be performed before any intervention is undertaken. Parents should be reassured that snoring loudly is normal in children his age, and other treatment options such as dental splints and intranasal budesonide should be considered only after a thorough evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male suddenly cries out, grabs the back of his head, and collapses in front of a bystander. After receiving appropriate treatment, he is now recovering in the hospital. As you assess his condition, you begin to consider potential complications that may arise. What is the most probable complication that he may experience due to his underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.
Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 20
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman complains of pain in her ring finger. She mentions being bitten by an insect on the same hand a few days ago. Upon examination, her entire digit is swollen, but the swelling stops at the distal palmar crease, and she keeps her finger strictly flexed. Palpation and passive extension of the digit cause pain. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infective flexor tenosynovitis
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting all four of Kanavel’s signs of flexor tendon sheath infection, namely fixed flexion, fusiform swelling, tenderness, and pain on passive extension. Gout and pseudogout are mono-arthropathies that only affect one joint, whereas inflammatory arthritis typically has a more gradual onset. Although cellulitis is a possibility, the examination findings suggest that a flexor tendon sheath infection is more probable.
Infective tenosynovitis is a medical emergency that necessitates prompt identification and treatment. If left untreated, the flexor tendons will suffer irreparable damage, resulting in loss of function in the digit. If detected early, medical management with antibiotics and elevation may be sufficient, but surgical debridement is likely necessary.
Hand Diseases
Dupuytren’s contracture is a hand disease that causes the fingers to bend towards the palm and become fixed in a flexed position. It is caused by thickening and shortening of the tissues under the skin on the palm of the hand, which leads to contractures of the palmar aponeurosis. This condition is most common in males over 40 years of age and is associated with liver cirrhosis and alcoholism. Treatment involves surgical fasciectomy, but the condition may recur and surgical therapies carry risks of neurovascular damage.
Carpal tunnel syndrome is another hand disease that affects the median nerve at the carpal tunnel. It is characterized by altered sensation in the lateral three fingers and is more common in females. It may be associated with other connective tissue disorders and can occur following trauma to the distal radius. Treatment involves surgical decompression of the carpal tunnel or non-surgical options such as splinting and bracing.
There are also several miscellaneous hand lumps that can occur. Osler’s nodes are painful, red, raised lesions found on the hands and feet, while Bouchard’s nodes are hard, bony outgrowths or gelatinous cysts on the middle joints of fingers or toes and are a sign of osteoarthritis. Heberden’s nodes typically develop in middle age and cause a permanent bony outgrowth that often skews the fingertip sideways. Ganglion cysts are fluid-filled swellings near a joint that are usually asymptomatic but can be excised if troublesome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What virus has a single stranded RNA genome and a 3% vertical transmission rate through blood?
Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Correct Answer: Hepatitis C
Explanation:Different Types of Hepatitis and CMV Infections
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a type of DNA herpes virus that infects 50-80% of adults. It is a common and widespread infection.
Hepatitis A, on the other hand, is a picornavirus that spreads through the fecal-oral route. This virus has a single-stranded, positive-sense genome.
Hepatitis B is a member of the Hepadnaviridae family and has a unique partially double-stranded circular genome. It has a high vertical transmission rate of 90%, meaning it can easily be passed from mother to child during childbirth.
Lastly, Hepatitis D is an incomplete virus with a small RNA genome. It can only infect patients who are already infected with Hepatitis B (HBV).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain. The pain is exacerbated by lying down, relieved by sitting forward, and radiates to the left shoulder. He has recently undergone two cycles of radiotherapy for prostate cancer. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 96/52 mmHg (normal <120/80 mmHg), his jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated, and his pulse is 98 bpm, which appears to fade on inspiration. Heart sounds are faint. The electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals low-voltage QRS complexes.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this condition?Your Answer: DC cardioversion
Correct Answer: Urgent pericardiocentesis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing cardiac tamponade, which is caused by fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart and reducing ventricular filling. This is likely due to pericarditis caused by recent radiotherapy. Beck’s triad of low blood pressure, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds are indicative of tamponade. Urgent pericardiocentesis is necessary to aspirate the pericardial fluid using a 20 ml syringe and 18G needle under echocardiographic guidance. An ECG should be obtained to rule out MI and PE. GTN spray is used to manage MI, but it is not part of the treatment for tamponade. DC cardioversion is used for unstable cardiac arrhythmias, not tamponade. A fluid challenge with 1 liter of sodium chloride is not recommended as it may worsen the tamponade. LMWH is used to manage pulmonary embolus, but it is not appropriate for tamponade and may worsen the condition if the cause is haemopericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 78-year-old man with a history of dementia was admitted to your medical ward from a nursing home in Scotland a week ago. A swallow assessment was performed after the patient was noticed to have difficulty eating and drinking; which concluded that the patient was at high risk of aspiration. The care team therefore wish to make him nil by mouth and start intravenous (IV) fluids. You have explained the situation to him and asked for his consent, which he refused. You are not content that he has fully understood the gravity of the situation, as a result of his dementia. You note that the patient does not have a welfare attorney or guardian with power to consent.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to proceed in this scenario?Your Answer: Issue a certificate under section 47 of the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 and begin the treatment
Explanation:How to Proceed with Medical Treatment for an Incapacitated Adult in Scotland
When an adult lacks capacity and there is no welfare attorney or guardian with power to consent, medical treatment decisions can be difficult. However, in Scotland, the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 provides a solution. Under section 47 of the Act, a medical practitioner can issue a certificate of incapacity in relation to the treatment in question. This authorizes the practitioner or others under their direction to provide reasonable interventions related to the treatment authorized.
It is important to note that medical treatment is defined as any healthcare procedure designed to promote or safeguard the physical or mental health of the adult. Therefore, if the treatment is necessary to safeguard or promote the patient’s health, a section 47 certificate should be issued and the treatment commenced.
It is not necessary to contact the nursing home or seek consent from relatives. Instead, the medical practitioner can proceed with treatment under the principle of necessity, as authorized by the Act. There is no need to apply to a court to make a decision.
In summary, when faced with a medical treatment decision for an incapacitated adult in Scotland, the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 provides a clear path forward. By issuing a section 47 certificate and proceeding with necessary treatment, medical practitioners can safeguard and promote the health of their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 24
Correct
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A 35-year-old homeless man with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia for the past 3 weeks. He is unsure if he has had fevers but has experienced chills. He has a history of intravenous drug abuse and hepatitis C. On examination, he appears uncomfortable and avoids light. A lumbar puncture is performed, and India ink highlights several round, thickly encapsulated organisms in his cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
What is the expected CSF finding pattern in this case?Your Answer: Opening pressure: increased; lymphocyte-predominant; protein: increased; glucose: normal/decreased
Explanation:CSF Profiles in Meningitis: Characteristics and Causes
Meningitis is a serious condition that affects the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is an important diagnostic tool for identifying the cause of meningitis. Here are some common CSF profiles seen in meningitis and their corresponding causes:
1. Cryptococcus meningitis: Increased opening pressure, lymphocyte-predominant, increased protein, normal/decreased glucose. This is a fungal meningitis commonly seen in immunocompromised individuals.
2. Non-specific meningitis: Normal opening pressure, neutrophil-predominant, decreased protein, increased glucose. This CSF profile is not characteristic of any particular cause of meningitis.
3. Aseptic meningitis: Normal opening pressure, normal cells, normal protein, normal glucose. This is a viral meningitis that typically has a milder presentation than bacterial meningitis.
4. Viral meningitis: Normal opening pressure, lymphocyte-predominant, normal protein, normal glucose. This is a common cause of meningitis and is usually self-limiting.
5. Bacterial meningitis: Increased opening pressure, neutrophil-predominant, increased protein, decreased glucose. This is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment with antibiotics.
In summary, CSF analysis is an important tool for diagnosing meningitis and identifying its underlying cause. Understanding the characteristic CSF profiles of different types of meningitis can help guide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the most suitable time to collect blood samples for therapeutic monitoring of phenytoin levels in pediatric patients?
Your Answer: 4 hours after last dose
Correct Answer: Immediately before next dose
Explanation:Therapeutic Drug Monitoring: Guidelines for Monitoring Lithium, Ciclosporin, Digoxin, and Phenytoin Levels
Lithium levels should be monitored 12 hours after the last dose, with the target range being 0.4-1.0 mmol/l. Ciclosporin levels should be measured immediately before the next dose, while Digoxin levels should be checked at least 6 hours after the last dose. Phenytoin levels do not need to be monitored routinely, but trough levels should be checked before the next dose if there is a need to adjust the dose, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.
Therapeutic drug monitoring is an essential aspect of patient care, especially for drugs with narrow therapeutic windows. The guidelines for monitoring lithium, ciclosporin, digoxin, and phenytoin levels vary depending on the drug and the patient’s condition. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to ensure that the patient receives the optimal dose of medication and to prevent adverse effects. Proper monitoring of drug levels can also help detect non-adherence to the prescribed medication, which can affect treatment outcomes. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide safe and effective treatment to their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A patient 16/40 gestation contacts your clinic via phone. This is her first pregnancy and she is worried about not experiencing any foetal movements yet. You provide reassurance that foetal movements can be felt between 16-20 weeks gestation in first pregnancies. When should further investigation be considered if no foetal movements are felt by this time?
Your Answer: 20 weeks
Correct Answer: 24 weeks
Explanation:According to RCOG guidelines, women typically feel fetal movements by 20 weeks of gestation. However, if no movements are felt by 24 weeks, it is recommended to refer the woman to a maternal fetal medicine unit to assess for potential neuromuscular conditions.
Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements
Introduction:
Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.Physiology:
Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.Epidemiology:
Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.Investigations:
Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.Prognosis:
Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden painless loss of vision in his left eye. He has noticed a decline in his vision over the past few months, but attributed it to his age. He has a history of smoking 30 cigarettes daily for the last 45 years and well-controlled hypertension. The left eye has a visual acuity of 6/30, while the right eye has a visual acuity of 6/12. A central scotoma is evident on visual field testing. Fundus examination is being conducted after administering mydriatic eye drops. What is the most specific finding for the underlying cause of his presentation?
Your Answer: Geographic atrophy
Correct Answer: Choroidal neovascularisation
Explanation:The patient’s acute onset painless visual loss, along with their chronic visual loss, distorted vision, age, and smoking history, suggest a diagnosis of age-related macular degeneration (AMD). Since the vision loss was sudden, wet AMD is more likely than dry AMD. Choroidal neovascularisation is a hallmark feature of wet AMD, as new blood vessels formed are weak and unstable, leading to intraretinal or subretinal fluid leakage or haemorrhage.
Blurring of the optic disc margins is not a feature of AMD, but rather papilloedema, which is associated with increased intracranial pressure and typically presents with progressive and positional headaches, nausea, and vomiting.
Cotton-wool exudates are not commonly seen in AMD, but rather in hypertensive and diabetic retinopathy. Although the patient has hypertension, it is well-controlled, and hypertensive retinopathy tends to present with slow and progressive visual loss.
Geographic atrophy may be seen in the late stages of both forms of AMD, but the presence of choroidal neovascularisation is the key differentiating feature between the two.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man presents with symptoms of urinary colic. He has suffered from recurrent episodes of frank haematuria over the past few days. On examination he has a right loin mass and a varicocele. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the renal pelvis
Correct Answer: Renal adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Renal Adenocarcinoma, also known as a Grawitz tumour, can present with symptoms such as haematuria and clot colic. It has the potential to metastasize to bone.
Renal Cell Carcinoma: Characteristics, Diagnosis, and Management
Renal cell carcinoma is a type of adenocarcinoma that develops in the renal cortex, specifically in the proximal convoluted tubule. It is a solid lesion that may be multifocal, calcified, or cystic. The tumor is usually surrounded by a pseudocapsule of compressed normal renal tissue. Spread of the tumor may occur through direct extension into the adrenal gland, renal vein, or surrounding fascia, or through the hematogenous route to the lung, bone, or brain. Renal cell carcinoma accounts for up to 85% of all renal malignancies, and it is more common in males and in patients in their sixth decade.
Patients with renal cell carcinoma may present with various symptoms, such as haematuria, loin pain, mass, or symptoms of metastasis. Diagnosis is usually made through multislice CT scanning, which can detect the presence of a renal mass and any evidence of distant disease. Biopsy is not recommended when a nephrectomy is planned, but it is mandatory before any ablative therapies are undertaken. Assessment of the functioning of the contralateral kidney is also important.
Management of renal cell carcinoma depends on the stage of the tumor. T1 lesions may be managed by partial nephrectomy, while T2 lesions and above require radical nephrectomy. Preoperative embolization and resection of uninvolved adrenal glands are not indicated. Patients with completely resected disease do not benefit from adjuvant therapy with chemotherapy or biological agents. Patients with transitional cell cancer will require a nephroureterectomy with disconnection of the ureter at the bladder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 2-day old infant comes in with progressive abdominal swelling and one instance of vomiting bile. The baby has not yet had a bowel movement. What aspect of the medical history would suggest the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: The baby was delivered by caesarian section.
Correct Answer: Family history of cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Meconium ileus is a condition that affects newborns and can cause blockage in the intestines due to thick, sticky meconium. It is commonly associated with cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder that affects the production of mucous in the body. Other conditions that may be mistaken for meconium ileus include Hirschsprung’s disease and meconium plug syndrome. The likelihood of a baby developing meconium ileus is not influenced by factors such as conception through IVF, family history of inflammatory bowel disease or coeliac, or delivery by caesarian section.
Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Characteristics
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but there are some common features that are often present. In the neonatal period, around 20% of infants with cystic fibrosis may experience meconium ileus, which is a blockage in the intestine caused by thick, sticky mucous. Prolonged jaundice may also occur, but less commonly. Recurrent chest infections are a common symptom, affecting around 40% of patients. Malabsorption is another common feature, with around 30% of patients experiencing steatorrhoea (excessive fat in the stool) and failure to thrive. Liver disease may also occur in around 10% of patients.
It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed with cystic fibrosis during newborn screening or early childhood, around 5% of patients are not diagnosed until after the age of 18. Other features of cystic fibrosis may include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse (due to bulky stools), nasal polyps, male infertility, and female subfertility. Overall, the symptoms and characteristics of cystic fibrosis can vary widely, but early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the condition and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Correct
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You are shadowing a registrar on the pediatric ward, who is asked to help their consultant confirm a suspected case of brain stem death.
Which of the following would the doctors be assessing for?Your Answer: Corneal reflex
Explanation:To confirm brain death, there are six tests that need to be conducted. These tests include the pupillary reflex, corneal reflex, oculovestibular reflex, cough reflex, absent response to supraorbital pressure, and no spontaneous respiratory effort. Out of these tests, the corneal reflex is the only one that is specifically tested for in suspected brain stem death. The Babinski reflex is used to test for upper motor neuron damage, while the Moro reflex is a primitive reflex that is only tested for in neonates. Lastly, the ankle jerk reflex is a deep tendon reflex that tests cutaneous innervation, motor supply, and cortical input at the S1 level.
Criteria and Testing for Brain Stem Death
Brain death occurs when the brain and brain stem cease to function, resulting in irreversible loss of consciousness and vital functions. To determine brain stem death, certain criteria must be met and specific tests must be performed. The patient must be in a deep coma of known cause, with reversible causes excluded and no sedation. Electrolyte levels must be normal.
The testing for brain stem death involves several assessments. The pupils must be fixed and unresponsive to changes in light intensity. The corneal reflex must be absent, and there should be no response to supraorbital pressure. The oculovestibular reflexes must be absent, which is tested by injecting ice-cold water into each ear. There should be no cough reflex to bronchial stimulation or gagging response to pharyngeal stimulation. Finally, there should be no observed respiratory effort in response to disconnection from the ventilator for at least five minutes, with adequate oxygenation ensured.
It is important that the testing is performed by two experienced doctors on two separate occasions, with at least one being a consultant. Neither doctor can be a member of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. These criteria and tests are crucial in determining brain stem death and ensuring that the patient is beyond recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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