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Question 1
Incorrect
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A patient in their 60s with severe intermittent claudication undergoes an axillo-bifemoral bypass. Two days after the operation, they develop pain in the leg. Examination reveals a warm, erythaematous swelling in the groin.
What complication has occurred?Your Answer: The graft has blocked
Correct Answer: The graft has become infected
Explanation:Possible Complications of a Graft Procedure
Graft procedures are commonly performed to improve blood flow in patients with peripheral arterial disease. However, like any surgical intervention, there are potential complications that may arise. One possible complication is an infected graft, which can cause swelling and abscess formation. Another possibility is graft occlusion, which may occur if there is a surgical error and can lead to the recurrence of claudication symptoms. An anastomotic aneurysm is another rare but serious complication that may cause pulsatile swelling. Embolism is more likely to occur in patients with aneurysmal disease and can present with acute limb ischaemia or petechiae. Finally, an anastomotic leak is an extremely rare complication that may cause sudden pain and swelling at the site of the graft. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential complications and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms after a graft procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man has come to the clinic with a recent rectal bleed. He reports passing around 200 ml of fresh blood. During the examination, he appears stable and experiences no abdominal discomfort. Rectal examination shows fresh blood on the glove. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemorrhoids
Correct Answer: Angiodysplasia
Explanation:Causes and Management of Rectal Bleeding in the Elderly
Rectal bleeding is a common complaint among elderly patients, with most cases resolving with conservative measures. The leading cause of fresh rectal bleeding in this population is diverticular disease, followed by angiodysplasia, which is a malformation of the intestinal blood vessels. Colon cancer rarely presents with bleeding, and bleeding hemorrhoids are uncommon in the elderly. On the other hand, rectal bleeding resulting from a duodenal ulcer is usually severe and can rapidly lead to hemodynamic instability. In such cases, patients are treated with transfusion as necessary.
Angiodysplasia is characterized by cherry-red areas seen during colonoscopy, and it is thought to result from obstruction of the mucosal veins. To confirm the cause of severe rectal bleeding, selective mesenteric angiography is performed. This diagnostic procedure also allows for the control of bleeding by selectively embolizing the offending vessel. Overall, prompt evaluation and management of rectal bleeding in the elderly are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Correct
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A 38-year-old male suddenly cries out, grabs the back of his head, and collapses in front of a bystander. After receiving appropriate treatment, he is now recovering in the hospital. As you assess his condition, you begin to consider potential complications that may arise. What is the most probable complication that he may experience due to his underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.
Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Correct
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A 30-year-old male visits his general practitioner (GP) complaining of swelling in his testicles. He reports a soft sensation on the top of his left testicle but denies any pain or issues with urination or erections. The GP orders an ultrasound, and the results show a mild varicocele on the left side without other abnormalities detected. What is the recommended next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Reassure and observe
Explanation:Common Scrotal Problems and Their Features
Epididymal cysts, hydroceles, and varicoceles are the most common scrotal problems seen in primary care. Epididymal cysts are usually found posterior to the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They may be associated with conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound, and management is usually supportive, although surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydroceles, on the other hand, describe the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They may be communicating or non-communicating, and may develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Hydroceles are usually soft, non-tender swellings of the hemi-scrotum that transilluminate with a pen torch. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, with infantile hydroceles generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years.
Varicoceles, on the other hand, are abnormal enlargements of the testicular veins that are usually asymptomatic but may be associated with subfertility. They are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound with Doppler studies, and management is usually conservative, although surgery may be required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old man with a past medical history of internal hemorrhoids presents with a recent exacerbation of symptoms. He reports having to manually reduce his piles after bowel movements. What grade of hemorrhoids is he experiencing?
Your Answer: Grade III
Explanation:Understanding Haemorrhoids
Haemorrhoids are a normal part of the anatomy that contribute to anal continence. They are mucosal vascular cushions found in specific areas of the anal canal. However, when they become enlarged, congested, and symptomatic, they are considered haemorrhoids. The most common symptom is painless rectal bleeding, but pruritus and pain may also occur. There are two types of haemorrhoids: external, which originate below the dentate line and are prone to thrombosis, and internal, which originate above the dentate line and do not generally cause pain. Internal haemorrhoids are graded based on their prolapse and reducibility. Management includes softening stools through dietary changes, topical treatments, outpatient procedures like rubber band ligation, and surgery for large, symptomatic haemorrhoids. Acutely thrombosed external haemorrhoids may require excision if the patient presents within 72 hours, but otherwise can be managed with stool softeners, ice packs, and analgesia.
Overall, understanding haemorrhoids and their management is important for individuals experiencing symptoms and healthcare professionals providing care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Correct
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You are shadowing a registrar on the pediatric ward, who is asked to help their consultant confirm a suspected case of brain stem death.
Which of the following would the doctors be assessing for?Your Answer: Corneal reflex
Explanation:To confirm brain death, there are six tests that need to be conducted. These tests include the pupillary reflex, corneal reflex, oculovestibular reflex, cough reflex, absent response to supraorbital pressure, and no spontaneous respiratory effort. Out of these tests, the corneal reflex is the only one that is specifically tested for in suspected brain stem death. The Babinski reflex is used to test for upper motor neuron damage, while the Moro reflex is a primitive reflex that is only tested for in neonates. Lastly, the ankle jerk reflex is a deep tendon reflex that tests cutaneous innervation, motor supply, and cortical input at the S1 level.
Criteria and Testing for Brain Stem Death
Brain death occurs when the brain and brain stem cease to function, resulting in irreversible loss of consciousness and vital functions. To determine brain stem death, certain criteria must be met and specific tests must be performed. The patient must be in a deep coma of known cause, with reversible causes excluded and no sedation. Electrolyte levels must be normal.
The testing for brain stem death involves several assessments. The pupils must be fixed and unresponsive to changes in light intensity. The corneal reflex must be absent, and there should be no response to supraorbital pressure. The oculovestibular reflexes must be absent, which is tested by injecting ice-cold water into each ear. There should be no cough reflex to bronchial stimulation or gagging response to pharyngeal stimulation. Finally, there should be no observed respiratory effort in response to disconnection from the ventilator for at least five minutes, with adequate oxygenation ensured.
It is important that the testing is performed by two experienced doctors on two separate occasions, with at least one being a consultant. Neither doctor can be a member of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. These criteria and tests are crucial in determining brain stem death and ensuring that the patient is beyond recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 7
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with a T4N0M0 primary triple-negative breast carcinoma is attending a pre-operative breast oncology clinic. The oncologist recommends neo-adjuvant chemotherapy (NACT) as a beneficial course of treatment. What should the patient be informed of when considering whether to undergo NACT?
Your Answer: NACT can downsize the primary tumour, meaning that breast conserving surgery can be performed instead of a mastectomy
Explanation:One of the main reasons for considering neo-adjuvant chemotherapy in breast cancer treatment is to shrink the size of the tumor before surgery. This can potentially allow for breast conserving surgery instead of a mastectomy, which has several benefits. Firstly, it is a less invasive surgical procedure, reducing the risks associated with surgery. Additionally, it can lead to better cosmetic outcomes for the patient.
It is important to note that both NACT and surgery have their own set of side effects, which cannot be compared with each other. However, there is an exciting new area of breast cancer research that focuses on immunomodulation. Some trials have shown that anti-tumor immunity can be induced following cryoablation/radiotherapy and administration of immunomodulating drugs. Unfortunately, NACT does not have this effect.
One common side effect of NACT is nausea. The effect of NACT on overall survival rates has been mixed, but its main indication remains downsizing of the primary tumor.
Reference:
Nice guideline NG101 (2018).Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Correct
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A 21-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of a lump in his scrotum that he noticed while showering. He reports feeling some discomfort in the area but denies any pain. He has been in a committed relationship with his girlfriend and had a clear sexual health screen two weeks ago.
Upon examination, the GP notes a soft mass on the anterior aspect of the right testis that cannot be distinguished from the testis itself. The lump is not tender to touch and transilluminates.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Hydrocoele
Explanation:Hydrocoeles are distinguishable from other testicular lumps as they are not separate from the testis and can be transilluminated.
When evaluating scrotal lumps, it is crucial to determine if the mass is solid or cystic in nature and if it is continuous or separate from the testis. A hydrocoele is a fluid collection in the tunica vaginalis that surrounds the testis, making it cystic or fluctuant and indistinguishable from the testis itself. Therefore, this is the correct answer in this situation. Although benign, hydrocoeles can often be caused by testicular tumors, which should be ruled out with an ultrasound scan.
Testicular tumors would be continuous with the testis, but they may be distinct and irregular in shape. They would not be cystic or transilluminate, but they may also present with a secondary hydrocoele.
Varicocoeles and epididymal cysts would be separate from the testis during examination.
Causes and Management of Scrotal Swelling
Scrotal swelling can be caused by various conditions, including inguinal hernia, testicular tumors, acute epididymo-orchitis, epididymal cysts, hydrocele, testicular torsion, and varicocele. Inguinal hernia is characterized by inguinoscrotal swelling that cannot be examined above it, while testicular tumors often have a discrete testicular nodule and symptoms of metastatic disease. Acute epididymo-orchitis is often accompanied by dysuria and urethral discharge, while epididymal cysts are usually painless and occur in individuals over 40 years old. Hydrocele is a non-painful, soft fluctuant swelling that can be examined above, while testicular torsion is characterized by severe, sudden onset testicular pain and requires urgent surgery. Varicocele is characterized by varicosities of the pampiniform plexus and may affect fertility.
The management of scrotal swelling depends on the underlying condition. Testicular malignancy is treated with orchidectomy via an inguinal approach, while torsion requires prompt surgical exploration and testicular fixation. Varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, but surgery or radiological management can be considered if there are concerns about testicular function or infertility. Epididymal cysts can be excised using a scrotal approach, while hydroceles are managed differently in children and adults. In children, an inguinal approach is used to ligate the underlying pathology, while in adults, a scrotal approach is preferred to excise or plicate the hydrocele sac.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Correct
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A 45-year-old overweight woman presents to the emergency department with severe upper abdominal pain that started suddenly 10 hours ago. The pain is at its worst 15 minutes after onset and radiates to her back. She finds some relief by sitting forward. She has also experienced nausea and vomiting but denies any diarrhea or fever. She has been on the combined oral contraceptive pill for the past 4 years and drinks one glass of wine per day but denies any recreational drug use. On examination, she appears unwell, has a pulse rate of 110/min, and is tender in the epigastric region. She has a history of biliary colic but no significant past medical history or previous surgery. What diagnostic test is most likely to yield a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Serum lipase
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis, likely caused by gallstones, can be diagnosed by checking for an elevation of more than 3 times the upper limit of normal in a serum lipase test. While chest and abdominal x-rays are not useful for diagnosing pancreatitis, they can help rule out other potential causes of abdominal pain and detect complications of pancreatitis. Full blood examination, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests do not directly aid in the diagnosis of pancreatitis but can help assess the severity of the disease or provide clues to its cause. Initial investigations to determine the cause may include an abdominal ultrasound, calcium level, and lipid profile.
Understanding Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.
To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.
Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.
In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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A 50-year-old ex-footballer undergoes a right hip hemi-arthroplasty. He is an ex-smoker. He is admitted to the ward.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding his deep venous thrombosis (DVT) thromboprophylaxis?Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) and compression stockings should be prescribed as standard
Explanation:Prophylaxis of Deep Vein Thrombosis in Surgical Patients
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a common complication in patients undergoing major orthopaedic surgery, particularly in the pelvis and lower limbs. To prevent DVT formation, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) and compression stockings should be prescribed as standard for all surgical patients. Aspirin is not recommended for DVT prophylaxis, but may be prescribed for cardiac risk factor modification. LMWH should be prescribed routinely, regardless of the patient’s risk of immobility. Heparin infusion is not recommended as first-line therapy, with LMWH being the preferred option. There is no indication to start formal anticoagulation with warfarin postoperatively. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively prevent DVT formation in surgical patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 11
Correct
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A man is having his preoperative assessment for a hernia repair. His body mass index (BMI) is calculated at 38.
Which definition correctly describes his BMI value?Your Answer: Obese class 2
Explanation:Understanding BMI Categories and Their Impact on Surgery
Body Mass Index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on height and weight. BMI categories range from underweight to obese class 3. An individual with a BMI of 35-39.99 is considered obese class 2. Those who fall under this category are at a higher risk of anesthesia and post-operative complications. It is important to understand the different BMI categories and their impact on surgery to ensure a safe and successful procedure. A normal BMI is between 18.5 and 24.99, overweight is between 25 and 29.99, obese class 1 is between 30 and 34.99, and morbid obesity/obese class 3 is a BMI of 40 or over.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with fever and pain in the upper right quadrant. Her blood work reveals an elevated CRP and an ultrasound confirms acute cholecystitis. The patient is administered analgesia and IV fluids. What other treatment options are likely to be prescribed for this patient?
Your Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 24 hours of admission
Correct Answer: Intravenous antibiotics + laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 1 week
Explanation:Acute cholecystitis is a condition where the gallbladder becomes inflamed. This is usually caused by gallstones, which are present in 90% of cases. The remaining 10% of cases are known as acalculous cholecystitis and are typically seen in severely ill patients who are hospitalized. The pathophysiology of acute cholecystitis is multifactorial and can be caused by gallbladder stasis, hypoperfusion, and infection. In immunosuppressed patients, it may develop due to Cryptosporidium or cytomegalovirus. This condition is associated with high morbidity and mortality rates.
The main symptom of acute cholecystitis is right upper quadrant pain, which may radiate to the right shoulder. Patients may also experience fever and signs of systemic upset. Murphy’s sign, which is inspiratory arrest upon palpation of the right upper quadrant, may be present. Liver function tests are typically normal, but deranged LFTs may indicate Mirizzi syndrome, which is caused by a gallstone impacted in the distal cystic duct, causing extrinsic compression of the common bile duct.
Ultrasound is the first-line investigation for acute cholecystitis. If the diagnosis remains unclear, cholescintigraphy (HIDA scan) may be used. In this test, technetium-labelled HIDA is injected IV and taken up selectively by hepatocytes and excreted into bile. In acute cholecystitis, there is cystic duct obstruction, and the gallbladder will not be visualized.
The treatment for acute cholecystitis involves intravenous antibiotics and cholecystectomy. NICE now recommends early laparoscopic cholecystectomy, within 1 week of diagnosis. Previously, surgery was delayed for several weeks until the inflammation had subsided. Pregnant women should also proceed to early laparoscopic cholecystectomy to reduce the chances of maternal-fetal complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old patient presents with a gradual increase in the urge to urinate. The patient reports experiencing frequent urges to urinate and occasional urinary incontinence. These symptoms occur both during the day and at night. The patient denies any other urinary symptoms, and a urinalysis is normal. A digital rectal exam reveals a normal-sized prostate, and a prostate-specific antigen test is within normal range. The patient is diagnosed with an overactive bladder, and advised on fluid intake and bladder retraining, but with limited improvement. What is the first-line medication that should be prescribed?
Your Answer: An alpha-blocker
Correct Answer: An antimuscarinic
Explanation:Antimuscarinic drugs are the first-line medication for patients with overactive bladder symptoms. These drugs, such as oxybutynin, tolterodine, or darifenacin, work by blocking receptors in the detrusor muscles of the bladder, reducing overactive symptoms. Conservative measures like fluid intake adjustments and bladder retraining should be tried first. If antimuscarinics do not improve symptoms, the beta-3 agonist mirabegron can be considered as a second-line treatment.
5-alpha reductase inhibitors are not useful for patients with predominantly overactive bladder symptoms. They are mainly used for patients with voiding symptoms caused by an enlarged prostate, such as hesitancy, poor stream, straining, and incomplete bladder emptying.
Calcium channel blockers do not play a role in the management of LUTS and may even worsen symptoms. Patients on calcium channel blockers who present with LUTS symptoms should consider changing to another antihypertensive medication before starting an additional medication for LUTS.
Alpha-blockers are also mainly used for patients with LUTS secondary to an enlarged prostate. They relax the smooth muscle in the bladder and are not helpful for patients with overactive bladder symptoms.
antidiuretic medications like desmopressin may be used for patients who mainly experience nocturia, but they are not typically used as first-line medication and have a limited role in patients with overactive bladder symptoms.
Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a urinalysis to check for infection and haematuria, perform a digital rectal examination to assess the size and consistency of the prostate, and possibly conduct a PSA test after proper counselling. Patients should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.
For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be offered. If there are mixed symptoms of voiding and storage not responding to an alpha-blocker, an antimuscarinic drug may be added. For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered, and antimuscarinic drugs may be prescribed if symptoms persist. Mirabegron may be considered if first-line drugs fail. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night, furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon, and desmopressin may be helpful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is scheduled for an elective knee replacement surgery the following day. He has type 2 diabetes and is the first patient on the surgery list. His doctor has advised him to continue taking his once-daily dose of metformin and his new anti-diabetic medication on the day of the operation. The patient's physician recently changed his diabetes medication due to hypoglycemic episodes with his previous medication. What is the most probable new antidiabetic medication he is taking?
Your Answer: Dapagliflozin
Correct Answer: Sitagliptin
Explanation:Patients undergoing surgery who are taking DPP-4 inhibitors (-gliptins) and GLP-1 analogues (-tides) can continue taking these medications as normal throughout the perioperative period. However, SGLT-2 blockers such as empagliflozin and dapagliflozin should be omitted on the day of surgery due to the increased risk of diabetic ketoacidosis during periods of dehydration and acute illness. Sulphonylureas like gliclazide should also be omitted until the patient is able to eat and drink again, as they can cause hypoglycaemia in patients who are in a fasted state. It is important to note that the patient in the case scenario may have been taking sulphonylureas in the past, but they are unlikely to be part of their current treatment regimen as they were discontinued by their GP due to side effects.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 15
Correct
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A 44-year-old man with alcohol dependence presents to the emergency department with sudden onset epigastric pain. The pain is severe and radiates to his back. He admits to drinking two bottles of vodka the night before. His vital signs are stable, with a heart rate of 72/min, respiratory rate of 16/min, blood pressure of 128/70 mmHg, and temperature of 38.2 ÂșC. Laboratory results show:
Hemoglobin: 130 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
Platelets: 280 * 109/L (150-400)
White blood cells: 5.8 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
Bilirubin: 18 ”mol/L (3-17)
Alkaline phosphatase: 80 u/L (30-100)
Alanine transaminase: 42 u/L (3-40)
Gamma-glutamyl transferase: 60 u/L (8-60)
Albumin: 38 g/L (35-50)
Calcium: 1.8 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Amylase: 1200 U/L (70-300)
Based on the likely diagnosis, which of the following factors is a predictor of poor prognosis for this patient?Your Answer: Calcium of 1.9 mmol/L
Explanation:Although amylase is an important diagnostic tool for pancreatitis, it does not provide any indication of prognosis. Only calcium levels can be used as a marker of severity and suggest a poorer prognosis. The reason for hypocalcaemia in this context is not clear, but patients with low calcium levels have a higher mortality rate than those with normal levels. Temperature is not a factor in assessing severity, but it can help determine the level of support needed for the patient. Age over 55, not 45, is a marker of severity in acute pancreatitis. This patient is not old enough to be classified as severe based on age alone. Low haemoglobin is not a marker of severity in acute pancreatitis. In this case, the patient’s history of alcohol dependence is likely the cause of their anaemia due to the suppressive effect of chronic alcohol consumption on haematopoiesis. An amylase level greater than three times the upper limit of normal is diagnostic of acute pancreatitis in a patient with upper abdominal pain.
Understanding Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.
To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.
Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.
In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 16
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and distention. She has been feeling unwell for the past 4 hours and she has vomited three times. Her past medical history includes hypertension and an appendicectomy in her late 40s. On examination, her abdomen is distended but not peritonitic, with absent bowel sounds. Her electrolytes were assessed and are as follows:
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 105 ”mol/L (55 - 120)
Calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 1.1 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
What is the first-line management for her condition?Your Answer: Nasogastric tube insertion and intravenous fluids with additional magnesium
Correct Answer: Nasogastric tube insertion and intravenous fluids with additional potassium
Explanation:The initial medical management for small bowel obstruction involves the insertion of a nasogastric tube to decompress the small bowel and the administration of intravenous fluids with additional potassium. This is the correct answer as the patient is exhibiting classic symptoms of small bowel obstruction, including intense abdominal pain and early vomiting, and has a history of abdominal surgery that could have caused adhesions, the most common cause of this condition. The intravenous fluids are necessary to replace electrolytes, particularly potassium, which can be lost due to the increased peristalsis and enlargement of the proximal bowel segment. Antibiotics and intravenous fluids would be the appropriate treatment for acute pancreatitis, which presents with different symptoms and causes. Surgery is not the first-line management for small bowel obstruction, and sigmoidoscope insertion with a flatus tube is not appropriate as the patient has small bowel obstruction, not large bowel obstruction.
Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65 kg 30-year-old woman who is normally fit and well is scheduled for appendectomy today. She has been made nil by mouth, and surgeons expect her to continue nil by mouth for approximately 24 h. The woman has a past medical history of childhood asthma. She has been taking paracetamol for pain, but takes no other regular medication. On examination, the womanâs blood pressure (BP) is 110/80 mmHg, heart rate 65 beats per minute (bpm). Her lungs are clear. Jugular venous pressure (JVP) is not raised and she has no peripheral oedema. Skin turgor is normal.
What is the appropriate fluid prescription for this woman for the 24 h while she is nil by mouth?Your Answer: 1 litre 0.9% sodium chloride with 20 mmol potassium over 12 h; 1 litre 5% dextrose with 20 mmol potassium over 12 h
Correct Answer: 1 litre 0.9% sodium chloride with 40 mmol potassium over 8 h, 1 litre 5% dextrose with 20 mmol potassium over 8 h; 100 ml 5% dextrose over 8 h
Explanation:Assessing and Prescribing IV Fluids for a Euvolemic Patient
When prescribing IV fluids for a euvolemic patient, it is important to consider their maintenance fluid requirements. This typically involves 25-30 ml/kg/day of water, 1 mmol/kg/day of potassium, sodium, and chloride, and 50-100 g/day of glucose to prevent starvation ketosis.
One common rule of thumb is to prescribe 2x sweet (5% dextrose) and 1x salt (0.9% sodium chloride) fluids, or alternatively, the same volume of Hartmann’s solution. It is also important to monitor electrolyte levels through daily blood tests.
When assessing different IV fluid options, it is important to consider the volume of fluid prescribed, the potassium replacement, and the type of fluid being used. For example, colloid fluids like human albumin should only be prescribed in cases of severe hypovolemia due to blood loss.
Overall, careful consideration and monitoring is necessary when prescribing IV fluids for a euvolemic patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man is being evaluated on the orthopaedic ward for fever and difficulty breathing. He underwent intramedullary nail surgery to repair a fracture in his right tibia a week ago. What is the probable reason for his pyrexia that occurred more than 5 days after the operation?
Your Answer: Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: Venous thromboembolism
Explanation:Venous thromboembolism typically manifests itself between 5 to 10 days after surgery. The presence of breathlessness increases the likelihood of a diagnosis of venous thromboembolism as opposed to cellulitis or urinary tract infection. Meanwhile, pulmonary atelectasis is more prone to occur in the earlier stages following surgery.
Post-operative pyrexia, or fever, can occur after surgery and can be caused by various factors. Early causes of post-op pyrexia, which typically occur within the first five days after surgery, include blood transfusion, cellulitis, urinary tract infection, and a physiological systemic inflammatory reaction that usually occurs within a day following the operation. Pulmonary atelectasis is also often listed as an early cause, but the evidence to support this link is limited. Late causes of post-op pyrexia, which occur more than five days after surgery, include venous thromboembolism, pneumonia, wound infection, and anastomotic leak.
To remember the possible causes of post-op pyrexia, it is helpful to use the memory aid of the 4 W’s: wind, water, wound, and what did we do? (iatrogenic). This means that the causes can be related to respiratory issues (wind), urinary tract or other fluid-related problems (water), wound infections or complications (wound), or something that was done during the surgery or post-operative care (iatrogenic). It is important to identify the cause of post-op pyrexia and treat it promptly to prevent further complications. This information is based on a peer-reviewed publication available on the National Center for Biotechnology Information website.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of burning during urination and swelling in the groin area. He also reports experiencing penile discharge and pain in the groin. He has been sexually active with his wife for the past 6 years.
During the examination, his heart rate is 91/min, respiratory rate is 15/min, blood pressure is 129/84 mmHg, and temperature is 38.3ÂșC. The patient experiences pain in his right testicle, which is relieved by elevating the scrotum.
What is the most likely organism responsible for his symptoms?Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Epididymo-orchitis in individuals with a low risk of sexually transmitted infections (such as a married male in his 50s with only one sexual partner, his wife) is most likely caused by enteric organisms, specifically Escherichia coli. This is evidenced by the patient’s symptoms of unilateral testicular pain, tenderness, and swelling, as well as dysuria and relief of pain when the testicle is raised. While Enterococcus faecalis is also a possible causative organism, E. coli is more common in older patients with low-risk sexual histories. Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are less likely causes, as they are more commonly associated with epididymo-orchitis in younger patients with high-risk sexual histories.
Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.
Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 20
Correct
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As a junior doctor on a surgical ward, you are tasked with admitting a 65-year-old woman with cholecystitis. She is scheduled for emergency surgery to remove her gallbladder the next day and is the first on the list. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes metformin 1g twice daily. Her recent HbA1c has come back elevated at 95 mmol/mol, but she has not yet seen her GP to discuss this. Her admission bloods show normal renal function. The ward nurse asks for guidance on how to manage the patient's diabetes mellitus during the perioperative period. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: A variable rate insulin infusion should be started
Explanation:Patients with diabetes who are on insulin and are either undergoing major surgery or have poorly controlled diabetes will typically require a variable rate intravenous insulin infusion (VRIII). However, if the patient is only missing one meal and is on oral antidiabetic treatment, medication manipulation on the day of surgery may suffice. It is important to check hospital guidelines and discuss the patient with the surgical and anaesthetic team.
If the patient’s recent HbA1c shows poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, a VRIII is likely necessary. The decision to omit metformin in the peri-operative period depends on the risk of acute kidney injury. If the patient has a low risk and is only missing one meal, they can continue their metformin, but should omit the lunchtime dose if taken three times a day. If there is a higher risk or the patient is missing more than one meal, metformin should be omitted from the time they start fasting.
Leaving poorly controlled diabetes untreated during surgery increases the risk of complications such as wound and respiratory infections and post-operative kidney injury. Therefore, a VRIII is the safer option. Long-term insulin treatment can be assessed by the patient’s community team once the patient is medically stable.
If the patient is listed for emergency surgery, managing their diabetes peri-operatively is appropriate to prevent their condition from worsening. However, if the surgery is elective, it may be best to wait until the diabetes is better managed.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 21
Correct
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Which of the following checks is not included in the pre-operative checklist of the WHO (World Health Organisation) for patients over 60 years of age before the administration of anaesthesia?
Your Answer: Does the patient have 12-lead ECG monitoring in place?
Explanation:Checklists are a highly effective tool in reducing errors in various fields, including medicine and aviation. The World Health Organisation (WHO) has developed a Surgical Safety Checklist to prevent common surgical mistakes.
The checklist is divided into three phases of the operation:
1) Before administering anaesthesia (sign-in)
2) Before making an incision in the skin (time-out)
3) Before the patient leaves the operating room (sign-out).During each phase, a checklist coordinator must confirm that the surgical team has completed the listed tasks before proceeding with the operation.
Before administering anaesthesia, the following checks must be completed:
– The patient has confirmed the site, identity, procedure, and consent.
– The site is marked.
– The anaesthesia safety check is completed.
– The patient has a functioning pulse oximeter.
– Is the patient allergic to anything?
– Is there a risk of a difficult airway or aspiration?
– Is there a risk of blood loss exceeding 500ml (7 ml/kg in children)?The Importance of Surgical Safety Checklists
Checklists have proven to be an effective tool in reducing errors in various fields, including medicine and aviation. The World Health Organisation (WHO) has developed a Surgical Safety Checklist to minimize the occurrence of common surgical mistakes.
The checklist is divided into three phases of an operation: before the induction of anaesthesia (sign in), before the incision of the skin (time out), and before the patient leaves the operating room (sign out). In each phase, a checklist coordinator must confirm that the surgical team has completed the listed tasks before proceeding with the operation.
Before the induction of anaesthesia, the checklist ensures that the patient’s site, identity, procedure, and consent have been confirmed. The site must also be marked, and an anaesthesia safety check must be completed. Additionally, the pulse oximeter must be on the patient and functioning. The checklist also prompts the team to check for any known allergies, difficult airway/aspiration risks, and risks of significant blood loss.
Using a surgical safety checklist can significantly reduce the occurrence of surgical errors and improve patient outcomes. It is essential for surgical teams to prioritize patient safety by implementing this tool in their practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male with multiple comorbidities is set to undergo a bowel resection in his local hospital. He visits the senior anaesthetist at the pre-operative assessment clinic to assess his eligibility for surgery and organize any necessary pre-operative investigations. According to NICE, who should undergo a chest X-ray as part of their pre-operative assessment?
Your Answer: Patients over the age of 65
Correct Answer: Not routinely recommended
Explanation:It is no longer standard practice to perform chest x-rays prior to surgery. However, individuals who are 65 years or older may require an ECG before undergoing major surgery. Patients with renal disease may need a complete blood count and an ECG before intermediate surgery, depending on their ASA grade. Patients with hypertension do not require any specific pre-operative tests.
The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).
ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.
ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 23
Correct
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What is the most frequent complication associated with a clavicle fracture?
Your Answer: Malunion
Explanation:Complications and Risk Factors in Clavicle Fractures
Clavicle fractures are common injuries that can result in various complications. The most frequent complication is malunion, which can cause angulation, shortening, and poor appearance. Although non-anatomic union is typical of most displaced middle-third clavicle fractures, many experts suggest that such malunion does not significantly affect function.
Nonunion is another complication that occurs when there is a failure to show clinical or radiographic progression of healing after four to six months. Several risk factors have been identified, including the extent of initial trauma, fracture combinations, fracture displacement, inadequate immobilisation, distal-third fractures, primary open reduction, and refracture.
It is essential to identify these risk factors to prevent complications and ensure proper treatment. Adequate immobilisation and careful monitoring of the healing process are crucial in preventing nonunion and malunion. In cases where complications do occur, prompt intervention can help minimise the impact on function and appearance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 24
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman is recuperating from an inguinal hernia surgery when she experiences a severe ischemic stroke. She is being treated on the rehabilitation ward. Nevertheless, she is still unable to eat securely, and multiple swallowing evaluations have revealed that she has a tendency to aspirate. What is the most suitable alternative for long-term feeding?
Your Answer: PEG tube feeding
Explanation:Although PEG tubes are linked to a considerable amount of morbidity, they are the most suitable choice for a long-term solution. A feeding jejunostomy necessitates the use of general anesthesia. TPN is not a viable alternative. Long-term nasogastric feeding is typically inadequate.
Enteral feeding is a method of providing nutrition to patients who are malnourished or at risk of malnutrition and have a functional gastrointestinal tract. It involves administering food directly into the stomach through a tube, which can be placed either through the nose (nasogastric tube) or directly into the stomach (gastrostomy tube). The type of tube used depends on the patient’s condition and the presence of upper gastrointestinal dysfunction.
To ensure safe and effective enteral feeding, healthcare professionals must check the placement of the tube using aspiration and pH tests. Gastric feeding is preferred, but if there is upper GI dysfunction, duodenal or jejunal tubes may be used. Patients in intensive care units (ICUs) should receive continuous feeding for 16-24 hours, and a motility agent may be used to aid gastric emptying. If this is ineffective, post-pyloric feeding or parenteral feeding may be considered.
Complications of enteral feeding include diarrhoea, aspiration, hyperglycaemia, and refeeding syndrome. Patients who are identified as malnourished or at risk of malnutrition should be considered for enteral feeding, especially if they have a BMI below 18.5 kg/m2, unintentional weight loss of more than 10% over 3-6 months, or a BMI below 20 kg/m2 and unintentional weight loss of more than 5% over 3-6 months. Surgical patients who are malnourished, have an unsafe swallow or inadequate oral intake, and have a functional GI tract may benefit from preoperative enteral feeding.
It is important to note that PEG tubes should not be removed until at least 2 weeks after insertion, and surgical patients due to have major abdominal surgery should be carefully evaluated before enteral feeding is initiated. Overall, enteral feeding is a valuable tool for providing nutrition to patients who are unable to eat normally, but it must be used with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 25
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to her back. She has no significant past medical history. On examination, her epigastrium is very tender but not peritonitic. Observations are as follows: heart rate 110 beats per minute, blood pressure 125/75 mmHg, SpO2 96% on air, and temperature 37.2ÂșC.
Blood results are as follows:
Hb 125 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 560 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 14.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Calcium 1.9 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Creatinine 110 ”mol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 120 mg/L (< 5)
Amylase 1420 U/L (40-140)
What feature suggests severe disease?Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia can cause pancreatitis, but hypocalcaemia is an indicator of pancreatitis severity. Diagnosis of acute pancreatitis is confirmed by clinical features and significantly raised amylase. Scoring systems such as Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II are used to identify severe cases requiring intensive care management. An LDH level greater than 350 IU/L is also an indicator of pancreatitis severity.
Understanding Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.
To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.
Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.
In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about a noticeable bulge in his groin area. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, the doctor observes a reducible lump with a cough impulse above and medial to the pubic tubercle. The patient reports no discomfort or other symptoms.
What is the best course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer: Reassurance and safety netting
Correct Answer: Routine surgical referral
Explanation:Referral for surgical repair is the recommended course of action for inguinal hernias, even if they are not causing any symptoms. This patient has an inguinal hernia and is fit for surgery, making surgical referral appropriate. Physiotherapy referral is not necessary in this case, and reassurance and safety netting should still be provided. An ultrasound scan is not needed as the surgical team will determine if imaging is necessary.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.
The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.
Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 27
Correct
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A 50-year-old man is at his pre-operative assessment for his scheduled hernia repair next week. During the consultation, he informs the anaesthetist that his father and brother had a reaction to an anaesthetic in the past, which was later diagnosed as malignant hyperthermia.
What medication should the anaesthetist avoid administering in this situation?Your Answer: Suxamethonium
Explanation:Out of the drugs listed, suxamethonium is the only one that can trigger malignant hyperthermia. The rest of the drugs are considered safe for use in individuals with this condition.
Malignant Hyperthermia: A Condition Triggered by Anaesthetic Agents
Malignant hyperthermia is a medical condition that often occurs after the administration of anaesthetic agents. It is characterized by hyperpyrexia and muscle rigidity, which is caused by the excessive release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle. This condition is associated with defects in a gene on chromosome 19 that encodes the ryanodine receptor, which controls calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion. It is worth noting that neuroleptic malignant syndrome may have a similar aetiology.
The causative agents of malignant hyperthermia include halothane, suxamethonium, and other drugs such as antipsychotics (which can trigger neuroleptic malignant syndrome). To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform tests such as checking for elevated levels of creatine kinase and conducting contracture tests with halothane and caffeine.
The management of malignant hyperthermia involves the use of dantrolene, which prevents the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. With prompt and appropriate treatment, patients with malignant hyperthermia can recover fully. Therefore, it is essential to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of this condition, especially when administering anaesthetic agents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 28
Correct
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A 55-year-old male patient complains of pain in the right upper quadrant that has been bothering him for the past 5 hours. During examination, his blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, heart rate is 75 bpm, temperature is 38.5ÂșC, and he displays signs of jaundice. What is the probable causative organism for this diagnosis?
Your Answer: E. coli
Explanation:Jaundice can present in various surgical situations, and liver function tests can help classify whether the jaundice is pre hepatic, hepatic, or post hepatic. Different diagnoses have typical features and pathogenesis, and ultrasound is the most commonly used first-line test. Relief of jaundice is important, even if surgery is planned, and management depends on the underlying cause. Patients with unrelieved jaundice have a higher risk of complications and death. Treatment options include stenting, surgery, and antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 29
Correct
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A 55-year-old man was brought to the emergency department with sudden abdominal pain and vomiting. The general surgeons diagnosed him with pancreatitis and he was given IV fluids and pain relief by the registrar. The FY1 was then asked to complete a Modified Glasgow Score to determine the severity of the pancreatitis. What information will the FY1 need to gather to complete this task?
Your Answer: Urea level
Explanation:The Modified Glasgow Score is utilized for predicting the severity of pancreatitis. If three or more of the following factors are identified within 48 hours of onset, it indicates severe pancreatitis: Pa02 <8 kPa, age >55 years, neutrophilia WBC >15×10^9, calcium <2mmol/L, renal function urea >16 mmol/L, enzymes LDH >600 ; AST >200, albumin <32g/L, and blood glucose >10 mmol/L. To remember these factors easily, one can use the acronym PANCREAS. This information can be found in the Oxford Handbook of Clinical Medicine, 9th edition, on pages 638-639.
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is mainly caused by gallstones and alcohol in the UK. A popular mnemonic to remember the causes is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. CT scans of patients with acute pancreatitis show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has been experiencing a range of medical issues for quite some time. He complains of intense abdominal pain after eating, has been diagnosed with diabetes, requires digestive enzymes, and has noticed that his stool floats. These symptoms have all manifested within the past two decades. What is the probable underlying cause of this man's condition?
Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease
Correct Answer: Chronic alcohol abuse
Explanation:Chronic pancreatitis is often characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain after eating, steatorrhea, pancreatic enzyme abnormalities, and diabetes. The primary cause of this condition is typically excessive alcohol consumption, which can result in chronic inflammation that affects both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas.
Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis
Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities like pancreas divisum and annular pancreas.
Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays can show pancreatic calcification in 30% of cases, while CT scans are more sensitive at detecting calcification with a sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 85%. Functional tests like faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.
Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants, although the evidence base for the latter is limited. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and management of chronic pancreatitis to effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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