-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a left groin swelling that is identified as a direct inguinal hernia. Can you indicate the position of the ilioinguinal nerve in relation to the spermatic cord within the inguinal canal?
Your Answer: Lateral to the spermatic cord
Correct Answer: Anterior to the spermatic cord
Explanation:The inguinal canal is a crucial anatomical feature that houses the spermatic cord in males, while the ilioinguinal nerve runs in front of it. Both the ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves stem from the L1 nerve root. Unlike the deep (internal) inguinal ring, the ilioinguinal nerve enters the inguinal canal through the abdominal muscles and exits through the superficial (external) inguinal ring.
The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.
The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital complaining of intense upper abdominal pain, fever, and vomiting. After diagnosis, he is found to have acute pancreatitis. Among the liver function tests, which one is significantly elevated in cases of pancreatitis?
Your Answer: Amylase
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
During an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, a 78-year-old man has two clamps placed on his aorta, with the inferior clamp positioned at the point of aortic bifurcation. Which vertebral body will be located posterior to the clamp at this level?
Your Answer: L4
Explanation:The point at which the aorta divides into two branches is known as the bifurcation, which is a crucial anatomical landmark that is frequently assessed. This bifurcation typically occurs at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebrae (L4).
The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 67-year-old male is receiving treatment for his colorectal cancer from the oncology team at his nearby hospital. What type of colorectal carcinoma is most frequently encountered?
Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma
Explanation:The most common type of colorectal cancer is adenocarcinoma, which originates from the mucosal lining of the colon. Initially, it develops as a benign adenoma from glandular cells of the mucosa, which later transforms into a malignant form.
Squamous cell carcinoma arises from squamous cells, which are not present in the colon. Ductal carcinoma is a breast cancer that originates from ductal cells. Basal cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer, while mesothelioma is a malignancy that affects the mesothelium, commonly found in the lining of the chest wall.
Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of cancer-related deaths. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 63-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of blood in his stools. The blood is bright red and occurs during defecation, but it is not painful. He has been feeling more tired lately, but he has not experienced night sweats, weight loss, loss of appetite, or changes in bowel habits.
The patient has a history of liver cirrhosis and underwent an oesophageal endoscopy two years ago, but he cannot recall the results. He is a known alcoholic and attends AA.
Upon examination, the patient appears pale with conjunctival pallor, and ascites is present.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemorrhoids
Explanation:Haemorrhoids in Portal Hypertension
A likely diagnosis for a patient with a history of portal hypertension, ascites, endoscopy, and cirrhotic liver is haemorrhoids. Portal hypertension causes pressure to be passed on to the middle and inferior rectal veins, leading to their dilation and the development of haemorrhoids. While haemorrhoids are common in the general population, significant blood loss is rare. However, in patients with established cirrhosis, large amounts of blood can be lost through these varices.
An anal fissure is unlikely in this case, as there is no history of straining or a low-fibre diet, and they are typically painful. While colorectal carcinoma is an important diagnosis to consider, painless bright fresh blood is more likely to be caused by haemorrhoids in patients with a strong history of portal hypertension. In malignancy, fresh blood is less common, and a change in bowel habit is often a prominent feature.
A perianal haematoma is a thrombosed haemorrhoid that typically presents with severe pain, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this case. The patient’s presentation of painless bleeding further supports the diagnosis of haemorrhoids in the context of portal hypertension.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with vomiting blood. The medical team suspects bleeding oesophageal varices and prescribes terlipressin. The patient has a history of alcohol abuse and examination reveals ascites.
Why was terlipressin prescribed in this case?Your Answer: Vasoconstriction of splanchnic vessels
Explanation:Terlipressin works by constricting the splanchnic vessels, which increases systemic vascular resistance and promotes renal fluid reabsorption. This leads to an increase in arterial pressure and helps to treat hypovolaemic hypotension. Terlipressin also has a sympathetic stimulating effect and is an analogue of vasopressin.
Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.
To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not a branch of the abdominal aorta?
Your Answer: Inferior phrenic artery
Correct Answer: Superior phrenic artery
Explanation:To remember the order of branches, use the phrase ‘Prostitutes Cause Sagging Swollen Red Testicles [in men] Living In Sin’:
Phrenic [inferior]
Celiac
Superior mesenteric
Suprarenal [middle]
Renal
Testicular [‘in men’ only]
Lumbars
Inferior mesenteric
SacralNote that the superior phrenic artery branches from the aorta in the thorax.
Branches of the Abdominal Aorta
The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.
The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.
The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.
Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of severe left flank pain that comes and goes. The doctor suspects a kidney stone and refers him for a CT scan. However, before the scan, the stone ruptures through the organ wall and urine starts to leak. Which of the following organs is most likely to come into contact with the leaked urine?
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The ureters are situated behind the peritoneum and any damage to them can result in the accumulation of fluid in the retroperitoneal space.
Kidney stones are most likely to get stuck in the ureter, specifically at the uretopelvic junction, pelvic brim, or vesicoureteric junction. Since the entire ureter is located behind the peritoneum, any rupture could cause urine to leak into the retroperitoneal space. This space is connected to other organs behind the peritoneum, such as the inferior vena cava.
All the other organs mentioned are located within the peritoneum.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man presents with odynophagia and undergoes an upper GI endoscopy. During the procedure, a reddish area is observed protruding into the esophagus from the gastroesophageal junction. What is the most probable pathological cause for this phenomenon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metaplasia
Explanation:Metaplasia is the most probable diagnosis for this condition, indicating Barretts oesophagus. However, biopsies are necessary to rule out dysplasia.
Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.
The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.
The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man returns from a trip to Asia where he indulged in the local seafood. He now presents with severe 'rice water' diarrhoea, reduced appetite, and low oral intake. Despite this, there is no change in the amount of diarrhoea. He also experiences low-grade fevers, vomiting, and watery diarrhoea for two weeks. He is admitted to the infectious diseases department of his local hospital for further evaluation. The stool osmolar gap is normal, and there are no detectable fat, white blood cells (WBCs), or red blood cells (RBCs) in the faeces. What type of diarrhoea is most likely affecting this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secretory diarrhoea
Explanation:Secretory diarrhoea is characterized by a change in the gut from an absorptive state to a secretory state, often caused by toxins or secretagogues. Chronic diarrhoea is usually caused by an underlying condition and can be classified into three subtypes: secretory, osmotic, and inflammatory. Secretory diarrhoea is characterized by large daily stool volumes and can occur even during fasting or sleep due to disrupted ion channels in the gastrointestinal tract. Osmotic diarrhoea is caused by something in the gut forcing water back into the lumen, often seen in malabsorption. Inflammatory diarrhoea is caused by inflammation of the bowel wall, either from medical disease or invasive organisms. Acute infectious diarrhoea can be invasive or enterotoxic/non-invasive, with the former presenting with bloody stool, leukocytosis, and fever, and the latter presenting with a watery stool and lacking systemic symptoms. In either case, WBCs can be detected in the stool.
Understanding Diarrhoea: Causes and Characteristics
Diarrhoea is defined as having more than three loose or watery stools per day. It can be classified as acute if it lasts for less than 14 days and chronic if it persists for more than 14 days. Gastroenteritis, diverticulitis, and antibiotic therapy are common causes of acute diarrhoea. On the other hand, irritable bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, colorectal cancer, and coeliac disease are some of the conditions that can cause chronic diarrhoea.
Symptoms of gastroenteritis may include abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diverticulitis is characterized by left lower quadrant pain, diarrhoea, and fever. Antibiotic therapy, especially with broad-spectrum antibiotics, can also cause diarrhoea, including Clostridium difficile infection. Chronic diarrhoea may be caused by irritable bowel syndrome, which is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Ulcerative colitis may cause bloody diarrhoea, crampy abdominal pain, and weight loss. Crohn’s disease may cause crampy abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and malabsorption. Colorectal cancer may cause diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia, and weight loss. Coeliac disease may cause diarrhoea, abdominal distension, lethargy, and weight loss.
Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis. It is important to seek medical attention if diarrhoea persists for more than a few days or is accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, severe abdominal pain, or blood in the stool.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
What is the anatomical distribution of ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Starts at rectum + rarely spreads beyond ileocaecal valve + continuous
Explanation:Understanding Ulcerative Colitis
Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man visits his doctor for the third time complaining of general fatigue and feeling mentally cloudy. Upon conducting another blood test, the doctor discovers that the patient has extremely low levels of vitamin B12. The diagnosis is pernicious anemia caused by antibodies against intrinsic factor. What are the cells in the gastrointestinal tract responsible for secreting intrinsic factor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parietal cells
Explanation:The cause of pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune response that targets intrinsic factor and possibly gastric parietal cells, leading to their destruction. These cells are responsible for producing intrinsic factor, which is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine.
Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.
Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated for an abdominal mass. She delivered her first child vaginally and without any issues. Biopsy results indicate the presence of differentiated fibroblasts in sheets, which is indicative of a desmoid tumor. What is a potential risk factor for this type of tumor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: APC mutations
Explanation:Desmoid tumours are more likely to occur in individuals with APC mutations.
Pancreatic and hepatic cancer have been linked to CA-199.
Breast cancer is strongly linked to BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations.
Burkitt’s lymphoma, a high-grade B-cell neoplasm, is associated with translocation of the C-myc gene.
Desmoid tumours are growths that arise from musculoaponeurotic structures and are made up of clonal proliferations of myofibroblasts. They are typically firm and have a tendency to infiltrate surrounding tissue. These tumours are often seen in patients with familial adenomatous polyposis coli, and are most commonly found in women after childbirth in the rectus abdominis muscle. Bi allelic APC mutations are usually present in desmoid tumours.
The preferred treatment for desmoid tumours is radical surgical resection, although radiotherapy and chemotherapy may be considered in some cases. Non-surgical therapy is generally less effective than surgical resection. In certain cases of abdominal desmoids, observation may be preferred as some tumours may spontaneously regress. However, desmoids have a high likelihood of local recurrence. These tumours consist of sheets of differentiated fibroblasts.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Which of the following hemodynamic changes is not observed in hypovolemic shock?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced systemic vascular resistance
Explanation:Cardiogenic shock can occur due to conditions such as a heart attack or valve abnormality. This can lead to an increase in systemic vascular resistance (vasoconstriction in response to low blood pressure), an increase in heart rate (due to sympathetic response), a decrease in cardiac output, and a decrease in blood pressure. Hypovolemic shock can occur due to blood volume depletion from causes such as hemorrhage, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, or third-space losses during major surgeries. This can lead to an increase in systemic vascular resistance, an increase in heart rate, a decrease in cardiac output, and a decrease in blood pressure. Septic shock occurs when peripheral vascular dilatation causes a fall in systemic vascular resistance. This response can also occur in anaphylactic shock or neurogenic shock. In septic shock, there is a reduced systemic vascular resistance, an increased heart rate, a normal or increased cardiac output, and a decrease in blood pressure. Typically, systemic vascular resistance will decrease in septic shock.
Shock is a condition where there is not enough blood flow to the tissues. There are five main types of shock: septic, haemorrhagic, neurogenic, cardiogenic, and anaphylactic. Septic shock is caused by an infection that triggers a particular response in the body. Haemorrhagic shock is caused by blood loss, and there are four classes of haemorrhagic shock based on the amount of blood loss and associated symptoms. Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a disruption in the autonomic nervous system, leading to decreased vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is caused by heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Adrenaline is the most important drug in treating anaphylaxis and should be given as soon as possible.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his wife due to concerns of his 'skin and eyes looking yellow' and has worsened since it started 3 months ago. On systematic examination, you noticed jaundice and cachexia but it is otherwise unremarkable. On further questioning the man himself reports that his urine has been getting darker as well as stools becoming paler. You order an urgent CT scan which showed a mass lesion at the head of the pancreas. What is the direct explanation for the change in color of his stools?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease in stercobilin
Explanation:The presentation of symptoms related to the conjugation of bilirubin varies depending on where the process is disrupted, such as pre-hepatic, hepatic, or post-hepatic. In this case, a mass in the pancreatic head has caused an obstruction of the common bile duct, which is post-hepatic. This obstruction results in less conjugated bilirubin reaching the intestinal tract and more being absorbed into the systemic circulation. As a result, there is a decrease in stercobilin production, leading to paler stools.
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.
Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.
Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old female presents to the hepatology clinic with a 4-month history of abdominal pain, jaundice, and abdominal swelling. She has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. During abdominal examination, a palpable mass is detected in the right upper quadrant and shifting dullness is observed. Further investigations reveal a high serum-ascites albumin gradient (> 11g/L) in a small amount of ascitic fluid that was collected for analysis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Budd-Chiari syndrome
Explanation:A high SAAG gradient (> 11g/L) on ascitic tap indicates portal hypertension, but in this case, the correct diagnosis is Budd-Chiari syndrome. This condition occurs when the hepatic veins, which drain the liver, become blocked, leading to abdominal pain, ascites, and hepatomegaly. The patient’s medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and combined oral contraceptive pill use put her at risk for blood clot formation, which likely caused the hepatic vein occlusion. The high SAAG gradient is due to increased hydrostatic pressure within the hepatic portal system. Other conditions that cause portal hypertension, such as right heart failure, liver metastasis, and alcoholic liver disease, also produce a high SAAG gradient. Acute pancreatitis, on the other hand, has a low SAAG gradient since it is not associated with increased portal pressure. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis and Kwashiorkor also have low SAAG gradients.
Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the abdominal cavity. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. If the SAAG level is greater than 11g/L, it indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. Other causes of portal hypertension include cardiac conditions like right heart failure and constrictive pericarditis, as well as infections like tuberculous peritonitis. On the other hand, if the SAAG level is less than 11g/L, ascites may be caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction, and other conditions.
The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and sometimes fluid restriction if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone are often prescribed, and loop diuretics may be added if necessary. Therapeutic abdominal paracentesis may be performed for tense ascites, and large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of complications. Prophylactic antibiotics may also be given to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In some cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
During a radical gastrectomy, the surgeons detach the omentum and ligate the right gastro-epiploic artery. What vessel does it originate from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The gastroduodenal artery originates from the upper portion of the duodenum and travels downwards behind it until it reaches the lower border. At this point, it splits into two branches: the right gastro-epiploic artery and the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery. The right gastro-epiploic artery moves towards the left and passes through the layers of the greater omentum to connect with the left gastro-epiploic artery.
The Gastroduodenal Artery: Supply and Path
The gastroduodenal artery is responsible for supplying blood to the pylorus, proximal part of the duodenum, and indirectly to the pancreatic head through the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries. It commonly arises from the common hepatic artery of the coeliac trunk and terminates by bifurcating into the right gastroepiploic artery and the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
To better understand the relationship of the gastroduodenal artery to the first part of the duodenum, the stomach is reflected superiorly in an image sourced from Wikipedia. This artery plays a crucial role in providing oxygenated blood to the digestive system, ensuring proper functioning and health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic with her father. She has lost 10kg in the last 2 months. Recently, her father found her vomiting in the bathroom. The girl admits to struggling with her self-esteem and body image, and has been inducing vomiting after meals. She feels anxious in social situations. During the examination, you observe swelling above the angle of the mandible, indicating parotid gland enlargement. Which nerve supplies the parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Explanation:The correct answer is the glossopharyngeal nerve, which is the ninth cranial nerve. It provides parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland and carries taste and sensation from the posterior third of the tongue, pharyngeal wall, tonsils, middle ear, external auditory canal, and auricle. It also supplies baroreceptors and chemoreceptors of the carotid sinus.
The facial nerve, the seventh cranial nerve, supplies the muscles of facial expression, taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, and sensation from parts of the external acoustic meatus, auricle, and retro-auricular area. It also provides parasympathetic fibers to the submandibular gland, sublingual gland, nasal glands, and lacrimal glands.
The hypoglossal nerve, the twelfth cranial nerve, supplies the intrinsic muscles of the tongue and all but one of the extrinsic muscles of the tongue.
The greater auricular nerve is a superficial cutaneous branch of the cervical plexus that supplies sensation to the capsule of the parotid gland, skin overlying the gland, and skin over the mastoid process and outer ear.
The mandibular nerve, the third division of the trigeminal nerve, carries sensory and motor fibers. It carries sensation from the lower lip, lower teeth and gingivae, chin, and jaw. It also supplies motor innervation to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, the anterior belly of digastric, tensor veli palatini, and tensor tympani.
The patient in the question has sialadenosis, a benign, non-inflammatory enlargement of a salivary gland, in the parotid glands, which can be caused by bulimia nervosa.
The parotid gland is located in front of and below the ear, overlying the mandibular ramus. Its salivary duct crosses the masseter muscle, pierces the buccinator muscle, and drains adjacent to the second upper molar tooth. The gland is traversed by several structures, including the facial nerve, external carotid artery, retromandibular vein, and auriculotemporal nerve. The gland is related to the masseter muscle, medial pterygoid muscle, superficial temporal and maxillary artery, facial nerve, stylomandibular ligament, posterior belly of the digastric muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, stylohyoid muscle, internal carotid artery, mastoid process, and styloid process. The gland is supplied by branches of the external carotid artery and drained by the retromandibular vein. Its lymphatic drainage is to the deep cervical nodes. The gland is innervated by the parasympathetic-secretomotor, sympathetic-superior cervical ganglion, and sensory-greater auricular nerve. Parasympathetic stimulation produces a water-rich, serous saliva, while sympathetic stimulation leads to the production of a low volume, enzyme-rich saliva.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male with Gilbert's syndrome (GS) visits his doctor worried about a recent change in skin tone. During the examination, his skin appears to be normal, but he insists that it was yellow earlier today.
What is true about Gilbert's syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transient jaundice after physiological stress such as exercise and fasting is seen in Gilbert’s syndrome
Explanation:Gilbert’s syndrome is a harmless liver condition that is characterized by increased levels of bilirubin in the blood. While some individuals may not experience any symptoms, others may develop temporary jaundice following physical stressors such as fasting or exercise. Treatment and regular monitoring are not necessary for this condition. It is important to reassure patients that Gilbert’s syndrome does not progress to chronic liver disease. The condition is caused by a mutation in the UGT1A1 gene, which leads to reduced activity of the UGT1A1 enzyme. Gilbert’s syndrome is more prevalent in males.
Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.
To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that started an hour ago. She reports feeling unwell recently, but this is the first time she has experienced this type of pain, which is mainly located in the right upper quadrant. During the examination, the physician notes hepatomegaly and ascites, and the patient's eyes have a slight yellow tint. An ultrasound scan reveals reduced blood flow in the hepatic veins, and there is no history of recent travel, drug use, or needlestick injury. The patient has not experienced recent weight loss, and her last menstrual period was two weeks ago. She is not taking any regular or over-the-counter medications. What condition could potentially be causing this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Protein C deficiency
Explanation:Budd-Chiari syndrome, which is characterized by abdominal pain, ascites, hepatomegaly, and jaundice, can be caused by hypercoagulable states such as protein C and S deficiencies. In this case, the patient’s protein C deficiency increased their risk of developing a thrombus in the hepatic veins, leading to Budd-Chiari syndrome. Other risk factors for thrombus formation include pregnancy and hepatocellular carcinoma. The use of oral contraceptives would also increase the risk of thrombus formation, while warfarin treatment would decrease it. Atrial fibrillation, on the other hand, would predispose a patient to systemic embolism, which can cause ischaemic symptoms in various arterial circulations.
Understanding Budd-Chiari Syndrome
Budd-Chiari syndrome, also known as hepatic vein thrombosis, is a condition that is often associated with an underlying hematological disease or another procoagulant condition. The causes of this syndrome include polycythemia rubra vera, thrombophilia, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. The symptoms of Budd-Chiari syndrome typically include sudden onset and severe abdominal pain, ascites leading to abdominal distension, and tender hepatomegaly.
To diagnose Budd-Chiari syndrome, an ultrasound with Doppler flow studies is usually the initial radiological investigation. This test is highly sensitive and can help identify the presence of the condition. It is important to diagnose and treat Budd-Chiari syndrome promptly to prevent complications such as liver failure and portal hypertension.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old male with an indirect inguinal hernia is scheduled for laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair. While performing the laparoscopy, the surgeon comes across various structures surrounding the inguinal canal. What is the structure that creates the anterior boundaries of the inguinal canal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aponeurosis of external oblique
Explanation:The aponeurosis of the external oblique forms the anterior boundaries of the inguinal canal. In males, the inguinal canal serves as the pathway for the testes to descend from the abdominal wall into the scrotum.
To remember the boundaries of the inguinal canal, the mnemonic MALT: 2Ms, 2As, 2Ls, 2Ts can be used. Starting from superior and moving around in order to posterior, the order can be remembered using the mnemonic SALT (superior, anterior, lower (floor), posterior).
The superior wall (roof) is formed by the internal oblique muscle and transverse abdominis muscle. The anterior wall is formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique and aponeurosis of the internal oblique. The lower wall (floor) is formed by the inguinal ligament and lacunar ligament. The posterior wall is formed by the transversalis fascia and conjoint tendon.
The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.
The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man experiences a pelvic fracture with a complication involving the junction of the membranous urethra and bulbar urethra. What is the most probable direction for the leaked urine to flow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anteriorly into the connective tissues surrounding the scrotum
Explanation:The superficial perineal pouch is a compartment that is bordered superficially by the superficial perineal fascia, deep by the perineal membrane (which is the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm), and laterally by the ischiopubic ramus. It contains various structures such as the crura of the penis or clitoris, muscles, viscera, blood vessels, nerves, the proximal part of the spongy urethra in males, and the greater vestibular glands in females. In cases of urethral rupture, the urine will tend to pass forward because the fascial condensations will prevent the urine from passing laterally and posteriorly.
The Urogenital Triangle and Superficial Perineal Pouch
The urogenital triangle is a structure formed by the ischiopubic inferior rami and ischial tuberosities, with a fascial sheet attached to its sides, creating the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm. It serves as a pathway for the urethra in males and both the urethra and vagina in females. The membranous urethra is located deep to this structure and is surrounded by the external urethral sphincter.
In males, the superficial perineal pouch lies superficial to the urogenital diaphragm and contains the bulb of the penis, crura of the penis, superficial transverse perineal muscle, posterior scrotal arteries, and posterior scrotal nerves. Meanwhile, in females, the internal pudendal artery branches to become the posterior labial arteries in the superficial perineal pouch.
Understanding the anatomy of the urogenital triangle and superficial perineal pouch is crucial in diagnosing and treating urogenital disorders. Proper knowledge of these structures can aid in the identification of potential issues and the development of effective treatment plans.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abrupt abdominal pain. He reports the pain as cramping, with a severity of 6/10, and spread throughout his abdomen. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He used to smoke and has a smoking history of 40 pack years.
What is the most probable part of the colon affected in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splenic flexure
Explanation:Ischaemic colitis frequently affects the splenic flexure, which is a vulnerable area due to its location at the border of regions supplied by different arteries. Symptoms such as cramping and generalised abdominal pain, along with a history of smoking and hypertension, suggest a diagnosis of ischaemic colitis. While the rectosigmoid junction is also a watershed area, it is less commonly affected than the splenic flexure. Other regions of the large bowel are less susceptible to ischaemic colitis.
Understanding Ischaemic Colitis
Ischaemic colitis is a condition that occurs when there is a temporary reduction in blood flow to the large bowel. This can cause inflammation, ulcers, and bleeding. The condition is more likely to occur in areas of the bowel that are located at the borders of the territory supplied by the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries, such as the splenic flexure.
When investigating ischaemic colitis, doctors may look for a sign called thumbprinting on an abdominal x-ray. This occurs due to mucosal edema and hemorrhage. It is important to diagnose and treat ischaemic colitis promptly to prevent complications and ensure a full recovery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man presents to the surgical team with abdominal pain, bloating, and vomiting. Based on an abdominal x-ray, there is suspicion of a malignancy causing intestinal obstruction. Which of the following antiemetics should be avoided for managing the patient's vomiting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:It is not recommended to use metoclopramide as an antiemetic in cases of bowel obstruction. This is because metoclopramide works by blocking dopamine receptors and stimulating peripheral 5HT3 receptors, which promote gastric emptying. However, in cases of intestinal obstruction, gastric emptying is not possible and this effect can be harmful. The choice of antiemetic should be based on the patient’s individual needs and the underlying cause of their nausea.
Understanding the Mechanism and Uses of Metoclopramide
Metoclopramide is a medication primarily used to manage nausea, but it also has other uses such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis secondary to diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics for the treatment of migraines. However, it is important to note that metoclopramide has adverse effects such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. It should also be avoided in bowel obstruction but may be helpful in paralytic ileus.
The mechanism of action of metoclopramide is quite complicated. It is primarily a D2 receptor antagonist, but it also has mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Its antiemetic action is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, and at higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist also has an effect. The gastroprokinetic activity is mediated by D2 receptor antagonist activity and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity.
In summary, metoclopramide is a medication with multiple uses, but it also has adverse effects that should be considered. Its mechanism of action is complex, involving both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Understanding the uses and mechanism of action of metoclopramide is important for its safe and effective use.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A young woman with Crohn's disease has been experiencing severe exacerbations of her condition over the past year, despite standard medication. You have decided to prescribe Infliximab, a biologic drug.
What tests should be ordered before prescribing this medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interferon-gamma release assay
Explanation:Before prescribing any biologic medication, it is important to check the patient’s tuberculosis status by performing an interferon-gamma release assay. This test is used to detect TB latency and prevent reactivation of TB as a complication of biologic therapy. Other tests such as alpha-fetoprotein, spirometry, and brain-natriuretic peptide are not necessary before starting biologic treatment.
Biological Agents and Their Uses
Biological agents are substances that are used to target specific molecules or receptors in the body to treat various diseases. Adalimumab, infliximab, and etanercept are biological agents that inhibit TNF alpha, a molecule that plays a role in inflammation. These agents are used to treat Crohn’s disease and rheumatoid disease. Bevacizumab is an anti-VEGF agent that targets the growth of blood vessels in tumors. It is used to treat colorectal cancer, renal cancer, and glioblastoma. Trastuzumab is a biological agent that targets the HER receptor and is used to treat breast cancer. Imatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that is used to treat gastrointestinal stromal tumors and chronic myeloid leukemia. Basiliximab targets the IL2 binding site and is used in renal transplants. Cetuximab is an epidermal growth factor inhibitor that is used to treat EGF positive colorectal cancers. Biological agents have revolutionized the treatment of many diseases and continue to be an important area of research and development in medicine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A somatostatinoma patient with constantly elevated somatostatin levels experiences a significant decrease in the secretion of many endocrine hormones. Which hormone responsible for stimulating the pancreas and hepatic duct cells to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid is affected when S cells are not stimulated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secretin
Explanation:Secretin is the correct answer as it is produced by S cells in the upper small intestine and stimulates the pancreas and hepatic duct cells to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid. It also reduces gastric acid secretion and promotes the growth of pancreatic acinar cells. However, if there is a somatostatinoma present, there will be an excess of somatostatin which inhibits the production of secretin by S cells.
Cholecystokinin (CCK) is an incorrect answer as it is released by I-cells in the upper small intestine in response to fats and proteins. CCK stimulates the gallbladder and pancreas to contract and secrete bile enzymes into the duodenum.
Gastrin is an incorrect answer as it is produced by G cells in the stomach and stimulates the release of hydrochloric acid into the stomach.
Ghrelin is an incorrect answer as it is released to stimulate hunger, particularly before meals.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
During a sigmoid colectomy for colonic cancer in a 56-year-old man, which structure is most vulnerable to damage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left ureter
Explanation:The left ureter is the structure that is most commonly encountered and at the highest risk of damage by a careless surgeon, although all of these structures are at risk.
The colon begins with the caecum, which is the most dilated segment of the colon and is marked by the convergence of taenia coli. The ascending colon follows, which is retroperitoneal on its posterior aspect. The transverse colon comes after passing the hepatic flexure and becomes wholly intraperitoneal again. The splenic flexure marks the point where the transverse colon makes an oblique inferior turn to the left upper quadrant. The descending colon becomes wholly intraperitoneal at the level of L4 and becomes the sigmoid colon. The sigmoid colon is wholly intraperitoneal, but there are usually attachments laterally between the sigmoid and the lateral pelvic sidewall. At its distal end, the sigmoid becomes the upper rectum, which passes through the peritoneum and becomes extraperitoneal.
The arterial supply of the colon comes from the superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery, which are linked by the marginal artery. The ascending colon is supplied by the ileocolic and right colic arteries, while the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery. The descending and sigmoid colon are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The venous drainage comes from regional veins that accompany arteries to the superior and inferior mesenteric vein. The lymphatic drainage initially follows nodal chains that accompany supplying arteries, then para-aortic nodes.
The colon has both intraperitoneal and extraperitoneal segments. The right and left colon are part intraperitoneal and part extraperitoneal, while the sigmoid and transverse colon are generally wholly intraperitoneal. The colon has various relations with other organs, such as the right ureter and gonadal vessels for the caecum/right colon, the gallbladder for the hepatic flexure, the spleen and tail of pancreas for the splenic flexure, the left ureter for the distal sigmoid/upper rectum, and the ureters, autonomic nerves, seminal vesicles, prostate, and urethra for the rectum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Lila, a 7-year-old girl, undergoes surgery to correct an inguinal hernia. During the operation, how can the surgeon confirm that Lila has an indirect hernia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indirect hernia is lateral to the epigastric vessels
Explanation:An indirect inguinal hernia is situated on the lateral side of the epigastric vessels. This type of hernia occurs when the processus vaginalis fails to close properly, causing a protrusion through the deep inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. In males, the hernia may extend into the scrotum, while in females, it may extend into the labia. On the other hand, a direct inguinal hernia is caused by weakened abdominal muscles, typically occurring in older individuals. The protrusion enters the inguinal canal through the posterior wall, which is located on the medial side of the epigastric vessels. It may then exit through the superficial inguinal ring.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.
The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.
After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A newborn rapidly becomes ill and develops jaundice 12 hours after birth. The infant's blood tests show an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. What is the precursor to bilirubin that is being excessively released, leading to this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haem
Explanation:Bilirubin is formed when haem, a component of red blood cells, is broken down by macrophages. Albumin, a binding protein in blood, can bind to bilirubin but does not contribute to its production. Jaundice in newborns is often caused by the breakdown of red blood cells. Urobilinogen is a byproduct of bilirubin metabolism that can be excreted through the urinary system. Glutamate, an amino acid and neurotransmitter, is not involved in bilirubin synthesis.
Understanding Bilirubin and Its Role in Jaundice
Bilirubin is a chemical by-product that is produced when red blood cells break down heme, a component found in these cells. This chemical is also found in other hepatic heme-containing proteins like myoglobin. The heme is processed within macrophages and oxidized to form biliverdin and iron. Biliverdin is then reduced to form unconjugated bilirubin, which is released into the bloodstream.
Unconjugated bilirubin is bound to albumin in the blood and then taken up by hepatocytes, where it is conjugated to make it water-soluble. From there, it is excreted into bile and enters the intestines to be broken down by intestinal bacteria. Bacterial proteases produce urobilinogen from bilirubin within the intestinal lumen, which is further processed by intestinal bacteria to form urobilin and stercobilin and excreted via the faeces. A small amount of bilirubin re-enters the portal circulation to be finally excreted via the kidneys in urine.
Jaundice occurs when bilirubin levels exceed 35 umol/l. Raised levels of unconjugated bilirubin may occur due to haemolysis, while hepatocyte defects, such as a compromised hepatocyte uptake of unconjugated bilirubin and/or defective conjugation, may occur in liver disease or deficiency of glucuronyl transferase. Raised levels of conjugated bilirubin can result from defective excretion of bilirubin, for example, Dubin-Johnson Syndrome, or cholestasis.
Cholestasis can result from a wide range of pathologies, which can be largely divided into physical causes, for example, gallstones, pancreatic and cholangiocarcinoma, or functional causes, for example, drug-induced, pregnancy-related and postoperative cholestasis. Understanding bilirubin and its role in jaundice is important in diagnosing and treating various liver and blood disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of jaundice and fatigue that has been present for the past 2 days. He mentions that he has experienced similar symptoms in the past but has never sought medical attention until now. He reports having a severe case of the flu recently. The patient has no significant medical history and leads a healthy lifestyle, abstaining from alcohol and smoking.
What enzyme deficiency is likely responsible for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: UDP glucuronosyltransferase
Explanation:Individuals with Gilbert’s syndrome exhibit a decrease in the amount of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, an enzyme responsible for conjugating bilirubin in the liver. This deficiency leads to an accumulation of unconjugated bilirubin, which cannot be eliminated through urine, resulting in jaundice. Although symptoms may arise during periods of stress, the condition is generally not clinically significant.
HMG-CoA reductase is an enzyme involved in cholesterol synthesis, while lipoprotein lipase plays a central role in lipid metabolism and is associated with various conditions such as hypertriglyceridemia. G6PD deficiency, on the other hand, affects the pentose phosphate pathway by reducing the production of NADPH.
Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.
To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of worsening acid reflux, despite receiving aggressive treatment. He reports feeling like he has lost weight and has a medical history of duodenal ulcers. During his last endoscopy, Barrett's oesophagus was detected. Which type of cancer is most commonly linked to this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal adenocarcinoma
Explanation:The most significant risk factor for developing oesophageal adenocarcinoma, one of the two types of oesophageal carcinomas in the UK, is Barrett’s oesophagus. This condition occurs when chronic acid exposure causes a metaplastic change from squamous epithelium to gastric columnar epithelium in the lower end of the oesophagus, increasing the risk of developing adenocarcinoma.
Duodenal adenocarcinoma, a relatively rare cancer of the gastrointestinal tract, is often caused by genetic conditions such as HNCCP/Lynch syndrome and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), as well as Crohn’s disease. Patients with this type of cancer typically experience abdominal pain, reflux, and weight loss due to the malignancy obstructing the flow of digested chyme from the stomach to the jejunum.
Gastric malignancy, the most common type of which is adenocarcinoma, is not associated with Barrett’s oesophagus. Symptoms of gastric cancer include heartburn, abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and early satiety, and the most significant risk factor is H. pylori infection.
Oesophageal leiomyoma, a benign tumour, is not linked to Barrett’s oesophagus. Patients may experience reflux if the mass enlarges, but the most common symptoms are retrosternal discomfort and difficulty swallowing.
Squamous cell carcinoma, the other type of oesophageal malignancy, is associated with smoking and alcohol and tends to occur in the upper oesophagus. Unlike adenocarcinoma, weight loss is usually an early symptom of this type of cancer.
Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.
The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.
The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of watery diarrhoea that has persisted for a month. He denies any alterations to his diet or recent international travel. The patient's weight has remained stable.
During an abdominal ultrasound, a pancreatic nodule is discovered. Upon biopsy, it is determined that the nodule originates from pancreatic S cells.
What hormone is expected to be secreted by the pancreatic nodule?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secretin
Explanation:The correct answer is Secretin. S cells in the upper small intestine secrete this gastrointestinal hormone, which promotes the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas. Pancreatic secretinomas, a rare type of gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumor, can cause watery diarrhea.
Cholecystokinin is another gastrointestinal hormone that promotes the contraction of the gallbladder and the secretion of bile at the ampulla of Vater. However, it does not promote the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas.
Gastrin is a gastrointestinal hormone that promotes gastric motility and the secretion of hydrochloric acid by parietal cells. It is released by the G cells of the gastric antrum.
Motilin is a gastrointestinal hormone secreted by M cells within Peyer’s patches of the small intestine, which promotes gastrointestinal motility.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
Sophie, a 5-year-old girl, visits her doctor with her mother, complaining of a lump in her groin that appears and disappears. The lump is easily reducible.
The doctor suspects an indirect inguinal hernia, although it is difficult to differentiate between femoral, direct inguinal, and indirect inguinal hernias in such a young patient.
Sophie's mother is curious about the cause of her daughter's hernia. What is the pathology of an indirect inguinal hernia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Protrusion through the failure of the processus vaginalis to regress
Explanation:Indirect inguinal hernias are caused by the failure of the processus vaginalis to regress, resulting in a protrusion through the deep inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. In males, it may progress into the scrotum, while in females, it may enter the labia. This type of hernia is located lateral to the epigastric vessels.
On the other hand, direct inguinal hernias are usually caused by weakening in the abdominal musculature, which occurs with age. The protrusion enters the inguinal canal through the posterior wall, which is medial to the epigastric vessels. It may exit through the superficial inguinal ring.
The tunica vaginalis is a layer that surrounds the testes and contains a small amount of serous fluid, reducing friction between the scrotum and the testes. Meanwhile, the tunica albuginea is a layer of connective tissue that covers the ovaries, testicles, and corpora cavernosa of the penis.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.
The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.
After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
From which embryological structure is the ureter derived?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesonephric duct
Explanation:The ureter originates from the mesonephric duct, which is linked to the metanephric duct located in the metenephrogenic blastema. The ureteric bud emerges from the metanephric duct and separates from the mesonephric duct, forming the foundation of the ureter.
Anatomy of the Ureter
The ureter is a muscular tube that measures 25-35 cm in length and is lined by transitional epithelium. It is surrounded by a thick muscular coat that becomes three muscular layers as it crosses the bony pelvis. This retroperitoneal structure overlies the transverse processes L2-L5 and lies anterior to the bifurcation of iliac vessels. The blood supply to the ureter is segmental and includes the renal artery, aortic branches, gonadal branches, common iliac, and internal iliac. It is important to note that the ureter lies beneath the uterine artery.
In summary, the ureter is a vital structure in the urinary system that plays a crucial role in transporting urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Its unique anatomy and blood supply make it a complex structure that requires careful consideration in any surgical or medical intervention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old female with a history of sickle cell disease arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe epigastric pain that extends to her back. The patient displays clinical signs of jaundice. She reports drinking only one small glass of red wine per week and no other alcohol intake. What is the probable reason for acute pancreatitis in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:The leading causes of pancreatitis are gallstones and heavy alcohol use. However, in the case of this patient with sickle cell disease, pigment gallstones are the most probable cause of their acute pancreatitis. Although autoimmune diseases like polyarteritis nodosa can also lead to pancreatitis, it is less common than gallstones. Additionally, the patient’s alcohol consumption is not significant enough to be a likely cause of their condition.
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
Which of the following anatomical planes separates the prostate from the rectum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Denonvilliers fascia
Explanation:The rectum is separated from the prostate by the Denonvilliers fascia, while the sacrum is separated from the rectum by Waldeyer’s fascia.
Anatomy of the Prostate Gland
The prostate gland is a small, walnut-shaped gland located below the bladder and separated from the rectum by Denonvilliers fascia. It receives its blood supply from the internal iliac vessels, specifically the inferior vesical artery. The gland has an internal sphincter at its apex, which can be damaged during surgery and result in retrograde ejaculation.
The prostate gland has four lobes: the posterior lobe, median lobe, and two lateral lobes. It also has an isthmus and three zones: the peripheral zone, central zone, and transition zone. The peripheral zone, which is the subcapsular portion of the posterior prostate, is where most prostate cancers occur.
The gland is surrounded by various structures, including the pubic symphysis, prostatic venous plexus, Denonvilliers fascia, rectum, ejaculatory ducts, lateral venous plexus, and levator ani. Its lymphatic drainage is to the internal iliac nodes, and its innervation comes from the inferior hypogastric plexus.
In summary, the prostate gland is a small but important gland in the male reproductive system. Its anatomy includes lobes, zones, and various surrounding structures, and it plays a crucial role in ejaculation and prostate health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man is scheduled for a radical prostatectomy to treat prostate gland carcinoma. Which lymph nodes will the tumour primarily drain into?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal iliac
Explanation:The prostate lymphatic drainage goes mainly to the internal iliac nodes, with the sacral nodes also involved.
Anatomy of the Prostate Gland
The prostate gland is a small, walnut-shaped gland located below the bladder and separated from the rectum by Denonvilliers fascia. It receives its blood supply from the internal iliac vessels, specifically the inferior vesical artery. The gland has an internal sphincter at its apex, which can be damaged during surgery and result in retrograde ejaculation.
The prostate gland has four lobes: the posterior lobe, median lobe, and two lateral lobes. It also has an isthmus and three zones: the peripheral zone, central zone, and transition zone. The peripheral zone, which is the subcapsular portion of the posterior prostate, is where most prostate cancers occur.
The gland is surrounded by various structures, including the pubic symphysis, prostatic venous plexus, Denonvilliers fascia, rectum, ejaculatory ducts, lateral venous plexus, and levator ani. Its lymphatic drainage is to the internal iliac nodes, and its innervation comes from the inferior hypogastric plexus.
In summary, the prostate gland is a small but important gland in the male reproductive system. Its anatomy includes lobes, zones, and various surrounding structures, and it plays a crucial role in ejaculation and prostate health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense abdominal pain on the right side. Upon further inquiry, she describes the pain as crampy, intermittent, and spreading to her right shoulder. She has no fever. The patient notes that the pain worsens after meals.
Which hormone is accountable for the fluctuation in pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin
Explanation:The hormone that increases gallbladder contraction is Cholecystokinin (CCK). It is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine, particularly in response to a high-fat meal. Although it has many functions, its role in increasing gallbladder contraction may exacerbate biliary colic caused by gallstones in the patient described.
Gastrin, insulin, and secretin are also hormones that can be released in response to food intake, but they do not have any known effect on gallbladder contraction. Therefore, CCK is the most appropriate answer.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old woman visits her doctor as she has discovered a lump in her groin. She reports feeling well otherwise and has not experienced any changes in bowel movements or abdominal discomfort. The patient mentions that the lump tends to increase in size throughout the day, particularly when she is busy looking after her grandchildren. She has never undergone abdominal surgery. The doctor suspects a hernia and upon examination, identifies that it can be reduced and locates the hernia's neck, which is situated inferiorly and laterally to the pubic tubercle. What is the probable cause of the patient's groin lump?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Femoral hernia
Explanation:Femoral hernias are more prevalent in women than men, and their location at the neck of the hernia, which is inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle, is indicative of a femoral hernia. On the other hand, an inguinal hernia would have its neck located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle, while both direct and indirect inguinal hernias share this characteristic. Since the patient has no surgical history, this cannot be an incisional hernia. A spigelian hernia, on the other hand, occurs when there is a herniation through the spigelian fascia, which is located along the semilunar line.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.
The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.
After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man complains of abdominal pain indicative of mesenteric ischaemia and is rushed to the operating room for an urgent laparotomy. During the procedure, it is discovered that the affected portion of the bowel extends from the splenic flexure of the colon to the rectum. Can you determine the vertebral level at which the obstructed artery branches off from the aorta?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L3
Explanation:The hindgut, which is a segment of the gut, receives its blood supply from the inferior mesenteric artery. This artery originates from the aorta at the L3 vertebrae.
The Inferior Mesenteric Artery: Supplying the Hindgut
The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is responsible for supplying the embryonic hindgut with blood. It originates just above the aortic bifurcation, at the level of L3, and passes across the front of the aorta before settling on its left side. At the point where the left common iliac artery is located, the IMA becomes the superior rectal artery.
The hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum above the pectinate line, is supplied by the IMA. The left colic artery is one of the branches that emerges from the IMA near its origin. Up to three sigmoid arteries may also exit the IMA to supply the sigmoid colon further down the line.
Overall, the IMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the hindgut receives the blood supply it needs to function properly. Its branches help to ensure that the colon and rectum are well-nourished and able to carry out their important digestive functions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 4-day old neonate with Down's syndrome is experiencing excessive vomiting during their stay in the ward. The mother had an uncomplicated full-term pregnancy. The baby has not yet had their first bowel movement, causing increased concern for the parents. Upon examination, there is slight abdominal distension. Where is the site of pathology within the colon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Muscularis propria externa
Explanation:The myenteric nerve plexus, also known as Auerbach’s plexus, is located within the muscularis externa, which is one of the four layers of the bowel. In neonates with Hirschsprung disease, there is a lack of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus, resulting in a lack of peristalsis and symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, bloating, and delayed passage of meconium. This condition is more common in males and children with Down’s syndrome.
The four layers of the bowel, from deep to superficial, are the mucosa, submucosa, muscularis propria (externa), and serosa. The muscularis externa contains two layers of smooth muscle, the inner circular layer and the outer longitudinal layer, with the myenteric plexus located between them. The mucosa also contains a thin layer of connective tissue called the lamina propria.
Layers of the Gastrointestinal Tract and Their Functions
The gastrointestinal (GI) tract is composed of four layers, each with its own unique function. The innermost layer is the mucosa, which can be further divided into three sublayers: the epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosae. The epithelium is responsible for absorbing nutrients and secreting mucus, while the lamina propria contains blood vessels and immune cells. The muscularis mucosae helps to move food along the GI tract.
The submucosa is the layer that lies beneath the mucosa and contains Meissner’s plexus, which is responsible for regulating secretion and blood flow. The muscularis externa is the layer that lies beneath the submucosa and contains Auerbach’s plexus, which controls the motility of GI smooth muscle. Finally, the outermost layer of the GI tract is either the serosa or adventitia, depending on whether the organ is intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal. The serosa is responsible for secreting fluid to lubricate the organs, while the adventitia provides support and protection. Understanding the functions of each layer is important for understanding the overall function of the GI tract.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man needs a urethral catheter before his splenectomy. At what point will the catheter encounter its first resistance during insertion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Membranous urethra
Explanation:The external sphincter surrounding the membranous urethra causes it to be the least distensible part of the urethra.
Urethral Anatomy: Differences Between Male and Female
The anatomy of the urethra differs between males and females. In females, the urethra is shorter and more angled than in males. It is located outside of the peritoneum and is surrounded by the endopelvic fascia. The neck of the bladder is subject to intra-abdominal pressure, and any weakness in this area can lead to stress urinary incontinence. The female urethra is surrounded by the external urethral sphincter, which is innervated by the pudendal nerve. It is located in front of the vaginal opening.
In males, the urethra is much longer and is divided into four parts. The pre-prostatic urethra is very short and lies between the bladder and prostate gland. The prostatic urethra is wider than the membranous urethra and contains several openings for the transmission of semen. The membranous urethra is the narrowest part of the urethra and is surrounded by the external sphincter. The penile urethra travels through the corpus spongiosum on the underside of the penis and is the longest segment of the urethra. The bulbo-urethral glands open into the spongiose section of the urethra.
The urothelium, which lines the inside of the urethra, is transitional near the bladder and becomes squamous further down the urethra. Understanding the differences in urethral anatomy between males and females is important for diagnosing and treating urological conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old female undergoes an emergency caesarean section due to failed induction of labor and a macrosomic baby. After delivery, she is transferred to the postnatal ward. However, prior to discharge, she complains of abdominal pain, has a fever of 39ºC, and a tachycardia of 106 bpm. A CT scan reveals the presence of fluid accumulation in the retroperitoneal space. What is the probable cause of these CT findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ureteral injury during caesarean section
Explanation:If the ureters are damaged during a caesarean section, it can cause fluid to accumulate in the retroperitoneal area. This can lead to pain and inflammation, which may present as fever and a rapid heartbeat. Ovarian thrombus is a rare complication that can occur after a caesarean section. CT scans can show filling defects and an increased diameter in the affected vein. The pyloric antrum is located near the bottom of the stomach, close to the pyloric sphincter. Since the stomach is an intraperitoneal organ in the left upper quadrant, it is unlikely to be lacerated during a caesarean section. Any damage to the stomach would not result in retroperitoneal fluid accumulation.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with profuse haematemesis. Upon admission, his vital signs include a temperature of 36.9ºC, oxygen saturation of 94% on air, heart rate of 124 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 82/58 mmHg. An urgent endoscopy was performed to achieve haemostasis, revealing an ulcer on the posterior wall of the duodenum. Which artery is the most likely source of the gastrointestinal bleed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:Duodenal ulcers on the posterior wall pose a risk to the gastroduodenal artery, which supplies blood to this area. The posterior wall is a common site for duodenal ulcers, and erosion of the ulcer through the duodenal wall can result in severe upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The inferior mesenteric artery, on the other hand, supplies blood to the hindgut (transverse colon, descending colon, and sigmoid colon) and does not include the duodenum. The inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery, which arises from the superior mesenteric artery, supplies the lower part of the duodenum but does not provide the majority of the blood supply to the posterior duodenal wall, which is mainly supplied by the gastroduodenal artery.
Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The main symptoms include haematemesis (vomiting of blood), melena (passage of altered blood per rectum), and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The diagnosis can be determined by identifying the specific features associated with a particular condition, such as stigmata of chronic liver disease for oesophageal varices or abdominal pain for peptic ulcer disease.
The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes. Oesophageal varices may present with a large volume of fresh blood, while gastric ulcers may cause low volume bleeds that present as iron deficiency anaemia. Duodenal ulcers are usually posteriorly sited and may erode the gastroduodenal artery. Aorto-enteric fistula is a rare but important cause of major haemorrhage associated with high mortality in patients with previous abdominal aortic aneurysm surgery.
The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation involves ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. Treatment options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery for non-variceal bleeding, while terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients with variceal bleeding. Band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices, and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and haematochezia. The patient localises the pain to the umbilical region. He has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation, stroke and is currently being treated for multiple myeloma.
His observations show a heart rate of 122/min, a respiratory rate of 29/min, a blood pressure of 119/93 mmHg, an O2 saturation of 97%, and a temperature of 38.2 ºC. His chest is clear. Abdominal examination identify some mild tenderness with no guarding. An abdominal bruit is heard on auscultation.
Which segment of the gastrointestinal tract is commonly affected in this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splenic flexure
Explanation:Ischaemic colitis most frequently affects the splenic flexure.
Understanding Ischaemic Colitis
Ischaemic colitis is a condition that occurs when there is a temporary reduction in blood flow to the large bowel. This can cause inflammation, ulcers, and bleeding. The condition is more likely to occur in areas of the bowel that are located at the borders of the territory supplied by the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries, such as the splenic flexure.
When investigating ischaemic colitis, doctors may look for a sign called thumbprinting on an abdominal x-ray. This occurs due to mucosal edema and hemorrhage. It is important to diagnose and treat ischaemic colitis promptly to prevent complications and ensure a full recovery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gonorrhoeae and prescribed ceftriaxone. She later presents at the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, elevated white blood cell count, and signs of severe colitis. What is the most probable causative organism for these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile
Explanation:The correct answer is C. difficile, as it is the causative organism in pseudomembranous colitis that can occur after recent use of broad-spectrum antibiotics like ceftriaxone. These antibiotics can disrupt the gut flora, allowing C. difficile to thrive. Other antibiotics that can cause C. difficile include PPI, clindamycin, and fluoroquinolones.
Campylobacter, Escherichia coli, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are incorrect answers. Campylobacter infections are typically caused by undercooked chicken, untreated water, or international travel. E. coli infections are usually caused by contact with infected feces, unwashed foods, or unclean water. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a sexually transmitted disease that is spread through unprotected sex, not through recent use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. The patient in this case does not have symptoms of gonorrhoeae and there is no indication of unprotected sex after the antibiotic prescription.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old female has received a pan proctocolectomy and ileoanal pouch due to familial adenomatous polyposis coli. What is the most frequent non-colonic manifestation of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duodenal polyps
Explanation:Polyposis syndromes are a group of genetic disorders that cause the development of multiple polyps in the colon and other parts of the gastrointestinal tract. These polyps can increase the risk of developing cancer, and therefore, early detection and management are crucial. There are several types of polyposis syndromes, each with its own genetic defect, features, and associated disorders.
Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is characterized by the development of over 100 colonic adenomas, with a 100% risk of cancer. Screening and management involve regular colonoscopies and resectional surgery if polyps are found. FAP is also associated with gastric and duodenal polyps and abdominal desmoid tumors.
MYH-associated polyposis is caused by a biallelic mutation of the MYH gene and is associated with multiple colonic polyps and an increased risk of right-sided cancers. Attenuated phenotype can be managed with regular colonoscopies, while resection and ileoanal pouch reconstruction are recommended for those with multiple polyps.
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is caused by a mutation in the STK11 gene and is characterized by multiple benign intestinal hamartomas, episodic obstruction, and an increased risk of GI cancers. Screening involves annual examinations and pan-intestinal endoscopy every 2-3 years.
Cowden disease is caused by a mutation in the PTEN gene and is characterized by macrocephaly, multiple intestinal hamartomas, and an increased risk of cancer at any site. Targeted individualized screening is recommended, with extra surveillance for breast, thyroid, and uterine cancers.
HNPCC (Lynch syndrome) is caused by germline mutations of DNA mismatch repair genes and is associated with an increased risk of colorectal, endometrial, and gastric cancers. Colonoscopies every 1-2 years from age 25 and consideration of prophylactic surgery are recommended, along with extra colonic surveillance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements relating to the greater omentum is false?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It has no relationship to the lesser sac.
Explanation:This area is linked to the transverse colon and the lesser sac, and is often accessed during a colonic resection. It is also frequently affected by metastasis in various types of visceral cancers.
The Omentum: A Protective Structure in the Abdomen
The omentum is a structure in the abdomen that invests the stomach and is divided into two parts: the greater and lesser omentum. The greater omentum is attached to the lower lateral border of the stomach and contains the gastro-epiploic arteries. It varies in size and is less developed in children. However, it plays an important role in protecting against visceral perforation, such as in cases of appendicitis.
The lesser omentum is located between the omentum and transverse colon, providing a potential entry point into the lesser sac. Malignant processes can affect the omentum, with ovarian cancer being the most notable. Overall, the omentum is a crucial structure in the abdomen that serves as a protective barrier against potential injuries and diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
You are participating in a ward round in the elective general surgical ward and come across a patient who recently underwent a Whipple's procedure for a known adenocarcinoma. The consultant discusses the case with you and mentions that the patient, who is in their 50s, presented with painless jaundice, weight loss, and steatorrhea.
Based on these symptoms, which genetic mutation is most likely to be present?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: KRAS
Explanation:Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.
Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.
Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old male patient is referred to the upper GI clinic under the two-week rule. His daughter first noticed that his skin and eyes are becoming yellow. His past medical history includes neurofibromatosis type 1. He was recently diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus however the blood glucose has been very poorly controlled despite maximum therapy of metformin and gliclazide. On examination, he is jaundiced. There is mild discomfort in the epigastric region and the right upper quadrant. An urgent abdominal CT scan shows a mass arising from the head of the pancreas and dilated common bile duct. A subsequent endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) and biopsy confirms a pancreatic somatostatinoma.
From which cells in the pancreas is this tumour originating?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: D cells
Explanation:Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 51
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman is suspected to have hepatitis B. She presents with jaundice and upper abdominal pain. A liver function test was conducted to assess her liver's synthetic capacity.
Which characteristic will provide the most precise indication of her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prothrombin time
Explanation:Liver enzymes are not reliable indicators of liver function, especially in end-stage cirrhosis. Instead, coagulation and albumin levels are better measures to assess liver function.
Prothrombin time is a useful indicator because it reflects the liver’s ability to produce the necessary coagulation factors for blood clotting. A high PT suggests that the liver is not functioning properly.
C-reactive protein (CRP) is not a specific indicator of liver function as it can be elevated in response to any infection in the body.
Hemoglobin levels are not a reliable indicator of liver function as they can be affected by other factors such as anemia or polycythemia.
Liver function tests are not accurate in assessing synthetic liver function as they only reflect damage to the liver and its surrounding areas. Additionally, some LFTs can be elevated due to other conditions, not just liver disease. For example, elevated GGT levels in an LFT can indicate damage to the bile ducts, which can be caused by a gallstone blocking the duct.
Understanding Acute Liver Failure
Acute liver failure is a condition characterized by the sudden onset of liver dysfunction, which can lead to various complications in the body. The causes of acute liver failure include paracetamol overdose, alcohol, viral hepatitis (usually A or B), and acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The symptoms of acute liver failure include jaundice, raised prothrombin time, hypoalbuminaemia, hepatic encephalopathy, and hepatorenal syndrome. It is important to note that liver function tests may not always accurately reflect the synthetic function of the liver, and it is best to assess the prothrombin time and albumin level to determine the severity of the condition. Understanding acute liver failure is crucial in managing and treating this potentially life-threatening condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old man is assessed by his GP at his assisted living facility. The nursing staff reports that he has been experiencing frequent loose stools for the past few days and appears to be holding his stomach in pain. There are no signs of dehydration.
The patient has a medical history of advanced vascular dementia and has had multiple bacterial chest infections recently. He is allergic to penicillin.
The GP requests a stool sample, conducts blood tests, and prescribes oral vancomycin for the patient.
What are the expected findings on stool microscopy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gram-positive bacilli
Explanation:The causative organism in pseudomembranous colitis following recent broad-spectrum antibiotic use is Clostridium difficile, a gram-positive bacillus. This woman’s clinical presentation is consistent with C. diff infection, as she has experienced multiple episodes of loose stool with abdominal pain and has risk factors such as residing in a care home and recent antibiotic use for chest infections. While gram-negative comma-shaped bacteria like Vibrio cholerae can cause cholera, it is not found in the UK and is therefore unlikely to be the cause here. Gram-negative rods like Escherichia coli or Campylobacter jejuni can cause diarrhoeal illnesses, but are more associated with bloody diarrhoea and food poisoning, which do not match this woman’s symptoms. Gram-positive rods like Bacillus cereus can cause vomiting or diarrhoeal illness from contaminated food, but antibiotics are not beneficial and vancomycin would not be needed. Given the woman’s risk factors and symptoms, C. diff is the most likely cause.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old man with dyspepsia is diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and a positive CLO test. Which statement about the probable causative organism is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In patients who are colonised there is commonly evidence of fundal gastritis on endoscopy
Explanation:Duodenal ulceration cases can be caused by Helicobacter pylori infection, which can be diagnosed through serology, microbiology, histology, or CLO testing. Detecting the infection through endoscopy may not show any typical features, so the recommended approach is to take an antral biopsy for CLO testing during the endoscopy procedure.
Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems
Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.
The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.
The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
Sophie, a 19-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes mellitus, arrives at the emergency department with confusion, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Upon examination, she displays tachycardia and tachypnea. The medical team orders various tests, including an arterial blood gas.
The results are as follows:
pH 7.29 mmol/l
K+ 6.0 mmol/l
Glucose 15mmol/l
The doctors initiate treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis.
What ECG abnormality can be observed in relation to Sophie's potassium level?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tall tented T waves and flattened P waves
Explanation:When a person has hyperkalaemia, their blood has an excess of potassium which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. One of the common ECG abnormalities seen in hyperkalaemia is tall tented T waves. Other possible ECG changes include wide QRS complexes and flattened P waves. In contrast, hypokalaemia can cause T wave depression, U waves, and tall P waves on an ECG. Delta waves are typically seen in patients with Wolfe-Parkinson-White syndrome.
ECG Findings in Hyperkalaemia
Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. This condition can have serious consequences on the heart, leading to abnormal ECG findings. The ECG findings in hyperkalaemia include peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves, loss of P waves, broad QRS complexes, sinusoidal wave pattern, and ventricular fibrillation.
The first ECG finding in hyperkalaemia is the appearance of peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves. This is followed by the loss of P waves, which are the small waves that represent atrial depolarization. The QRS complexes, which represent ventricular depolarization, become broad and prolonged. The sinusoidal wave pattern is a characteristic finding in severe hyperkalaemia, where the ECG tracing appears as a series of undulating waves. Finally, ventricular fibrillation, a life-threatening arrhythmia, can occur in severe hyperkalaemia.
In summary, hyperkalaemia can have serious consequences on the heart, leading to abnormal ECG findings. These findings include peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves, loss of P waves, broad QRS complexes, sinusoidal wave pattern, and ventricular fibrillation. It is important to recognize these ECG findings in hyperkalaemia as they can guide appropriate management and prevent life-threatening complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man is scheduled for a splenectomy. What is the most posteriorly located structure of the spleen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lienorenal ligament
Explanation:The phrenicocolic ligament provides the antero-lateral connection, while the gastro splenic ligament is located anteriorly to the lienorenal ligament. These ligaments converge around the vessels at the splenic hilum, with the lienorenal ligament being the most posterior.
Understanding the Anatomy of the Spleen
The spleen is a vital organ in the human body, serving as the largest lymphoid organ. It is located below the 9th-12th ribs and has a clenched fist shape. The spleen is an intraperitoneal organ, and its peritoneal attachments condense at the hilum, where the vessels enter the spleen. The blood supply of the spleen is from the splenic artery, which is derived from the coeliac axis, and the splenic vein, which is joined by the IMV and unites with the SMV.
The spleen is derived from mesenchymal tissue during embryology. It weighs between 75-150g and has several relations with other organs. The diaphragm is superior to the spleen, while the gastric impression is anterior, the kidney is posterior, and the colon is inferior. The hilum of the spleen is formed by the tail of the pancreas and splenic vessels. The spleen also forms the apex of the lesser sac, which contains short gastric vessels.
In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of the spleen is crucial in comprehending its functions and the role it plays in the human body. The spleen’s location, weight, and relations with other organs are essential in diagnosing and treating spleen-related conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
A 39-year-old patient visits the doctor with complaints of occasional pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. The patient reports that the pain worsens after meals, particularly after a heavy dinner. There are no other accompanying symptoms, and all vital signs are within normal limits.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biliary colic
Explanation:Biliary colic can cause pain after eating a meal.
Biliary colic occurs when the gallbladder contracts to release bile after a meal, but the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder causes pain during this process. The pain is typically worse after a fatty meal compared to a low-fat meal, as bile is needed to break down fat.
In contrast, duodenal ulcers cause pain that is worse on an empty stomach and relieved by eating, as food acts as a buffer between the ulcer and stomach acid. The pain from an ulcer is typically described as a burning sensation, while biliary colic causes a sharp pain.
Autoimmune hepatitis pain is unlikely to fluctuate as the patient described.
Appendicitis pain typically starts in the center of the abdomen and then moves to the lower right quadrant, known as McBurney’s point.
Ascending cholangitis is characterized by a triad of fever, pain, and jaundice, known as Charcot’s triad.
Understanding Biliary Colic and Gallstone-Related Disease
Biliary colic is a condition that occurs when gallstones pass through the biliary tree. It is more common in women, especially those who are obese, fertile, or over the age of 40. Other risk factors include diabetes, Crohn’s disease, rapid weight loss, and certain medications. Biliary colic is caused by an increase in cholesterol, a decrease in bile salts, and biliary stasis. The pain is due to the gallbladder contracting against a stone lodged in the cystic duct. Symptoms include colicky right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Unlike other gallstone-related conditions, there is no fever or abnormal liver function tests.
Ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool for biliary colic. Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended treatment. However, around 15% of patients may have gallstones in the common bile duct at the time of surgery, which can lead to obstructive jaundice. Other complications of gallstone-related disease include acute cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, acute pancreatitis, gallstone ileus, and gallbladder cancer. It is important to understand the risk factors, pathophysiology, and management of biliary colic and gallstone-related disease to ensure prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man is having a right hemicolectomy and the ileo-colic artery is being ligated. What vessel does this artery originate from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The right colon and terminal ileum are supplied by the ileocolic artery, which is a branch of the SMA. Meanwhile, the middle colic artery supplies the transverse colon. During cancer resections, it is common practice to perform high ligation as veins and lymphatics also run alongside the arteries in the mesentery. The ileocolic artery originates from the SMA close to the duodenum.
The colon begins with the caecum, which is the most dilated segment of the colon and is marked by the convergence of taenia coli. The ascending colon follows, which is retroperitoneal on its posterior aspect. The transverse colon comes after passing the hepatic flexure and becomes wholly intraperitoneal again. The splenic flexure marks the point where the transverse colon makes an oblique inferior turn to the left upper quadrant. The descending colon becomes wholly intraperitoneal at the level of L4 and becomes the sigmoid colon. The sigmoid colon is wholly intraperitoneal, but there are usually attachments laterally between the sigmoid and the lateral pelvic sidewall. At its distal end, the sigmoid becomes the upper rectum, which passes through the peritoneum and becomes extraperitoneal.
The arterial supply of the colon comes from the superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery, which are linked by the marginal artery. The ascending colon is supplied by the ileocolic and right colic arteries, while the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery. The descending and sigmoid colon are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The venous drainage comes from regional veins that accompany arteries to the superior and inferior mesenteric vein. The lymphatic drainage initially follows nodal chains that accompany supplying arteries, then para-aortic nodes.
The colon has both intraperitoneal and extraperitoneal segments. The right and left colon are part intraperitoneal and part extraperitoneal, while the sigmoid and transverse colon are generally wholly intraperitoneal. The colon has various relations with other organs, such as the right ureter and gonadal vessels for the caecum/right colon, the gallbladder for the hepatic flexure, the spleen and tail of pancreas for the splenic flexure, the left ureter for the distal sigmoid/upper rectum, and the ureters, autonomic nerves, seminal vesicles, prostate, and urethra for the rectum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
Is the presence of liver metastases necessary for the development of carcinoid syndrome?
The following are true of carcinoid tumours except:
- When present in the appendix tip and measure less than 2 cm have an excellent prognosis (33%)
- Even when metastatic disease is present it tends to follow a protracted course (26%)
- When present in the appendix body tend to present with carcinoid syndrome even when liver metastases are not present (17%)
- May be imaged using 5 HIAA radionucleotide scanning (12%)
- Advanced appendiceal carcinoids may require right hemicolectomy (12%)
Rule of thirds:
- 1/3 multiple
- 1/3 small bowel
- 1/3 metastasize
- 1/3 second tumour
Important for me:
Less important:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: When present in the appendix body tend to present with carcinoid syndrome even when liver metastases are not present
Explanation:The presence of liver metastases is a requirement for the occurrence of carcinoid syndrome. The liver is divided into thirds, with one-third dedicated to multiple tumors, one-third to small bowel involvement, and one-third to metastasis or the development of a secondary tumor.
Carcinoid tumours are a type of cancer that can cause a condition called carcinoid syndrome. This syndrome typically occurs when the cancer has spread to the liver and releases serotonin into the bloodstream. In some cases, it can also occur with lung carcinoid tumours, as the mediators are not cleared by the liver. The earliest symptom of carcinoid syndrome is often flushing, but it can also cause diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and right heart valvular stenosis (or left heart involvement in bronchial carcinoid). Additionally, other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may be secreted, leading to conditions like Cushing’s syndrome. Pellagra, a rare condition caused by a deficiency in niacin, can also develop as the tumour diverts dietary tryptophan to serotonin.
To investigate carcinoid syndrome, doctors may perform a urinary 5-HIAA test or a plasma chromogranin A test. Treatment for the condition typically involves somatostatin analogues like octreotide, which can help manage symptoms like diarrhoea. Cyproheptadine may also be used to alleviate diarrhoea. Overall, early detection and treatment of carcinoid tumours can help prevent the development of carcinoid syndrome and improve outcomes for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, indigestion, and weight loss that has been going on for 3 months. During the examination, the doctor notices jaundice in the conjunctival sclera and mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant upon palpation. After conducting scans and biopsy, the results suggest gallbladder cancer.
What is the most likely lymph node to be the first site of metastasis for the cancer cells?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lund's node (cystic lymph node)
Explanation:Lund’s node serves as the first lymph node to be affected by cancer cells draining from the gallbladder, making it the sentinel lymph node for this organ. This suggests that Lund’s node is the primary target for metastasis in gallbladder cancer.
Cloquet’s node is classified as one of the deep inguinal nodes, while Virchow’s node is a sentinel lymph node located on the left supraclavicular region. Virchow’s node is associated with certain abdominal cancers, such as gastric cancer.
Peyer’s patches are clusters of lymphoid follicles that can be found throughout the ileum.
The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old male presents with a six-month history of frequent diarrhoea. He describes up to ten episodes a day of bloody stool. The patient denies any night sweats, fever, or weight loss, explains that he has not changed his diet recently.
On examination he has;
Normal vital signs
No ulcerations in his mouth
Mild lower abdominal tenderness
Pain and blood noted on rectal examination
What is the most probable finding on colonoscopy or biopsy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crypt abscesses
Explanation:ASCA, also known as anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies, can be abbreviated as 6.
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 61
Incorrect
-
At which of the following sites is the development of diverticulosis least likely in individuals over 60 years of age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectum
Explanation:It is extremely rare for diverticular disease to affect the rectum due to the circular muscle coat present in this area, which is a result of the blending of the tenia at the recto-sigmoid junction. While left-sided colonic diverticular disease is more common, right-sided colonic diverticular disease is also acknowledged.
Understanding Diverticular Disease
Diverticular disease is a common condition that involves the protrusion of the colon’s mucosa through its muscular wall. This typically occurs between the taenia coli, where vessels penetrate the muscle to supply the mucosa. Symptoms of diverticular disease include altered bowel habits, rectal bleeding, and abdominal pain. Complications can arise, such as diverticulitis, haemorrhage, fistula development, perforation and faecal peritonitis, abscess formation, and diverticular phlegmon.
To diagnose diverticular disease, patients may undergo a colonoscopy, CT cologram, or barium enema. However, it can be challenging to rule out cancer, especially in diverticular strictures. Acutely unwell surgical patients require a systematic investigation, including plain abdominal films and an erect chest x-ray to identify perforation. An abdominal CT scan with oral and intravenous contrast can help identify acute inflammation and local complications.
Treatment for diverticular disease includes increasing dietary fibre intake and managing mild attacks with antibiotics. Peri colonic abscesses require drainage, either surgically or radiologically. Recurrent episodes of acute diverticulitis requiring hospitalisation may indicate a segmental resection. Hinchey IV perforations, which involve generalised faecal peritonitis, require a resection and usually a stoma. This group has a high risk of postoperative complications and typically requires HDU admission. Less severe perforations may be managed by laparoscopic washout and drain insertion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 62
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man presents with brisk haematemesis and is taken to the endoscopy department for an upper GI endoscopy. The gastroenterologist identifies an ulcer on the posterior duodenal wall and attempts to control the bleeding with various haemostatic techniques. After an unsuccessful attempt, the surgeon is called for assistance. During the laparotomy and anterior duodenotomy, a vessel is found spurting blood into the duodenal lumen. What is the origin of this vessel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common hepatic artery
Explanation:The gastroduodenal artery originates from the common hepatic artery.
The Gastroduodenal Artery: Supply and Path
The gastroduodenal artery is responsible for supplying blood to the pylorus, proximal part of the duodenum, and indirectly to the pancreatic head through the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries. It commonly arises from the common hepatic artery of the coeliac trunk and terminates by bifurcating into the right gastroepiploic artery and the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
To better understand the relationship of the gastroduodenal artery to the first part of the duodenum, the stomach is reflected superiorly in an image sourced from Wikipedia. This artery plays a crucial role in providing oxygenated blood to the digestive system, ensuring proper functioning and health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman presents to the gastrointestinal clinic with a history of abdominal bloating, diarrhoea, and fatigue for the past 6 months. She experiences severe cramps after most meals and struggles to focus on her work at the office.
After conducting investigations, it is found that her tissue transglutaminases (TTG) are positive. What is a potential complication of the suspected underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyposplenism
Explanation:Hyposplenism is a possible complication of coeliac disease. The patient’s symptoms and positive tissue transglutaminases support the diagnosis of coeliac disease, which can lead to malabsorption of important nutrients like iron, folate, and vitamin B12. Hyposplenism may occur due to autoimmune processes and loss of lymphocyte recirculation caused by inflammation in the colon. However, hepatomegaly, pancreatitis, and polycythaemia are not associated with coeliac disease.
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 64
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is not a result of cholecystokinin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It increases the rate of gastric emptying
Explanation:The rate of gastric emptying is reduced.
Understanding Gastric Secretions for Surgical Procedures
A basic understanding of gastric secretions is crucial for surgeons, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Gastric acid, produced by the parietal cells in the stomach, has a pH of around 2 and is maintained by the H+/K+ ATPase pump. Sodium and chloride ions are actively secreted from the parietal cell into the canaliculus, creating a negative potential across the membrane. Carbonic anhydrase forms carbonic acid, which dissociates, and the hydrogen ions formed by dissociation leave the cell via the H+/K+ antiporter pump. This leaves hydrogen and chloride ions in the canaliculus, which mix and are secreted into the lumen of the oxyntic gland.
There are three phases of gastric secretion: the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase. The cephalic phase is stimulated by the smell or taste of food and causes 30% of acid production. The gastric phase, which is caused by stomach distension, low H+, or peptides, causes 60% of acid production. The intestinal phase, which is caused by high acidity, distension, or hypertonic solutions in the duodenum, inhibits gastric acid secretion via enterogastrones and neural reflexes.
The regulation of gastric acid production involves various factors that increase or decrease production. Factors that increase production include vagal nerve stimulation, gastrin release, and histamine release. Factors that decrease production include somatostatin, cholecystokinin, and secretin. Understanding these factors and their associated pharmacology is essential for surgeons.
In summary, a working knowledge of gastric secretions is crucial for surgical procedures, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Understanding the phases of gastric secretion and the regulation of gastric acid production is essential for successful surgical outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 65
Incorrect
-
Which type of epithelium lines the lumenal surface of the typical esophagus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
Explanation:The lining of the oesophagus is composed of stratified squamous epithelium that is not keratinised. Metaplastic processes in reflux can lead to the transformation of this epithelium into glandular type epithelium.
Anatomy of the Oesophagus
The oesophagus is a muscular tube that is approximately 25 cm long and starts at the C6 vertebrae, pierces the diaphragm at T10, and ends at T11. It is lined with non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and has constrictions at various distances from the incisors, including the cricoid cartilage at 15cm, the arch of the aorta at 22.5cm, the left principal bronchus at 27cm, and the diaphragmatic hiatus at 40cm.
The oesophagus is surrounded by various structures, including the trachea to T4, the recurrent laryngeal nerve, the left bronchus and left atrium, and the diaphragm anteriorly. Posteriorly, it is related to the thoracic duct to the left at T5, the hemiazygos to the left at T8, the descending aorta, and the first two intercostal branches of the aorta. The arterial, venous, and lymphatic drainage of the oesophagus varies depending on the location, with the upper third being supplied by the inferior thyroid artery and drained by the deep cervical lymphatics, the mid-third being supplied by aortic branches and drained by azygos branches and mediastinal lymphatics, and the lower third being supplied by the left gastric artery and drained by posterior mediastinal and coeliac veins and gastric lymphatics.
The nerve supply of the oesophagus also varies, with the upper half being supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve and the lower half being supplied by the oesophageal plexus of the vagus nerve. The muscularis externa of the oesophagus is composed of both smooth and striated muscle, with the composition varying depending on the location.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 66
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man is shot in the abdomen and experiences bleeding. What substance will cause vasoconstriction in response to this event?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Angiotensin II
Explanation:Vasoconstriction is not caused by renin. Angiotensin I is not biologically active. Aldosterone can raise blood pressure, but it does not have direct vasospastic effects.
Shock is a condition where there is not enough blood flow to the tissues. There are five main types of shock: septic, haemorrhagic, neurogenic, cardiogenic, and anaphylactic. Septic shock is caused by an infection that triggers a particular response in the body. Haemorrhagic shock is caused by blood loss, and there are four classes of haemorrhagic shock based on the amount of blood loss and associated symptoms. Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a disruption in the autonomic nervous system, leading to decreased vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is caused by heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Adrenaline is the most important drug in treating anaphylaxis and should be given as soon as possible.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 67
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old woman is being evaluated on the ward due to concerns raised by the nursing staff regarding her altered bowel habits. The patient has been experiencing bowel movements approximately 12 times a day for the past two days and is experiencing crampy abdominal pain.
The patient's blood test results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb) level of 124 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
- Platelet count of 175 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
- White blood cell (WBC) count of 16.4 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
Upon reviewing her medication chart, it is noted that she recently finished a course of ceftriaxone for meningitis.
Based on the likely diagnosis, what would be the most probable finding on stool microscopy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gram-positive bacilli
Explanation:The likely diagnosis for this patient is a Clostridium difficile infection, which is a gram-positive bacillus bacteria. This infection is triggered by recent broad-spectrum antibiotic use, as seen in this patient who was prescribed ceftriaxone for meningitis. The patient’s symptoms of crampy abdominal pain and sudden onset diffuse diarrhoea, along with a marked rise in white blood cells, are consistent with this diagnosis. Gram-negative bacilli, gram-negative cocci, and gram-negative spirillum bacteria are unlikely causes of this patient’s symptoms.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old woman is currently admitted to the female orthopedic ward following a left total hip replacement after a femoral neck fracture. The surgery was uncomplicated, and the patient is expected to be discharged in four days. However, in the evening, the patient complains of feeling unwell and experiencing pain in the left hip area. The nurse records her vital signs, which include a pulse rate of 94 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, a blood pressure of 105/63 mmHg, and a temperature of 38.1ºC (100.6 degrees Fahrenheit). The ward doctor suspects a bone infection around the hip prosthesis and initiates treatment with clindamycin while awaiting review by the orthopedic surgeon. The patient's pain and suspected bone infection eventually subside, but after two days, the patient develops severe abdominal pain and diarrhea. What is the most likely causative organism responsible for this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gram-positive anaerobic bacilli
Explanation:Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by the gram-positive bacillus Clostridium difficile, which can overgrow in the intestine following broad-spectrum antibiotic use. A patient recovering from a total hip replacement who develops signs of infection and is treated with clindamycin may develop severe abdominal pain and diarrhea, indicating a diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis. Treatment options include metronidazole or oral vancomycin for more severe cases. Staphylococcus bacteria are gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci that can be differentiated based on coagulase positivity and novobiocin sensitivity. Listeria, Bacillus, and Corynebacterium are gram-positive aerobic bacilli, while Campylobacter jejuni, Vibrio cholerae, and Helicobacter pylori are gram-negative, oxidase-positive comma-shaped rods with specific growth characteristics.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 69
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old man who is overweight visits his GP with complaints of heartburn and regurgitation that worsen when lying flat. The GP suspects gastroesophageal reflux caused by a hiatus hernia and recommends lifestyle changes to promote weight loss, as well as antacids.
Where is the opening through which this problem occurs located in the diaphragm?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T10
Explanation:The level at which the oesophagus passes through the diaphragm is T10, which is also where the oesophageal hiatus is located. When the stomach protrudes through this opening, it is referred to as a hiatus hernia.
Understanding Diaphragm Apertures
The diaphragm is a muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity and plays a crucial role in respiration. Diaphragm apertures are openings within this muscle that allow specific structures to pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity. The three main apertures are the aortic hiatus at T12, the oesophageal hiatus at T10, and the vena cava foramen at T8. To remember the vertebral levels of these apertures, a useful mnemonic involves counting the total number of letters in the spellings of vena cava (8), oesophagus (10), and aortic hiatus (12).
In addition to these main apertures, smaller openings in the diaphragm exist in the form of lesser diaphragmatic apertures. These allow much smaller structures to pass through the thoracic cavity into the abdomen across the diaphragm. Examples of lesser diaphragmatic apertures include the left phrenic nerve, small veins, superior epigastric artery, intercostal nerves and vessels, subcostal nerves and vessels, splanchnic nerves, and the sympathetic trunk. Understanding the diaphragm and its apertures is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 70
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man comes to you with a lump in his testicle. As you take his history, you wonder which of the following factors poses the greatest risk for testicular cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism
Explanation:Testicular cancer is more likely to occur in men who have had undescended testis, with a 40-fold increase in risk. Other risk factors include being of white ethnicity, being between the ages of 15-35, and not having had testicular trauma.
Cryptorchidism: Undescended Testis in Boys
Cryptorchidism is a congenital condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum by the age of 3 months. Although the cause of this condition is mostly unknown, it may be associated with other congenital defects such as abnormal epididymis, cerebral palsy, mental retardation, Wilms tumour, and abdominal wall defects. Retractile testes and intersex conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis.
Correcting cryptorchidism is important to reduce the risk of infertility, examine the testes for testicular cancer, avoid testicular torsion, and improve cosmetic appearance. Males with undescended testis are at a higher risk of developing testicular cancer, especially if the testis is intra-abdominal.
The treatment for cryptorchidism is orchidopexy, which is usually performed between 6 to 18 months of age. The procedure involves exploring the inguinal area, mobilizing the testis, and implanting it into a dartos pouch. In cases where the testis is intra-abdominal, laparoscopic evaluation and mobilization may be necessary. If left untreated, the Sertoli cells will degrade after the age of 2 years, and orchidectomy may be a better option for those presenting late in their teenage years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 71
Incorrect
-
A patient in her 50s has been diagnosed with duodenal ulcers caused by excessive gastric acid secretion. Upon reviewing her pancreatic function, the consultant found that her S cells are not functioning properly, resulting in decreased secretion of secretin. How will this impact her treatment plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid
Explanation:The secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from pancreas and hepatic duct cells is increased by secretin.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 72
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old male patient undergoes liver resection surgery and encounters uncontrolled hepatic bleeding. To interrupt the blood flow, the surgeon performs the 'Pringle manoeuvre' by clamping the hepatic artery, portal vein, and common bile duct, which form the anterior boundary of the epiploic foramen. What other vessel serves as a boundary in this area?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The inferior vena cava serves as the posterior boundary of the epiploic foramen. The anterior boundary is formed by the hepatoduodenal ligament, which contains the bile duct, portal vein, and hepatic artery. The first part of the duodenum forms the inferior boundary, while the caudate process of the liver forms the superior boundary.
The Epiploic Foramen and its Boundaries
The epiploic foramen is a small opening in the peritoneum that connects the greater and lesser sacs of the abdomen. It is located posterior to the liver and anterior to the inferior vena cava. The boundaries of the epiploic foramen include the bile duct to the right, the portal vein behind, and the hepatic artery to the left. The inferior boundary is the first part of the duodenum, while the superior boundary is the caudate process of the liver.
During liver surgery, bleeding can be controlled by performing a Pringles manoeuvre. This involves placing a vascular clamp across the anterior aspect of the epiploic foramen, which occludes the common bile duct, hepatic artery, and portal vein. This technique is useful in preventing excessive bleeding during liver surgery and can help to ensure a successful outcome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old patient with consistent PR bleeding is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. What is the primary medication used to induce remission of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:To induce remission of Crohn’s disease, glucocorticoids (whether oral, topical or intravenous) are typically the first line of treatment. 5-ASA drugs are considered a second option for inducing remission of IBD. Azathioprine is more commonly used for maintaining remission. Steroids are specifically used to induce remission of Crohn’s disease. Infliximab is particularly effective for treating refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s.
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.
To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.
Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 74
Incorrect
-
A 12-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with complaints of central abdominal pain that has shifted to the right iliac fossa. Upon examination, there are no indications of rebound tenderness or guarding.
What is the most probable diagnosis, and how would you describe the pathophysiology of the condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obstruction of the appendiceal lumen due to lymphoid hyperplasia or faecolith
Explanation:The pathophysiology of appendicitis involves obstruction of the appendiceal lumen, which is commonly caused by lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith. This condition is most prevalent in young individuals aged 10-20 years and is the most common acute abdominal condition requiring surgery. Blood clots are not a typical cause of appendiceal obstruction, but foreign bodies and worms can also contribute to this condition.
Pancreatitis can lead to autodigestion in the pancreas, while autoimmune destruction of the pancreas is responsible for type 1 diabetes. Symptoms of type 1 diabetes, which typically develops at a younger age than type 2 diabetes, include polydipsia and polyuria.
Acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires surgery and can occur at any age, but is most prevalent in young people aged 10-20 years. The pathogenesis of acute appendicitis involves lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith, which leads to obstruction of the appendiceal lumen. This obstruction causes gut organisms to invade the appendix wall, resulting in oedema, ischaemia, and possibly perforation.
The most common symptom of acute appendicitis is abdominal pain, which is typically peri-umbilical and radiates to the right iliac fossa due to localised peritoneal inflammation. Other symptoms include mild pyrexia, anorexia, and nausea. Examination may reveal generalised or localised peritonism, rebound and percussion tenderness, guarding and rigidity, and classical signs such as Rovsing’s sign and psoas sign.
Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers and compatible history and examination findings. Imaging may be used in certain cases, such as ultrasound in females where pelvic organ pathology is suspected. Management of acute appendicitis involves appendicectomy, which can be performed via an open or laparoscopic approach. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage, while those without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy. Intravenous antibiotics alone have been trialled as a treatment for appendicitis, but evidence suggests that this is associated with a longer hospital stay and up to 20% of patients go on to have an appendicectomy within 12 months.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
A man in his early 50s arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain and haematemesis. Upon diagnosis, he is found to have a peptic ulcer. During his treatment, he reveals that he has been taking ibuprofen for several years. His physician informs him that this may have caused the bleeding and recommends taking omeprazole, a gastroprotective medication, in addition to his ibuprofen to lower his chances of recurrence. What is the mechanism of action of omeprazole?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric parietal cell H+/K+-ATPase inhibition
Explanation:The irreversible blockade of H+/K+ ATPase is caused by PPIs.
Parietal cells contain H+/K+-ATPase, which is inhibited by omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor. Therefore, any answer indicating chief cells or H+/K+-ATPase stimulation is incorrect and potentially harmful.
Ranitidine is an example of a different class of gastroprotective drugs that inhibits H2 receptors.
Understanding Proton Pump Inhibitors
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are medications that work by blocking the H+/K+ ATPase in the stomach’s parietal cells. This action is irreversible and helps to reduce the amount of acid produced in the stomach. Examples of PPIs include omeprazole and lansoprazole.
Despite their effectiveness in treating conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, PPIs can have adverse effects. These include hyponatremia and hypomagnesemia, which are low levels of sodium and magnesium in the blood, respectively. Prolonged use of PPIs can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, leading to an increased risk of fractures. Additionally, there is a potential for microscopic colitis and an increased risk of C. difficile infections.
It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of PPIs with your healthcare provider and to use them only as directed. Regular monitoring of electrolyte levels and bone density may also be necessary for those on long-term PPI therapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 76
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of moderate upper abdominal pain that is slightly relieved by eating. Despite taking ibuprofen, she has not experienced any relief. The doctor suspects a duodenal peptic ulcer and schedules an oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD). Based on the location of the ulcer, which organ is derived from the same embryological region of the gut?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophagus
Explanation:The major papilla located in the 2nd part of the duodenum marks the division between the foregut and the midgut, with the foregut encompassing structures from the mouth to the 2nd part of the duodenum where peptic ulcers are commonly found. It should be noted that the kidneys are not derived from gut embryology, but rather from the ureteric bud.
The Three Embryological Layers and their Corresponding Gastrointestinal Structures and Blood Supply
The gastrointestinal system is a complex network of organs responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients. During embryonic development, the gastrointestinal system is formed from three distinct layers: the foregut, midgut, and hindgut. Each layer gives rise to specific structures and is supplied by a corresponding blood vessel.
The foregut extends from the mouth to the proximal half of the duodenum and is supplied by the coeliac trunk. The midgut encompasses the distal half of the duodenum to the splenic flexure of the colon and is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. Lastly, the hindgut includes the descending colon to the rectum and is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.
Understanding the embryological origin and blood supply of the gastrointestinal system is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By identifying the specific structures and blood vessels involved, healthcare professionals can better target their interventions and improve patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 77
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old man is having a pancreatectomy for cancer. While removing the gland, which structure will the surgeon not come across behind the pancreas?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:At the superior part of the pancreas, the gastroduodenal artery splits into the pancreaticoduodenal and gastro-epiploic arteries.
Anatomy of the Pancreas
The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.
The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old male presents with abdominal pain.
He has a past medical history of stroke and myocardial infarction. During examination, there was noticeable distension of the abdomen and the stools were maroon in color. The lactate level was found to be 5 mmol/L, which is above the normal range of <2.2 mmol/L.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute mesenteric ischaemia
Explanation:Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia
Acute mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is a disruption in blood flow to the small intestine or right colon. This can be caused by arterial or venous disease, with arterial disease further classified as non-occlusive or occlusive. The classic triad of symptoms associated with acute mesenteric ischaemia includes gastrointestinal emptying, abdominal pain, and underlying cardiac disease.
The hallmark symptom of mesenteric ischaemia is severe abdominal pain, which may be accompanied by other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal distention, ileus, peritonitis, blood in the stool, and shock. Advanced ischaemia is characterized by the presence of these symptoms.
There are several risk factors associated with acute mesenteric ischaemia, including congestive heart failure, cardiac arrhythmias (especially atrial fibrillation), recent myocardial infarction, atherosclerosis, hypercoagulable states, and hypovolaemia. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and to seek medical attention promptly if any symptoms of acute mesenteric ischaemia are present.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 79
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of haematemesis. He appears unkempt and emits a strong odour of alcohol. During the examination, the physician notes the presence of palmar erythema, spider naevi, and jaundiced sclera. The patient's vital signs indicate tachycardia and tachypnea, with a blood pressure of 90/55 mmHg. What is the probable reason for the patient's haematemesis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal varices
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting signs of shock, possibly due to hypovolemia caused by significant blood loss from variceal bleeding. The patient’s physical examination reveals indications of chronic liver disease, making oesophageal varices the most probable cause of the bleeding. Mallory-Weiss tear, which causes painful episodes of haematemesis, usually occurs after repeated forceful vomiting, but there is no evidence of vomiting in this patient. Peptic ulcers typically affect older patients with abdominal pain and those taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
Less Common Oesophageal Disorders
Plummer-Vinson syndrome is a condition characterized by a triad of dysphagia, glossitis, and iron-deficiency anaemia. Dysphagia is caused by oesophageal webs, which are thin membranes that form in the oesophagus. Treatment for this condition includes iron supplementation and dilation of the webs.
Mallory-Weiss syndrome is a disorder that occurs when severe vomiting leads to painful mucosal lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction, resulting in haematemesis. This condition is common in alcoholics.
Boerhaave syndrome is a severe disorder that occurs when severe vomiting leads to oesophageal rupture. This condition requires immediate medical attention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 80
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man has arrived at the emergency department following a car crash. He is experiencing tachycardia and his blood pressure is rapidly decreasing from 90/60mmHg. He is feeling dizzy and disoriented, and is experiencing pain in his left upper quadrant and left shoulder. Which organ is most likely to have sustained damage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spleen
Explanation:The patient’s tachycardia and low blood pressure indicate internal bleeding due to trauma. Although he experiences pain in his upper left abdominal quadrant, it does not rule out the possibility of internal bleeding. However, it makes heart and lung injuries less likely as he would have also complained of chest pain. The pain in his left shoulder suggests that the left phrenic nerve has been affected, which indicates damage to the spleen rather than the liver, as it would have been on the right side. The spleen is commonly damaged in trauma and could explain the rapid drop in blood pressure.
Understanding the Anatomy of the Spleen
The spleen is a vital organ in the human body, serving as the largest lymphoid organ. It is located below the 9th-12th ribs and has a clenched fist shape. The spleen is an intraperitoneal organ, and its peritoneal attachments condense at the hilum, where the vessels enter the spleen. The blood supply of the spleen is from the splenic artery, which is derived from the coeliac axis, and the splenic vein, which is joined by the IMV and unites with the SMV.
The spleen is derived from mesenchymal tissue during embryology. It weighs between 75-150g and has several relations with other organs. The diaphragm is superior to the spleen, while the gastric impression is anterior, the kidney is posterior, and the colon is inferior. The hilum of the spleen is formed by the tail of the pancreas and splenic vessels. The spleen also forms the apex of the lesser sac, which contains short gastric vessels.
In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of the spleen is crucial in comprehending its functions and the role it plays in the human body. The spleen’s location, weight, and relations with other organs are essential in diagnosing and treating spleen-related conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 81
Incorrect
-
A patient with moderate gastro-oesophageal reflux disease undergoes upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and biopsy. Upon examination of the biopsy specimen, the pathologist observes that the original epithelium of the oesophagus (A) has been substituted by a distinct type of epithelium (B) that is typically present in the intestine.
What is the epithelium (B) that the pathologist is most likely to have identified?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Columnar epithelium
Explanation:Barrett’s oesophagus is characterized by the replacement of the original stratified squamous epithelium with columnar epithelium, which is typically found lining the intestines. Simple cuboidal epithelium is present in small gland ducts, kidney tubules, and secretory portions. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is found in the upper respiratory tract and trachea, while stratified squamous epithelium lines areas that experience tension, such as the mouth, oesophagus, and vagina.
Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.
The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.
The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 82
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old male presented with weight loss, cramping abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhea. During colonoscopy, a diffusely red and friable mucosa was observed in the rectum and sigmoid colon, while the mucosa was normal in the proximal region. Over time, the disease progressed to involve most of the colon, except for the ileum. After several years, a colonic biopsy revealed high grade epithelial dysplasia. What was the probable initial diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis advances from the distal to proximal regions in a progressive manner, leading to dysplastic changes over time. These endoscopic observations necessitate frequent endoscopic monitoring, and if a colonic mass is present, a pancproctocolectomy is typically recommended.
Understanding Ulcerative Colitis
Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 83
Incorrect
-
A previously healthy woman of 23 years-old presented with acute epigastric pain. On investigations, a largely elevated lipase was discovered with a normal amylase level, and a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis was made. This patient rarely drinks alcohol, and ultrasonography of the abdomen ruled out gallstones. The results of tests for autoimmune pancreatitis were negative. Twenty days later, imaging tests using magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) revealed the cause of the chronic pancreatitis.
What was the most probable reason behind the chronic pancreatitis in this 23-year-old woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreas divisum
Explanation:Pancreas divisum is a condition where the dorsal and ventral buds of the pancreas fail to fuse in a portion of the population. This can lead to chronic pancreatitis due to insufficient drainage of pancreatic secretions through the minor papilla instead of the major papilla. Other causes of chronic pancreatitis include autoimmune pancreatitis and cystic fibrosis, but these have been ruled out in this case as the patient is a previously healthy individual with negative autoimmune antibodies. Acute pancreatitis can be caused by mumps or a Trinidadian scorpion bite.
Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis
Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.
Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.
Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 84
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a significant swelling in his abdomen. He confesses to consuming more alcohol since losing his job five years ago, but he has no other significant medical history.
During the examination, the doctor observes shifting dullness. To confirm the suspicion of portal hypertension, the doctor orders liver function tests and an ascitic tap (paracentesis).
What result from the tests would provide the strongest indication of portal hypertension?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) of 13.1 g/L
Explanation:Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the abdominal cavity. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. If the SAAG level is greater than 11g/L, it indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. Other causes of portal hypertension include cardiac conditions like right heart failure and constrictive pericarditis, as well as infections like tuberculous peritonitis. On the other hand, if the SAAG level is less than 11g/L, ascites may be caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction, and other conditions.
The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and sometimes fluid restriction if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone are often prescribed, and loop diuretics may be added if necessary. Therapeutic abdominal paracentesis may be performed for tense ascites, and large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of complications. Prophylactic antibiotics may also be given to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In some cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 85
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a fall and head injury he sustained while walking home. He has a history of multiple similar admissions related to alcohol excess. During his hospital stay, his blood sugar levels remain consistently high and he appears disheveled. There is no significant past medical history.
What could be the probable reason for the patient's elevated blood glucose levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Destruction of islets of Langerhans cells
Explanation:Chronic pancreatitis can cause diabetes as it destroys the islet of Langerhans cells in the pancreas. This patient has a history of recurrent admissions due to alcohol-related falls, indicating excessive alcohol intake, which is the most common risk factor for chronic pancreatitis. A high sugar diet alone should not consistently elevated blood sugar levels if normal insulin control mechanisms are functioning properly. Gastrointestinal bleeding and the stress response to injury would not immediately raise blood sugar levels. In this case, the patient’s alcohol intake suggests chronic pancreatitis as the cause of elevated blood sugar levels rather than type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis
Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.
Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.
Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 86
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements regarding gastric acid secretions is false?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The intestinal phase accounts for 60% of gastric acid produced
Explanation:Understanding Gastric Secretions for Surgical Procedures
A basic understanding of gastric secretions is crucial for surgeons, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Gastric acid, produced by the parietal cells in the stomach, has a pH of around 2 and is maintained by the H+/K+ ATPase pump. Sodium and chloride ions are actively secreted from the parietal cell into the canaliculus, creating a negative potential across the membrane. Carbonic anhydrase forms carbonic acid, which dissociates, and the hydrogen ions formed by dissociation leave the cell via the H+/K+ antiporter pump. This leaves hydrogen and chloride ions in the canaliculus, which mix and are secreted into the lumen of the oxyntic gland.
There are three phases of gastric secretion: the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase. The cephalic phase is stimulated by the smell or taste of food and causes 30% of acid production. The gastric phase, which is caused by stomach distension, low H+, or peptides, causes 60% of acid production. The intestinal phase, which is caused by high acidity, distension, or hypertonic solutions in the duodenum, inhibits gastric acid secretion via enterogastrones and neural reflexes.
The regulation of gastric acid production involves various factors that increase or decrease production. Factors that increase production include vagal nerve stimulation, gastrin release, and histamine release. Factors that decrease production include somatostatin, cholecystokinin, and secretin. Understanding these factors and their associated pharmacology is essential for surgeons.
In summary, a working knowledge of gastric secretions is crucial for surgical procedures, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Understanding the phases of gastric secretion and the regulation of gastric acid production is essential for successful surgical outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 87
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old-male presents to the clinic with a complaint of a lump in his stomach. During the examination, a lump is observed on coughing and is located within Hesselbach's triangle. Can you identify the structures that form the borders of this region?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inguinal ligament inferiorly, inferior epigastric vessels laterally, lateral border of rectus sheath medially
Explanation:A possible exam question could be related to a patient displaying symptoms indicative of a hernia. Hesselbach’s triangle is the area where a direct inguinal hernia may manifest. Direct hernias are caused by deficiencies or vulnerabilities in the posterior abdominal wall, whereas indirect hernias protrude through the inguinal canal.
Hesselbach’s Triangle and Direct Hernias
Hesselbach’s triangle is an anatomical region located in the lower abdomen. It is bordered by the epigastric vessels on the superolateral side, the lateral edge of the rectus muscle medially, and the inguinal ligament inferiorly. This triangle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of direct hernias, which pass through this region.
To better understand the location of direct hernias, it is essential to know the boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle. The epigastric vessels are located on the upper and outer side of the triangle, while the lateral edge of the rectus muscle is on the inner side. The inguinal ligament forms the lower boundary of the triangle.
In medical exams, it is common to test the knowledge of Hesselbach’s triangle and its boundaries. Understanding this region is crucial for identifying and treating direct hernias, which can cause discomfort and other complications. By knowing the location of Hesselbach’s triangle, medical professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with direct hernias.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 88
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old male with Parkinson's disease (PD) arrives at the emergency department with sudden chest pain, indicating a possible heart attack. What treatment should be avoided in the management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Metoclopramide should not be given to patients with Parkinsonism due to its dopamine antagonist properties which can worsen the symptoms of the disease. However, it can be prescribed as an antiemetic when administering morphine to ACS patients who are not contraindicated. Oxygen is safe for PD patients, while clopidogrel is used for its antiplatelet effects.
Understanding the Mechanism and Uses of Metoclopramide
Metoclopramide is a medication primarily used to manage nausea, but it also has other uses such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis secondary to diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics for the treatment of migraines. However, it is important to note that metoclopramide has adverse effects such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. It should also be avoided in bowel obstruction but may be helpful in paralytic ileus.
The mechanism of action of metoclopramide is quite complicated. It is primarily a D2 receptor antagonist, but it also has mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Its antiemetic action is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, and at higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist also has an effect. The gastroprokinetic activity is mediated by D2 receptor antagonist activity and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity.
In summary, metoclopramide is a medication with multiple uses, but it also has adverse effects that should be considered. Its mechanism of action is complex, involving both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Understanding the uses and mechanism of action of metoclopramide is important for its safe and effective use.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 89
Incorrect
-
Surgical occlusion of which of these structures will cause the most significant decrease in hepatic blood flow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Portal vein
Explanation:The contents of the portal vein consist of digested products. Sinusoids distribute arterial and venous blood to the central veins of the liver lobules, which then empty into the hepatic veins and ultimately into the IVC. Unlike other hepatic veins, the caudate lobe directly drains into the IVC.
Structure and Relations of the Liver
The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.
The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.
The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 90
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old male presents with yellow discoloration of his skin. He reports having had the flu for the past week but is otherwise in good health. He vaguely remembers his uncle experiencing similar episodes of yellow skin. What is the probable diagnosis and what is the mode of inheritance for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Gilbert’s Syndrome is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. It causes unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia during periods of stress, such as fasting or infection.
Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.
To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 91
Incorrect
-
As an observer in the colorectal surgical department, you spend a morning watching a colonoscopy list. A number of patients who arrive during the morning are individuals with Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC), who are being screened to detect any early signs of colorectal cancer. What is the lifetime risk of developing colorectal cancer for individuals with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 90%
Explanation:Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 92
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with colorectal cancer. He underwent an open right hemicolectomy to remove the tumor. The pathology report indicates that the cancer has invaded the muscularis propria of the bowel wall but has not reached the serosal layer. Out of the 20 lymph nodes removed, 3 were positive for metastatic disease. A PET scan revealed no distant metastases. What is the TNM clinical classification of this patient's colorectal cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T2 N1 M0
Explanation:The TNM classification system for colon cancer includes assessment of the primary tumor (T), regional lymph nodes (N), and distant metastasis (M). The T category ranges from TX (primary tumor cannot be assessed) to T4b (tumor directly invades or adheres to other organs or structures). The N category ranges from NX (regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed) to N2b (metastasis in 7 or more regional lymph nodes). The M category ranges from M0 (no distant metastasis) to M1b (metastases in more than 1 organ/site or the peritoneum).
Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.
The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 93
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male with a history of Crohn's disease visits his gastroenterologist for a routine checkup. During the appointment, he inquires about the underlying cause of his condition. Which gene variations have been associated with Crohn's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: NOD-2
Explanation:The development of Crohn’s disease is connected to a genetic abnormality in the NOD-2 gene.
Phenylketonuria is linked to the PKU mutation.
Cystic fibrosis is associated with the CFTR mutation.
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is connected to the COL1A1 mutation.
Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.
Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 94
Incorrect
-
A case of ischaemic left colon is diagnosed in a patient. Which artery, originating from the aorta at approximately the level of L3, is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The left side of the colon is most likely to be affected by the IMA, which typically originates at L3.
The Inferior Mesenteric Artery: Supplying the Hindgut
The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is responsible for supplying the embryonic hindgut with blood. It originates just above the aortic bifurcation, at the level of L3, and passes across the front of the aorta before settling on its left side. At the point where the left common iliac artery is located, the IMA becomes the superior rectal artery.
The hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum above the pectinate line, is supplied by the IMA. The left colic artery is one of the branches that emerges from the IMA near its origin. Up to three sigmoid arteries may also exit the IMA to supply the sigmoid colon further down the line.
Overall, the IMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the hindgut receives the blood supply it needs to function properly. Its branches help to ensure that the colon and rectum are well-nourished and able to carry out their important digestive functions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 95
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after collapsing at home. According to his wife, he had complained of sudden lower back pain just before the collapse. Upon examination, he appears pale and hypotensive, leading you to suspect a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. Can you determine at which level the affected structure terminates?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:The section of the aorta that runs through the abdomen, known as the abdominal aorta, extends from the T12 vertebrae to the L4 vertebrae. This area is particularly susceptible to developing an aneurysm, which is most commonly seen in men over the age of 65. Risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysms include smoking, diabetes, high blood pressure, and high cholesterol levels. Symptoms are often absent until the aneurysm ruptures, causing sudden and severe pain in the lower back or abdomen, as well as a drop in blood pressure and consciousness. To detect potential aneurysms, the NHS offers a one-time ultrasound screening for men over the age of 65 who have not previously been screened.
The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 96
Incorrect
-
As a fourth year medical student, you are observing a morning colonoscopy list at the hospital. You come across patients who have been referred for imaging due to specific symptoms like rectal bleeding, as well as those who are undergoing routine annual colonoscopies. You are aware that most cases of colorectal cancer are sporadic, with no known genetic predisposition in patients. However, there are also certain genetic mutations that require patients to undergo colonoscopy screening for the development of colorectal cancer.
Can you provide examples of such genetic mutations?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FAP and HNPCC
Explanation:Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 97
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following does not result in the relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Metoclopramide directly causes contraction of the smooth muscle of the LOS.
Peristalsis: The Movement of Food Through the Digestive System
Peristalsis is the process by which food is moved through the digestive system. Circular smooth muscle contracts behind the food bolus, while longitudinal smooth muscle propels the food through the oesophagus. Primary peristalsis spontaneously moves the food from the oesophagus into the stomach, taking about 9 seconds. Secondary peristalsis occurs when food does not enter the stomach, and stretch receptors are stimulated to cause peristalsis.
In the small intestine, peristalsis waves slow to a few seconds and cause a mixture of chyme. In the colon, three main types of peristaltic activity are recognised. Segmentation contractions are localised contractions in which the bolus is subjected to local forces to maximise mucosal absorption. Antiperistaltic contractions towards the ileum are localised reverse peristaltic waves to slow entry into the colon and maximise absorption. Mass movements are migratory peristaltic waves along the entire colon to empty the organ prior to the next ingestion of a food bolus.
Overall, peristalsis is a crucial process in the digestive system that ensures food is moved efficiently through the body.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 98
Incorrect
-
Sophie presents acutely to the hospital with severe epigastric pain that is radiating to the back, nausea and vomiting. Upon questioning, she has suffered from several episodes of biliary colic in the past. A blood test reveals a lipase level of 1000U/L.
What is the underlying pathophysiology of Sophie's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatic enzymes released as a result of inflammation autodigest the pancreatic tissue
Explanation:The cause of acute pancreatitis is the autodigestion of pancreatic tissue by pancreatic enzymes, which results in tissue necrosis. The patient is experiencing typical symptoms of acute pancreatitis, including epigastric pain that radiates to the back, nausea, and vomiting. The presence of elevated lipase levels, which are more than three times the upper limit of normal, is also indicative of acute pancreatitis. The patient’s history of biliary colic suggests that gallstones may be the underlying cause of this condition.
During acute pancreatitis, inflammation of the pancreas triggers the release and activation of pancreatic enzymes, which then begin to digest the pancreatic tissue. This process is known as autodigestion. Autodigestion of fat can lead to tissue necrosis, while autodigestion of blood vessels can cause retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which can be identified by the presence of Grey Turner’s sign and Cullen’s sign.
Understanding Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The most common symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. Although rare, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may also be present.
To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life, making it useful for late presentations. Imaging, such as ultrasound or contrast-enhanced CT, may also be necessary to assess the aetiology of the condition.
Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors indicating severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. However, the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.
In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is important to diagnose and manage it promptly to prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 99
Incorrect
-
A 61-year-old man arrives at the ED less than an hour after experiencing central chest pain that spreads to his left arm. His ECG reveals ST-elevation in the anterior leads, and he is set to undergo urgent PCI. The cardiologist plans to access the femoral artery. What is the accurate surface landmark for identifying the femoral artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis
Explanation:The mid-inguinal point, which is the surface landmark for the femoral artery, is located at the midpoint between the ASIS and pubic symphysis. It should not be confused with the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is where the deep inguinal ring is located and runs from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle. While the other three options are not specific surface landmarks, it is worth noting that the superficial inguinal ring, which is the exit of the inguinal canal, is typically located superolateral to the pubic tubercle within a range of 1-2 cm.
Understanding the Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle
The femoral triangle is an important anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. The floor of the femoral triangle is made up of the iliacus, psoas major, adductor longus, and pectineus muscles, while the roof is formed by the fascia lata and superficial fascia. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the long saphenous vein are also found in this region.
The femoral triangle contains several important structures, including the femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve, deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral cutaneous nerve, great saphenous vein, and femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid inguinal point, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.
Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for procedures such as venipuncture, arterial puncture, and nerve blocks. It is also important for identifying and treating conditions that affect the structures within this region, such as femoral hernias and lymphadenopathy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 100
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man undergoes a colonoscopy and a colonic polyp is identified. It is located on a stalk in the sigmoid colon and has a lobular appearance. What is the most likely cause of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dysplasia
Explanation:The majority of colonic polyps mentioned earlier are adenomas, which can be accompanied by dysplasia. The severity of dysplasia is directly proportional to the level of clinical apprehension.
Understanding Colonic Polyps and Follow-Up Procedures
Colonic polyps can occur in isolation or as part of polyposis syndromes, with greater than 100 polyps typically present in FAP. The risk of malignancy is related to size, with a 10% risk in a 1 cm adenoma. While isolated adenomas seldom cause symptoms, distally sited villous lesions may produce mucous and electrolyte disturbances if very large.
Follow-up procedures for colonic polyps depend on the number and size of the polyps. Low-risk cases with 1 or 2 adenomas less than 1 cm require no follow-up or re-colonoscopy for 5 years. Moderate-risk cases with 3 or 4 small adenomas or 1 adenoma greater than 1 cm require a re-scope at 3 years. High-risk cases with more than 5 small adenomas or more than 3 with 1 of them greater than 1 cm require a re-scope at 1 year.
Segmental resection or complete colectomy may be necessary in cases of incomplete excision of malignant polyps, malignant sessile polyps, malignant pedunculated polyps with submucosal invasion, polyps with poorly differentiated carcinoma, or familial polyposis coli. Screening from teenager up to 40 years by 2 yearly sigmoidoscopy/colonoscopy is recommended. Rectal polypoidal lesions may be treated with trans anal endoscopic microsurgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 101
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old woman is scheduled for a left hemicolectomy to treat splenic flexure carcinoma. The surgical team plans to perform a high ligation of the inferior mesenteric vein. Typically, what does this structure drain into?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splenic vein
Explanation:Colonic surgery carries the risk of ureteric injury, which should be taken into consideration.
Ileus can be caused during surgery when the inferior mesenteric vein joins the splenic vein near the duodenum, which is a known complication.
Anatomy of the Left Colon
The left colon is a part of the large intestine that passes inferiorly and becomes extraperitoneal in its posterior aspect. It is closely related to the ureter and gonadal vessels, which may be affected by disease processes. At a certain level, the left colon becomes the sigmoid colon, which is wholly intraperitoneal once again. The sigmoid colon is highly mobile and may even be found on the right side of the abdomen. As it passes towards the midline, the taenia blend marks the transition between the sigmoid colon and upper rectum.
The blood supply of the left colon comes from the inferior mesenteric artery. However, the marginal artery, which comes from the right colon, also contributes significantly. This contribution becomes clinically significant when the inferior mesenteric artery is divided surgically, such as during an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Understanding the anatomy of the left colon is important for diagnosing and treating diseases that affect this part of the large intestine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 102
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of occasional rectal bleeding, diarrhea, and fatigue. He reports that his symptoms have been progressively worsening for the past year, and he is worried because his father was diagnosed with colorectal cancer at the age of 56.
Upon referral for a colonoscopy, the patient is found to have numerous benign polyps in his large colon.
Which gene mutation is linked to this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: APC
Explanation:Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is caused by a mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli gene (APC), which is a tumour suppressor gene. This hereditary condition is characterised by the presence of numerous benign polyps in the colon, which increases the risk of developing colon cancer. Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene, which is not related to the symptoms of FAP. Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) is associated with mutations in DNA mismatch repair genes such as MLH1, but it does not involve the development of numerous benign polyps. Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare disease caused by a mutation in the TP53 tumour suppressor gene, which is associated with the development of various cancers. Gilbert’s syndrome is caused by a mutation in a different gene and is not related to FAP.
Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 103
Incorrect
-
A surgeon is scheduled to perform a laparotomy for a perforated duodenal ulcer on a pediatric patient. An upper midline incision will be made. Which structure is most likely to be divided by the incision?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Linea alba
Explanation:When performing upper midline abdominal incisions, the linea alba is typically divided. It is not common to divide muscles in this approach, as it does not typically enhance access and encountering them is not a routine occurrence.
Abdominal Incisions: Types and Techniques
Abdominal incisions are surgical procedures that involve making an opening in the abdominal wall to access the organs inside. The most common approach is the midline incision, which involves dividing the linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. Another type is the paramedian incision, which is parallel to the midline and involves dividing the anterior rectus sheath, rectus, posterior rectus sheath, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. The battle incision is similar to the paramedian but involves displacing the rectus medially.
Other types of abdominal incisions include Kocher’s incision under the right subcostal margin for cholecystectomy, Lanz incision in the right iliac fossa for appendicectomy, gridiron oblique incision centered over McBurney’s point for appendicectomy, Pfannenstiel’s transverse supra-pubic incision primarily used to access pelvic organs, McEvedy’s groin incision for emergency repair of a strangulated femoral hernia, and Rutherford Morrison extraperitoneal approach to the left or right lower quadrants for access to iliac vessels and renal transplantation.
Each type of incision has its own advantages and disadvantages, and the choice of incision depends on the specific surgical procedure and the surgeon’s preference. Proper closure of the incision is crucial to prevent complications such as infection and hernia formation. Overall, abdominal incisions are important techniques in surgical practice that allow for safe and effective access to the abdominal organs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 104
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old male develops profuse, bloody diarrhoea after taking antibiotics. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhoea is suspected. What would be the expected findings during a colonoscopy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudomembranous colitis
Explanation:Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhoea is a common occurrence after taking certain antibiotics such as clindamycin, amoxicillin, ampicillin, and 3rd generation cephalosporins. This is because antibiotics eliminate the normal gut bacteria, making the bowel susceptible to invasion by Clostridium difficile bacterium.
The overgrowth of Clostridium difficile can lead to diarrhoea and the development of pseudomembranous colitis, which is characterized by yellow plaques that can be easily dislodged during colonoscopy.
Ischaemic colitis, on the other hand, is caused by ischaemia to the bowel and is likely to result in ischaemic bowel.
Microscopic colitis has two subtypes, namely lymphocytic colitis and collagenous colitis. These rare conditions are associated with chronic watery non-bloody diarrhoea and a normal colon appearance during colonoscopy, but biopsies reveal inflammatory changes.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 105
Incorrect
-
A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department due to severe abdominal pain. She has tenderness throughout her abdomen, but it is especially painful in the right iliac fossa. Her parents are concerned because they noticed blood in her stool earlier today.
The patient is admitted and receives appropriate treatment. Further investigations reveal the presence of ectopic ileal mucosa.
What is the probable underlying condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum
Explanation:Meckel’s diverticulum is the most likely diagnosis for this child’s symptoms. It is a congenital condition that affects about 2% of the population and typically presents with symptoms around the age of 2. Some children with Meckel’s diverticulum may develop diverticulitis, which can be mistaken for appendicitis. The presence of ectopic ileal mucosa is a key factor in diagnosing Meckel’s diverticulum.
Appendicitis is an unlikely diagnosis as it would not explain the presence of ectopic ileal mucosa. Duodenal atresia is also unlikely as it typically presents in newborns and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Necrotising enterocolitis is another unlikely diagnosis as it primarily affects premature infants and would not explain the ectopic ileal mucosa.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine that is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. It occurs in 2% of the population, is 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve, and is 2 inches long. It is usually asymptomatic but can present with abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. Investigation includes a Meckel’s scan or mesenteric arteriography. Management involves removal if narrow neck or symptomatic, with options between wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically lined by ileal mucosa but ectopic gastric, pancreatic, and jejunal mucosa can also occur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 106
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male patient reports experiencing mild jaundice following periods of fasting or exercise. Upon examination, his complete blood count and liver function tests appear normal. What is the recommended course of treatment for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No treatment required
Explanation:Gilbert Syndrome
Gilbert syndrome is a common genetic condition that causes mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, resulting in intermittent jaundice without any underlying liver disease or hemolysis. The bilirubin levels are usually less than 6 mg/dL, but most patients exhibit levels of less than 3 mg/dL. The condition is characterized by daily and seasonal variations, and occasionally, bilirubin levels may be normal in some patients. Gilbert syndrome can be triggered by dehydration, fasting, menstrual periods, or stress, such as an intercurrent illness or vigorous exercise. Patients may experience vague abdominal discomfort and fatigue, but these episodes resolve spontaneously, and no treatment is required except supportive care.
In recent years, Gilbert syndrome is believed to be inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, although there are reports of autosomal dominant inheritance. Despite the mild symptoms, it is essential to understand the condition’s triggers and symptoms to avoid unnecessary medical interventions. Patients with Gilbert syndrome can lead a normal life with proper care and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 107
Incorrect
-
During a liver resection, what structure will be located posterior to the epiploic foramen at this level when a surgeon performs a pringles manoeuvre?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:To manage bleeding caused by liver injury or a challenging cholecystectomy, a vascular clamp can be utilized at the epiploic foramen. This opening is defined by the following borders: the bile duct on the right, the portal vein at the back, and the hepatic artery on the left, all of which are located in the free edge of the lesser omentum.
Structure and Relations of the Liver
The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.
The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.
The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 108
Incorrect
-
On examining the caecum, what structure is most likely to be detected at the point where all the tenia coli converge?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Appendix base
Explanation:The tenia coli come together at the bottom of the appendix.
The Caecum: Location, Relations, and Functions
The caecum is a part of the colon located in the proximal right colon below the ileocaecal valve. It is an intraperitoneal structure that has posterior relations with the psoas, iliacus, femoral nerve, genitofemoral nerve, and gonadal vessels. Its anterior relations include the greater omentum. The caecum is supplied by the ileocolic artery and its lymphatic drainage is through the mesenteric nodes that accompany the venous drainage.
The caecum is known for its distensibility, making it the most distensible part of the colon. However, in cases of complete large bowel obstruction with a competent ileocaecal valve, the caecum is the most likely site of eventual perforation. Despite this potential complication, the caecum plays an important role in the digestive system. It is responsible for the absorption of fluids and electrolytes, as well as the fermentation of indigestible carbohydrates. Additionally, the caecum is a site for the growth and proliferation of beneficial bacteria that aid in digestion and immune function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 109
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old woman presents to her GP with an incidental finding of megaloblastic anaemia and low vitamin B12 levels. She has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus. What could be the probable cause of her decreased vitamin levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia
Explanation:Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.
Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 110
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man is scheduled for a sub total oesophagectomy with anastomosis of the stomach to the cervical oesophagus. What is the primary vessel responsible for supplying arterial blood to the oesophageal portion of the anastomosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid artery
Explanation:The inferior thyroid artery supplies the cervical oesophagus, while direct branches from the thoracic aorta supply the thoracic oesophagus (which has been removed in this case).
Anatomy of the Oesophagus
The oesophagus is a muscular tube that is approximately 25 cm long and starts at the C6 vertebrae, pierces the diaphragm at T10, and ends at T11. It is lined with non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and has constrictions at various distances from the incisors, including the cricoid cartilage at 15cm, the arch of the aorta at 22.5cm, the left principal bronchus at 27cm, and the diaphragmatic hiatus at 40cm.
The oesophagus is surrounded by various structures, including the trachea to T4, the recurrent laryngeal nerve, the left bronchus and left atrium, and the diaphragm anteriorly. Posteriorly, it is related to the thoracic duct to the left at T5, the hemiazygos to the left at T8, the descending aorta, and the first two intercostal branches of the aorta. The arterial, venous, and lymphatic drainage of the oesophagus varies depending on the location, with the upper third being supplied by the inferior thyroid artery and drained by the deep cervical lymphatics, the mid-third being supplied by aortic branches and drained by azygos branches and mediastinal lymphatics, and the lower third being supplied by the left gastric artery and drained by posterior mediastinal and coeliac veins and gastric lymphatics.
The nerve supply of the oesophagus also varies, with the upper half being supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve and the lower half being supplied by the oesophageal plexus of the vagus nerve. The muscularis externa of the oesophagus is composed of both smooth and striated muscle, with the composition varying depending on the location.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 111
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old man presents with fatigue and joint pains for the past 8 months. He cannot recall any specific trigger for the symptoms and they have been persistent. During examination, you observe that his skin is quite tanned but no other significant findings are noted.
The following are his blood test results:
- Bilirubin: 10 umol/L
- ALT: 120 IU/L
- Albumin: 35 g/L
- Ferritin: 450 mg/mL
- Transferrin saturation: 70%
- Random plasma glucose: 17.0 mmol/L
Afterwards, a genetic test was conducted and returned with positive results. Based on the most probable diagnosis, what is the mode of inheritance for this disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:The probable condition affecting the patient is hereditary haemochromatosis, which is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. The presence of iron overload and abnormal liver function tests are indicative of this diagnosis. Additionally, the patient’s elevated blood glucose levels and skin pigmentation changes may suggest the presence of bronze diabetes.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms and Complications
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to iron accumulation in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is prevalent in people of European descent, with 1 in 10 carrying a mutation in the genes affecting iron metabolism. Early symptoms of haemochromatosis are often non-specific, such as lethargy and arthralgia, and may go unnoticed. However, as the disease progresses, patients may experience fatigue, erectile dysfunction, and skin pigmentation.
Other complications of haemochromatosis include diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis. While some symptoms are reversible with treatment, such as cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy, liver cirrhosis is irreversible.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 112
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy undergoes an emergency splenectomy for trauma and is discharged home after making a full recovery. After eight weeks, his general practitioner performs a full blood count with a blood film. What is the most likely finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Howell-Jolly bodies
Explanation:After a splenectomy, the blood film may show the presence of Howell-Jolly bodies, Pappenheimer bodies, target cells, and irregular contracted erythrocytes due to the absence of the spleen’s filtration function.
Blood Film Changes after Splenectomy
After undergoing splenectomy, the body loses its ability to remove immature or abnormal red blood cells from circulation. This results in the appearance of cytoplasmic inclusions such as Howell-Jolly bodies, although the red cell count remains relatively unchanged. In the first few days following the procedure, target cells, siderocytes, and reticulocytes may be observed in the bloodstream. Additionally, agranulocytosis composed mainly of neutrophils is seen immediately after the operation, which is then replaced by a lymphocytosis and monocytosis over the next few weeks. The platelet count is typically elevated and may persist, necessitating the use of oral antiplatelet agents in some patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 113
Incorrect
-
Which of the following suppresses the production of stomach acid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nausea
Explanation:Gastric secretion is suppressed by nausea through the involvement of higher cerebral activity and sympathetic innervation.
Understanding Gastric Secretions for Surgical Procedures
A basic understanding of gastric secretions is crucial for surgeons, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Gastric acid, produced by the parietal cells in the stomach, has a pH of around 2 and is maintained by the H+/K+ ATPase pump. Sodium and chloride ions are actively secreted from the parietal cell into the canaliculus, creating a negative potential across the membrane. Carbonic anhydrase forms carbonic acid, which dissociates, and the hydrogen ions formed by dissociation leave the cell via the H+/K+ antiporter pump. This leaves hydrogen and chloride ions in the canaliculus, which mix and are secreted into the lumen of the oxyntic gland.
There are three phases of gastric secretion: the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase. The cephalic phase is stimulated by the smell or taste of food and causes 30% of acid production. The gastric phase, which is caused by stomach distension, low H+, or peptides, causes 60% of acid production. The intestinal phase, which is caused by high acidity, distension, or hypertonic solutions in the duodenum, inhibits gastric acid secretion via enterogastrones and neural reflexes.
The regulation of gastric acid production involves various factors that increase or decrease production. Factors that increase production include vagal nerve stimulation, gastrin release, and histamine release. Factors that decrease production include somatostatin, cholecystokinin, and secretin. Understanding these factors and their associated pharmacology is essential for surgeons.
In summary, a working knowledge of gastric secretions is crucial for surgical procedures, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Understanding the phases of gastric secretion and the regulation of gastric acid production is essential for successful surgical outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 114
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation and diverticulitis presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. After thorough investigation, including mesenteric angiography, it was found that the left colic flexure was experiencing ischemia. Which artery provides direct supply to this region through its branches?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery (IMA)
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the distal 1/3 of the transverse colon, while the proximal two thirds are supplied by the middle colic artery, a branch of the SMA. The left colic artery, a branch of the IMA, supplies the remaining distal portion. Although the left colic artery is the primary supplier, collateral flow from branches of the middle colic artery also contributes. The left colic flexure, located between the end of the SMA and the start of the IMA’s blood supply, is a watershed region that can be susceptible to ischemia due to atherosclerotic changes or hypotension.
The splenic artery directly supplies the spleen and also has branches that supply the stomach and pancreas. There is no such thing as the AMA or PMA.
The Transverse Colon: Anatomy and Relations
The transverse colon is a part of the large intestine that begins at the hepatic flexure, where the right colon makes a sharp turn. At this point, it becomes intraperitoneal and is connected to the inferior border of the pancreas by the transverse mesocolon. The middle colic artery and vein are contained within the mesentery. The greater omentum is attached to the superior aspect of the transverse colon, which can be easily separated. The colon undergoes another sharp turn at the splenic flexure, where the greater omentum remains attached up to this point. The distal 1/3 of the transverse colon is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.
The transverse colon is related to various structures. Superiorly, it is in contact with the liver, gallbladder, the greater curvature of the stomach, and the lower end of the spleen. Inferiorly, it is related to the small intestine. Anteriorly, it is in contact with the greater omentum, while posteriorly, it is in contact with the descending portion of the duodenum, the head of the pancreas, convolutions of the jejunum and ileum, and the spleen. Understanding the anatomy and relations of the transverse colon is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating various gastrointestinal conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 115
Incorrect
-
A patient arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain in the right iliac fossa. Upon palpation, the patient experiences pain in the right iliac fossa when pressure is applied to the left iliac fossa. What is the term used to describe this sign?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rovsing's sign
Explanation:Rovsing’s sign is a diagnostic indicator of appendicitis, characterized by pain in the right lower abdomen when the left lower abdomen is palpated. The Psoas sign is another indicator of appendicitis, where flexing the right hip causes irritation of the psoas muscle. The Obturator sign is also a sign of appendicitis, where discomfort is felt in the obturator internus muscle when both the hip and knees are flexed to 90 degrees. However, McBurney’s sign, which refers to pain in the right lower abdomen 2/3 of the way from the umbilicus to the right anterior superior iliac spine, is not a reliable indicator of appendicitis.
Acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires surgery and can occur at any age, but is most prevalent in young people aged 10-20 years. The pathogenesis of acute appendicitis involves lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith, which leads to obstruction of the appendiceal lumen. This obstruction causes gut organisms to invade the appendix wall, resulting in oedema, ischaemia, and possibly perforation.
The most common symptom of acute appendicitis is abdominal pain, which is typically peri-umbilical and radiates to the right iliac fossa due to localised peritoneal inflammation. Other symptoms include mild pyrexia, anorexia, and nausea. Examination may reveal generalised or localised peritonism, rebound and percussion tenderness, guarding and rigidity, and classical signs such as Rovsing’s sign and psoas sign.
Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers and compatible history and examination findings. Imaging may be used in certain cases, such as ultrasound in females where pelvic organ pathology is suspected. Management of acute appendicitis involves appendicectomy, which can be performed via an open or laparoscopic approach. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage, while those without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy. Intravenous antibiotics alone have been trialled as a treatment for appendicitis, but evidence suggests that this is associated with a longer hospital stay and up to 20% of patients go on to have an appendicectomy within 12 months.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 116
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man is having a left hemicolectomy. During the procedure, the surgeons come across a tubular structure located at the inferior aspect of psoas major. What is the most probable identity of this structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left ureter
Explanation:The left colon is positioned anterior to the left ureter. The iliac vessels are usually in closer proximity to the sigmoid colon and upper rectum, which are not typically located above the L4 vertebrae.
Anatomy of the Ureter
The ureter is a muscular tube that measures 25-35 cm in length and is lined by transitional epithelium. It is surrounded by a thick muscular coat that becomes three muscular layers as it crosses the bony pelvis. This retroperitoneal structure overlies the transverse processes L2-L5 and lies anterior to the bifurcation of iliac vessels. The blood supply to the ureter is segmental and includes the renal artery, aortic branches, gonadal branches, common iliac, and internal iliac. It is important to note that the ureter lies beneath the uterine artery.
In summary, the ureter is a vital structure in the urinary system that plays a crucial role in transporting urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Its unique anatomy and blood supply make it a complex structure that requires careful consideration in any surgical or medical intervention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 117
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old man is under your care after being diagnosed with pneumonia. On the day before his expected discharge, he experiences severe diarrhea without blood and needs intravenous fluids. A request for stool culture is made.
What would the microbiology report likely indicate as the responsible microbe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gram-positive bacillus
Explanation:Clostridium difficile is a type of gram-positive bacillus that can cause pseudomembranous colitis, particularly after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 118
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of persistent, dull discomfort in the upper right quadrant of her abdomen. Upon examination, an ultrasound reveals the presence of a mass in her gallbladder. Subsequent biopsy results confirm the diagnosis of adenocarcinoma, a cancerous tumour that originates from the epithelial cells of the gallbladder.
How would you characterize these epithelial cells?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Simple columnar
Explanation:The lining of the gallbladder is composed of simple columnar epithelium, which is also found in other parts of the gastrointestinal tract such as the small intestine, stomach, and large intestine. Simple cuboidal epithelium is rare and is mainly found in the renal tubules and on the surface of the ovaries. Simple squamous epithelium is present in areas where rapid diffusion of small molecules is necessary, such as in alveoli and capillaries, as well as in glomeruli where ultra-filtration occurs. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is primarily found in the upper respiratory tract.
The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 119
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old taxi driver presents with a six-month history of constipation and colicky suprapubic pain that varies in intensity without any apparent pattern. He has experienced occasional episodes of diarrhoea and fever. Although he drinks little alcohol and does not smoke, he consumes large amounts of coffee. On examination, there is mild tenderness in the suprapubic region, but no other abnormalities are detected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diverticular disease
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Rectal Bleeding
Rectal bleeding can be a concerning symptom for patients and healthcare providers alike. While neoplasia may be a possible cause, diverticular disease is more common. To confirm the presence of diverticula, a barium enema should be performed, and a sigmoidoscopy should be done to rule out a tumor. Cystitis is rare in men and would present with symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia, and dysuria. Inflammatory bowel disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and often presents with weight loss, fever, malaise, and potentially arthralgia. However, the lack of systemic symptoms suggests an alternative diagnosis. Ulcerative colitis often causes rectal bleeding, while Crohn’s disease can cause rectal bleeding and inflammation from the mouth to anus. It is more commonly diagnosed in patients before the age of 30. It is important to consider these differential diagnoses when evaluating a patient with rectal bleeding to ensure appropriate management and treatment.
Further Reading:
Janes SE, Meagher A, Frizelle FA. Management of diverticulitis. BMJ. 2006;332:271-5. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 120
Incorrect
-
During a radical gastrectomy for carcinoma of the stomach, if the patient is elderly, would the surgeons still remove the omentum? What is the main source of its blood supply?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroepiploic artery
Explanation:The omental branches of the right and left gastro-epiploic arteries provide the blood supply to the omentum, while the colonic vessels do not play a role in this. The left gastro-epiploic artery originates from the splenic artery, and the right gastro-epiploic artery is the final branch of the gastroduodenal artery.
The Omentum: A Protective Structure in the Abdomen
The omentum is a structure in the abdomen that invests the stomach and is divided into two parts: the greater and lesser omentum. The greater omentum is attached to the lower lateral border of the stomach and contains the gastro-epiploic arteries. It varies in size and is less developed in children. However, it plays an important role in protecting against visceral perforation, such as in cases of appendicitis.
The lesser omentum is located between the omentum and transverse colon, providing a potential entry point into the lesser sac. Malignant processes can affect the omentum, with ovarian cancer being the most notable. Overall, the omentum is a crucial structure in the abdomen that serves as a protective barrier against potential injuries and diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 121
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old man is stabbed in the groin and the area within the femoral triangle needs to be examined. What forms the lateral wall of the femoral triangle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sartorius
Explanation:Understanding the Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle
The femoral triangle is an important anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. The floor of the femoral triangle is made up of the iliacus, psoas major, adductor longus, and pectineus muscles, while the roof is formed by the fascia lata and superficial fascia. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the long saphenous vein are also found in this region.
The femoral triangle contains several important structures, including the femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve, deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral cutaneous nerve, great saphenous vein, and femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid inguinal point, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.
Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for procedures such as venipuncture, arterial puncture, and nerve blocks. It is also important for identifying and treating conditions that affect the structures within this region, such as femoral hernias and lymphadenopathy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 122
Incorrect
-
Which enzyme is primarily responsible for breaking down starch into sugars?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amylase
Explanation:Amylase is an enzyme that converts starch into sugars.
Enzymes play a crucial role in the breakdown of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal system. Amylase, which is present in both saliva and pancreatic secretions, is responsible for breaking down starch into sugar. On the other hand, brush border enzymes such as maltase, sucrase, and lactase are involved in the breakdown of specific disaccharides. Maltase cleaves maltose into glucose and glucose, sucrase cleaves sucrose into fructose and glucose, while lactase cleaves lactose into glucose and galactose. These enzymes work together to ensure that carbohydrates are broken down into their simplest form for absorption into the bloodstream.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 123
Incorrect
-
A woman in her 40s is undergoing investigation for bowel cancer. During a colonoscopy, numerous small growths are found throughout her bowel, indicating the presence of an autosomal dominant familial condition that the clinician had suspected.
Which gene mutation is commonly associated with this diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: APC
Explanation:While a majority of human cancers are linked to p53 malfunction, it should be noted that the APC gene is specifically associated with FAP and not p53.
Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 124
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 6-month history of fatigue and weakness, with a recent increase in shortness of breath upon walking.
Past medical history - vitiligo.
Medications - over the counter multivitamins.
On examination - lung sounds were vesicular with equal air entry bilaterally; mild jaundice noticed in her sclera.
Hb 95 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 210 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 6.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Vitamin B12 105 ng/L (200 - 900)
What is the underlying pathological process given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autoimmune destruction of gastroparietal cells
Explanation:Pernicious anaemia is a condition where the body’s immune system attacks either the intrinsic factor or the gastroparietal cells, leading to a deficiency in vitamin B12 absorption. The patient’s history, examination, and blood results can provide clues to the diagnosis, such as fatigue, dyspnoea, mild jaundice, and low haemoglobin levels. The correct answer for the cause of pernicious anaemia is autoimmune destruction of gastroparietal cells, as intrinsic factor destruction is not an option. Autoimmune destruction of chief or goblet cells is not related to this condition. Ulcerative colitis may cause similar symptoms, but it is unlikely to affect vitamin B12 absorption and cause jaundice.
Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.
Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 125
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman came in with a 7-month history of upper abdominal pain and nausea. She reported no weight loss. An upper GI endoscopy showed mild gastritis, but her symptoms persisted even after a 3-month course of proton pump inhibitors. A CT scan was done and revealed a probable gastrinoma. Which type of cell does the hormone produced by this tumor target to stimulate acid secretion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parietal cell
Explanation:The secretion of H+ by gastric parietal cells is increased by gastrin.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 126
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male presents with suspected ureteric colic. Where is the stone most likely to be visualized on a KUB style x-ray?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The tips of the transverse processes between L2 and L5
Explanation:The stones in the ureter can be seen at the anterior of L2 to L5, as well as over the sacro-iliac joints.
Anatomy of the Ureter
The ureter is a muscular tube that measures 25-35 cm in length and is lined by transitional epithelium. It is surrounded by a thick muscular coat that becomes three muscular layers as it crosses the bony pelvis. This retroperitoneal structure overlies the transverse processes L2-L5 and lies anterior to the bifurcation of iliac vessels. The blood supply to the ureter is segmental and includes the renal artery, aortic branches, gonadal branches, common iliac, and internal iliac. It is important to note that the ureter lies beneath the uterine artery.
In summary, the ureter is a vital structure in the urinary system that plays a crucial role in transporting urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Its unique anatomy and blood supply make it a complex structure that requires careful consideration in any surgical or medical intervention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 127
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man with persistent constipation visits his doctor seeking a laxative prescription. Despite having a good appetite and hydration, he has no notable medical history except for constipation. He is a non-alcoholic but occasionally smokes when socializing with friends.
The doctor intends to prescribe a laxative to alleviate the patient's constipation, but like any other medication, laxatives have side effects that must be taken into account before prescribing.
What is the laxative that has been demonstrated to have carcinogenic properties?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-danthramer
Explanation:Co-danthramer is a genotoxic laxative that should only be prescribed to patients receiving palliative care due to its potential to cause cancer. Other laxatives should be considered first for patients with constipation. However, if constipation is not improved by other laxatives, co-danthramer may be prescribed to palliative patients. It is important to note that a high-fibre diet, adequate fluid intake, and exercise are recommended for all patients with constipation. Fruits and vegetables high in fibre and sorbitol, as well as fruit juices high in sorbitol, can also be helpful in preventing and treating constipation.
Understanding Laxatives
Laxatives are frequently prescribed medications in clinical practice, with constipation being a common issue among patients. While constipation may be a symptom of underlying pathology, many patients experience simple idiopathic constipation. The British National Formulary (BNF) categorizes laxatives into four groups: osmotic, stimulant, bulk-forming, and faecal softeners.
Osmotic laxatives, such as lactulose, macrogols, and rectal phosphates, work by drawing water into the bowel to soften stools and promote bowel movements. Stimulant laxatives, including senna, docusate, bisacodyl, and glycerol, stimulate the muscles in the bowel to contract and move stool along. Co-danthramer, a combination of a stimulant and a bulk-forming laxative, should only be prescribed to palliative patients due to its potential carcinogenic effects.
Bulk-forming laxatives, such as ispaghula husk and methylcellulose, work by increasing the bulk of stool and promoting regular bowel movements. Faecal softeners, such as arachis oil enemas, are not commonly prescribed but can be used to soften stool and ease bowel movements.
In summary, understanding the different types of laxatives and their mechanisms of action can help healthcare professionals prescribe the most appropriate treatment for patients experiencing constipation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 128
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of diarrhoea lasting for 5 months. She reports the presence of blood in her stool and feeling excessively fatigued.
During abdominal examination, tenderness is noted in the lower left quadrant.
The patient is referred for a colonoscopy and biopsy.
What characteristic would you anticipate finding based on the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inflammation from rectum extending proximally
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis is a form of inflammatory bowel disease that usually manifests with symptoms like fatigue, left lower quadrant pain, and bloody diarrhoea. The inflammation associated with ulcerative colitis starts at the rectum and extends proximally, but it does not spread beyond the ileocaecal valve.
Unlike Crohn’s disease, ulcerative colitis does not typically present with a cobblestone appearance during colonoscopy.
While diverticula can cause rectal bleeding and abdominal pain, they are more common in older patients and would not be expected in a patient of this age.
In Crohn’s disease, skip lesions are present, whereas in ulcerative colitis, the inflammation is continuous.
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 129
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a history of dyspepsia that he has ignored for a long time. He reports no symptoms of dysphagia or haematemesis. During an oesophagoduodenoscopy (OGD), mucosal changes are observed in the lower part of the oesophagus near the sphincter, and a biopsy is taken from this area. What is the probable result of the biopsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Columnar epithelial cells
Explanation:The patient has Barrett’s oesophagus, which is a metaplastic condition where the normal oesophageal epithelium is replaced by columnar cells. This increases the risk of adenocarcinoma.
Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.
The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.
The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 130
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy presents to the hospital with suspected appendicitis. Upon examination, he exhibits maximum tenderness at McBurney's point. Can you identify the location of McBurney's point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2/3rds laterally along the line between the umbilicus and the anterior superior iliac spine
Explanation:To locate McBurney’s point, one should draw an imaginary line from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine on the right-hand side and then find the point that is 2/3rds of the way along this line. The other choices do not provide the correct location for this anatomical landmark.
Acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires surgery and can occur at any age, but is most prevalent in young people aged 10-20 years. The pathogenesis of acute appendicitis involves lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith, which leads to obstruction of the appendiceal lumen. This obstruction causes gut organisms to invade the appendix wall, resulting in oedema, ischaemia, and possibly perforation.
The most common symptom of acute appendicitis is abdominal pain, which is typically peri-umbilical and radiates to the right iliac fossa due to localised peritoneal inflammation. Other symptoms include mild pyrexia, anorexia, and nausea. Examination may reveal generalised or localised peritonism, rebound and percussion tenderness, guarding and rigidity, and classical signs such as Rovsing’s sign and psoas sign.
Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers and compatible history and examination findings. Imaging may be used in certain cases, such as ultrasound in females where pelvic organ pathology is suspected. Management of acute appendicitis involves appendicectomy, which can be performed via an open or laparoscopic approach. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage, while those without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy. Intravenous antibiotics alone have been trialled as a treatment for appendicitis, but evidence suggests that this is associated with a longer hospital stay and up to 20% of patients go on to have an appendicectomy within 12 months.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 131
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements relating to the pancreas is not true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin causes relaxation of the gallbladder
Explanation:The contraction of the gallbladder is caused by CCK.
The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 132
Incorrect
-
Whilst conducting a cholecystectomy, a surgeon mistakenly tears the cystic artery. To minimize the bleeding, she applies a clamp to a vessel in the hepatoduodenal ligament.
Which blood vessel is the surgeon probably compressing to manage the hemorrhage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatic artery
Explanation:The Pringle manoeuvre, named after James Pringle, involves compressing the hepatic artery in the anterior aspect of the omental foramen to stop blood flow to the cystic artery. This is because the cystic artery is a branch of the right hepatic artery, which in turn is a branch of the (common) hepatic artery. While compressing the aorta proximal to the celiac trunk may also reduce blood flow to the cystic artery, it carries the risk of ischaemic damage to the abdominal viscera and lower limbs. Compressing the hepatic artery is therefore the preferred method as it minimizes unnecessary ischaemia. The hepatic portal vein and inferior vena cava are veins and cannot be compressed to control blood flow to the cystic artery. Similarly, compressing the superior pancreatoduodenal artery, which does not precede the cystic artery, will have no effect on controlling bleeding.
The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 133
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man is suspected of having an inflamed Meckel's diverticulum. Where is it most likely to be located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Approximately 60 cm proximal to the ileocaecal valve
Explanation:The length of these growths is 2 inches (5cm), and they are twice as common in men. They involve two types of tissue and are located approximately 2 feet (60cm) from the ileocaecal valve.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine that is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. It occurs in 2% of the population, is 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve, and is 2 inches long. It is usually asymptomatic but can present with abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. Investigation includes a Meckel’s scan or mesenteric arteriography. Management involves removal if narrow neck or symptomatic, with options between wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically lined by ileal mucosa but ectopic gastric, pancreatic, and jejunal mucosa can also occur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 134
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of abdominal pain, weight loss, and persistent diarrhoea for the past 5 months. During a colonoscopy, a suspicious growth is detected in his colon, which is later confirmed as adenocarcinoma. The patient reveals that his father was diagnosed with colon cancer at the age of 55.
Based on this information, which genetic mutations are likely to be present in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MSH2/MLH1
Explanation:Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 135
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old man with a history of multiple emergency department admissions for alcohol-related injuries and admissions under the general medical team for alcohol withdrawal is admitted after a twelve-day drinking binge. He presents with confusion, icterus, and hepatomegaly, with stigmata of chronic liver disease. Upon admission, his blood work shows thrombocytopenia, transaminitis with hyperbilirubinemia, and a severe coagulopathy. The diagnosis is severe acute alcoholic hepatitis. In liver disease-associated coagulopathy, which clotting factor is typically increased?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor VIII
Explanation:Coagulopathy in Liver Disease: Paradoxical Supra-normal Factor VIII and Increased Thrombosis Risk
In liver failure, the levels of all clotting factors decrease except for factor VIII, which paradoxically increases. This is because factor VIII is synthesized in endothelial cells throughout the body, unlike other clotting factors that are synthesized only in hepatic endothelial cells. Additionally, good hepatic function is required for the rapid clearance of activated factor VIII from the bloodstream, leading to further increases in circulating factor VIII. Despite conventional coagulation studies suggesting an increased risk of bleeding, patients with chronic liver disease are paradoxically at an increased risk of thrombosis formation. This is due to several factors, including reduced synthesis of natural anticoagulants such as protein C, protein S, and antithrombin, which are all decreased in chronic liver disease.
Reference:
Tripodi et al. An imbalance of pro- vs anticoagulation factors in plasma from patients with cirrhosis. Gastroenterology. 2009 Dec;137(6):2105-11. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 136
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man presents with a sizable abdominal aortic aneurysm. While undergoing a laparotomy for scheduled surgical intervention, the medical team discovers that the aneurysm is situated much closer to the origin of the SMA. While dissecting the area, a transverse vessel running across the aorta sustains damage. What is the most probable identity of this vessel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left renal vein
Explanation:During the repair of a juxtarenal aneurysm, intentional ligation of the left renal vein may be necessary as it travels over the aorta.
The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 137
Incorrect
-
What is the urinary diagnostic marker for carcinoid syndrome in elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid
Explanation:The measurement of 5-HIAA in urine is a crucial aspect of clinical monitoring.
Carcinoid tumours are a type of cancer that can cause a condition called carcinoid syndrome. This syndrome typically occurs when the cancer has spread to the liver and releases serotonin into the bloodstream. In some cases, it can also occur with lung carcinoid tumours, as the mediators are not cleared by the liver. The earliest symptom of carcinoid syndrome is often flushing, but it can also cause diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and right heart valvular stenosis (or left heart involvement in bronchial carcinoid). Additionally, other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may be secreted, leading to conditions like Cushing’s syndrome. Pellagra, a rare condition caused by a deficiency in niacin, can also develop as the tumour diverts dietary tryptophan to serotonin.
To investigate carcinoid syndrome, doctors may perform a urinary 5-HIAA test or a plasma chromogranin A test. Treatment for the condition typically involves somatostatin analogues like octreotide, which can help manage symptoms like diarrhoea. Cyproheptadine may also be used to alleviate diarrhoea. Overall, early detection and treatment of carcinoid tumours can help prevent the development of carcinoid syndrome and improve outcomes for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 138
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of colicky abdominal pain. She states that she has been having on-and-off pain in the upper right quadrant for the past few months, especially after consuming fatty foods.
Which cells are accountable for generating the hormone linked to this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: I cells
Explanation:The correct answer is I cells, which are located in the upper small intestine. This patient’s symptoms are consistent with biliary colic, which occurs when the gallbladder contracts against an obstruction, typically a gallstone. Fatty foods stimulate the production of cholecystokinin (CCK) from the I cells in the duodenum, which promotes gallbladder contractility and the release of bile into the small intestine to aid in lipid emulsification.
B cells are not involved in promoting gallbladder contractility and are instead part of the adaptive immune response. D cells release somatostatin, which decreases insulin production, and are found in the stomach, small intestine, and pancreas. G cells are located in the stomach and secrete gastrin to promote acid secretion by the parietal cells of the stomach.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 139
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man presents to his physician with a gradual yellowing of his skin. During the examination, the physician observes jaundiced sclerae and palpates a round mass under the right costal margin, measuring approximately 4 cm in diameter. The patient's abdomen is soft, non-tender, and not distended.
The physician orders a blood test, which reveals the following results:
- Bilirubin: 180 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP: 98 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT: 36 u/L (3 - 40)
- γGT: 71 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin: 43 g/L (35 - 50)
What clinical sign is evident, and what is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Courvoisier's sign indicating biliary tract cancer
Explanation:If a patient has painless jaundice and a palpable gallbladder in the right upper quadrant, it is unlikely to be caused by gallstones and more likely to be a malignancy. This is known as Courvoisier’s sign, and the most common cancers associated with it are cholangiocarcinoma and adenocarcinoma of the pancreatic head.
Rovsing’s sign is a sign of acute appendicitis, where palpation of the left lower quadrant causes pain in the right lower quadrant.
Virchow’s sign is the presence of a palpable left supraclavicular lymph node, which is a sign of metastatic gastric cancer.
Understanding Cholangiocarcinoma
Cholangiocarcinoma, also known as bile duct cancer, is a serious medical condition that can be caused by primary sclerosing cholangitis. This disease is characterized by persistent biliary colic symptoms, which can be accompanied by anorexia, jaundice, and weight loss. In some cases, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant may be present, which is known as the Courvoisier sign. Additionally, periumbilical lymphadenopathy (Sister Mary Joseph nodes) and left supraclavicular adenopathy (Virchow node) may be seen.
One of the main risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma is primary sclerosing cholangitis. This condition can cause inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts, which can lead to the development of cancer over time. To detect cholangiocarcinoma in patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis, doctors often use a blood test to measure CA 19-9 levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 140
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old man presents to the gastroenterology clinic with a 5-month history of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. He reports passing fresh red blood in his stool and having up to 7 bowel movements a day in the last month. He has lost 6kg in weight over the last 5 months.
The patient is referred for various investigations.
What finding would support the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Goblet cell depletion
Explanation:Crohn’s disease has the potential to impact any section of the digestive system, including the oral mucosa and peri-anal region. It is common for there to be healthy areas of bowel in between the inflamed segments. The disease is characterized by deep ulceration in the gut mucosa, with skip lesions creating a distinctive cobblestone appearance during endoscopy.
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 141
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of urinary sepsis. He reports experiencing left iliac fossa pain repeatedly over the past few months and has noticed bubbles in his urine. A CT scan reveals a large inflammatory mass in the left iliac fossa, with no other abnormalities detected. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Ulcerative colitis
12%
Crohn's disease
11%
Mesenteric ischemia
11%
Diverticular disease
53%
Rectal cancer
13%
Explanation:
Recurrent diverticulitis can lead to the formation of local abscesses that may erode into the bladder, resulting in urinary sepsis and pneumaturia. This presentation would be atypical for Crohn's disease, and rectal cancer would typically be located more distally, with evidence of extra colonic disease present if the cancer were advanced.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diverticular disease
Explanation:Colovesical fistula is frequently caused by diverticular disease.
Repeated episodes of diverticulitis can lead to the formation of abscesses in the affected area. These abscesses may then erode into the bladder, causing urinary sepsis and pneumaturia. This presentation would be atypical for Crohn’s disease, and rectal cancer typically occurs in a more distal location. Additionally, if the case were malignant, there would likely be evidence of extra colonic disease and advanced progression.
Understanding Diverticular Disease
Diverticular disease is a common condition that involves the protrusion of the colon’s mucosa through its muscular wall. This typically occurs between the taenia coli, where vessels penetrate the muscle to supply the mucosa. Symptoms of diverticular disease include altered bowel habits, rectal bleeding, and abdominal pain. Complications can arise, such as diverticulitis, haemorrhage, fistula development, perforation and faecal peritonitis, abscess formation, and diverticular phlegmon.
To diagnose diverticular disease, patients may undergo a colonoscopy, CT cologram, or barium enema. However, it can be challenging to rule out cancer, especially in diverticular strictures. Acutely unwell surgical patients require a systematic investigation, including plain abdominal films and an erect chest x-ray to identify perforation. An abdominal CT scan with oral and intravenous contrast can help identify acute inflammation and local complications.
Treatment for diverticular disease includes increasing dietary fibre intake and managing mild attacks with antibiotics. Peri colonic abscesses require drainage, either surgically or radiologically. Recurrent episodes of acute diverticulitis requiring hospitalisation may indicate a segmental resection. Hinchey IV perforations, which involve generalised faecal peritonitis, require a resection and usually a stoma. This group has a high risk of postoperative complications and typically requires HDU admission. Less severe perforations may be managed by laparoscopic washout and drain insertion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 142
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old obese woman presents with right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. She has a family history of gallstone disease. Upon physical examination, a positive Murphy's sign is observed. An abdominal ultrasound reveals gallstones in the thickened gallbladder. The surgeon opts for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy to remove the gallbladder. During the procedure, the surgeon identifies and dissects the hepatobiliary triangle to safely ligate and divide two structures.
What are the two structures being referred to in the above scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic duct and cystic artery
Explanation:During laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the hepatobiliary triangle plays a crucial role in ensuring the safe ligation and division of the cystic duct and cystic artery. Surgeons must carefully dissect this area to identify these structures and avoid any potential biliary complications.
The hepatobiliary triangle is bordered by the common hepatic duct, which is formed by the union of the common bile duct and cystic duct. The cystic artery branches off from the right hepatic artery, while Lund’s node serves as the sentinel lymph node of the gallbladder.
The accessory duct is considered auxiliary to the biliary tree, and the left and right hepatic ducts merge into the common hepatic duct. The gastroduodenal artery arises from the common hepatic artery, and the cystic vein helps distinguish between the cystic and common hepatic ducts during surgery, but is not ligated.
The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 143
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man is receiving an angiogram to investigate gastrointestinal bleeding. During the procedure, the radiologist inserts the catheter into the coeliac axis. What is the usual spinal level where this vessel originates from the aorta?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T12
Explanation:The coeliac axis is positioned at T12 and branches off the aorta at an almost horizontal angle. It comprises three significant branches.
Branches of the Abdominal Aorta
The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.
The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.
The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.
Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 144
Incorrect
-
As a busy surgical trainee on the colorectal unit, you have been tasked with reviewing the histopathology results for colonic polyps. Which type of polyp described below poses the highest risk of malignant transformation? Please note that this question is specifically for a trainee who is slightly older and more experienced.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Villous adenoma
Explanation:The risk of malignant transformation is highest in villous adenomas, while hyperplastic polyps pose little risk. Hamartomatous polyp syndromes may increase the risk of malignancy in patients, but the polyps themselves have low malignant potential.
Understanding Colonic Polyps and Follow-Up Procedures
Colonic polyps can occur in isolation or as part of polyposis syndromes, with greater than 100 polyps typically present in FAP. The risk of malignancy is related to size, with a 10% risk in a 1 cm adenoma. While isolated adenomas seldom cause symptoms, distally sited villous lesions may produce mucous and electrolyte disturbances if very large.
Follow-up procedures for colonic polyps depend on the number and size of the polyps. Low-risk cases with 1 or 2 adenomas less than 1 cm require no follow-up or re-colonoscopy for 5 years. Moderate-risk cases with 3 or 4 small adenomas or 1 adenoma greater than 1 cm require a re-scope at 3 years. High-risk cases with more than 5 small adenomas or more than 3 with 1 of them greater than 1 cm require a re-scope at 1 year.
Segmental resection or complete colectomy may be necessary in cases of incomplete excision of malignant polyps, malignant sessile polyps, malignant pedunculated polyps with submucosal invasion, polyps with poorly differentiated carcinoma, or familial polyposis coli. Screening from teenager up to 40 years by 2 yearly sigmoidoscopy/colonoscopy is recommended. Rectal polypoidal lesions may be treated with trans anal endoscopic microsurgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 145
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is most crucial in offering assistance to the duodenojejunal flexure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ligament of Trietz
Explanation:The ligament of Trietz, also known as the suspensory muscle of the duodenum, holds great significance. On the other hand, the ligament of Treves is situated between the caecum and ileum.
Anatomy of the Duodenum
The duodenum is the first and widest part of the small bowel, located immediately distal to the pylorus. It is around 25 cm long and comprises four parts: superior, descending, horizontal, and ascending. The horizontal part is the longest segment and passes transversely to the left with an upward deflection. The duodenum is largely retroperitoneal, except for the first 2-3 cm of the superior part and the final 1-2 cm.
The medial relations of the duodenum include the superior pancreatico-duodenal artery and the pancreatic head. The descending part is closely related to the commencement of the transverse colon, while the horizontal part crosses in front of the right ureter, right psoas major, right gonadal vessels, and IVC. The ascending part runs to the left of the aorta and terminates by binding abruptly forwards as the duodenojejunal flexure.
The region of the duodenojejunal flexure is fixed in position by the suspensory muscle of the duodenum, which blends with the musculature of the flexure and passes upwards deep to the pancreas to gain attachment to the right crus of the diaphragm. This fibromuscular band is known as the ligament of Treitz. The duodenum has important anterior and posterior relations, including the superior mesenteric vessels, the root of the small bowel, the left sympathetic trunk, the left psoas major, the left gonadal vessels, the left kidney, and the uncinate process of the pancreas.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 146
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old female was admitted to the paediatric unit with a history of anorexia nervosa and a body mass index of 16kg/m². Despite being uncooperative initially, she has shown improvement in her willingness to participate with the team. However, she now presents with complaints of abdominal pain and weakness. Upon blood testing, the following results were obtained:
Hb 125 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 180 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 4.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 26 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 70 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Calcium 2.1 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 0.5 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.6 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
What is the likely cause of the patient's abnormal blood results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extended period of low calories then high carbohydrate intake
Explanation:Refeeding syndrome can occur in patients who have experienced prolonged catabolism and then suddenly switch to carbohydrate metabolism. This can lead to a rapid uptake of phosphate, potassium, and magnesium into the cells, caused by spikes in insulin and glucose. Patients with low BMI and poor nutritional intake over a long period of time are at a higher risk. Taking vitamin tablets would not affect blood results, but excessive intake can result in hypervitaminosis. While exogenous insulin could also cause this syndrome, there is no indication that the patient has taken it. To reduce the risk of refeeding syndrome, some patients may be advised to follow initial high-fat, low-carbohydrate diets.
Understanding Refeeding Syndrome
Refeeding syndrome is a condition that occurs when a person who has been starved for an extended period suddenly begins to eat again. This metabolic abnormality is caused by the abrupt switch from catabolism to carbohydrate metabolism. The consequences of refeeding syndrome include hypophosphataemia, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and abnormal fluid balance, which can lead to organ failure.
To prevent refeeding syndrome, it is important to identify patients who are at high risk of developing the condition. According to guidelines produced by NICE in 2006, patients are considered high-risk if they have a BMI of less than 16 kg/m2, have experienced unintentional weight loss of more than 15% over 3-6 months, have had little nutritional intake for more than 10 days, or have hypokalaemia, hypophosphataemia, or hypomagnesaemia prior to feeding (unless high).
If a patient has two or more of the following risk factors, they are also considered high-risk: a BMI of less than 18.5 kg/m2, unintentional weight loss of more than 10% over 3-6 months, little nutritional intake for more than 5 days, or a history of alcohol abuse, drug therapy (including insulin, chemotherapy, diuretics, and antacids).
To prevent refeeding syndrome, NICE recommends that patients who haven’t eaten for more than 5 days should be re-fed at no more than 50% of their requirements for the first 2 days. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent the potentially life-threatening consequences of refeeding syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 147
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old boy, with a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, is showing symptoms of hepatic dysfunction. Upon conducting liver function tests, it is found that he has elevated levels of unconjugated bilirubin. After genetic testing, it is confirmed that he has Gilbert's syndrome. What is the reason behind the increased levels of unconjugated bilirubin in Gilbert's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced levels of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase-1
Explanation:Gilbert’s syndrome is characterized by a decrease in UDP glucuronosyltransferase levels.
Enhanced drug effects can occur due to reduced warfarin metabolism caused by CYP2C9 deficiency.
Elevated GGT levels are often caused by pancreatic disease, cholestasis, excessive alcohol consumption, and certain medications.
Dubin-Johnson syndrome is associated with defective hepatocyte excretion of conjugated bilirubin.
Disordered metabolism of clopidogrel and other drugs, including proton-pump inhibitors, anticonvulsants, and sedatives, can result from reduced CYP2C19 levels.Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.
To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 148
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old woman is diagnosed with a femoral hernia and requires surgery. What structure forms the posterior wall of the femoral canal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pectineal ligament
Explanation:Understanding the Femoral Canal
The femoral canal is a fascial tunnel located at the medial aspect of the femoral sheath. It contains both the femoral artery and femoral vein, with the canal lying medial to the vein. The borders of the femoral canal include the femoral vein laterally, the lacunar ligament medially, the inguinal ligament anteriorly, and the pectineal ligament posteriorly.
The femoral canal plays a significant role in allowing the femoral vein to expand, which facilitates increased venous return to the lower limbs. However, it can also be a site of femoral hernias, which occur when abdominal contents protrude through the femoral canal. The relatively tight neck of the femoral canal places these hernias at high risk of strangulation, making it important to understand the anatomy and function of this structure. Overall, understanding the femoral canal is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating potential issues related to this area.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 149
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department feeling ill with pain in her upper abdomen that spreads to her back, but is relieved when she leans forward. Her blood test shows elevated levels of serum amylase and lipase. She had been diagnosed with a viral infection a week ago.
What type of viral infection is linked to an increased likelihood of her current symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mumps virus
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis can be caused by mumps virus.
The symptoms described in the scenario are consistent with acute pancreatitis. The mnemonic ‘I GET SMASHED’ is a helpful tool for identifying risk factors for this condition, and mumps virus is included in this list.
While hepatitis B and C viruses have been associated with cases of pancreatitis, they are not known to directly cause the condition. influenzae virus is also not a known cause of acute pancreatitis.
However, mumps virus is a known cause of acute pancreatitis. In addition to symptoms of pancreatitis, patients may also experience other symptoms of mumps virus. The severity of the pancreatitis is typically mild in these cases.
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 150
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old African American male is being consented for an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). He is very anxious about the procedure and requests for more information about the common complications of ERCP. He is concerned about peritonitis, which usually occurs secondary to a perforation of the bowel - a rare complication of ERCP. You reassure him that perforation of the bowel, although a very serious complication, is uncommon. However, they are other more common complications of ERCP that he should be aware of.
What is the most common complication of ERCP?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:The most frequent complication of ERCP is acute pancreatitis, which occurs when the X-ray contrast material or cannula irritates the pancreatic duct. While other complications may arise from ERCP, they are not as prevalent as acute pancreatitis.
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 151
Incorrect
-
Samantha, a 52-year-old female, visits her doctor with a lump in her groin that becomes more prominent when she coughs. The lump is not painful, but the doctor notes that it is located inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle during the examination. This leads to a diagnosis of a femoral hernia, where a portion of the bowel has entered the femoral canal and caused a bulge in the femoral triangle, an area in the upper thigh.
What are the contents of this anatomical region from lateral to medial?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, empty space, lymphatics
Explanation:To remember the contents of the femoral triangle from lateral to medial, use the acronym NAVEL: femoral NERVE, femoral ARTERY, femoral VEIN, EMPTY space, and LYMPHATICS. The femoral triangle is located in the anterior thigh and is bordered by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the medial border of the sartorius muscle laterally, and the medial border of the adductor longus muscle medially. A femoral hernia occurs when bowel enters the femoral ring and canal, which are located beneath the inguinal ligament, causing a bulge in the femoral triangle. The femoral nerve is located more laterally than the femoral artery and vein, while the femoral artery is more lateral than the femoral vein.
Understanding the Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle
The femoral triangle is an important anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. The floor of the femoral triangle is made up of the iliacus, psoas major, adductor longus, and pectineus muscles, while the roof is formed by the fascia lata and superficial fascia. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the long saphenous vein are also found in this region.
The femoral triangle contains several important structures, including the femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve, deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral cutaneous nerve, great saphenous vein, and femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid inguinal point, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.
Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for procedures such as venipuncture, arterial puncture, and nerve blocks. It is also important for identifying and treating conditions that affect the structures within this region, such as femoral hernias and lymphadenopathy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 152
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man with dyspepsia is scheduled for an upper GI endoscopy. During the procedure, an irregular erythematous area is observed protruding proximally from the gastro-oesophageal junction. To confirm a diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus, which of the following cell types must be present in addition to specialised intestinal metaplasia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Goblet cell
Explanation:The presence of goblet cells is a requirement for the diagnosis of Barrett’s esophagus.
Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.
The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.
The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 153
Incorrect
-
A woman in her 50s presents to the emergency department with an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The coeliac trunk supplies the arterial blood to the upper gastrointestinal tract. However, which gastrointestinal structure receives its primary blood supply from the superior mesenteric artery instead of the coeliac trunk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proximal jejunum
Explanation:The coeliac trunk provides blood supply to the foregut, which includes all structures from the gastro-oesophageal junction to the duodenal-jejunal flexure. However, the superior mesenteric artery’s jejunal branches supply blood to the entire jejunum.
Branches of the Abdominal Aorta
The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.
The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.
The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.
Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 154
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old girl presents with pyelonephritis and septic shock. What is an atypical finding in this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased systemic vascular resistance
Explanation:Cardiogenic shock, which can be caused by conditions such as a heart attack or valve abnormality, results in decreased cardiac output and blood pressure, as well as increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and heart rate due to a sympathetic response.
Hypovolemic shock, on the other hand, occurs when there is a depletion of blood volume due to factors such as bleeding, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, or third-space losses during surgery. This also leads to increased SVR and heart rate, as well as decreased cardiac output and blood pressure.
Septic shock, which can also occur in response to anaphylaxis or neurogenic shock, is characterized by reduced SVR and increased heart rate, but normal or increased cardiac output. In this case, a vasopressor like noradrenaline may be used to address hypotension and oliguria despite adequate fluid administration.
Shock is a condition where there is not enough blood flow to the tissues. There are five main types of shock: septic, haemorrhagic, neurogenic, cardiogenic, and anaphylactic. Septic shock is caused by an infection that triggers a particular response in the body. Haemorrhagic shock is caused by blood loss, and there are four classes of haemorrhagic shock based on the amount of blood loss and associated symptoms. Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a disruption in the autonomic nervous system, leading to decreased vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is caused by heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Adrenaline is the most important drug in treating anaphylaxis and should be given as soon as possible.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 155
Incorrect
-
A healthy 56-year-old woman attends her flexible sigmoidoscopy as part of the UK's national screening program. While performing the procedure, the surgeon observes and biopsies several polyps for further analysis. Additionally, the patient has multiple hyperpigmented macules on her lips.
During her follow-up visit, the patient is informed that the type of polyp found in her bowel increases her risk of developing cancers in other parts of her body.
What is the name of the benign colorectal tumor that the patient has?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peutz-Jeghers polyps
Explanation:Understanding Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract, particularly in the small bowel. In addition, patients with this syndrome may also have pigmented freckles on their lips, face, palms, and soles.
While the polyps themselves are not cancerous, individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of developing other types of gastrointestinal tract cancers. In fact, around 50% of patients will have died from another gastrointestinal tract cancer by the age of 60 years.
Common symptoms of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome include small bowel obstruction, which is often due to intussusception, as well as gastrointestinal bleeding. Management of this condition is typically conservative unless complications develop. It is important for individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome to undergo regular screening and surveillance to detect any potential cancerous growths early on.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 156
Incorrect
-
In individuals with an annular pancreas, what is the most probable location of blockage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The second part of the duodenum
Explanation:The pancreas is formed from two outgrowths of the foregut, namely the ventral and dorsal buds. As the rotation process takes place, the ventral bud merges with the gallbladder and bile duct, which are located nearby. However, if the pancreas fails to rotate properly, it may exert pressure on the duodenum, leading to obstruction. This condition is often caused by an abnormality in the development of the duodenum, and the most commonly affected area is the second part of the duodenum.
Anatomy of the Pancreas
The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.
The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 157
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old male presents with mild intermittent diarrhoea over the last 3 months. He has also noticed 4kg of unintentional weight loss over this time. On further review, he has not noticed any night sweats or fever, and he has not changed his diet recently. There is no blood in his stools, and he is otherwise well, with no past medical conditions.
On examination he has;
Normal vital signs
Ulcerations in his mouth
Pain on rectal examination
What is the most likely finding on endoscopy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: cobblestone appearance
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from Crohn’s disease as indicated by the presence of skip lesions/mouth ulcerations, weight loss, and non-bloody diarrhea. The cobblestone appearance observed on endoscopy is a typical feature of Crohn’s disease. Pseudopolyps, on the other hand, are commonly seen in patients with ulcerative colitis. Additionally, pANCA is more frequently found in ulcerative colitis, while ASCA is present in Crohn’s disease. Ulcerative colitis is characterized by continuous inflammation of the mucosa.
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 158
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the least probable outcome associated with severe atrophic gastritis in elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duodenal ulcers
Explanation:A duodenal ulcer is unlikely to occur as a result of the decrease in gastric acid. However, it should be noted that gastric polyps may develop (refer to below).
Types of Gastritis and Their Features
Gastritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the stomach lining. There are different types of gastritis, each with its own unique features. Type A gastritis is an autoimmune condition that results in the reduction of parietal cells and hypochlorhydria. This type of gastritis is associated with circulating antibodies to parietal cells and can lead to B12 malabsorption. Type B gastritis, on the other hand, is antral gastritis that is caused by infection with Helicobacter pylori. This type of gastritis can lead to peptic ulceration and intestinal metaplasia in the stomach, which requires surveillance endoscopy.
Reflux gastritis occurs when bile refluxes into the stomach, either post-surgical or due to the failure of pyloric function. This type of gastritis is characterized by chronic inflammation and foveolar hyperplasia. Erosive gastritis is caused by agents that disrupt the gastric mucosal barrier, such as NSAIDs and alcohol. Stress ulceration occurs as a result of mucosal ischemia during hypotension or hypovolemia. The stomach is the most sensitive organ in the GI tract to ischemia following hypovolemia, and prophylaxis with acid-lowering therapy and sucralfate may minimize complications. Finally, Menetrier’s disease is a pre-malignant condition characterized by gross hypertrophy of the gastric mucosal folds, excessive mucous production, and hypochlorhydria.
In summary, gastritis is a condition that can have different types and features. It is important to identify the type of gastritis to provide appropriate management and prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 159
Incorrect
-
During a left hemicolectomy the sigmoid colon is mobilised. As the bowel is retracted medially a vessel is injured, anterior to the colon. Which one of the following is the most likely vessel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gonadal vessels
Explanation:During a right hemicolectomy, the gonadal vessels and ureter are crucial structures located at the posterior aspect that may be vulnerable to injury.
The Caecum: Location, Relations, and Functions
The caecum is a part of the colon located in the proximal right colon below the ileocaecal valve. It is an intraperitoneal structure that has posterior relations with the psoas, iliacus, femoral nerve, genitofemoral nerve, and gonadal vessels. Its anterior relations include the greater omentum. The caecum is supplied by the ileocolic artery and its lymphatic drainage is through the mesenteric nodes that accompany the venous drainage.
The caecum is known for its distensibility, making it the most distensible part of the colon. However, in cases of complete large bowel obstruction with a competent ileocaecal valve, the caecum is the most likely site of eventual perforation. Despite this potential complication, the caecum plays an important role in the digestive system. It is responsible for the absorption of fluids and electrolytes, as well as the fermentation of indigestible carbohydrates. Additionally, the caecum is a site for the growth and proliferation of beneficial bacteria that aid in digestion and immune function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 160
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man is suspected of having appendicitis. During surgery, an inflamed Meckel's diverticulum is discovered. What is the vessel responsible for supplying blood to a Meckel's diverticulum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitelline artery
Explanation:The Meckel’s arteries, which are typically sourced from the ileal arcades, provide blood supply to the vitelline.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine that is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. It occurs in 2% of the population, is 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve, and is 2 inches long. It is usually asymptomatic but can present with abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. Investigation includes a Meckel’s scan or mesenteric arteriography. Management involves removal if narrow neck or symptomatic, with options between wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically lined by ileal mucosa but ectopic gastric, pancreatic, and jejunal mucosa can also occur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 161
Incorrect
-
Which of the following cell types is most likely to be found in the wall of a fistula in a 60-year-old patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cells
Explanation:A fistula is a connection that is not normal between two surfaces that are lined with epithelial cells. In the case of a fistula in ano, it will be lined with squamous cells.
Fistulas are abnormal connections between two epithelial surfaces, with various types ranging from those in the neck to those in the abdomen. The majority of fistulas in surgical practice arise from diverticular disease and Crohn’s. In general, all fistulas will heal spontaneously as long as there is no distal obstruction. However, this is particularly true for intestinal fistulas. There are four types of fistulas: enterocutaneous, enteroenteric or enterocolic, enterovaginal, and enterovesicular. Management of fistulas involves protecting the skin, managing high output fistulas with octreotide, and addressing nutritional complications. When managing perianal fistulas, it is important to avoid probing the fistula in cases of acute inflammation and to use setons for drainage in cases of Crohn’s disease. It is also important to delineate the fistula anatomy using imaging studies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 162
Incorrect
-
What is the nerve root value of the external urethral sphincter?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: S2, S3, S4
Explanation:The pudendal nerve branches provide innervation to the external urethral sphincter, indicating that the root values are S2, S3, S4.
Urethral Anatomy: Differences Between Male and Female
The anatomy of the urethra differs between males and females. In females, the urethra is shorter and more angled than in males. It is located outside of the peritoneum and is surrounded by the endopelvic fascia. The neck of the bladder is subject to intra-abdominal pressure, and any weakness in this area can lead to stress urinary incontinence. The female urethra is surrounded by the external urethral sphincter, which is innervated by the pudendal nerve. It is located in front of the vaginal opening.
In males, the urethra is much longer and is divided into four parts. The pre-prostatic urethra is very short and lies between the bladder and prostate gland. The prostatic urethra is wider than the membranous urethra and contains several openings for the transmission of semen. The membranous urethra is the narrowest part of the urethra and is surrounded by the external sphincter. The penile urethra travels through the corpus spongiosum on the underside of the penis and is the longest segment of the urethra. The bulbo-urethral glands open into the spongiose section of the urethra.
The urothelium, which lines the inside of the urethra, is transitional near the bladder and becomes squamous further down the urethra. Understanding the differences in urethral anatomy between males and females is important for diagnosing and treating urological conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 163
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old boy is brought to the hospital due to severe nausea and vomiting. He has been unable to eat or drink for the past 48 hours and has not urinated in the last 24 hours. The doctor prescribes an antiemetic, but which antiemetic should be avoided in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:The effectiveness of antiemetics depends on their ability to interact with different receptors. Therefore, the selection of an appropriate antiemetic will depend on the patient and the underlying cause of nausea.
Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist that also has peripheral 5HT3 agonist and muscarinic antagonist effects, which help to promote gastric emptying. However, it is not recommended for use in children and young adults due to the potential risk of oculogyric crisis.
Understanding the Mechanism and Uses of Metoclopramide
Metoclopramide is a medication primarily used to manage nausea, but it also has other uses such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis secondary to diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics for the treatment of migraines. However, it is important to note that metoclopramide has adverse effects such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. It should also be avoided in bowel obstruction but may be helpful in paralytic ileus.
The mechanism of action of metoclopramide is quite complicated. It is primarily a D2 receptor antagonist, but it also has mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Its antiemetic action is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, and at higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist also has an effect. The gastroprokinetic activity is mediated by D2 receptor antagonist activity and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity.
In summary, metoclopramide is a medication with multiple uses, but it also has adverse effects that should be considered. Its mechanism of action is complex, involving both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Understanding the uses and mechanism of action of metoclopramide is important for its safe and effective use.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 164
Incorrect
-
Parasympathetic fibers innervating the parotid gland originate from where?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Otic ganglion
Explanation:The inferior salivatory nucleus is responsible for regulating the secretion of saliva from the parotid gland through postsynaptic parasympathetic fibers. These fibers exit the brain via the glossopharyngeal nerve’s tympanic branch and pass through the tympanic plexus in the middle ear before forming the lesser petrosal nerve. The otic ganglion is where the fibers synapse before continuing on as part of the mandibular nerve’s auriculotemporal branch to reach the parotid gland.
The parotid gland is located in front of and below the ear, overlying the mandibular ramus. Its salivary duct crosses the masseter muscle, pierces the buccinator muscle, and drains adjacent to the second upper molar tooth. The gland is traversed by several structures, including the facial nerve, external carotid artery, retromandibular vein, and auriculotemporal nerve. The gland is related to the masseter muscle, medial pterygoid muscle, superficial temporal and maxillary artery, facial nerve, stylomandibular ligament, posterior belly of the digastric muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, stylohyoid muscle, internal carotid artery, mastoid process, and styloid process. The gland is supplied by branches of the external carotid artery and drained by the retromandibular vein. Its lymphatic drainage is to the deep cervical nodes. The gland is innervated by the parasympathetic-secretomotor, sympathetic-superior cervical ganglion, and sensory-greater auricular nerve. Parasympathetic stimulation produces a water-rich, serous saliva, while sympathetic stimulation leads to the production of a low volume, enzyme-rich saliva.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 165
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old female patient presents to her GP with complaints of epigastric pain that worsens after consuming takeaways or alcohol. During the consultation, she also reports experiencing a cough at night. The doctor diagnoses her with GORD, which is caused by the irritation of stomach acid (H+) released by cells stimulated by which hormone?
Which cell type is stimulated by gastrin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric parietal cells
Explanation:Gastrin stimulates gastric parietal cells to increase their secretion of H+. The hormone is released by G cells in the stomach and acts on the parietal cells to enhance their production of H+. It is important to note that G cells do not release H+ themselves, but rather release gastrin to stimulate the parietal cells. Other cell types in the stomach, such as gastric chief cells and gastric mucosal cells, have different functions and do not secrete H+ in response to gastrin.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 166
Incorrect
-
Which hormone is primarily responsible for sodium-potassium exchange in the salivary ducts?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aldosterone
Explanation:The regulation of ion exchange in salivary glands is attributed to aldosterone. This hormone targets a pump that facilitates the exchange of sodium and potassium ions. Aldosterone is classified as a mineralocorticoid hormone and is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal gland.
The parotid gland is located in front of and below the ear, overlying the mandibular ramus. Its salivary duct crosses the masseter muscle, pierces the buccinator muscle, and drains adjacent to the second upper molar tooth. The gland is traversed by several structures, including the facial nerve, external carotid artery, retromandibular vein, and auriculotemporal nerve. The gland is related to the masseter muscle, medial pterygoid muscle, superficial temporal and maxillary artery, facial nerve, stylomandibular ligament, posterior belly of the digastric muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, stylohyoid muscle, internal carotid artery, mastoid process, and styloid process. The gland is supplied by branches of the external carotid artery and drained by the retromandibular vein. Its lymphatic drainage is to the deep cervical nodes. The gland is innervated by the parasympathetic-secretomotor, sympathetic-superior cervical ganglion, and sensory-greater auricular nerve. Parasympathetic stimulation produces a water-rich, serous saliva, while sympathetic stimulation leads to the production of a low volume, enzyme-rich saliva.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 167
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of chronic fatigue, bloating, and intermittent diarrhea. She denies any recent changes in her diet, rectal bleeding, or weight loss. Upon physical examination, no abnormalities are detected. Further investigations reveal the following results: Hb 95g/L (Female: 115-160), Platelets 200 * 109/L (150-400), WBC 6.2 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), and raised IgA-tTG serology. What additional test should the GP arrange to confirm the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endoscopic intestinal biopsy
Explanation:The preferred method for diagnosing coeliac disease is through an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. This should be performed if there is suspicion of the condition based on serology results. While endomysial antibody testing can be useful, it is more expensive and not as preferred as the biopsy. A stomach biopsy would not be helpful in diagnosing coeliac disease, as the condition affects the cells in the intestine. A skin biopsy would only be necessary if there were skin lesions indicative of dermatitis herpetiformis. Repeating the IgA-tTG serology test is not recommended for diagnosis.
Investigating Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.
To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.
In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 168
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old woman diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma of the anus is preparing for an abdominoperineal resection (APR). This surgical procedure involves the complete removal of the distal colon, rectum, and anal sphincter complex through both anterior abdominal and perineal incisions, resulting in a permanent colostomy. During the process, several arteries are ligated, including the one that supplies the anal canal below the levator ani. Can you identify the name of this artery and its branching point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior rectal artery - a branches of internal pudendal artery
Explanation:The internal pudendal artery gives rise to the inferior rectal artery, which supplies the muscle and skin of the anal and urogenital triangle. The superior rectal artery, on the other hand, supplies the sigmoid mesocolon and not the lower part of the anal canal. The middle rectal artery is a branch of the internal pudendal artery and not the deep external pudendal artery, making the fifth option incorrect.
Anatomy of the Rectum
The rectum is a capacitance organ that measures approximately 12 cm in length. It consists of both intra and extraperitoneal components, with the transition from the sigmoid colon marked by the disappearance of the tenia coli. The extra peritoneal rectum is surrounded by mesorectal fat that contains lymph nodes, which are removed during rectal cancer surgery. The fascial layers that surround the rectum are important clinical landmarks, with the fascia of Denonvilliers located anteriorly and Waldeyers fascia located posteriorly.
In males, the rectum is adjacent to the rectovesical pouch, bladder, prostate, and seminal vesicles, while in females, it is adjacent to the recto-uterine pouch (Douglas), cervix, and vaginal wall. Posteriorly, the rectum is in contact with the sacrum, coccyx, and middle sacral artery, while laterally, it is adjacent to the levator ani and coccygeus muscles.
The superior rectal artery supplies blood to the rectum, while the superior rectal vein drains it. Mesorectal lymph nodes located superior to the dentate line drain into the internal iliac and then para-aortic nodes, while those located inferior to the dentate line drain into the inguinal nodes. Understanding the anatomy of the rectum is crucial for surgical procedures and the diagnosis and treatment of rectal diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 169
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old male is undergoing an elective left colectomy for colon cancer on the left side. The left colic artery is responsible for supplying blood to both the upper and lower portions of the descending colon.
From which artery does the left colic artery originate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The inferior rectal artery is a branch of the inferior mesenteric artery. It provides blood supply to the anal canal and the lower part of the rectum. It originates from the inferior mesenteric artery and runs downwards towards the anus, where it divides into several smaller branches.
The Inferior Mesenteric Artery: Supplying the Hindgut
The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is responsible for supplying the embryonic hindgut with blood. It originates just above the aortic bifurcation, at the level of L3, and passes across the front of the aorta before settling on its left side. At the point where the left common iliac artery is located, the IMA becomes the superior rectal artery.
The hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum above the pectinate line, is supplied by the IMA. The left colic artery is one of the branches that emerges from the IMA near its origin. Up to three sigmoid arteries may also exit the IMA to supply the sigmoid colon further down the line.
Overall, the IMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the hindgut receives the blood supply it needs to function properly. Its branches help to ensure that the colon and rectum are well-nourished and able to carry out their important digestive functions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 170
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man presents with an inguinal hernia. What structure needs to be divided during open surgery to access the inguinal canal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:What forms the front wall of the inguinal canal? The external oblique aponeurosis forms the front wall. To access the canal and perform a hernia repair, the aponeurosis is divided. The posterior wall is made up of the transversalis fascia and conjoint tendons, which are not typically cut to gain entry to the inguinal canal.
The External Oblique Muscle: Anatomy and Function
The external oblique muscle is one of the three muscles that make up the anterolateral aspect of the abdominal wall. It is the outermost muscle and plays an important role in supporting the abdominal viscera. The muscle originates from the outer surfaces of the lowest eight ribs and inserts into the anterior two-thirds of the outer lip of the iliac crest. The remaining portion of the muscle becomes the aponeurosis, which fuses with the linea alba in the midline.
The external oblique muscle is innervated by the ventral rami of the lower six thoracic nerves. Its main function is to contain the abdominal viscera and raise intra-abdominal pressure. Additionally, it can move the trunk to one side. The aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle also forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal, which is an important anatomical landmark in the groin region.
Overall, the external oblique muscle is a crucial component of the abdominal wall and plays an important role in maintaining the integrity of the abdominal cavity. Its unique anatomy and function make it an important muscle for both movement and protection of the internal organs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 171
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty swallowing both solid and liquid foods for the past 3 months. She denies any hoarseness of voice but reports having had pneumonia a month ago, which resolved with antibiotics. Upon examination, oesophageal manometry reveals absent peristalsis, increased lower sphincter tone, and incomplete relaxation of the lower sphincter during swallowing.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:The classic triad for achalasia includes loss of peristalsis, increased lower sphincter tone, and inadequate relaxation of the lower sphincter, which is evident on manometry. Dysphagia for both solid and liquid is also a common symptom of achalasia.
Unlike achalasia, Barrett’s esophagus does not show any changes on manometry. However, it can be identified through the presence of intestinal metaplasia on endoscopy.
Diffuse esophageal spasm is a motility disorder that does not affect lower esophageal sphincter pressure and relaxation during swallowing. Instead, manometry reveals repetitive high amplitude contractions.
Hiatus hernia is typically associated with gastroesophageal reflux disease and does not show any abnormal findings on manometry.
Understanding Dysphagia and its Causes
Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various conditions affecting the oesophagus, including cancer, oesophagitis, candidiasis, achalasia, pharyngeal pouch, systemic sclerosis, myasthenia gravis, and globus hystericus. These conditions have distinct features that can help in their diagnosis, such as weight loss and anorexia in oesophageal cancer, heartburn in oesophagitis, dysphagia of both liquids and solids in achalasia, and anxiety in globus hystericus. Dysphagia can also be classified as extrinsic, intrinsic, or neurological, depending on the underlying cause.
To diagnose dysphagia, patients usually undergo an upper GI endoscopy, a full blood count, and fluoroscopic swallowing studies. Additional tests, such as ambulatory oesophageal pH and manometry studies, may be needed for specific conditions. It’s important to note that new-onset dysphagia is a red flag symptom that requires urgent endoscopy, regardless of age or other symptoms. By understanding the causes and features of dysphagia, healthcare professionals can provide timely and appropriate management for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 172
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following forms the medial wall of the femoral canal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lacunar ligament
Explanation:It is important to differentiate between the femoral canal and the femoral triangle, particularly during exams when time is limited.
Understanding the Femoral Canal
The femoral canal is a fascial tunnel located at the medial aspect of the femoral sheath. It contains both the femoral artery and femoral vein, with the canal lying medial to the vein. The borders of the femoral canal include the femoral vein laterally, the lacunar ligament medially, the inguinal ligament anteriorly, and the pectineal ligament posteriorly.
The femoral canal plays a significant role in allowing the femoral vein to expand, which facilitates increased venous return to the lower limbs. However, it can also be a site of femoral hernias, which occur when abdominal contents protrude through the femoral canal. The relatively tight neck of the femoral canal places these hernias at high risk of strangulation, making it important to understand the anatomy and function of this structure. Overall, understanding the femoral canal is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating potential issues related to this area.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 173
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man is having surgery to remove his appendix. During the procedure, the external oblique aponeurosis is cut and the underlying muscle is split along its fibers. A strong fibrous structure is found at the medial edge of the incision. What is the most likely structure that will be encountered upon entering this fibrous structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectus abdominis
Explanation:Upon entry, the structure encountered will be the rectus abdominis muscle, which is surrounded by the rectus sheath.
Abdominal Incisions: Types and Techniques
Abdominal incisions are surgical procedures that involve making an opening in the abdominal wall to access the organs inside. The most common approach is the midline incision, which involves dividing the linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. Another type is the paramedian incision, which is parallel to the midline and involves dividing the anterior rectus sheath, rectus, posterior rectus sheath, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. The battle incision is similar to the paramedian but involves displacing the rectus medially.
Other types of abdominal incisions include Kocher’s incision under the right subcostal margin for cholecystectomy, Lanz incision in the right iliac fossa for appendicectomy, gridiron oblique incision centered over McBurney’s point for appendicectomy, Pfannenstiel’s transverse supra-pubic incision primarily used to access pelvic organs, McEvedy’s groin incision for emergency repair of a strangulated femoral hernia, and Rutherford Morrison extraperitoneal approach to the left or right lower quadrants for access to iliac vessels and renal transplantation.
Each type of incision has its own advantages and disadvantages, and the choice of incision depends on the specific surgical procedure and the surgeon’s preference. Proper closure of the incision is crucial to prevent complications such as infection and hernia formation. Overall, abdominal incisions are important techniques in surgical practice that allow for safe and effective access to the abdominal organs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 174
Incorrect
-
A 2-year-old boy with no significant medical history is brought to the ER by his mother due to a week-long crying spell and passing bright red stools. The patient cries loudly upon palpation of the right lower quadrant. Meckel's diverticulum is confirmed through a positive technetium-99m scan. What is the embryological source of this abnormality?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Omphalomesenteric duct
Explanation:The correct answer is omphalomesenteric duct, which is the precursor to Meckel’s diverticulum. Meckel’s diverticulum is a true diverticulum that forms due to the persistence of this duct and may contain gastric or pancreatic tissue. It is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract and can present with various symptoms.
Auerbach plexus is an incorrect answer. Its absence is associated with Hirschsprung disease or achalasia.
Fetal umbilical vein is also incorrect. It becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis within the falciform ligament of the liver.
Pleuroperitoneal membrane is another incorrect answer. A congenital defect in this structure can lead to a left-sided diaphragmatic hernia in infants.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine that is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. It occurs in 2% of the population, is 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve, and is 2 inches long. It is usually asymptomatic but can present with abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. Investigation includes a Meckel’s scan or mesenteric arteriography. Management involves removal if narrow neck or symptomatic, with options between wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically lined by ileal mucosa but ectopic gastric, pancreatic, and jejunal mucosa can also occur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 175
Incorrect
-
After an oesophagogastrectomy, the surgeons will connect the remaining oesophagus to the stomach. Which layer is not included in the composition of the oesophageal wall?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serosa
Explanation:Due to the absence of a serosa layer, the oesophageal wall may not provide a strong grip for sutures.
Anatomy of the Oesophagus
The oesophagus is a muscular tube that is approximately 25 cm long and starts at the C6 vertebrae, pierces the diaphragm at T10, and ends at T11. It is lined with non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and has constrictions at various distances from the incisors, including the cricoid cartilage at 15cm, the arch of the aorta at 22.5cm, the left principal bronchus at 27cm, and the diaphragmatic hiatus at 40cm.
The oesophagus is surrounded by various structures, including the trachea to T4, the recurrent laryngeal nerve, the left bronchus and left atrium, and the diaphragm anteriorly. Posteriorly, it is related to the thoracic duct to the left at T5, the hemiazygos to the left at T8, the descending aorta, and the first two intercostal branches of the aorta. The arterial, venous, and lymphatic drainage of the oesophagus varies depending on the location, with the upper third being supplied by the inferior thyroid artery and drained by the deep cervical lymphatics, the mid-third being supplied by aortic branches and drained by azygos branches and mediastinal lymphatics, and the lower third being supplied by the left gastric artery and drained by posterior mediastinal and coeliac veins and gastric lymphatics.
The nerve supply of the oesophagus also varies, with the upper half being supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve and the lower half being supplied by the oesophageal plexus of the vagus nerve. The muscularis externa of the oesophagus is composed of both smooth and striated muscle, with the composition varying depending on the location.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 176
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following structures is located most posteriorly at the porta hepatis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Portal vein
Explanation:At the porta hepatis, the most posterior structure is the portal vein, while the common bile duct is created by the merging of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct. The common hepatic duct extends and becomes the common bile duct.
Structure and Relations of the Liver
The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.
The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.
The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 177
Incorrect
-
During an Ivor Lewis Oesophagectomy for carcinoma of the upper third of the oesophagus which structure is divided to allow mobilisation of the oesophagus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Azygos vein
Explanation:The azygos vein is divided during oesophagectomy to allow mobilisation. It inserts into the SVC on the right side.
Treatment Options for Oesophageal Cancer
Oesophageal cancer is typically treated through surgical resection, with neoadjuvant chemotherapy given prior to the procedure. In situ disease may be managed through endoscopic mucosal resection, while unresectable disease may benefit from local ablative procedures, palliative chemotherapy, or stent insertion. However, resections are not typically offered to patients with distant metastasis or N2 disease, and local nodal involvement is not a contraindication to resection.
For lower and middle third oesophageal tumours, an Ivor-Lewis procedure is commonly performed. This involves a combined laparotomy and right thoracotomy, with the stomach mobilized through a rooftop incision and the oesophagus removed through a thoracotomy. The chest is then closed with underwater seal drainage and tube drains to the abdominal cavity. Postoperatively, patients will typically recover in the intensive care unit and may experience complications such as atelectasis, anastomotic leakage, and delayed gastric emptying.
Overall, treatment options for oesophageal cancer depend on the extent of the disease and the patient’s individual circumstances. While surgical resection is the mainstay of treatment, other options such as chemotherapy and local ablative procedures may be considered for unresectable disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 178
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old patient comes to see his doctor complaining of feeling fatigued, sluggish and having difficulty concentrating at work lately. He appears pale and his hands feel cool to the touch. He reports being a non-smoker, drinking very little and adopting a vegan diet last year. What could be the reason for this patient's development of anaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fe3+ is insoluble and must be converted into Fe2+ before it is absorbed
Explanation:Iron is absorbed from food in two forms: haem iron (found in meat) and non-haem iron (found in green vegetables). Haem iron is easier to absorb than non-haem iron. Non-haem iron is mostly in the form of insoluble ferric (Fe3+) iron, which needs to be converted to soluble ferrous (Fe2+) iron before it can be absorbed by the body. However, the amount of iron absorbed this way is often not enough to meet the body’s needs. Vegetarians and vegans are at higher risk of iron deficiency anaemia (IDA) because they consume less haem iron.
The patient’s symptoms suggest IDA caused by a change in diet, rather than anaemia of chronic disease. Ferritin is a marker of iron stores and is reduced in IDA. Hepcidin is a hormone that regulates iron storage in the body. Low serum hepcidin levels are seen in IDA, but this is not a reliable marker of the condition. Transferrin is a protein that binds to iron in the blood. In IDA, transferrin levels are high and ferritin levels are low. Transferrin saturation is low in IDA and anaemia of chronic disease, but high in haemochromatosis. Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is normal or high in IDA, but low in anaemia of chronic disease due to increased iron storage in cells and limited release into the blood.
Understanding Ferritin Levels in the Body
Ferritin is a protein found inside cells that binds to iron and stores it for later use. When ferritin levels are increased, it is usually defined as being above 300 µg/L in men and postmenopausal women, and above 200 µg/L in premenopausal women. However, it is important to note that ferritin is an acute phase protein, meaning that it can be synthesized in larger quantities during times of inflammation. This can lead to falsely elevated results, which must be interpreted in the context of the patient’s clinical picture and other blood test results.
There are two main categories of causes for increased ferritin levels: those without iron overload (which account for around 90% of patients) and those with iron overload (which account for around 10% of patients). Causes of increased ferritin levels without iron overload include inflammation, alcohol excess, liver disease, chronic kidney disease, and malignancy. Causes of increased ferritin levels with iron overload include primary iron overload (hereditary hemochromatosis) and secondary iron overload (which can occur after repeated transfusions).
On the other hand, reduced ferritin levels can be an indication of iron deficiency anemia. Since iron and ferritin are bound together, a decrease in ferritin levels can suggest a decrease in iron levels as well. Measuring serum ferritin levels can be helpful in determining whether a low hemoglobin level and microcytosis are truly caused by an iron deficiency state. It is important to note that the best test for determining iron overload is transferrin saturation, with normal values being less than 45% in females and less than 50% in males.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 179
Incorrect
-
A scan is being done on a foetus which is 34 weeks gestation. The pancreas and its associated ducts are identified.
What does the pancreatic duct in the foetus become in the adult?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ligamentum teres
Explanation:The ligamentum teres in the adult is derived from the umbilical vein in the foetus.
The Three Embryological Layers and their Corresponding Gastrointestinal Structures and Blood Supply
The gastrointestinal system is a complex network of organs responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients. During embryonic development, the gastrointestinal system is formed from three distinct layers: the foregut, midgut, and hindgut. Each layer gives rise to specific structures and is supplied by a corresponding blood vessel.
The foregut extends from the mouth to the proximal half of the duodenum and is supplied by the coeliac trunk. The midgut encompasses the distal half of the duodenum to the splenic flexure of the colon and is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. Lastly, the hindgut includes the descending colon to the rectum and is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.
Understanding the embryological origin and blood supply of the gastrointestinal system is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By identifying the specific structures and blood vessels involved, healthcare professionals can better target their interventions and improve patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 180
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of intermittent upper abdominal pain that worsens after eating. She denies having a fever and reports normal bowel movements. The pain is rated at 6/10 and is only slightly relieved by paracetamol. The GP suspects a blockage in the biliary tree. Which section of the duodenum does this tube open into, considering the location of the blockage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2nd part of the duodenum
Explanation:The second segment of the duodenum is situated behind the peritoneum and contains the major and minor duodenal papillae.
Based on the symptoms described, the woman is likely experiencing biliary colic, which is characterized by intermittent pain that worsens after consuming fatty meals. Blockages in the biliary tree, typically caused by stones, can occur at any point, but in this case, it is likely in the cystic duct, as there is no mention of jaundice and the stool is normal.
The cystic duct joins with the right and left hepatic ducts to form the common bile duct, which then merges with the pancreatic duct to create the common hepatopancreatic duct. The major papilla, located in the second segment of the duodenum, is where these ducts empty into the duodenum. This segment is also situated behind the peritoneum.
Peptic ulcers affecting the duodenum are most commonly found in the first segment.
The third segment of the duodenum can be compressed by the superior mesenteric artery, leading to superior mesenteric artery syndrome, particularly in individuals with low body fat.
The fourth segment of the duodenum runs close to the abdominal aorta and can be compressed by an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
The ligament of Treitz attaches the duodenojejunal flexure to the diaphragm and is not associated with any particular pathology.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 181
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old male patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal pain, weight loss, and diarrhoea for the past 6 months. During gastroscopy, a gastrinoma is discovered in the antrum of his stomach. What is the purpose of the hormone produced by this tumor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It increases HCL production and increases gastric motility
Explanation:A tumor that secretes gastrin is known as a gastrinoma, which leads to an increase in both gastrointestinal motility and HCL production. It should be noted that while gastrin does increase gastric motility, it does not have an effect on the secretion of pancreatic fluid. This is instead regulated by hormones such as VIP, CCK, and secretin.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 182
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man is admitted to the surgical ward following an open surgical repair of a ruptured aortic aneurysm. During examination, he presents with a positive Grey Turner's sign, indicating retroperitoneal haemorrhage and resulting in blue discolouration of the flanks. Retroperitoneal haemorrhage can occur due to trauma to retroperitoneal structures. Can you identify which of the following structures is not retroperitoneal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tail of the pancreas
Explanation:The tail of the pancreas is the only intraperitoneal structure mentioned, while all the others are retroperitoneal. Retroperitoneal haemorrhage can be caused by various factors, including ruptured aneurysms and acute pancreatitis. A helpful mnemonic to remember retroperitoneal structures is SAD PUCKER.
Anatomy of the Pancreas
The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.
The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 183
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old male presents with two episodes of haemetemesis. He has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease (IHD) and is currently on medication. What is the probable reason for his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peptic ulceration
Explanation:The effects of different medications on renal tubular acidosis (RTA) are significant. RTA is a condition that affects the kidneys’ ability to regulate acid-base balance in the body. Various medications can cause RTA through different mechanisms.
Spironolactone, for instance, is a direct antagonist of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body. By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) and a reduction in serum bicarbonate, which is a type of RTA known as type 4.
Type 4 RTA can also occur in people with diabetes mellitus due to scarring associated with diabetic nephropathy. Metformin, a medication commonly used to treat diabetes, can cause lactic acidosis, a condition where there is an excess of lactic acid in the blood. Pioglitazone, another diabetes medication, can cause salt and water retention and may also be associated with bladder tumors.
Ramipril, a medication used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, can also cause hyperkalemia, but this is not related to direct aldosterone antagonism. Healthcare providers must be aware of the effects of different medications on RTA to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 184
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department with pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. He is a construction worker who has a history of smoking. After diagnosis and treatment, the consultant recommends placement of a filter to reduce the risk of future incidents. A needle is inserted into the femoral vein and advanced up into the abdomen, where a filter is placed.
Based on the likely location of the filter, which of the following statements is true regarding the organ?
- It is attached to the posterior wall via a mesentery
- It is located posteriorly to the peritoneum
- It is attached to the liver via multiple ligaments
- It is wrapped in a double fold of peritoneal fat
- It is attached to the liver via an omentum
Additionally, it is important to note that the inferior vena cava is a retroperitoneal organ, and damage to it can result in a collection of blood in the retroperitoneal space.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is located posteriorly to the peritoneum
Explanation:The IVC is situated in the retroperitoneal space and any damage to it can result in the accumulation of blood in this area. The woman’s symptoms suggest that she may have a pulmonary embolism, which is a common complication of frequent travel. To prevent future occurrences, a filter can be inserted into the IVC. This is done by inserting a needle into the femoral vein and advancing the filter up to the level of the retroperitoneal IVC.
In contrast, intraperitoneal organs such as the small bowel are connected to the posterior wall through a mesentery. The liver is attached to both the diaphragm and the posterior abdominal wall by ligaments. The term double fold of peritoneal fat pertains to intraperitoneal organs. Finally, the lesser omentum serves as the attachment between the stomach and the liver.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 185
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old man reports experiencing discomfort behind his breastbone and occasional backflow of stomach acid into his mouth, especially after meals and at bedtime, causing sleep disturbance. What is a potential risk factor for GORD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease (GORD)
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a chronic condition where stomach acid flows back up into the oesophagus, causing discomfort and increasing the risk of oesophageal cancer. Obesity is a known risk factor for GORD, as excess weight around the abdomen increases pressure in the stomach. Hiatus hernia, which also results from increased intra-abdominal pressure, is also associated with GORD. This is because the widening of the diaphragmatic hiatus in hiatus hernia reduces the effectiveness of the lower oesophageal sphincter in preventing acid reflux.
Smoking is another risk factor for GORD, although the exact mechanism by which it weakens the lower oesophageal sphincter is not fully understood. Interestingly, male sex does not appear to be associated with GORD. Overall, the risk factors for GORD can help individuals take steps to prevent or manage this chronic condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 186
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old woman currently completing her exams presents to her GP with fatigue and generalised weakness. She has also noted that her skin and the whites of her eyes appear yellow. The GP suspects the patient may have Gilbert’s syndrome and orders liver function tests to determine the patient’s baseline liver function. The GP advises the patient that no treatment is necessary for this condition.
Reference range
Bilirubin 3 - 17 µmol/L
ALP 30 - 100 u/L
ALT 3 - 40 u/L
γGT 8 - 60 u/L
Albumin 35 - 50 g/L
LDH 100 - 190 U/L
What set of results would be expected from this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilirubin 40 umol/l, ALT 15 U/L, LDH 160 U/L, GGT 25 U/L
Explanation:Jaundice becomes visible when bilirubin levels exceed 35 umol/l. Therefore, the correct option is the one with a bilirubin level of 40 umol/l, as this is typically the range where jaundice becomes visible. Furthermore, all other liver function values in this option are within the normal range. The other options are incorrect because they have bilirubin levels that are too low to cause visible jaundice, and the liver function results are usually normal in cases of Gilbert’s syndrome.
Understanding Bilirubin and Its Role in Jaundice
Bilirubin is a chemical by-product that is produced when red blood cells break down heme, a component found in these cells. This chemical is also found in other hepatic heme-containing proteins like myoglobin. The heme is processed within macrophages and oxidized to form biliverdin and iron. Biliverdin is then reduced to form unconjugated bilirubin, which is released into the bloodstream.
Unconjugated bilirubin is bound to albumin in the blood and then taken up by hepatocytes, where it is conjugated to make it water-soluble. From there, it is excreted into bile and enters the intestines to be broken down by intestinal bacteria. Bacterial proteases produce urobilinogen from bilirubin within the intestinal lumen, which is further processed by intestinal bacteria to form urobilin and stercobilin and excreted via the faeces. A small amount of bilirubin re-enters the portal circulation to be finally excreted via the kidneys in urine.
Jaundice occurs when bilirubin levels exceed 35 umol/l. Raised levels of unconjugated bilirubin may occur due to haemolysis, while hepatocyte defects, such as a compromised hepatocyte uptake of unconjugated bilirubin and/or defective conjugation, may occur in liver disease or deficiency of glucuronyl transferase. Raised levels of conjugated bilirubin can result from defective excretion of bilirubin, for example, Dubin-Johnson Syndrome, or cholestasis.
Cholestasis can result from a wide range of pathologies, which can be largely divided into physical causes, for example, gallstones, pancreatic and cholangiocarcinoma, or functional causes, for example, drug-induced, pregnancy-related and postoperative cholestasis. Understanding bilirubin and its role in jaundice is important in diagnosing and treating various liver and blood disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 187
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain in the epigastric region. He has a history of heavy alcohol consumption, but this is his first visit to the department. Upon examination, he is sweating profusely and has a fever. His heart rate is 130 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. You diagnose him with acute pancreatitis and are concerned about potential complications.
What symptom is most likely to be present in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blue discolouration of the flank regions
Explanation:The patient is experiencing acute pancreatitis, possibly due to excessive alcohol consumption. As this is his first visit to the emergency department, it is unlikely to be a sudden attack on top of chronic pancreatitis. The presence of tachycardia and hypotension suggests that he is also experiencing blood loss. The correct answer should identify an acute condition associated with blood loss.
a. Bulky, greasy stools are a long-term complication of chronic pancreatitis, indicating that the pancreas has lost its exocrine function and is unable to properly digest food.
b. Grey Turner’s sign is a sign of blood pooling in the retroperitoneal space, which can occur due to inflammation of the retroperitoneal pancreas.
c. This is a complication of long-term diabetes or chronic pancreatitis.
d. Ascites is not typically associated with an acute first-time presentation of pancreatitis, although it can have many causes.
e. This description is typical of an abdominal obstruction, which may cause nausea and vomiting.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 188
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old male patient is diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. What is the source of gastric acid secretion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parietal cells
Explanation:Gastric acid is released by parietal cells, while Brunner’s glands are located in the duodenum.
Understanding Gastric Secretions for Surgical Procedures
A basic understanding of gastric secretions is crucial for surgeons, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Gastric acid, produced by the parietal cells in the stomach, has a pH of around 2 and is maintained by the H+/K+ ATPase pump. Sodium and chloride ions are actively secreted from the parietal cell into the canaliculus, creating a negative potential across the membrane. Carbonic anhydrase forms carbonic acid, which dissociates, and the hydrogen ions formed by dissociation leave the cell via the H+/K+ antiporter pump. This leaves hydrogen and chloride ions in the canaliculus, which mix and are secreted into the lumen of the oxyntic gland.
There are three phases of gastric secretion: the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase. The cephalic phase is stimulated by the smell or taste of food and causes 30% of acid production. The gastric phase, which is caused by stomach distension, low H+, or peptides, causes 60% of acid production. The intestinal phase, which is caused by high acidity, distension, or hypertonic solutions in the duodenum, inhibits gastric acid secretion via enterogastrones and neural reflexes.
The regulation of gastric acid production involves various factors that increase or decrease production. Factors that increase production include vagal nerve stimulation, gastrin release, and histamine release. Factors that decrease production include somatostatin, cholecystokinin, and secretin. Understanding these factors and their associated pharmacology is essential for surgeons.
In summary, a working knowledge of gastric secretions is crucial for surgical procedures, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Understanding the phases of gastric secretion and the regulation of gastric acid production is essential for successful surgical outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 189
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old man presents to the gastroenterology clinic with a 10-week history of abdominal pain and tenesmus. He reports experiencing intermittent diarrhea that has been increasing in frequency and has noticed fresh red blood on wiping. During the examination, he exhibits generalized abdominal tenderness, which is most severe when palpating the left iliac fossa. Several tests are ordered.
What is a characteristic finding associated with his underlying condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mucosal inflammation
Explanation:Patients with UC have a deficient mucous layer and reduced goblet cell production, while those with Crohn’s disease exhibit an increase in goblet cells. Additionally, Crohn’s disease may present with rose-thorn ulcers in the terminal ileum after a barium swallow, which manifest as deep linear ulcers.
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 190
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of abdominal pain, occasional vomiting of blood, and significant weight loss over the past two months. After undergoing a gastroscopy, which reveals multiple gastric ulcers and thickened gastric folds, the doctor suspects the presence of a gastrinoma and orders a secretin stimulation test (which involves administering exogenous secretin) to confirm the diagnosis.
What is the mechanism by which this administered hormone works?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreases gastric acid secretion
Explanation:Secretin is a hormone that is released by the duodenum in response to acidity. Its primary function is to decrease gastric acid secretion. It should be noted that the secretin stimulation test involves administering exogenous secretin, which paradoxically causes an increase in gastrin secretion. Secretin does not play a role in carbohydrate digestion, stimulation of gallbladder contraction, stimulation of gastric acid secretion (which is the function of gastrin), or stimulation of pancreatic enzyme secretion (which is another function of CCK).
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 191
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man presents with an abdominal aortic aneurysm that causes displacement of the left renal vein. At this level, which branch of the aorta is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The left renal vein is situated posterior to the SMA at its point of origin from the aorta. In cases of juxtarenal AAA, separation of the left renal vein may be necessary, but if the SMA is directly affected, a combination of surgical bypass and endovascular occlusion may be required.
Branches of the Abdominal Aorta
The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.
The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.
The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.
Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 192
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man is having a distal pancreatectomy due to trauma. What vessel is responsible for supplying the tail of the pancreas with arterial blood?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splenic artery
Explanation:The pancreaticoduodenal artery supplies the pancreatic head, while branches of the splenic artery supply the pancreatic tail. There is an arterial watershed between the two regions.
Anatomy of the Pancreas
The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.
The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 193
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old man contacts his primary care physician with concerns about his skin turning yellow. He reports that this change has been occurring gradually over the past few days and is not accompanied by any pain or other symptoms. Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that he was recently discharged from the hospital after receiving treatment for pyelonephritis. He denies any recent travel outside of his local area.
The patient's liver function tests reveal the following results:
- Bilirubin: 32 µmol/L (normal range: 3 - 17)
- ALP: 41 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
- ALT: 19 u/L (normal range: 3 - 40)
- γGT: 26 u/L (normal range: 8 - 60)
- Albumin: 43 g/L (normal range: 35 - 50)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome
Explanation:The patient’s presentation is consistent with Gilbert’s syndrome, which is characterized by an increase in serum bilirubin during times of physiological stress due to a deficiency in the liver’s ability to process bilirubin. This can be triggered by illness, exercise, or fasting.
Autoimmune hepatitis, on the other hand, typically results in severely abnormal liver function tests with significantly elevated liver enzymes, which is not the case for this patient.
Hepatitis A is often associated with recent foreign travel and is accompanied by symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhea.
Mirizzi syndrome is a rare condition in which a gallstone becomes lodged in the biliary tree, causing a blockage of the bile duct. It typically presents with upper right quadrant pain and signs of obstructive jaundice.
While painless jaundice can be a symptom of pancreatic cancer, it is highly unlikely in a 27-year-old patient and is therefore an unlikely diagnosis in this case.
Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.
To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 194
Incorrect
-
A pharmaceutical company is striving to develop a novel weight-loss drug that imitates the satiety-inducing effects of the endogenous peptide hormone cholecystokinin (CCK).
What are the cells that naturally synthesize and secrete this hormone?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: I cells in the upper small intestine
Explanation:CCK is a hormone produced by I cells in the upper small intestine that enhances the digestion of fats and proteins. When partially digested proteins and fats are detected, CCK is synthesized and released, resulting in various processes such as the secretion of digestive enzymes from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi, decreased gastric emptying, and a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. These processes lead to the breakdown of fats and proteins and suppression of hunger.
B cells, on the other hand, are part of the immune system and produce antibodies as part of the B cell receptors. They are produced in the bone marrow and migrate to the spleen and lymphatic system, but they do not play a role in satiety.
Somatostatin is a hormone released from D cells in the pancreas and stomach that regulates peptide hormone release and gastric emptying. It is stimulated by the presence of fat, bile salt, and glucose in the intestines.
Gastrin is a hormone that increases acid release from parietal cells in the stomach and aids in gastric motility. It is released from G cells in the antrum of the stomach in response to distension of the stomach, stimulation of the vagus nerves, and the presence of peptides/amino acids in the lumen.
Secretin is a hormone that regulates enzyme secretion from the stomach, pancreas, and liver. It is released from the S cells in the duodenum in response to the presence of acid in the lumen.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 195
Incorrect
-
As a physician on the surgical ward, you are evaluating a patient who has been experiencing dysphagia of both solids and liquids for the past 6 years. A barium swallow revealed a 'bird's beak' appearance, and the patient was diagnosed with achalasia. Despite previous medical treatments using oesophago-gastroduodenoscopy (OGD), the patient's condition has not improved, and it has been determined that surgical intervention is necessary.
What is the preferred surgical treatment for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heller's cardiomyotomy
Explanation:Surgical intervention should be considered for patients with achalasia who experience recurrent or persistent symptoms. The recommended procedure is Heller’s cardiomyotomy, which is particularly suitable for young patients who would require lifelong dilations or botulinum toxin injections, those who have not responded to multiple nonsurgical treatments, those who choose surgery as their initial treatment, and those who are at high risk of perforation with pneumatic dilation due to previous surgery in the oesophagogastric junction. It is important to note that Billroth’s operation is a different surgical procedure that involves removing the pylorus and anastomosing the proximal stomach directly to the duodenum, while Whipple’s procedure is typically performed for pancreatic cancer.
Understanding Achalasia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Achalasia is a medical condition characterized by the failure of oesophageal peristalsis and relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) due to the degenerative loss of ganglia from Auerbach’s plexus. This results in a contracted LOS and a dilated oesophagus above it. It is a condition that typically presents in middle-aged individuals and is equally common in both men and women.
The clinical features of achalasia include dysphagia of both liquids and solids, heartburn, regurgitation of food, and variation in the severity of symptoms. If left untreated, it may lead to cough, aspiration pneumonia, and even malignant changes in a small number of patients. To diagnose achalasia, oesophageal manometry is considered the most important diagnostic test. It shows excessive LOS tone that doesn’t relax on swallowing. A barium swallow may also be used to show a grossly expanded oesophagus, fluid level, and a ‘bird’s beak’ appearance. A chest x-ray may show a wide mediastinum and fluid level.
The preferred first-line treatment for achalasia is pneumatic (balloon) dilation, which is less invasive and has a quicker recovery time than surgery. However, patients should be a low surgical risk as surgery may be required if complications occur. Surgical intervention with a Heller cardiomyotomy should be considered if recurrent or persistent symptoms occur. In some cases, intra-sphincteric injection of botulinum toxin is used in patients who are a high surgical risk. Drug therapy, such as nitrates and calcium channel blockers, may also have a role in treatment but is limited by side-effects. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment options for achalasia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 196
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male patient visits the surgical clinic with an inguinal hernia. During the examination, a small direct hernia is observed along with pigmented spots on his palms, soles, and around his mouth. The patient had undergone a reduction of an intussusception when he was 10 years old. If a colonoscopy is performed, which of the following lesions is most likely to be detected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hamartomas
Explanation:It is probable that he has Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, a condition that is linked to the presence of Hamartomas.
Understanding Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract, particularly in the small bowel. In addition, patients with this syndrome may also have pigmented freckles on their lips, face, palms, and soles.
While the polyps themselves are not cancerous, individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of developing other types of gastrointestinal tract cancers. In fact, around 50% of patients will have died from another gastrointestinal tract cancer by the age of 60 years.
Common symptoms of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome include small bowel obstruction, which is often due to intussusception, as well as gastrointestinal bleeding. Management of this condition is typically conservative unless complications develop. It is important for individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome to undergo regular screening and surveillance to detect any potential cancerous growths early on.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 197
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy presents to his GP with a 5-month history of passing frequent watery diarrhoea, up to 6 times a day. He reports occasional passage of mucus mixed with his stool and has experienced a weight loss of around 9kg. An endoscopy and biopsy are performed, revealing evidence of granuloma formation.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:The presence of granulomas in the gastrointestinal tract is a key feature of Crohn’s disease, which is a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the digestive system. The combination of granulomas and clinical history is highly indicative of this condition.
Coeliac disease, on the other hand, is an autoimmune disorder triggered by gluten consumption that causes villous atrophy and malabsorption. However, it does not involve the formation of granulomas.
Colonic tuberculosis, caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is another granulomatous condition that affects the ileocaecal valve. However, the granulomas in this case are caseating with necrosis, and colonic tuberculosis is much less common than Crohn’s disease.
Endoscopy and biopsy are not necessary for diagnosing irritable bowel syndrome, as they are primarily used to rule out other conditions. Biopsies in irritable bowel syndrome would not reveal granuloma formation.
Ulcerative colitis, another inflammatory bowel disease, is characterized by crypt abscesses, pseudopolyps, and mucosal ulceration that can cause rectal bleeding. However, granulomas are not present in this condition.
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 198
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute and severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody stools. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and ischaemic heart disease. Upon examination, his heart rate is 140 beats per minute, blood pressure is 98/58mmHg, respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations are 98% on air, and temperature is 38.8ºC. A CT scan with contrast of the abdomen reveals air in the intestinal wall. During surgery, it is discovered that the distal third of the colon to the superior part of the rectum is necrotic.
Which artery is responsible for supplying blood to this portion of the bowel?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The correct artery supplying the affected area in this patient is the inferior mesenteric artery. This artery branches off the abdominal aorta and supplies the hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum superior to the pectinate line. It’s important to note that the anal canal is divided into two parts by the pectinate line, with the upper half supplied by the superior rectal artery branch of the inferior mesenteric artery, and the lower half supplied by the inferior rectal artery branch of the internal pudendal artery. Ischaemic heart disease and atrial fibrillation are risk factors for acute mesenteric ischaemia in this patient, which presents with severe, poorly-localised abdominal pain and tenderness. The coeliac trunk, which supplies the foregut, is not involved in this case. The internal pudendal artery supplies the inferior part of the anal canal, perineum, and genitalia, while the right colic artery, a branch of the superior mesenteric artery, supplies the ascending colon, which is not affected in this patient.
The Inferior Mesenteric Artery: Supplying the Hindgut
The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is responsible for supplying the embryonic hindgut with blood. It originates just above the aortic bifurcation, at the level of L3, and passes across the front of the aorta before settling on its left side. At the point where the left common iliac artery is located, the IMA becomes the superior rectal artery.
The hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum above the pectinate line, is supplied by the IMA. The left colic artery is one of the branches that emerges from the IMA near its origin. Up to three sigmoid arteries may also exit the IMA to supply the sigmoid colon further down the line.
Overall, the IMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the hindgut receives the blood supply it needs to function properly. Its branches help to ensure that the colon and rectum are well-nourished and able to carry out their important digestive functions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 199
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old female presents to her GP with a 3-month history of bloating. She has tried excluding nightshades from her diet which provided some relief but her symptoms persist. Upon further questioning, she reports a lifelong feeling of incomplete bowel emptying after defecation. This symptom was previously investigated with endoscopy and biopsies, but no definitive diagnosis was made.
Additionally, she reports the presence of mucus in her stool and intermittent abdominal pain. She has no significant medical history or regular medications, but does have a peanut allergy. Her mother has coeliac disease and her father has type 2 diabetes which is managed with insulin.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects many people. To diagnose IBS, a patient must have experienced abdominal pain, bloating, or a change in bowel habit for at least six months. A positive diagnosis of IBS is made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to two of the following four symptoms: altered stool passage, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, and passage of mucus. Other features such as lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis.
It is important to enquire about red flag features such as rectal bleeding, unexplained/unintentional weight loss, family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and onset after 60 years of age. Primary care investigations such as a full blood count, ESR/CRP, and coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) are suggested. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published clinical guidelines on the diagnosis and management of IBS in 2008 to help healthcare professionals provide the best care for patients with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 200
Incorrect
-
An 83-year-old man visits his GP complaining of weight loss and a change in bowel habit that has been ongoing for the past 6 months. Following a colonoscopy and biopsy, he is diagnosed with a malignancy of the transverse colon. The transverse colon is connected to the posterior abdominal wall by a double fold of the peritoneum. Which other organ is also attached to similar double folds of the peritoneum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The stomach
Explanation:The mesentery is present in the stomach and the first part of the duodenum as they are intraperitoneal structures.
In the abdomen, organs are categorized as either intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal. The intraperitoneal organs include the stomach, spleen, liver, bulb of the duodenum, jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. The retroperitoneal organs include the remaining part of the duodenum, the cecum and ascending colon, the descending colon, the pancreas, and the kidneys.
The peritoneum has different functions in the abdomen and can be classified accordingly. It is called a mesentery when it anchors organs to the posterior abdominal wall and a ligament when it connects two different organs. The lesser and greater curvatures of the stomach have folds known as the lesser and greater omenta.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)