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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and vomiting. He reports not having a bowel movement for the past five days.

      His medical history includes a ruptured appendix three years ago. There is no significant medical or family history.

      During the examination, you observe abdominal distension and tinkling bowel sounds.

      An abdominal X-ray shows dilated loops of small bowel.

      What is the leading cause of the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Adhesions

      Explanation:

      The leading cause of small bowel obstruction is adhesions, which can occur due to previous abdominal surgery and cause internal surfaces to stick together. An abdominal X-ray showing dilated small bowel loops is a common indicator of this condition. While a hernia can also cause small bowel obstruction, it is less likely in this case due to the patient’s surgical history. Intussusception is rare in adults and more commonly seen in young children. Malignancy is a less common cause of small bowel obstruction, especially in patients without risk factors or demographic factors that suggest a higher likelihood of cancer.

      Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common causes of this condition are adhesions resulting from previous surgeries and hernias. Symptoms include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first imaging test used to diagnose small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early stages of obstruction. Management involves NBM, IV fluids, and a nasogastric tube with free drainage. Conservative management may be effective for some patients, but surgery is often necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      87.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of indigestion that has persisted for...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of indigestion that has persisted for the last three months. He has a medical history of hypertension and is a heavy smoker with a 50-pack-year history. He also consumes three glasses of wine on weeknights. Upon referral to a gastroenterologist, a lower oesophageal and stomach biopsy is performed, revealing metaplastic columnar epithelium. What is the primary factor that has contributed to the development of this histological finding?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus is diagnosed in this patient based on the presence of metaplastic columnar epithelium in the oesophageal epithelium. The most significant risk factor for the development of Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD). While age is also a risk factor, it is not as strong as GORD. Alcohol consumption is not associated with Barrett’s oesophagus, but it is a risk factor for squamous cell oesophageal carcinoma. Infection with Helicobacter pylori is not linked to Barrett’s oesophagus, and it may even reduce the risk of GORD and Barrett’s oesophagus. Smoking is associated with both GORD and Barrett’s oesophagus, but the strength of this association is not as significant as that of GORD.

      Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.

      The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.

      The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      50.3
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old male with an indirect inguinal hernia is scheduled for laparoscopic inguinal...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with an indirect inguinal hernia is scheduled for laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair. While performing the laparoscopy, the surgeon comes across various structures surrounding the inguinal canal. What is the structure that creates the anterior boundaries of the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Correct Answer: Aponeurosis of external oblique

      Explanation:

      The aponeurosis of the external oblique forms the anterior boundaries of the inguinal canal. In males, the inguinal canal serves as the pathway for the testes to descend from the abdominal wall into the scrotum.

      To remember the boundaries of the inguinal canal, the mnemonic MALT: 2Ms, 2As, 2Ls, 2Ts can be used. Starting from superior and moving around in order to posterior, the order can be remembered using the mnemonic SALT (superior, anterior, lower (floor), posterior).

      The superior wall (roof) is formed by the internal oblique muscle and transverse abdominis muscle. The anterior wall is formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique and aponeurosis of the internal oblique. The lower wall (floor) is formed by the inguinal ligament and lacunar ligament. The posterior wall is formed by the transversalis fascia and conjoint tendon.

      The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      15.8
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  • Question 4 - A 57-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of urinary sepsis. He reports experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of urinary sepsis. He reports experiencing left iliac fossa pain repeatedly over the past few months and has noticed bubbles in his urine. A CT scan reveals a large inflammatory mass in the left iliac fossa, with no other abnormalities detected. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Ulcerative colitis
      12%

      Crohn's disease
      11%

      Mesenteric ischemia
      11%

      Diverticular disease
      53%

      Rectal cancer
      13%

      Explanation:

      Recurrent diverticulitis can lead to the formation of local abscesses that may erode into the bladder, resulting in urinary sepsis and pneumaturia. This presentation would be atypical for Crohn's disease, and rectal cancer would typically be located more distally, with evidence of extra colonic disease present if the cancer were advanced.

      Your Answer: Diverticular disease

      Explanation:

      Colovesical fistula is frequently caused by diverticular disease.

      Repeated episodes of diverticulitis can lead to the formation of abscesses in the affected area. These abscesses may then erode into the bladder, causing urinary sepsis and pneumaturia. This presentation would be atypical for Crohn’s disease, and rectal cancer typically occurs in a more distal location. Additionally, if the case were malignant, there would likely be evidence of extra colonic disease and advanced progression.

      Understanding Diverticular Disease

      Diverticular disease is a common condition that involves the protrusion of the colon’s mucosa through its muscular wall. This typically occurs between the taenia coli, where vessels penetrate the muscle to supply the mucosa. Symptoms of diverticular disease include altered bowel habits, rectal bleeding, and abdominal pain. Complications can arise, such as diverticulitis, haemorrhage, fistula development, perforation and faecal peritonitis, abscess formation, and diverticular phlegmon.

      To diagnose diverticular disease, patients may undergo a colonoscopy, CT cologram, or barium enema. However, it can be challenging to rule out cancer, especially in diverticular strictures. Acutely unwell surgical patients require a systematic investigation, including plain abdominal films and an erect chest x-ray to identify perforation. An abdominal CT scan with oral and intravenous contrast can help identify acute inflammation and local complications.

      Treatment for diverticular disease includes increasing dietary fibre intake and managing mild attacks with antibiotics. Peri colonic abscesses require drainage, either surgically or radiologically. Recurrent episodes of acute diverticulitis requiring hospitalisation may indicate a segmental resection. Hinchey IV perforations, which involve generalised faecal peritonitis, require a resection and usually a stoma. This group has a high risk of postoperative complications and typically requires HDU admission. Less severe perforations may be managed by laparoscopic washout and drain insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      22.2
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  • Question 5 - Which of these lesions is most closely associated with Barrett's esophagus? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these lesions is most closely associated with Barrett's esophagus?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Adenocarcinoma is strongly linked to Barretts oesophagus, which elevates the risk of developing the condition by 30 times.

      Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus. The most common presenting symptom is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss, vomiting, and other possible features such as odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, and cough.

      To diagnose oesophageal cancer, upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is used, and endoscopic ultrasound is preferred for locoregional staging. CT scanning of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is used for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT may be used for detecting occult metastases if metastases are not seen on the initial staging CT scans. Laparoscopy is sometimes performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.

      Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. In addition to surgical resection, many patients will be treated with adjuvant chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      6.2
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old male presents with suspected ureteric colic. Where is the stone most...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presents with suspected ureteric colic. Where is the stone most likely to be visualized on a KUB style x-ray?

      Your Answer: The tips of the transverse processes between L2 and L5

      Explanation:

      The stones in the ureter can be seen at the anterior of L2 to L5, as well as over the sacro-iliac joints.

      Anatomy of the Ureter

      The ureter is a muscular tube that measures 25-35 cm in length and is lined by transitional epithelium. It is surrounded by a thick muscular coat that becomes three muscular layers as it crosses the bony pelvis. This retroperitoneal structure overlies the transverse processes L2-L5 and lies anterior to the bifurcation of iliac vessels. The blood supply to the ureter is segmental and includes the renal artery, aortic branches, gonadal branches, common iliac, and internal iliac. It is important to note that the ureter lies beneath the uterine artery.

      In summary, the ureter is a vital structure in the urinary system that plays a crucial role in transporting urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Its unique anatomy and blood supply make it a complex structure that requires careful consideration in any surgical or medical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      23.4
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic for a follow-up of her...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic for a follow-up of her COPD. She informs the healthcare provider that she has quit smoking, resulting in fewer COPD exacerbations, none of which required hospitalization. However, she has observed a slight increase in her weight and swelling in her ankles.

      During the physical examination, the patient's weight is noted to be 76kg, up from her previous weight of 72kg. The healthcare provider listens to her heart and lungs and detects normal breath and heart sounds. The patient has bilateral edema that extends up to her mid-calves.

      What other examination findings may be evident, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Smooth hepatomegaly

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that they have developed cor pulmonale due to COPD, resulting in right-sided heart failure. On examination, signs of fluid congestion such as peripheral edema, raised jugular venous pressure (JVP), ascites, and hepatomegaly may be present. Therefore, the most likely finding would be an enlarged liver with a firm, smooth, tender, and pulsatile edge.

      Caput medusae, which refers to the swelling of superficial veins in the epigastric area, is unlikely to occur in a new presentation of cor pulmonale.

      Narrow pulse pressure is a characteristic of aortic stenosis, which causes left ventricular dysfunction. However, this patient only shows signs of right-sided heart failure.

      A palpable thrill, which indicates turbulent flow across a heart valve, may be felt in severe valvular disease that causes left ventricular dysfunction. Murmurs are often present in valvular disease, but not in this patient’s case.

      Reverse splitting of the second heart sound may occur in aortic stenosis or left bundle branch block, which can cause left ventricular dysfunction.

      Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes

      Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly. In this case, the liver edge is hard and irregular. Right heart failure can also lead to an enlarged liver, which is firm, smooth, and tender. It may even be pulsatile.

      Aside from these common causes, hepatomegaly can also be caused by viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis.

      Understanding the causes of hepatomegaly is important in diagnosing and treating the underlying condition. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      553.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Surgical occlusion of which of these structures will cause the most significant decrease...

    Correct

    • Surgical occlusion of which of these structures will cause the most significant decrease in hepatic blood flow?

      Your Answer: Portal vein

      Explanation:

      The contents of the portal vein consist of digested products. Sinusoids distribute arterial and venous blood to the central veins of the liver lobules, which then empty into the hepatic veins and ultimately into the IVC. Unlike other hepatic veins, the caudate lobe directly drains into the IVC.

      Structure and Relations of the Liver

      The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.

      The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.

      The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      11.9
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  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abrupt abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abrupt abdominal pain. He reports the pain as cramping, with a severity of 6/10, and spread throughout his abdomen. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He used to smoke and has a smoking history of 40 pack years.

      What is the most probable part of the colon affected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      Ischaemic colitis frequently affects the splenic flexure, which is a vulnerable area due to its location at the border of regions supplied by different arteries. Symptoms such as cramping and generalised abdominal pain, along with a history of smoking and hypertension, suggest a diagnosis of ischaemic colitis. While the rectosigmoid junction is also a watershed area, it is less commonly affected than the splenic flexure. Other regions of the large bowel are less susceptible to ischaemic colitis.

      Understanding Ischaemic Colitis

      Ischaemic colitis is a condition that occurs when there is a temporary reduction in blood flow to the large bowel. This can cause inflammation, ulcers, and bleeding. The condition is more likely to occur in areas of the bowel that are located at the borders of the territory supplied by the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries, such as the splenic flexure.

      When investigating ischaemic colitis, doctors may look for a sign called thumbprinting on an abdominal x-ray. This occurs due to mucosal edema and hemorrhage. It is important to diagnose and treat ischaemic colitis promptly to prevent complications and ensure a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      96.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Sarah, a 70-year-old female, visits her doctor with a lump in her groin....

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 70-year-old female, visits her doctor with a lump in her groin. Upon examination, the doctor observes that the lump becomes more prominent when the patient coughs. Considering Sarah's age and the location of the lump, the doctor diagnoses her with a direct inguinal hernia. What structure did Sarah's bowel pass through to be classified as a direct inguinal hernia?

      Your Answer: Processus vaginalis

      Correct Answer: Hesselbach's triangle

      Explanation:

      Hesselbach’s triangle is a weak area in the anterior abdominal wall through which direct inguinal hernias can travel. Indirect inguinal hernias occur when the bowel passes through the inguinal canal via the deep inguinal ring. Femoral hernias occur when a portion of the bowel enters the femoral canal through the femoral ring. The failure of the processus vaginalis to close during embryonic development increases the risk of developing an indirect inguinal hernia.

      Hesselbach’s Triangle and Direct Hernias

      Hesselbach’s triangle is an anatomical region located in the lower abdomen. It is bordered by the epigastric vessels on the superolateral side, the lateral edge of the rectus muscle medially, and the inguinal ligament inferiorly. This triangle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of direct hernias, which pass through this region.

      To better understand the location of direct hernias, it is essential to know the boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle. The epigastric vessels are located on the upper and outer side of the triangle, while the lateral edge of the rectus muscle is on the inner side. The inguinal ligament forms the lower boundary of the triangle.

      In medical exams, it is common to test the knowledge of Hesselbach’s triangle and its boundaries. Understanding this region is crucial for identifying and treating direct hernias, which can cause discomfort and other complications. By knowing the location of Hesselbach’s triangle, medical professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with direct hernias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      13.7
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  • Question 11 - As an observer in the colorectal surgical department, you spend a morning watching...

    Incorrect

    • As an observer in the colorectal surgical department, you spend a morning watching a colonoscopy list. A number of patients who arrive during the morning are individuals with Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC), who are being screened to detect any early signs of colorectal cancer. What is the lifetime risk of developing colorectal cancer for individuals with this condition?

      Your Answer: 30%

      Correct Answer: 90%

      Explanation:

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      18.4
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old male patient is diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. What is the...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male patient is diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. What is the source of gastric acid secretion?

      Your Answer: Parietal cells

      Explanation:

      Gastric acid is released by parietal cells, while Brunner’s glands are located in the duodenum.

      Understanding Gastric Secretions for Surgical Procedures

      A basic understanding of gastric secretions is crucial for surgeons, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Gastric acid, produced by the parietal cells in the stomach, has a pH of around 2 and is maintained by the H+/K+ ATPase pump. Sodium and chloride ions are actively secreted from the parietal cell into the canaliculus, creating a negative potential across the membrane. Carbonic anhydrase forms carbonic acid, which dissociates, and the hydrogen ions formed by dissociation leave the cell via the H+/K+ antiporter pump. This leaves hydrogen and chloride ions in the canaliculus, which mix and are secreted into the lumen of the oxyntic gland.

      There are three phases of gastric secretion: the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase. The cephalic phase is stimulated by the smell or taste of food and causes 30% of acid production. The gastric phase, which is caused by stomach distension, low H+, or peptides, causes 60% of acid production. The intestinal phase, which is caused by high acidity, distension, or hypertonic solutions in the duodenum, inhibits gastric acid secretion via enterogastrones and neural reflexes.

      The regulation of gastric acid production involves various factors that increase or decrease production. Factors that increase production include vagal nerve stimulation, gastrin release, and histamine release. Factors that decrease production include somatostatin, cholecystokinin, and secretin. Understanding these factors and their associated pharmacology is essential for surgeons.

      In summary, a working knowledge of gastric secretions is crucial for surgical procedures, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Understanding the phases of gastric secretion and the regulation of gastric acid production is essential for successful surgical outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      10.7
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old female has received a pan proctocolectomy and ileoanal pouch due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female has received a pan proctocolectomy and ileoanal pouch due to familial adenomatous polyposis coli. What is the most frequent non-colonic manifestation of this condition?

      Your Answer: Skull osteomas

      Correct Answer: Duodenal polyps

      Explanation:

      Polyposis syndromes are a group of genetic disorders that cause the development of multiple polyps in the colon and other parts of the gastrointestinal tract. These polyps can increase the risk of developing cancer, and therefore, early detection and management are crucial. There are several types of polyposis syndromes, each with its own genetic defect, features, and associated disorders.

      Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is characterized by the development of over 100 colonic adenomas, with a 100% risk of cancer. Screening and management involve regular colonoscopies and resectional surgery if polyps are found. FAP is also associated with gastric and duodenal polyps and abdominal desmoid tumors.

      MYH-associated polyposis is caused by a biallelic mutation of the MYH gene and is associated with multiple colonic polyps and an increased risk of right-sided cancers. Attenuated phenotype can be managed with regular colonoscopies, while resection and ileoanal pouch reconstruction are recommended for those with multiple polyps.

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is caused by a mutation in the STK11 gene and is characterized by multiple benign intestinal hamartomas, episodic obstruction, and an increased risk of GI cancers. Screening involves annual examinations and pan-intestinal endoscopy every 2-3 years.

      Cowden disease is caused by a mutation in the PTEN gene and is characterized by macrocephaly, multiple intestinal hamartomas, and an increased risk of cancer at any site. Targeted individualized screening is recommended, with extra surveillance for breast, thyroid, and uterine cancers.

      HNPCC (Lynch syndrome) is caused by germline mutations of DNA mismatch repair genes and is associated with an increased risk of colorectal, endometrial, and gastric cancers. Colonoscopies every 1-2 years from age 25 and consideration of prophylactic surgery are recommended, along with extra colonic surveillance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      39.6
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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe back pain and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe back pain and no medical history except for a penicillin allergy. Following an MRI, she is diagnosed with osteomyelitis and prescribed a 6-week course of two antibiotics. However, a few days into treatment, she reports abdominal pain and diarrhea. Stool samples reveal the presence of Clostridium difficile toxins, leading to a diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis. Which antibiotic is the most likely culprit for causing the C. difficile colitis?

      Your Answer: Clindamycin

      Explanation:

      The use of clindamycin as a treatment is linked to a significant risk of developing C. difficile infection. This antibiotic is commonly associated with Clostridium difficile colitis. Doxycycline has the potential to cause sensitivity to sunlight and birth defects, while trimethoprim can lead to high levels of potassium in the blood and is also harmful to developing fetuses. Vancomycin, on the other hand, can cause red man syndrome and is among the medications used to treat Clostridium difficile colitis.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of haematemesis. He appears...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of haematemesis. He appears unkempt and emits a strong odour of alcohol. During the examination, the physician notes the presence of palmar erythema, spider naevi, and jaundiced sclera. The patient's vital signs indicate tachycardia and tachypnea, with a blood pressure of 90/55 mmHg. What is the probable reason for the patient's haematemesis?

      Your Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal varices

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting signs of shock, possibly due to hypovolemia caused by significant blood loss from variceal bleeding. The patient’s physical examination reveals indications of chronic liver disease, making oesophageal varices the most probable cause of the bleeding. Mallory-Weiss tear, which causes painful episodes of haematemesis, usually occurs after repeated forceful vomiting, but there is no evidence of vomiting in this patient. Peptic ulcers typically affect older patients with abdominal pain and those taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

      Less Common Oesophageal Disorders

      Plummer-Vinson syndrome is a condition characterized by a triad of dysphagia, glossitis, and iron-deficiency anaemia. Dysphagia is caused by oesophageal webs, which are thin membranes that form in the oesophagus. Treatment for this condition includes iron supplementation and dilation of the webs.

      Mallory-Weiss syndrome is a disorder that occurs when severe vomiting leads to painful mucosal lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction, resulting in haematemesis. This condition is common in alcoholics.

      Boerhaave syndrome is a severe disorder that occurs when severe vomiting leads to oesophageal rupture. This condition requires immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      29.6
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  • Question 16 - A 20-year-old woman currently completing her exams presents to her GP with fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman currently completing her exams presents to her GP with fatigue and generalised weakness. She has also noted that her skin and the whites of her eyes appear yellow. The GP suspects the patient may have Gilbert’s syndrome and orders liver function tests to determine the patient’s baseline liver function. The GP advises the patient that no treatment is necessary for this condition.

      Reference range
      Bilirubin 3 - 17 µmol/L
      ALP 30 - 100 u/L
      ALT 3 - 40 u/L
      γGT 8 - 60 u/L
      Albumin 35 - 50 g/L
      LDH 100 - 190 U/L

      What set of results would be expected from this patient?

      Your Answer: Bilirubin 20 umol/l, ALT 300 U/L, LDH 200 U/L, GGT 25 U/L

      Correct Answer: Bilirubin 40 umol/l, ALT 15 U/L, LDH 160 U/L, GGT 25 U/L

      Explanation:

      Jaundice becomes visible when bilirubin levels exceed 35 umol/l. Therefore, the correct option is the one with a bilirubin level of 40 umol/l, as this is typically the range where jaundice becomes visible. Furthermore, all other liver function values in this option are within the normal range. The other options are incorrect because they have bilirubin levels that are too low to cause visible jaundice, and the liver function results are usually normal in cases of Gilbert’s syndrome.

      Understanding Bilirubin and Its Role in Jaundice

      Bilirubin is a chemical by-product that is produced when red blood cells break down heme, a component found in these cells. This chemical is also found in other hepatic heme-containing proteins like myoglobin. The heme is processed within macrophages and oxidized to form biliverdin and iron. Biliverdin is then reduced to form unconjugated bilirubin, which is released into the bloodstream.

      Unconjugated bilirubin is bound to albumin in the blood and then taken up by hepatocytes, where it is conjugated to make it water-soluble. From there, it is excreted into bile and enters the intestines to be broken down by intestinal bacteria. Bacterial proteases produce urobilinogen from bilirubin within the intestinal lumen, which is further processed by intestinal bacteria to form urobilin and stercobilin and excreted via the faeces. A small amount of bilirubin re-enters the portal circulation to be finally excreted via the kidneys in urine.

      Jaundice occurs when bilirubin levels exceed 35 umol/l. Raised levels of unconjugated bilirubin may occur due to haemolysis, while hepatocyte defects, such as a compromised hepatocyte uptake of unconjugated bilirubin and/or defective conjugation, may occur in liver disease or deficiency of glucuronyl transferase. Raised levels of conjugated bilirubin can result from defective excretion of bilirubin, for example, Dubin-Johnson Syndrome, or cholestasis.

      Cholestasis can result from a wide range of pathologies, which can be largely divided into physical causes, for example, gallstones, pancreatic and cholangiocarcinoma, or functional causes, for example, drug-induced, pregnancy-related and postoperative cholestasis. Understanding bilirubin and its role in jaundice is important in diagnosing and treating various liver and blood disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      46.2
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following illnesses is not regarded as a risk factor for...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following illnesses is not regarded as a risk factor for stomach cancer?

      Your Answer: Patient with polyp showing medium grade dysplasia

      Correct Answer: Long term therapy with H2 blockers

      Explanation:

      Currently, the use of H2 blockers does not appear to increase the risk of gastric cancer, unlike certain acid lowering procedures that do.

      Gastric cancer is a relatively uncommon type of cancer, accounting for only 2% of all cancer diagnoses in developed countries. It is more prevalent in older individuals, with half of patients being over the age of 75, and is more common in males than females. Several risk factors have been identified, including Helicobacter pylori infection, atrophic gastritis, certain dietary habits, smoking, and blood group. Symptoms of gastric cancer can include abdominal pain, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, and dysphagia. In some cases, lymphatic spread may result in the appearance of nodules in the left supraclavicular lymph node or periumbilical area. Diagnosis is typically made through oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy with biopsy, and staging is done using CT. Treatment options depend on the extent and location of the cancer and may include endoscopic mucosal resection, partial or total gastrectomy, and chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 79-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain that has been present for 2 days. The pain started gradually and has been constant without radiation. She denies any history of blood in her stool.

      Upon assessment, her blood pressure is 124/78 mmHg, heart rate 80 beats per minute, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, temperature 38.1ºC, and spO2 98%.

      During the physical examination, the patient experiences pain when the left iliac fossa is superficially palpated.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Appendicitis

      Correct Answer: Diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of left lower quadrant pain and low-grade fever in an elderly patient is diverticulitis. Treatment for mild cases may include oral antibiotics, a liquid diet, and pain relief. Acute mesenteric ischemia, appendicitis, and ischemic colitis are less likely causes of these symptoms in an elderly patient.

      Understanding Diverticulitis

      Diverticulitis is a condition where an out-pouching of the intestinal mucosa becomes infected. This out-pouching is called a diverticulum and the presence of these pouches is known as diverticulosis. Diverticula are common and are thought to be caused by increased pressure in the colon. They usually occur in the sigmoid colon and are more prevalent in Westerners over the age of 60. While only a quarter of people with diverticulosis experience symptoms, 75% of those who do will have an episode of diverticulitis.

      Risk factors for diverticulitis include age, lack of dietary fiber, obesity (especially in younger patients), and a sedentary lifestyle. Patients with diverticular disease may experience intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Those with acute diverticulitis may experience severe abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, changes in bowel habits, and urinary symptoms. Complications may include colovesical or colovaginal fistulas.

      Signs of diverticulitis include low-grade fever, tachycardia, tender lower left quadrant of the abdomen, and possibly a palpable mass. Imaging tests such as an erect chest X-ray, abdominal X-ray, and CT scan may be used to diagnose diverticulitis. Treatment may involve oral antibiotics, a liquid diet, and analgesia for mild cases. More severe cases may require hospitalization for intravenous antibiotics. Colonoscopy should be avoided initially due to the risk of perforation.

      In summary, diverticulitis is a common condition that can cause significant discomfort and complications. Understanding the risk factors, symptoms, and signs of diverticulitis can help with early diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      35.9
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  • Question 19 - Which one of the following statements relating to the greater omentum is false?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements relating to the greater omentum is false?

      Your Answer: It contains the gastroepiploic arteries.

      Correct Answer: It has no relationship to the lesser sac.

      Explanation:

      This area is linked to the transverse colon and the lesser sac, and is often accessed during a colonic resection. It is also frequently affected by metastasis in various types of visceral cancers.

      The Omentum: A Protective Structure in the Abdomen

      The omentum is a structure in the abdomen that invests the stomach and is divided into two parts: the greater and lesser omentum. The greater omentum is attached to the lower lateral border of the stomach and contains the gastro-epiploic arteries. It varies in size and is less developed in children. However, it plays an important role in protecting against visceral perforation, such as in cases of appendicitis.

      The lesser omentum is located between the omentum and transverse colon, providing a potential entry point into the lesser sac. Malignant processes can affect the omentum, with ovarian cancer being the most notable. Overall, the omentum is a crucial structure in the abdomen that serves as a protective barrier against potential injuries and diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      17.6
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following characteristics is atypical for Crohn's disease? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following characteristics is atypical for Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer: Pseudopolyps on colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Pseudopolyps manifest in ulcerative colitis as a result of extensive mucosal ulceration. The remaining patches of mucosa can resemble individual polyps.

      Understanding Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.

      Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 21 - Sophie presents acutely to the hospital with severe epigastric pain that is radiating...

    Correct

    • Sophie presents acutely to the hospital with severe epigastric pain that is radiating to the back, nausea and vomiting. Upon questioning, she has suffered from several episodes of biliary colic in the past. A blood test reveals a lipase level of 1000U/L.

      What is the underlying pathophysiology of Sophie's condition?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic enzymes released as a result of inflammation autodigest the pancreatic tissue

      Explanation:

      The cause of acute pancreatitis is the autodigestion of pancreatic tissue by pancreatic enzymes, which results in tissue necrosis. The patient is experiencing typical symptoms of acute pancreatitis, including epigastric pain that radiates to the back, nausea, and vomiting. The presence of elevated lipase levels, which are more than three times the upper limit of normal, is also indicative of acute pancreatitis. The patient’s history of biliary colic suggests that gallstones may be the underlying cause of this condition.

      During acute pancreatitis, inflammation of the pancreas triggers the release and activation of pancreatic enzymes, which then begin to digest the pancreatic tissue. This process is known as autodigestion. Autodigestion of fat can lead to tissue necrosis, while autodigestion of blood vessels can cause retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which can be identified by the presence of Grey Turner’s sign and Cullen’s sign.

      Understanding Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The most common symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. Although rare, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may also be present.

      To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life, making it useful for late presentations. Imaging, such as ultrasound or contrast-enhanced CT, may also be necessary to assess the aetiology of the condition.

      Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors indicating severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. However, the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.

      In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is important to diagnose and manage it promptly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 22 - A 23-year-old male patient is diagnosed with appendicitis. During surgery, it is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male patient is diagnosed with appendicitis. During surgery, it is found that the appendix is located retrocaecally and is hard to reach. Which anatomical structure should be divided in this case?

      Your Answer: Mesentery of the caecum

      Correct Answer: Lateral peritoneal attachments of the caecum

      Explanation:

      The most frequent position of the appendix is retrocaecal. Surgeons who have difficulty locating it during surgery can follow the tenia to the caecal pole where the appendix is situated. If it proves challenging to move, cutting the lateral caecal peritoneal attachments (similar to a right hemicolectomy) will enable caecal mobilisation and make the procedure easier.

      Appendix Anatomy and Location

      The appendix is a small, finger-like projection located at the base of the caecum. It can be up to 10cm long and is mainly composed of lymphoid tissue, which can sometimes lead to confusion with mesenteric adenitis. The caecal taenia coli converge at the base of the appendix, forming a longitudinal muscle cover over it. This convergence can aid in identifying the appendix during surgery, especially if it is retrocaecal and difficult to locate. The arterial supply to the appendix comes from the appendicular artery, which is a branch of the ileocolic artery. It is important to note that the appendix is intra-peritoneal.

      McBurney’s Point and Appendix Positions

      McBurney’s point is a landmark used to locate the appendix during physical examination. It is located one-third of the way along a line drawn from the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine to the Umbilicus. The appendix can be found in six different positions, with the retrocaecal position being the most common at 74%. Other positions include pelvic, postileal, subcaecal, paracaecal, and preileal. It is important to be aware of these positions as they can affect the presentation of symptoms and the difficulty of locating the appendix during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      27
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old man with dyspepsia is scheduled for an upper GI endoscopy. During...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with dyspepsia is scheduled for an upper GI endoscopy. During the procedure, an irregular erythematous area is observed protruding proximally from the gastro-oesophageal junction. To confirm a diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus, which of the following cell types must be present in addition to specialised intestinal metaplasia?

      Your Answer: Goblet cell

      Explanation:

      The presence of goblet cells is a requirement for the diagnosis of Barrett’s esophagus.

      Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.

      The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.

      The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      19
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  • Question 24 - A 49-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of colicky abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of colicky abdominal pain. She states that she has been having on-and-off pain in the upper right quadrant for the past few months, especially after consuming fatty foods.

      Which cells are accountable for generating the hormone linked to this presentation?

      Your Answer: B cells

      Correct Answer: I cells

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is I cells, which are located in the upper small intestine. This patient’s symptoms are consistent with biliary colic, which occurs when the gallbladder contracts against an obstruction, typically a gallstone. Fatty foods stimulate the production of cholecystokinin (CCK) from the I cells in the duodenum, which promotes gallbladder contractility and the release of bile into the small intestine to aid in lipid emulsification.

      B cells are not involved in promoting gallbladder contractility and are instead part of the adaptive immune response. D cells release somatostatin, which decreases insulin production, and are found in the stomach, small intestine, and pancreas. G cells are located in the stomach and secrete gastrin to promote acid secretion by the parietal cells of the stomach.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 25 - A 36-year-old male patient visits the surgical clinic with a suspected direct inguinal...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old male patient visits the surgical clinic with a suspected direct inguinal hernia that is likely to pass through Hesselbach's triangle. What structure forms the medial edge of this triangle?

      Your Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle

      Explanation:

      Although of minimal clinical significance, Hesselbach’s triangle is the pathway for direct inguinal hernias, with the rectus muscle serving as its medial boundary.

      Hesselbach’s Triangle and Direct Hernias

      Hesselbach’s triangle is an anatomical region located in the lower abdomen. It is bordered by the epigastric vessels on the superolateral side, the lateral edge of the rectus muscle medially, and the inguinal ligament inferiorly. This triangle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of direct hernias, which pass through this region.

      To better understand the location of direct hernias, it is essential to know the boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle. The epigastric vessels are located on the upper and outer side of the triangle, while the lateral edge of the rectus muscle is on the inner side. The inguinal ligament forms the lower boundary of the triangle.

      In medical exams, it is common to test the knowledge of Hesselbach’s triangle and its boundaries. Understanding this region is crucial for identifying and treating direct hernias, which can cause discomfort and other complications. By knowing the location of Hesselbach’s triangle, medical professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with direct hernias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      12.5
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  • Question 26 - What is the most frequent type of tumor found in the colon? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent type of tumor found in the colon?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Adenocarcinomas are frequently occurring and usually develop due to the sequence of adenoma leading to carcinoma.

      Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of cancer-related deaths. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      5.9
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about experiencing dark, tarry stools...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about experiencing dark, tarry stools for the past 4 days. She has a medical history of hypertension, which is well controlled with ramipril. Apart from ibuprofen, which she is taking for a recent skiing injury, she is not on any other regular medication. She casually mentions that she has lost some weight but denies having any abdominal pain. She is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 17 units of alcohol per week. On examination, there are no signs of chronic liver disease, but her conjunctiva appears pale. The doctor is concerned and decides to conduct several blood tests.

      Hb 10.1 g/l
      Platelets 202 * 109/l
      WBC 9.2 * 109/l
      Na+ 137 mmol/l
      K+ 4.1 mmol/l
      Urea 34 mmol/l
      Creatinine 105 µmol/l

      What is the most probable reason for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer

      Explanation:

      An upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed can lead to the formation of melaena, which is characterized by the passage of dark and tarry stool through the digestive tract. Peptic ulcer is a frequent cause of upper GI bleed, particularly in patients who have identifiable risk factors such as the use of NSAIDs, as seen in this patient.

      The blood tests reveal an elevated urea level without an increase in creatinine, which is a typical presentation in an upper GI bleed. Additionally, the presence of anemia is also suggestive of a bleed.

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The main symptoms include haematemesis (vomiting of blood), melena (passage of altered blood per rectum), and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The diagnosis can be determined by identifying the specific features associated with a particular condition, such as stigmata of chronic liver disease for oesophageal varices or abdominal pain for peptic ulcer disease.

      The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes. Oesophageal varices may present with a large volume of fresh blood, while gastric ulcers may cause low volume bleeds that present as iron deficiency anaemia. Duodenal ulcers are usually posteriorly sited and may erode the gastroduodenal artery. Aorto-enteric fistula is a rare but important cause of major haemorrhage associated with high mortality in patients with previous abdominal aortic aneurysm surgery.

      The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation involves ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. Treatment options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery for non-variceal bleeding, while terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients with variceal bleeding. Band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices, and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 28 - A 52-year-old woman visits her primary care physician after her spouse noticed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman visits her primary care physician after her spouse noticed a gradual yellowing of her eyes over the past three days. The patient reports experiencing fatigue and excessive sleepiness for several years, along with occasional bouts of intense itching. She has no significant medical history. Lab tests reveal elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase, IgM antibodies, and anti-mitochondrial antibodies. What is the underlying pathology of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Bile duct inflammation associated with areas of narrowing and sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Interlobular bile duct granulomatous destruction with dense lymphocytic infiltrate

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and laboratory findings suggest a cholestatic disease, specifically primary biliary cholangitis, which is an autoimmune condition of the biliary tract. This disease is more common in middle-aged women and can present with symptoms such as fatigue and pruritus. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis is a metabolic syndrome-related condition characterized by triglyceride accumulation and myofibroblast proliferation, while primary sclerosing cholangitis is characterized by bile duct inflammation and sclerosis. Alcoholic hepatitis is caused by long-term alcohol misuse and is characterized by macrovesicular fatty change, spotty necrosis, and fibrosis.

      Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disorder that affects middle-aged women. It is thought to be an autoimmune condition that damages interlobular bile ducts, causing progressive cholestasis and potentially leading to cirrhosis. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman. It is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Diagnosis involves immunology and imaging tests. Management includes ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine for pruritus, and liver transplantation in severe cases. Complications include cirrhosis, osteomalacia and osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      37
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  • Question 29 - A 38-year-old woman is undergoing a challenging cholecystectomy with significant bleeding. The surgical...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman is undergoing a challenging cholecystectomy with significant bleeding. The surgical team decides to place a vascular clamp horizontally across the front edge of the epiploic foramen. What structure will be blocked by this action?

      Your Answer: Portal vein

      Explanation:

      The portal vein, hepatic artery, and common bile duct are blocked.

      The Epiploic Foramen and its Boundaries

      The epiploic foramen is a small opening in the peritoneum that connects the greater and lesser sacs of the abdomen. It is located posterior to the liver and anterior to the inferior vena cava. The boundaries of the epiploic foramen include the bile duct to the right, the portal vein behind, and the hepatic artery to the left. The inferior boundary is the first part of the duodenum, while the superior boundary is the caudate process of the liver.

      During liver surgery, bleeding can be controlled by performing a Pringles manoeuvre. This involves placing a vascular clamp across the anterior aspect of the epiploic foramen, which occludes the common bile duct, hepatic artery, and portal vein. This technique is useful in preventing excessive bleeding during liver surgery and can help to ensure a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 30 - An 80-year-old male visits his GP with a complaint of blood in his...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old male visits his GP with a complaint of blood in his stool and increased frequency of bowel movements. He has also experienced mild weight loss due to a change in appetite. Upon referral to secondary care, a mass is discovered in his ascending colon. If the mass were to perforate the bowel wall, where would bowel gas most likely accumulate?

      Your Answer: Retroperitoneal space

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that he may have bowel cancer in his ascending colon. As the ascending colon is located behind the peritoneum, a rupture of the colon could lead to the accumulation of gas in the retroperitoneal space.

      Pneumoperitoneum, which is the presence of gas in the peritoneum, is typically caused by a perforated peptic ulcer. On the other hand, subcutaneous emphysema is the trapping of air under the skin layer and is usually associated with chest wall trauma or pneumothorax.

      Air in the intra-mural space refers to the presence of air within the bowel wall and is not likely to occur in cases of perforation. This condition is typically associated with intestinal ischaemia and infarction.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 31 - A 57-year-old-male presents to the clinic with a complaint of a lump in...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old-male presents to the clinic with a complaint of a lump in his stomach. During the examination, a lump is observed on coughing and is located within Hesselbach's triangle. Can you identify the structures that form the borders of this region?

      Your Answer: Inguinal ligament inferiorly, inferior epigastric vessels laterally, lateral border of rectus sheath medially

      Explanation:

      A possible exam question could be related to a patient displaying symptoms indicative of a hernia. Hesselbach’s triangle is the area where a direct inguinal hernia may manifest. Direct hernias are caused by deficiencies or vulnerabilities in the posterior abdominal wall, whereas indirect hernias protrude through the inguinal canal.

      Hesselbach’s Triangle and Direct Hernias

      Hesselbach’s triangle is an anatomical region located in the lower abdomen. It is bordered by the epigastric vessels on the superolateral side, the lateral edge of the rectus muscle medially, and the inguinal ligament inferiorly. This triangle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of direct hernias, which pass through this region.

      To better understand the location of direct hernias, it is essential to know the boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle. The epigastric vessels are located on the upper and outer side of the triangle, while the lateral edge of the rectus muscle is on the inner side. The inguinal ligament forms the lower boundary of the triangle.

      In medical exams, it is common to test the knowledge of Hesselbach’s triangle and its boundaries. Understanding this region is crucial for identifying and treating direct hernias, which can cause discomfort and other complications. By knowing the location of Hesselbach’s triangle, medical professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with direct hernias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      28.2
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  • Question 32 - A 67-year-old woman is currently admitted to the female orthopedic ward following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman is currently admitted to the female orthopedic ward following a left total hip replacement after a femoral neck fracture. The surgery was uncomplicated, and the patient is expected to be discharged in four days. However, in the evening, the patient complains of feeling unwell and experiencing pain in the left hip area. The nurse records her vital signs, which include a pulse rate of 94 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, a blood pressure of 105/63 mmHg, and a temperature of 38.1ºC (100.6 degrees Fahrenheit). The ward doctor suspects a bone infection around the hip prosthesis and initiates treatment with clindamycin while awaiting review by the orthopedic surgeon. The patient's pain and suspected bone infection eventually subside, but after two days, the patient develops severe abdominal pain and diarrhea. What is the most likely causative organism responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Gram-negative, maltose-utilising diplococci

      Correct Answer: Gram-positive anaerobic bacilli

      Explanation:

      Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by the gram-positive bacillus Clostridium difficile, which can overgrow in the intestine following broad-spectrum antibiotic use. A patient recovering from a total hip replacement who develops signs of infection and is treated with clindamycin may develop severe abdominal pain and diarrhea, indicating a diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis. Treatment options include metronidazole or oral vancomycin for more severe cases. Staphylococcus bacteria are gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci that can be differentiated based on coagulase positivity and novobiocin sensitivity. Listeria, Bacillus, and Corynebacterium are gram-positive aerobic bacilli, while Campylobacter jejuni, Vibrio cholerae, and Helicobacter pylori are gram-negative, oxidase-positive comma-shaped rods with specific growth characteristics.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 33 - A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with profuse haematemesis. Upon admission,...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with profuse haematemesis. Upon admission, his vital signs include a temperature of 36.9ºC, oxygen saturation of 94% on air, heart rate of 124 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 82/58 mmHg. An urgent endoscopy was performed to achieve haemostasis, revealing an ulcer on the posterior wall of the duodenum. Which artery is the most likely source of the gastrointestinal bleed?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      Duodenal ulcers on the posterior wall pose a risk to the gastroduodenal artery, which supplies blood to this area. The posterior wall is a common site for duodenal ulcers, and erosion of the ulcer through the duodenal wall can result in severe upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The inferior mesenteric artery, on the other hand, supplies blood to the hindgut (transverse colon, descending colon, and sigmoid colon) and does not include the duodenum. The inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery, which arises from the superior mesenteric artery, supplies the lower part of the duodenum but does not provide the majority of the blood supply to the posterior duodenal wall, which is mainly supplied by the gastroduodenal artery.

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The main symptoms include haematemesis (vomiting of blood), melena (passage of altered blood per rectum), and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The diagnosis can be determined by identifying the specific features associated with a particular condition, such as stigmata of chronic liver disease for oesophageal varices or abdominal pain for peptic ulcer disease.

      The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes. Oesophageal varices may present with a large volume of fresh blood, while gastric ulcers may cause low volume bleeds that present as iron deficiency anaemia. Duodenal ulcers are usually posteriorly sited and may erode the gastroduodenal artery. Aorto-enteric fistula is a rare but important cause of major haemorrhage associated with high mortality in patients with previous abdominal aortic aneurysm surgery.

      The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation involves ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. Treatment options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery for non-variceal bleeding, while terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients with variceal bleeding. Band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices, and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 34 - Samantha, a 52-year-old female, visits her doctor with a lump in her groin...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 52-year-old female, visits her doctor with a lump in her groin that becomes more prominent when she coughs. The lump is not painful, but the doctor notes that it is located inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle during the examination. This leads to a diagnosis of a femoral hernia, where a portion of the bowel has entered the femoral canal and caused a bulge in the femoral triangle, an area in the upper thigh.

      What are the contents of this anatomical region from lateral to medial?

      Your Answer: Femoral nerve, femoral vein, femoral artery, empty space, lymphatics

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, empty space, lymphatics

      Explanation:

      To remember the contents of the femoral triangle from lateral to medial, use the acronym NAVEL: femoral NERVE, femoral ARTERY, femoral VEIN, EMPTY space, and LYMPHATICS. The femoral triangle is located in the anterior thigh and is bordered by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the medial border of the sartorius muscle laterally, and the medial border of the adductor longus muscle medially. A femoral hernia occurs when bowel enters the femoral ring and canal, which are located beneath the inguinal ligament, causing a bulge in the femoral triangle. The femoral nerve is located more laterally than the femoral artery and vein, while the femoral artery is more lateral than the femoral vein.

      Understanding the Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle

      The femoral triangle is an important anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. The floor of the femoral triangle is made up of the iliacus, psoas major, adductor longus, and pectineus muscles, while the roof is formed by the fascia lata and superficial fascia. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the long saphenous vein are also found in this region.

      The femoral triangle contains several important structures, including the femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve, deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral cutaneous nerve, great saphenous vein, and femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid inguinal point, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.

      Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for procedures such as venipuncture, arterial puncture, and nerve blocks. It is also important for identifying and treating conditions that affect the structures within this region, such as femoral hernias and lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 35 - A 27-year-old man presents with fatigue and joint pains for the past 8...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with fatigue and joint pains for the past 8 months. He cannot recall any specific trigger for the symptoms and they have been persistent. During examination, you observe that his skin is quite tanned but no other significant findings are noted.

      The following are his blood test results:

      - Bilirubin: 10 umol/L
      - ALT: 120 IU/L
      - Albumin: 35 g/L
      - Ferritin: 450 mg/mL
      - Transferrin saturation: 70%
      - Random plasma glucose: 17.0 mmol/L

      Afterwards, a genetic test was conducted and returned with positive results. Based on the most probable diagnosis, what is the mode of inheritance for this disease?

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      The probable condition affecting the patient is hereditary haemochromatosis, which is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. The presence of iron overload and abnormal liver function tests are indicative of this diagnosis. Additionally, the patient’s elevated blood glucose levels and skin pigmentation changes may suggest the presence of bronze diabetes.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms and Complications

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to iron accumulation in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is prevalent in people of European descent, with 1 in 10 carrying a mutation in the genes affecting iron metabolism. Early symptoms of haemochromatosis are often non-specific, such as lethargy and arthralgia, and may go unnoticed. However, as the disease progresses, patients may experience fatigue, erectile dysfunction, and skin pigmentation.

      Other complications of haemochromatosis include diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis. While some symptoms are reversible with treatment, such as cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy, liver cirrhosis is irreversible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 36 - A 65-year-old female patient presents to the gastroenterology clinic complaining of recurrent epigastric...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female patient presents to the gastroenterology clinic complaining of recurrent epigastric pain and acid reflux that has not responded to antacids or proton-pump inhibitors. Upon gastroscopy, an ulcer is discovered in the descending duodenum and a tumor is found in the antrum of the stomach. What type of cell is the origin of this tumor?

      Your Answer: G cells

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is synthesized by the G cells located in the antrum of the stomach.

      Based on the symptoms presented, it is probable that the patient has a gastrinoma. This type of tumor produces an excess of gastrin, which stimulates the production of hydrochloric acid, leading to the development of peptic ulcers. Normally, gastrin is secreted by the G cells located in the antrum of the stomach.

      Other cells found in the stomach include S cells, which produce secretin, I cells, which produce CCK, and D cells, which produce somatostatin. However, there is no such cell as an H cell in the stomach.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 37 - A 32-year-old alcoholic woman presents with visible jaundice and confusion and is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old alcoholic woman presents with visible jaundice and confusion and is admitted to the gastroenterology ward. Upon examination, she has a distended tender abdomen with hepatomegaly and shifting dullness. All her observations are within normal limits. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Hb: 121 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      - MCV: 103 g/L (normal range: 82-100 g/L)
      - Bilirubin: 78 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17 µmol/L)
      - ALP: 112 u/L (normal range: 30-100 u/L)
      - ALT: 276 u/L (normal range: 3-40 u/L)
      - AST: 552 u/L (normal range: 3-30 u/L)
      - γGT: 161 u/L (normal range: 8-60 u/L)

      An aspirate of fluid is taken and shows a serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) of 14 g/L. What is the most likely diagnosis that explains the SAAG value in this patient?

      Your Answer: Biliary ascites

      Correct Answer: Portal hypertension

      Explanation:

      Ascites can be diagnosed by measuring the SAAG value, with a high SAAG gradient (>11g/L) indicating the presence of portal hypertension. In the case of a SAAG value of >11g/L, the ascites is considered a transudate and is likely caused by portal hypertension. This is consistent with the patient’s symptoms, which suggest ascites due to alcoholic liver disease leading to liver cirrhosis and portal hypertension. Other potential causes of ascites would result in an exudative picture with a SAAG value of <11g/L. Biliary ascites is a rare consequence of biliary procedures or trauma, and would present with abdominal distension but not hepatomegaly. While bile is sterile, peritonitis is likely to occur, leading to septic symptoms. However, the SAAG value and the patient’s symptoms make biliary ascites less likely. Bowel obstruction is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms, as it would not explain the presence of jaundice. While a distended abdomen may be present, other features of delirium would also be expected. Additionally, a patient with bowel obstruction would report a history of not passing flatus or bowel movements. Nephrotic syndrome would present with oedema, proteinuria, and hypoalbuminaemia, which are not described in the patient’s symptoms. The raised liver enzymes and macrocytic anaemia are more consistent with liver pathology. Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the abdominal cavity. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. If the SAAG level is greater than 11g/L, it indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. Other causes of portal hypertension include cardiac conditions like right heart failure and constrictive pericarditis, as well as infections like tuberculous peritonitis. On the other hand, if the SAAG level is less than 11g/L, ascites may be caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction, and other conditions. The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and sometimes fluid restriction if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone are often prescribed, and loop diuretics may be added if necessary. Therapeutic abdominal paracentesis may be performed for tense ascites, and large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of complications. Prophylactic antibiotics may also be given to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In some cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 38 - A 57-year-old male presents to his GP with a three-month history of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male presents to his GP with a three-month history of abdominal discomfort. He reports feeling bloated all the time, with increased flatulence. He occasionally experiences more severe symptoms, such as profuse malodorous diarrhoea and vomiting.

      Upon examination, the GP notes aphthous ulceration and conjunctival pallor. The patient undergoes several blood tests and is referred for a duodenal biopsy.

      The following test results are returned:

      Hb 110 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      MCV 92 fl (80-100)
      Platelets 320 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 7.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Ferritin 12 ng/mL (20 - 230)
      Vitamin B12 200 ng/L (200 - 900)
      Folate 2.5 nmol/L (> 3.0)

      Transglutaminase IgA antibody 280 u/ml (<100)
      Ca125 18 u/ml (<35)

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what would be the expected finding on biopsy?

      Your Answer: Crypt abscesses

      Correct Answer: Villous atrophy

      Explanation:

      Coeliac disease is characterized by villous atrophy, which leads to malabsorption. This patient’s symptoms are typical of coeliac disease, which can affect both males and females in their 50s. Patients often experience non-specific abdominal discomfort for several months, similar to irritable bowel syndrome, and may not notice correlations between symptoms and specific dietary components like gluten.

      Aphthous ulceration is a common sign of coeliac disease, and patients may also experience nutritional deficiencies such as iron and folate deficiency due to malabsorption. Histology will reveal villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia. Iron and folate deficiency can lead to a normocytic anaemia and conjunctival pallor. Positive anti-transglutaminase antibodies are specific for coeliac disease.

      Ulcerative colitis is characterized by crypt abscess and mucosal ulcers, while Crohn’s disease is associated with non-caseating granulomas and full-thickness inflammation. These inflammatory bowel diseases typically present in patients in their 20s and may have systemic and extraintestinal features. Anti-tTG will not be positive in IBD. Ovarian cancer is an important differential diagnosis for females over 40 with symptoms similar to irritable bowel syndrome.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 39 - The action of which one of the following brush border enzymes leads to...

    Correct

    • The action of which one of the following brush border enzymes leads to the production of glucose and galactose?

      Your Answer: Lactase

      Explanation:

      Enzymes play a crucial role in the breakdown of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal system. Amylase, which is present in both saliva and pancreatic secretions, is responsible for breaking down starch into sugar. On the other hand, brush border enzymes such as maltase, sucrase, and lactase are involved in the breakdown of specific disaccharides. Maltase cleaves maltose into glucose and glucose, sucrase cleaves sucrose into fructose and glucose, while lactase cleaves lactose into glucose and galactose. These enzymes work together to ensure that carbohydrates are broken down into their simplest form for absorption into the bloodstream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 40 - What is the most frequent reason for mesenteric infarction to occur? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent reason for mesenteric infarction to occur?

      Your Answer: Acute embolism affecting the superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Mesenteric infarcts can be caused by various factors such as prolonged atrial fibrillation, ventricular aneurysms, and post myocardial infarction.

      Understanding Mesenteric Vessel Disease

      Mesenteric vessel disease is a condition that affects the blood vessels supplying the intestines. It is primarily caused by arterial embolism, which can result in infarction of the colon. The most common type of mesenteric vessel disease is acute mesenteric embolus, which is characterized by sudden onset abdominal pain followed by profuse diarrhea. Other types include acute on chronic mesenteric ischemia, mesenteric vein thrombosis, and low flow mesenteric infarction.

      Diagnosis of mesenteric vessel disease involves serological tests such as WCC, lactate, CRP, and amylase, as well as CT angiography scanning in the arterial phase with thin slices. Management of the condition depends on the severity of symptoms, with overt signs of peritonism requiring laparotomy and mesenteric vein thrombosis being treated with medical management using IV heparin. In cases where surgery is necessary, limited resection of necrotic bowel may be performed with the aim of relooking laparotomy at 24-48 hours.

      The prognosis for mesenteric vessel disease is generally poor, with the best outlook being for acute ischaemia from an embolic event where surgery occurs within 12 hours. Survival rates may be as high as 50%, but this falls to 30% with treatment delay. It is important to seek medical attention promptly if symptoms of mesenteric vessel disease are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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Gastrointestinal System (22/40) 55%
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