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  • Question 1 - A young couple presents for infertility assessment. The man, a 22-year-old barman, has...

    Incorrect

    • A young couple presents for infertility assessment. The man, a 22-year-old barman, has a history of recurrent upper and lower respiratory tract infections. Review of systems is remarkable for cough and shortness of breath on exertion. He often has copious, foul-smelling sputum, which is occasionally blood-tinged. His bowel habits are normal, except for intermittent constipation for a year. He has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. He has never smoked and drinks alcohol occasionally, on weekends. His vital signs are within normal limits. His nasal mucosa appears congested. There is mild maxillary sinus tenderness on palpation. Scattered wheezing and crackles are noted on lung auscultation. Neurologic and abdominal examinations are otherwise normal. Semen analysis reveals abnormal sperm motility.
      What is the most likely additional finding in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lack of heart sounds on the left chest

      Explanation:

      The patient has Kartagener’s syndrome, a rare congenital condition characterized by ciliary dyskinesia. This leads to sinusitis, situs inversus, and bronchiectasis, resulting in the accumulation of foul-smelling sputum and recurrent infections. Infertility due to sperm immotility is also common. The heart is positioned on the right side of the chest, leading to a lack of heart sounds on the left. Atopic allergy and asthma are not compatible with the patient’s symptoms, which indicate bronchiectasis. Cystic fibrosis is not the diagnosis as it typically presents with azoospermia and malabsorption. α-1-antitrypsin deficiency is associated with liver injury and emphysema but not copious sputum. The combination of haematuria, glomerulonephritis, sinusitis, and haemoptysis would suggest granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), but this diagnosis does not fit the given scenario as it does not involve infertility or bronchiectasis symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old Jewish woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old Jewish woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and found to be BRCA1-positive. What type of cancer is she most susceptible to developing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian cancer

      Explanation:

      BRCA1 and BRCA2 Mutations and Their Association with Cancer

      BRCA1 and BRCA2 are tumour suppressor genes that play a crucial role in repairing damaged DNA and preventing uncontrolled cell division. Mutations in these genes have been linked to an increased risk of developing various types of cancer, including breast, ovarian, prostate, pancreatic, and colorectal cancers. Ashkenazi Jews have a higher incidence of BRCA mutations, and women with a family history of breast cancer can be tested for these mutations. While the risk of breast cancer is high for women with abnormal BRCA-1 or -2, the association between these mutations and cervical, gastric, endometrial, and lung cancers is yet to be established.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 3 - Among the various chromosomal anomalies, which one has the highest incidence of systemic...

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    • Among the various chromosomal anomalies, which one has the highest incidence of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a multisystem autoimmune disease associated with genetic defects in the immune system and triggered by environmental factors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 47,XXY (Klinefelter’s syndrome)

      Explanation:

      Chromosomal Abnormalities and Their Association with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

      Individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome have a 14-fold increased risk of developing SLE compared to those with a normal karyotype, although the exact mechanism for this is unknown. However, there is no evidence to suggest an increased risk of SLE in individuals with Down syndrome, Fragile X syndrome, or Trisomy 18 (Edwards’ syndrome). Bloom syndrome, which is associated with a short stature, skin sensitivity to sun exposure, and an increased risk of malignancies, also does not appear to increase the risk of SLE. It is important to understand the potential associations between chromosomal abnormalities and SLE to better manage and treat patients with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 4 - A 5-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric team by her GP as...

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    • A 5-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric team by her GP as she has had numerous chest infections. The parents also mention that the girl has always had salty tasting skin. On checking the child's growth chart, the GP notices that the child's weight has fallen from the 50th centile at birth to the 9th centile currently. She is concerned that the child may have cystic fibrosis.
      Which of the following statements best describes cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is the most common autosomal recessive inherited disease in white people

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis: Causes, Treatment, and Prognosis

      Cystic fibrosis is a common autosomal recessive disease in white populations, affecting 1 in 2500 live births. It is caused by mutations in the CFTR gene on chromosome 7, leading to a range of symptoms including lung infections, reduced life expectancy, and nutritional deficiencies. While there is no cure for cystic fibrosis, treatment by a specialist multidisciplinary team can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life. This includes regular monitoring of lung function, use of bronchodilators and antibiotics, chest physiotherapy, and nutritional support. In severe cases, lung transplant may be considered. While gene therapy is still in clinical trial stage, recent FDA and EMA approvals of ivacaftor and lumacaftor/ivacaftor offer promising new treatment options. Understanding the causes, treatment, and prognosis of cystic fibrosis is crucial for patients, families, and healthcare providers alike.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 5 - A 6-year-old girl is presenting with swelling of her hands and feet and...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is presenting with swelling of her hands and feet and an abnormally wide neck. Upon karyotyping, it is discovered that she has monosomy X and 45X. During physical examination, mild aortic stenosis is observed. What congenital condition is most likely linked to this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Congenital Heart Defects and Associated Genetic Abnormalities

      Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect that is often associated with Turner syndrome. Specifically, preductal coarctation of the aorta (infantile type) is common in individuals with Turner syndrome, as there is aortic stenosis proximal to the insertion of the ductus arteriosus. Transposition of the great vessels, on the other hand, is not associated with any congenital disease. Tetralogy of Fallot is often seen in individuals with di George syndrome. Postductal coarctation, which refers to the adult type of coarctation of the aorta, is not associated with any genetic abnormalities. Finally, patent ductus arteriosus is not associated with any congenital disease. Understanding the relationship between congenital heart defects and genetic abnormalities can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old man undergoes genetic testing after he develops colorectal cancer at the...

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    • A 35-year-old man undergoes genetic testing after he develops colorectal cancer at the age of 35. His mother also had colorectal cancer at a similar age and died from the disease. He undergoes genetic testing and is found to have classic familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) coli. He has a 3-year-old son.
      If his son has inherited classic FAP and does not undergo prophylactic surgery, what is the likelihood he will develop colon cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Over 90%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) and its Risk of Colon Cancer

      Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) is an inherited disorder that increases the risk of colon cancer. Classic FAP can cause non-cancerous growths (polyps) in the colon as early as the teenage years, which can become cancerous if not removed. The risk of cancer in classic FAP is high, with a 7% chance by age 21 and a 93% chance by age 50. Attenuated FAP is a variant of the disorder with delayed polyp growth and a lower risk of cancer, but still presents a high lifetime risk of 70%. Juvenile polyposis syndrome carries a 40% risk of colon cancer. Inherited colon cancers in general carry a high risk, with most being over 50%. While FAP is responsible for only 1% of all colon cancers, the lifetime risk for those affected by the mutation is almost 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 7 - A 13-year-old boy was hospitalized due to a two-week history of high-grade fever...

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    • A 13-year-old boy was hospitalized due to a two-week history of high-grade fever and bleeding gums. Upon examination of his peripheral blood, an abundance of blasts were observed, some of which displayed Auer rods. Which congenital condition is most strongly linked to this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders and their Association with Leukaemia: A Brief Overview

      Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It can present with symptoms such as unexplained bleeding or bruising, persistent fever, fatigue, and pallor. A full blood count and blood film are essential for diagnosis, with the presence of numerous blasts and Auer rods indicating acute myeloblastic leukaemia (AML). Certain genetic disorders, such as Down syndrome, trisomy 8, and Fanconi anaemia, increase the risk of developing AML.

      Trisomy 18, also known as Edwards’ syndrome, is a chromosomal disorder associated with an extra chromosome 18. It presents with congenital heart disease, intellectual disability, and a low weight at birth, but is not associated with leukaemia. Klinefelter’s syndrome, characterized by an extra X chromosome in males, increases the risk of breast cancer and extragonadal germ cell tumours, but evidence for an association with leukaemia is lacking. Gardner syndrome, a subtype of familial adenomatous polyposis, is associated with the development of multiple polyps in the colon and an increased risk of colorectal cancer, but not leukaemia. Haemophilia, an X-linked recessive condition that impairs clot formation, is not associated with haematological malignancies.

      In summary, certain genetic disorders increase the risk of developing leukaemia, but not all genetic disorders are associated with this type of cancer. It is important to be aware of these associations in order to provide appropriate care and management for patients with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 8 - A preterm baby boy is found to have meconium ileus shortly after birth.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A preterm baby boy is found to have meconium ileus shortly after birth.
      Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with meconium ileus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, including the lungs, liver, pancreas, and small intestine. This condition causes these organs to progressively fail over time, leading to recurrent bacterial infections, bronchiectasis, pulmonary arterial hypertension, meconium ileus, rectal prolapse, cirrhosis, pancreatic insufficiency, oesophageal dysfunction, chronic sinusitis, and nasal polyps. Meconium ileus is a common presenting feature in up to 20% of cases.

      Patau syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that is characterized by congenital heart disease, central nervous system and spinal abnormalities, abnormal facies, and polydactyly. Infants with this syndrome typically do not survive beyond a few days.

      Down syndrome is a common chromosomal disorder that is strongly associated with maternal age. It is characterized by a range of physical features, including a depressed nasal bridge, epicanthic folds, macroglossia, and a single palmar crease. Common associations include congenital heart disease, anal atresia, duodenal atresia, and an increased risk for leukemia. Meconium ileus is also associated with Down syndrome, and about 30% of cases of duodenal atresia have this condition.

      Myelomeningocele is a spinal anomaly that results from a failure of neural folds to fuse dorsally during embryogenesis. This condition is characterized by a skin defect, lower limb paralysis and sensory loss, bladder and bowel dysfunction, and Chiari II malformations of the posterior fossa in over 95% of cases.

      Edward syndrome is a trisomy disorder that is compatible with extrauterine life. It is the second most common trisomy syndrome after Down syndrome and has the highest incidence of major structural anomalies. Common features include congenital heart disease, central nervous system abnormalities, intrauterine growth restriction, rocker-bottom feet, single umbilical artery, and facial abnormalities. Life expectancy is typically about a week. Meconium ileus is also associated with Edward syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 9 - A 5-year old girl is diagnosed with having a genetic condition that is...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year old girl is diagnosed with having a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.
      Of the following diseases, which is best described as being inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders: Causes, Symptoms, and Inheritance Patterns

      Cystic Fibrosis, Von Willebrand’s Disease, Familial Polyposis Coli, Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy, and Haemophilia B are all genetic disorders with distinct causes, symptoms, and inheritance patterns.

      Cystic Fibrosis is the most common autosomal recessive disease in white populations, caused by mutations in the CFTR gene. It affects the respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems, leading to chronic lung infections, malabsorption, and infertility.

      Von Willebrand’s Disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, caused by mutations in the vWF gene. It impairs primary haemostasis, leading to easy bruising, prolonged bleeding after minor trauma, nosebleeds, and menorrhagia.

      Familial Polyposis Coli is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the APC gene. It leads to the formation of hundreds to thousands of polyps throughout the colon and rectum, which can progress to cancer if left untreated.

      Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is X-linked recessive, caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene. It affects mainly males, leading to progressive proximal muscular dystrophy, calf pseudohypertrophy, fatigue, difficulty with motor skills, and reduced life expectancy.

      Haemophilia B is X-linked recessive, caused by a mutation in the factor IX gene. It leads to problems with haemostasis, causing haemorrhage into the joints, severe bleeding following minor trauma or procedures, and oral bleeding.

      Understanding the causes, symptoms, and inheritance patterns of genetic disorders is crucial for early diagnosis, management, and genetic counselling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year old teacher is found to have a medical condition that follows...

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    • A 35-year old teacher is found to have a medical condition that follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern.
      Which of the following illnesses is most accurately characterized as being inherited in an autosomal dominant manner?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia

      Explanation:

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia is a single gene disorder inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. Mutations in genes such as LDLR, Apo, and PCSK9 affect cholesterol handling in the body. Patients with mutations in the LDLR gene produce a defective receptor that cannot bind LDLs, leading to cholesterol accumulation outside cells and atherosclerosis. Heterozygotes are at risk of developing premature cardiovascular disease, while homozygotes can develop severe cardiovascular disease in childhood. Hereditary haemochromatosis is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with mutations occurring in the HFE gene. The C282Y mutation accounts for 90% of cases and causes increased iron absorption, leading to iron overload. Wilson’s disease is also inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with mutations in the ATP7B gene causing copper accumulation in the liver, brain, and other tissues. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a mutation in the β globin gene, leading to sickled red cells that block circulation and cause tissue oxygen deficiency. Cystic fibrosis is caused by mutations in the CFTR gene, inhibiting the flow of chloride ions and water and leading to thickened mucous that blocks hollow organs and provides a favorable environment for bacterial growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old woman is pregnant with her first child. She is offered screening...

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    • A 40-year-old woman is pregnant with her first child. She is offered screening for chromosomal abnormalities and an ultrasound assessment. She decides to proceed with testing, which assesses nuchal thickness, pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A), free beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG) and crown–rump length. She is told the pregnancy is high risk for Down syndrome, and she and her partner are offered an amniocentesis.
      Which one of the following statements regarding amniocentesis is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is associated with an increased risk of fetal limb defects

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risks and Limitations of Amniocentesis

      Amniocentesis is a medical procedure that involves the extraction of amniotic fluid from the uterus of a pregnant woman. While it is a commonly used diagnostic tool, there are several risks and limitations associated with the procedure that should be taken into consideration.

      One of the risks associated with amniocentesis is an increased risk of fetal limb defects. Additionally, there is a small chance of fetal injury due to trauma from the needle. While amniocentesis is estimated to be approximately 80% accurate, it cannot test for every birth defect, and in some cases, a conclusive result may not be possible.

      Perhaps the most significant risk associated with amniocentesis is the chance of miscarriage, which is estimated to be between 10-20%. However, the risk of miscarriage is lower for operators who perform the procedure frequently. It is also important to note that amniocentesis should be performed after week 15, as early procedures are associated with pregnancy loss, fetal talipes, and respiratory morbidity.

      Finally, it is worth noting that amniocentesis is typically carried out before week 10, as there is an increased risk of cell culture failure before this time. Overall, while amniocentesis can be a valuable diagnostic tool, it is essential to understand the risks and limitations associated with the procedure before making a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 12 - A child is born with a genetic condition that is inherited in an...

    Incorrect

    • A child is born with a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. The parents are informed of this. What is the most likely condition that the child has?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Inherited Genetic Disorders: Myotonic Dystrophy, Homocystinuria, Sickle-Cell Anaemia, Phenylketonuria, and Cystic Fibrosis

      Myotonic dystrophy, homocystinuria, sickle-cell anaemia, phenylketonuria, and cystic fibrosis are all inherited genetic disorders that affect various bodily functions. Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder that causes progressive muscle weakness and loss of muscle mass. Homocystinuria is an autosomal recessive disorder that leads to the accumulation of homocysteine and its metabolites in the blood and urine. Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disorder that causes deformed red blood cells that can block small capillaries and cause pain crises. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive disorder that leads to intellectual disability due to the inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder that affects the chloride ion channel, leading to excessively viscous mucous secretions.

      Although there is no cure for these disorders, early detection and treatment can improve outcomes. Support measures such as leg braces and muscle relaxants can assist with mobility in myotonic dystrophy. Low-protein diets and vitamin supplements can help manage homocystinuria. Pain management and regular monitoring can help manage sickle-cell anaemia. Dietary protein restriction and tyrosine supplementation can help manage phenylketonuria. A multidisciplinary team can provide specialized care for cystic fibrosis patients. It is important to be aware of these inherited genetic disorders and seek medical attention if symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited diseases. Her grandmother experienced difficulty walking at the age of 63, while her mother began to show the same symptoms at the age of 40. What is the genetic mechanism responsible for the earlier age of onset in each generation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anticipation

      Explanation:

      Genetic Phenomena: Anticipation, Mosaicism, Incomplete Penetrance, Genetic Imprinting, and Translocation of a Chromosome

      Genetics is a complex field that involves the study of heredity and the variation of inherited traits. Within this field, there are several genetic phenomena that can occur, each with its own unique characteristics and implications. These phenomena include anticipation, mosaicism, incomplete penetrance, genetic imprinting, and translocation of a chromosome.

      Anticipation refers to inherited conditions that become more severe and have an earlier onset in subsequent generations. This is often associated with trinucleotide repeats of DNA bases, which can expand and lead to an increase in severity. Examples of disorders with anticipation include Huntington’s disease, myotonic dystrophy, and fragile X syndrome.

      Mosaicism is the presence of two cell lines with different genetic compositions within the same individual. This can occur due to errors during cell division and can result in conditions such as mosaic trisomy 21.

      Incomplete penetrance refers to the likelihood of a condition being present in an individual with a certain trait. Incomplete penetrance means that some people who carry a certain trait will have the condition, while others will not. Examples include the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, as well as RB gene mutations.

      Genetic imprinting involves the silencing of one copy of an allele. This can result in conditions such as Angelman and Prader-Willi syndromes, where only one allele is expressed due to the silencing of the other.

      Translocation of a chromosome refers to the exchange of genetic material between non-homologous chromosomes. This can result in conditions such as chronic myeloid leukemia, which is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome resulting from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22.

      Understanding these genetic phenomena is crucial for the diagnosis and treatment of genetic disorders, as well as for advancing our knowledge of genetics as a whole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 14 - An 8-year-old boy comes to you with a history of easy bleeding and...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy comes to you with a history of easy bleeding and bruising, even with minor injuries. His parents are healthy, but his mother reports that her brother also has a bleeding disorder and suspects that other male relatives may be affected. Based on this information, what is the most probable mode of inheritance for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: X-linked recessive

      Explanation:

      Inherited Genetic Disorders: Understanding X-Linked Recessive Inheritance

      X-linked recessive inheritance is a type of genetic inheritance that affects significantly more males than females. This type of inheritance is commonly associated with bleeding disorders such as haemophilia A and B, which are caused by deficiencies in clotting factors VIII and IX respectively. In X-linked recessive inheritance, female carriers are unaffected, but all male offspring that inherit the mutated allele on the X chromosome will be affected.

      A family history of the disease can help identify the mode of inheritance. For example, if a mother is a carrier and her brother has the disease, it is likely that their grandmother was also a carrier. The mother and her brother both inherited the abnormal X chromosome, but the mother is a carrier while the uncle is affected. Similarly, if a male inherits the abnormal X chromosome from his mother, he will be affected by the disease.

      Other types of genetic inheritance include Y-linked, autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, and X-linked dominant. Examples of Y-linked inherited conditions include male infertility, retinitis pigmentosa, and hypertrichosis pinnae. Autosomal dominant conditions include Marfan syndrome, achondroplasia, and osteogenesis imperfecta. Autosomal recessive conditions include CF, Wilson’s disease, and haemochromatosis. Examples of X-linked dominant conditions include Rett syndrome, fragile X syndrome, and vitamin D-resistant rickets.

      Understanding the mode of inheritance can help individuals and families make informed decisions about genetic testing and family planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman and her husband come to the genetic counselling clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman and her husband come to the genetic counselling clinic with concerns about the chance of their baby inheriting an autosomal-recessive genetic condition. The woman is a carrier of the condition, but her husband's carrier status is unknown. Neither the woman nor her husband show any symptoms of the condition. The carrier rate of the condition is 1 in 100 in the general population. What is the likelihood of their baby being affected by the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 400

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Probability of Inheriting Autosomal-Recessive Conditions

      Autosomal-recessive conditions require the presence of two mutated alleles in order for the disease phenotype to present. If one parent is a known carrier of the mutated allele, there is a 1 in 2 chance that the allele will be passed on to any children. However, if the carrier rate in the general population is 1 in 100, the probability of the other parent having the recessive allele is also 1 in 100. This means the chance of a baby being affected by the condition is 1 in 400. If the father is also known to be a carrier, the chance of the child having the condition increases to 1 in 4. If the father is definitely not a carrier, the child will not be affected by the condition, but the father still has a 1 in 100 chance of carrying a recessive gene. Understanding these probabilities can help individuals make informed decisions about genetic testing and family planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 16 - A 63-year-old man presents with fatigue, weakness, tachycardia and generalised pallor, along with...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with fatigue, weakness, tachycardia and generalised pallor, along with an unintentional weight loss of 10 pounds. He has been experiencing frequent constipation and has noticed streaks of red blood on the surface of his stools over the past year. His family history is notable for a history of colorectal cancer. Upon examination, a mass is palpated on the left lower abdominal quadrant. The barium enema reveals an apple-core lesion of the descending colon, and there are enlarged lymph nodes and foci of liver metastasis on the abdominal CT scan. The serum carcinoembryonic antigen is significantly elevated. Molecular genetic studies have revealed a mutation in a gene located on the short arm of chromosome 12.
      Which gene is most likely affected by this mutation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: KRAS

      Explanation:

      Genes Associated with Cancer: KRAS, Rb, P53, APC, and DCC

      KRAS, Rb, P53, APC, and DCC are genes that play a crucial role in the development of cancer. KRAS is an oncogene that codes for the K-Ras protein involved in regulating cell division. Mutations in KRAS can cause cells to divide uncontrollably and lead to cancer, particularly colorectal cancer. Rb is a tumour suppressor gene that codes for the pRB protein, which regulates cell growth and division. Mutations in Rb are associated with various cancers, including retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma, bladder cancer, melanoma, and some forms of breast and lung cancers.

      P53 is another tumour suppressor gene that codes for the p53 protein, which controls the cell cycle and triggers apoptosis if it detects any abnormalities. Mutations in P53 can cause cells to divide uncontrollably and lead to tumours. APC is a tumour suppressor gene that codes for the APC protein, which controls cell division and prevents uncontrolled division. Mutations in APC can cause loss of control of cell division and tumour formation, leading to familial adenomatous polyposis.

      Finally, DCC is a gene that encodes for the neptrin-1 receptor protein, which controls the development of the nervous system and acts as a tumour suppressor by triggering apoptosis in malfunctioning cells. Mutations in DCC can cause loss of this control and have been associated with over 70% of colorectal cancers. Understanding the role of these genes in cancer development can help in the development of targeted therapies and prevention strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 17 - A 47-year-old accountant visits his GP seeking advice. He has been experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old accountant visits his GP seeking advice. He has been experiencing a gradual loss of coordination over the past year and has recently been diagnosed with Huntington's disease. He has been researching the condition online and wants to discuss his findings further. What is the most appropriate inheritance pattern for Huntington's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      Inheritance Patterns of Genetic Disorders

      Genetic disorders can be inherited in different patterns, including autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked dominant, and X-linked recessive. Huntington’s disease is an example of an autosomal dominant disorder, which affects chromosome 4 and is caused by a CAG triplet repeat. The severity of the disease depends on the number of repeats, with 41 or more being fully penetrant. Mitochondrial disorders are inherited from the mother only, and Kearns-Sayre syndrome is an example of this type. Autosomal recessive disorders require both parents to be carriers, and examples include sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis. X-linked dominant disorders are more common in females, while X-linked recessive disorders, such as Duchenne muscular dystrophy, are more common in males. Huntington’s disease is not inherited in an X-linked fashion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 18 - A 13-year-old girl visits her GP with her parents, reporting amenorrhoea. The parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl visits her GP with her parents, reporting amenorrhoea. The parents mention that their daughter has learning difficulties and requires extra support at school. During the examination, the doctor observes sparse breast development, broad shoulders, a wide neck, and elevated blood pressure. What is the probable chromosomal abnormality in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 45 XO

      Explanation:

      Common Chromosomal Abnormalities and Their Associated Conditions

      Chromosomal abnormalities can result in a variety of conditions and symptoms. Here are some of the most common chromosomal abnormalities and their associated conditions:

      45 XO: This chromosomal abnormality is associated with Turner syndrome, which affects females who have lost one X chromosome. Symptoms may include sparse breast development, broad shoulders, high blood pressure, and a wide neck.

      47 XXX: Triple X syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality in which females have an extra X chromosome. While some patients may be asymptomatic, others may experience learning difficulties, tall stature, or microcephaly.

      47 XXY: Klinefelter syndrome is a condition that affects males who have an extra X chromosome. Symptoms may include tall stature, gynaecomastia, and infertility.

      46 XY: This is the karyotype for sex in normal men, but genetic abnormalities involving other chromosomes can still occur. Diagnosis can be complex and patients suspected of a genetic condition should be referred to genetics services.

      46 XX: This is the karyotype for sex in normal women, but genetic abnormalities involving other chromosomes can still occur. Diagnosis can be complex and patients suspected of a genetic condition should be referred to genetics services.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 19 - An astute pathologist examines tissue from a spontaneous abortion and observes the existence...

    Incorrect

    • An astute pathologist examines tissue from a spontaneous abortion and observes the existence of mature fetal tissue that contains Barr bodies. What possible genotypes could the fetus have had?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter’s syndrome (47,XXY)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chromosomal Abnormalities: Klinefelter’s Syndrome, Turner Syndrome, Edwards’ Syndrome, Normal Male, and XYY Syndrome

      Chromosomal abnormalities can have significant impacts on an individual’s health and development. Here, we will discuss five different karyotypes and their associated clinical features.

      Klinefelter’s syndrome (47,XXY) is a condition where a phenotypically male individual carries an extra X chromosome. This results in the presence of a Barr body, a condensed and inactivated X chromosome. Clinical features include tall stature, sparse facial/axillary and pubic hair, hypogonadism, gynaecomastia, infertility, and increased risk of breast cancer, autoimmune disorders, and osteoporosis. Management relies on behavioural and psychosocial therapy, and assisted conception treatments can be used for fertility.

      Classic Turner syndrome (45,X) is characterized by the absence of one X chromosome, resulting in no Barr body. Patients have short stature, short webbed neck, low hairline, limb oedema, wide spaced nipples, primary amenorrhoea, delayed puberty, and coarctation of the aorta. Management includes growth hormone and oestrogen replacement therapy.

      Edwards’ syndrome (47,XY+18) is a male genotype with an extra chromosome 18. As there is only one X chromosome, there cannot be a Barr body. Babies born with this condition have significant abnormalities in major systems, including kidney malformations, congenital heart disease, microcephaly, micrognathia, cleft lip/palate, and severe developmental delays.

      A normal male karyotype is 46,XY, which means there is only one X chromosome and no Barr body present.

      XYY syndrome (47,XYY) is a male genotype with an extra Y chromosome. As there is only one X chromosome, there cannot be a Barr body. Individuals with XYY syndrome have tall stature, normal sexual development, and normal fertility. However, they may experience reduced intellectual ability, learning difficulties, and developmental/behavioural delays.

      Understanding these chromosomal abnormalities can aid in diagnosis and management of associated clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 20 - After evaluating a patient with an uncommon inherited mitochondrial disorder during a Clinic...

    Incorrect

    • After evaluating a patient with an uncommon inherited mitochondrial disorder during a Clinic visit, you determine to revisit and update your understanding of cellular function. What statement accurately describes the role of mitochondria in human cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They can multiply independently

      Explanation:

      Functions and Characteristics of Mitochondria

      Mitochondria are membrane-bound organelles that contain their own circular DNA and can multiply independently of the cell. They are thought to have evolved from primitive bacteria through endosymbiosis. The main function of mitochondria is to create energy in the form of ATP through aerobic respiration. They also play a role in hormone signalling, cellular metabolism regulation, and programmed cell death. Mitochondrial dysfunction is implicated in numerous conditions affecting any system. However, mitochondria are not involved in polypeptide synthesis, mostly perform aerobic respiration, are membrane-bound organelles, and do not primarily function in protein degradation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 21 - A patient in their 40s has a family history of blindness, phaeochromocytomas, renal...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 40s has a family history of blindness, phaeochromocytomas, renal cell carcinomas and haemangioblastomas.
      Which gene is implicated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: VHL

      Explanation:

      Genes and their associated conditions

      Genes play a crucial role in the development and functioning of the human body. Mutations in certain genes can lead to the development of various conditions. Here are some examples:

      Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) Syndrome:
      VHL syndrome is a rare condition caused by mutations in the VHL gene on chromosome 3. It is characterized by the formation of benign and malignant tumors on various organs of the body, including the central nervous system, retina, kidneys, pancreas, and liver. Diagnosis is complex, and surveillance is recommended for early detection and treatment.

      RET Gene:
      The RET gene on chromosome 10 codes for a protein involved in cell signaling and nervous system development. Mutations in this gene are associated with Hirschsprung’s disease, multiple endocrine neoplasia (type 2), lung cancer, and papillary thyroid carcinoma.

      NF1 Gene:
      The NF1 gene on chromosome 17 codes for the neurofibromin protein, a tumor suppressor. Mutations in this gene are associated with neurofibromatosis type 1 and some cancers, such as juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia.

      c-Myc Gene:
      The c-Myc gene on chromosome 8 codes for a transcription factor protein that regulates the expression of other genes. Mutations in this gene have been linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma.

      MEN1 Gene:
      The MEN1 gene on chromosome 11 codes for the menin protein, a tumor suppressor. Mutations in this gene can lead to the development of multiple endocrine neoplasia (type 1), hyperparathyroidism, parathyroid adenomas, pancreatic tumors, and bronchial carcinoids.

      Genes and their associated conditions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old basketball player collapsed during a game and died from a ruptured...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old basketball player collapsed during a game and died from a ruptured aortic aneurysm. The athlete died from the consequences of a genetic defect called Marfan’s syndrome.
      Which extracellular matrix protein is altered in this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibrillin-1

      Explanation:

      Fibrillin-1 is a glycoprotein that forms microfibrils in the extracellular matrix. These microfibrils can create elastic fibers, providing support for tissues like vessels, ligaments, and skin. Mutations in the FIB-1 gene can cause Marfan’s syndrome, which is characterized by inelastic connective tissue and increased risk of aortic dissection. Integrins are transmembrane proteins that anchor the cell cytoskeleton to the extracellular matrix. Mutations in integrin genes can lead to leukocyte adhesion deficiency type I. Mutations in type I collagen can cause osteogenesis imperfecta and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. Fibronectin mutations can cause fibronectin glomerulopathy, a kidney disease. Laminins are proteins in the basement membrane of epithelial cells, and mutations in some types can cause muscular dystrophy and junctional epidermolysis bullosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 23 - A worried mother brings her 12-year-old daughter to a paediatric gynaecologist. Her daughter...

    Incorrect

    • A worried mother brings her 12-year-old daughter to a paediatric gynaecologist. Her daughter is significantly shorter than her peers, has not yet started puberty, and is deaf in both ears. During the examination, the clinician observes neck webbing, a high arched palate, and low-set ears. Based on these findings, the clinician suspects that the child may have Turner syndrome.
      What is the most appropriate chromosomal abnormality that characterizes Turner syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 45,X

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sex Chromosome Abnormalities: Turner Syndrome, Triple X Syndrome, and Klinefelter’s Syndrome

      Sex chromosome abnormalities can have significant impacts on an individual’s physical and developmental characteristics. Here, we will discuss three such abnormalities: Turner syndrome, triple X syndrome, and Klinefelter’s syndrome.

      Turner syndrome, or monosomy X, occurs when an individual is missing an X chromosome. This condition affects approximately 1 in 2000 live female births and can result in lymphoedema, hypoplastic nails, heart murmurs, and a high risk of congenital hip dislocation. Individuals with Turner syndrome also experience short stature and do not experience the pubertal growth spurt. They may have absent breast development, primary or secondary amenorrhoea, and infertility due to ovarian failure. Treatment involves hormone replacement and growth hormone to increase growth rate.

      Triple X syndrome, or trisomy X, occurs when an individual has an extra X chromosome. This condition is not usually inherited and does not have physical features associated with it. Females with triple X syndrome tend to be taller than peers with a normal female karyotype and have normal pubertal development and fertility. However, they may experience learning difficulties and delayed development of speech and motor skills.

      Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs when an individual has an extra X chromosome, resulting in a male patient with a tall stature and sparse pubic/axillary and facial hair. They have a delayed puberty and hypogonadism, and are infertile. Patients with Klinefelter’s are also at an increased risk of developing systemic lupus erythematosus, breast cancer, and extragonadal germ cell tumours. Treatment involves androgen supplementation and may require behavioural therapy as well.

      Understanding these sex chromosome abnormalities can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate treatment for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 24 - A 38-year-old woman comes in for her routine anatomy ultrasound scan at 20...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes in for her routine anatomy ultrasound scan at 20 weeks’ gestation. The ultrasound reveals significant fetal structural abnormalities, such as holoprosencephaly, cleft palate, short limbs, polydactyly, bilateral club feet, enlarged kidneys, and polyhydramnios.
      What is the probable underlying diagnosis of the unborn child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patau syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Genetic Disorders and Their Prenatal Ultrasound Findings

      Prenatal ultrasound is a valuable tool for detecting genetic disorders in fetuses. Here are some common genetic disorders and their corresponding ultrasound findings:

      1. Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)
      Trisomy 13 has a prevalence of 1 per 6500 births. Fetuses with trisomy 13 may have brain anomalies such as holoprosencephaly, midfacial hypoplasia, ventriculomegaly, and microcephaly. Other possible findings include cleft lip and palate, microphthalmia, hypotelorism, and cardiac defects.

      2. Cystic Fibrosis (CF)
      Hyperechogenic fetal bowel is a possible ultrasound finding in fetuses with CF. This may be a normal variant, but it can also be associated with severe disease.

      3. Down Syndrome
      20% of second-trimester fetuses with Down syndrome have major structural anomalies such as polyhydramnios, double bubble, and large cardiac septal defects. Other possible markers include nuchal fold thickness, pyelectasis, and short long bones.

      4. Klinefelter Syndrome
      Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by two or more X chromosomes in boys, resulting in infertility and small testicles. Ultrasound findings may be subtle, and many people may not realize they are affected.

      5. Potter Syndrome
      Potter syndrome is suspected when severe oligohydramnios and intrauterine growth retardation are present. Ultrasound findings may include pulmonary hypoplasia, abnormal facies, and limb abnormalities such as club feet and contractures.

      In conclusion, prenatal ultrasound can provide valuable information for detecting genetic disorders in fetuses. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the possible ultrasound findings associated with these disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 25 - A 10-year-old Caucasian boy presents to the Emergency Department with colicky abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old Caucasian boy presents to the Emergency Department with colicky abdominal pain and nausea. The patient had similar complaints 3 months ago and an abdominal ultrasound at that time revealed multiple gallbladder stones. The patient has a history of cystic fibrosis and is currently receiving treatment with antibiotics, mucolytics, and pancreatic enzyme supplements. A repeat abdominal ultrasound shows inflammation of the gallbladder, multiple calculi, and dilated bile ducts. What is the most likely explanation for the hepatobiliary dysfunction (cholestasis) observed in this patient with cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Defective cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator (CFTR) protein on bile duct epithelial cells

      Explanation:

      Cystic Fibrosis and its Effects on the Hepatobiliary System

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a common autosomal recessive condition caused by mutations in the CFTR gene. The CFTR protein is located on the apical membrane of epithelial cells and functions as a chloride ion channel, allowing for the efflux of chloride ions and subsequent thinning of mucous and secretions. In CF, the CFTR is dysfunctional, leading to thickened secretions that obstruct hollow organs and cause recurrent infections.

      In the liver, CFTR is expressed on the apical side of epithelial cells lining the bile ducts and gallbladder. The defective CFTR results in reduced or absent chloride efflux into the bile duct, impairing secretory function and causing thickened bile formation with an altered composition and pH. This leads to impaired bile formation and accumulation, resulting in chronic cholestatic liver disease and an increased risk of biliary obstruction, cholelithiasis, and chronic cholecystitis.

      There is no congenital malformation of the hepatobiliary tree in CF patients. While CFTR is highly expressed in the epithelium of pancreatic duct cells, its dysfunction does not directly cause hepatobiliary dysfunction. However, the increased risk of choledocholithiasis in CF patients can lead to pancreatitis.

      Recurrent infections of the bile duct with Burkholderia cepacia, a bacteria associated with life-threatening lower respiratory tract infections in CF patients, do not affect the hepatobiliary system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 26 - Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition commonly diagnosed following birth, a teenager...

    Incorrect

    • Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition commonly diagnosed following birth, a teenager whose mother and brother both have PKU but he himself does not, is seeking genetic counselling. What is the probability that he is a carrier of the disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autosomal-Recessive Inheritance: The Case of Phenylketonuria (PKU)

      Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder that results from a specific enzyme deficiency, causing phenylalanine to accumulate in the body. PKU is an autosomal-recessive disease, meaning that both parents must carry the abnormal gene for their child to inherit the disease. In the case of a teenager whose mother has PKU and father is a carrier, there is a 50% chance of inheriting the disease and a 50% chance of being a carrier. However, if the teenager does not have PKU, it means he has inherited one abnormal gene from his mother and is a carrier with a 100% chance. Early detection and treatment of PKU can prevent intellectual disability. Understanding autosomal-recessive inheritance is crucial in predicting the likelihood of inheriting genetic disorders like PKU.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 27 - A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks gestation visits her midwife for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks gestation visits her midwife for a routine booking appointment. She has sickle cell anaemia. Her partner’s sickle cell status is Hb AS. Her haemoglobin is 9.2 g / dl.
      What is the likelihood of her baby having sickle cell disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 2

      Explanation:

      Probability of Inheriting Sickle Cell Disease

      Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive condition that affects the haemoglobin in red blood cells. The probability of a baby inheriting the disease depends on the genotypes of the parents.

      If one parent has sickle cell disease (HbSS) and the other is a carrier (HbAS), the baby has a 1 in 2 chance of inheriting the disease and a 1 in 2 chance of being a carrier.

      If both parents are carriers (HbAS), the baby has a 1 in 4 chance of inheriting the disease.

      If one parent has sickle cell disease (HbSS) and the other is unaffected (HbAA), the baby will be a carrier (HbAS).

      If both parents have sickle cell disease (HbSS), the baby will inherit the disease.

      It is important for individuals to know their carrier status and to receive genetic counselling before planning a family to understand the risks of passing on genetic conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 28 - A 38-year-old mother attends her first antenatal appointment at eight weeks’ gestation. This...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old mother attends her first antenatal appointment at eight weeks’ gestation. This is her first pregnancy. She has no past medical history and is taking regular folic acid. She is offered antenatal screening for chromosomal abnormalities, including Down syndrome.
      What test is used in antenatal screening for Down syndrome for a 38-year-old mother?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nuchal thickness

      Explanation:

      Prenatal Screening Tests: Understanding Their Uses and Limitations

      During pregnancy, various screening tests are conducted to assess the health of the fetus and identify any potential risks. Here are some commonly used prenatal screening tests and their uses and limitations:

      Nuchal Thickness: This test measures the subcutaneous fluid-filled sac between the back of the neck and the underlying skin. An increase in thickness is associated with a decreasing chance of a normal birth. While it can detect 60-70% of cases of Down syndrome, it is not specific to this condition.

      Pregnancy-Associated Plasma Protein A (PAPP-A): Low levels of PAPP-A, in combination with free β-hCG, can diagnose Down syndrome with 65% accuracy.

      Utero-Placental Doppler: This test studies the blood flow in the utero-placental blood vessels and can identify women at risk of pre-eclampsia and intrauterine growth restriction.

      Biparietal Diameter (BPD): This test measures the diameter across the skull and is associated with neurodevelopmental outcomes.

      Ultrasound Assessment for Herniation of Dural Sac: This test screens for spina bifida and is usually evident during antenatal ultrasound.

      Dehydroepiandrosterone Sulfate: This test measures adrenal androgen levels and is not influenced by a developing pregnancy.

      It is important to note that these tests have their limitations and may not provide a definitive diagnosis. Further testing may be required for confirmation. It is recommended to discuss the results and implications of these tests with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 29 - A couple attends for genetic counselling. They have a 3-year-old son who has...

    Incorrect

    • A couple attends for genetic counselling. They have a 3-year-old son who has cystic fibrosis (CF). They are considering having another child and wish to discuss the chances of their future children having CF.
      What is the likelihood that their future children will be affected by CF?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 4

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inheritance Pattern of Cystic Fibrosis

      Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. This means that if both parents are carriers of the non-functioning gene, there is a 1 in 4 (25%) chance that their child will be affected with CF. CF is caused by mutations in both copies of the gene for the CF transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein. Each parent carries one defective gene and one normal gene, and the single normal gene is sufficient for normal function of the mucous glands.

      If both parents carry an autosomal dominant condition, there is a 3 in 4 chance of the child being affected, and 1 in 4 may be more severely affected if they inherit both copies of the dominant gene mutation. Autosomal dominant conditions have a 1 in 2 chance of being passed on to the next generation.

      No Mendelian pattern of inheritance carries a 100% risk of inheritance. However, in X-linked dominant conditions with an affected father, 100% of daughters and 0% of sons will be affected. The risk of inheriting CF or any other genetic disorder is not determined by a single factor, but rather by a combination of genetic and environmental factors.

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      • Genetics
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  • Question 30 - A 6-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric clinic for failure to thrive....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric clinic for failure to thrive. She has failed to maintain her weight and suffers from diarrhoea and frequent respiratory tract infections. A sweat test is performed and the chloride content of the sweat is 68 mmol/l.
      Which of the following modes of inheritance fits best with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Genetic Inheritance Patterns and Abnormalities

      Genetic inheritance patterns play a crucial role in the development of various diseases and abnormalities. Autosomal recessive inheritance is seen in conditions like cystic fibrosis, where mutations in the CFTR gene cause defective chloride transport and excessive viscous mucous secretions. Diagnosis is made through the sweat test, which measures chloride levels. Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in conditions like Marfan syndrome and familial hypercholesterolaemia. Sex-linked inheritance is seen in conditions like Duchenne muscular dystrophy and haemophilia. Chromosomal non-disjunction occurs when homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, leading to aneuploidy zygotes like in Down syndrome. Chromosomal translocation occurs when non-homologous chromosomes exchange parts, leading to fusion chromosomes like in chronic myelogenous leukaemia. Understanding these inheritance patterns and abnormalities is crucial in the diagnosis and management of various genetic conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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