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  • Question 1 - In diabetes, what is the most common finding on renal biopsy? ...

    Correct

    • In diabetes, what is the most common finding on renal biopsy?

      Your Answer: Glomerulosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Glomerulosclerosis is the scarring and hardening of the glomeruli known as diabetic glomerulosclerosis occurring in long-standing diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old lady is referred to hospital from her GP. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old lady is referred to hospital from her GP. She has been treated for essential hypertension, with Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg once daily and triamterene 150 mg once daily.   Routine investigations show: Serum sodium 134 mmol/L (137-144) Serum potassium 5.9 mmol/L (3.5-4.9) Serum urea 7.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5) Serum creatinine 100 μmol/L (60-110)   Her blood pressure is measured at 134/86 mmHg. Her electrocardiogram is normal. The GP has stopped the triamterene today.   Which of these is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Give 50% dextrose with 12 units Actrapid insulin IV

      Correct Answer: Repeat urea and electrolytes in one week

      Explanation:

      Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause hyperkalaemia, therefore, it was stopped in this patient. With all other lab results returning normal values and a normal ECG, management will simply require repeating the U & E after one week since the Triamterene has already be stopped.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      103.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 48-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes and chronic kidney disease attends for...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes and chronic kidney disease attends for review. His blood tests show: Haemoglobin 11.2 g/dl (13.0 – 18.0 g/dL) MCV 87 fl (80 – 96 fL) Sodium 133 mmol/l (137 – 144 mmol/L) Potassium 4.3 mmol/l (3.5 – 4.9 mmol/L) Urea 19.1 mmol/l (2.5 – 7.5 mmol/L) Creatinine 267 μmol/l (60 – 110 μmol/L) Ferritin 150 μg/l (15 – 300 μg/L) C reactive protein <5 mg/l (< 10 mg/L)   What is the most appropriate management of his anaemia?

      Your Answer: Monitor haemoglobin, no treatment required at present

      Explanation:

      Because the patient has chronic kidney disease, we need to consider the associated adverse effects of trying to maintain normal haemoglobin levels (14-18g/dl in this patient) and instead only instigate therapy when the level falls below 11 g/dl. Thus, in this case we should just monitor the haemoglobin levels and not initiate therapy just yet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      67.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 57-year-old man, who suffers from biventricular cardiac failure, comes to his doctor...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man, who suffers from biventricular cardiac failure, comes to his doctor for a review. His symptoms are currently well controlled; he is taking Ramipril 10mg, Spironolactone 25mg, Bisoprolol 10mg, and Furosemide 40mg. His main complaint is of painful gynaecomastia that he says has developed over the past 6 months. Physical exam reveals a blood pressure of 125/80 mmHg and no residual signs of cardiac failure. Renal function is unchanged from 6 months earlier, with stable creatinine at 125 µmol/l. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Change the spironolactone to eplerenone

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist diuretic that is well-known to cause gynaecomastia because it increases testosterone clearance and oestradiol production. The patient’s primary complaint of gynaecomastia should immediately prompt discontinuation of spironolactone and replacement with Eplerenone, which lacks the antiandrogenic effects, and thus there is less risk of gynaecomastia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      60
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is most helpful in differentiating chronic from acute renal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most helpful in differentiating chronic from acute renal failure?

      Your Answer: Anaemia

      Correct Answer: Kidney size at ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      The size of the kidneys on ultrasound would differentiate chronic from acute renal failures. Chronic renal failure is more associated with small-sized kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      64.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 52-year-old woman with polycystic kidney disease and a slowly rising creatinine, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman with polycystic kidney disease and a slowly rising creatinine, which was 320 μmol/L at her last clinic visit 3 weeks ago, is brought into the Emergency Department having been found collapsed at home by her partner. She is now fully conscious but complains of a headache.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      One of the most important complications in patients with PKD is being affected by berry aneurysms that may burst, causing a subarachnoid haemorrhage, which seems to be the case in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      35.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old gentleman is investigated for recurrent renal stones. He has been hospitalised...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old gentleman is investigated for recurrent renal stones. He has been hospitalised on multiple occasions and has required lithotripsy three times. Investigations show the following: Calcium 2.08 mmol/L, Phosphate 0.85 mmol/L, Parathyroid hormone 4.1 pmol/L (normal range = 0.8 - 8.5) 24 hour urinary calcium 521 mg/24 hours (normal range < 300) Which one of the following treatments will most likely reduce the incidence of renal stones?

      Your Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      Indapamide is a mild thiazide-like diuretic with hypotensive effect, and compared to other thiazides, it is reported to also have less metabolic derangements. However, it may have beneficial hypo-calciuric effects that are often associated with thiazides, thus, in this case, we would recommend prescribing this to the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      63
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 64-year-old woman presents with malaise, ankle swelling and shortness of breath. Her...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old woman presents with malaise, ankle swelling and shortness of breath. Her blood pressure is 215/140 mmHg, she has +2 peripheral oedema and the skin over her fingers appears very tight. Fundoscopy discloses bilateral papilledema.   Plasma creatinine concentration is 370 μmol/l, potassium is 4.9 mmol/l, haemoglobin is 8.9 g/dl and her platelet count is 90 x 109 /ml.   What is the pathological hallmark of this condition?

      Your Answer: Mucoid intimal thickening of vascular endothelium

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of scleroderma renal crisis, where we would expect thrombotic microangiopathy process with vascular endothelium involvement manifesting as mucoid intimal thickening or onion skin effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      55.8
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  • Question 9 - A 20-year-old woman presents to casualty with flank pain and a 48 hour...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents to casualty with flank pain and a 48 hour history of dysuria. Her past medical history includes polycystic ovarian syndrome. She is not in a steady relationship at present. There is haematuria and proteinuria on urine dipstick testing. Examination reveals a pyrexia of 38.1 °C and flank pain. What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease

      Correct Answer: Pyelonephritis

      Explanation:

      The patient presents with flank pain and fever with haematuria and proteinuria associated with a social history of not being in a steady relationship. This patient is a young presumably sexually active female, so the diagnosis is most likely pyelonephritis which has an increased incidence in young sexually active women or men of >50 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following statements regarding minimal change glomerulonephritis is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding minimal change glomerulonephritis is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Hypertension is found in approximately 25% of patients

      Explanation:

      Hypertension and haematuria are not common presentations in minimal change glomerulonephritis, all other statements are correct.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old woman is admitted with general deterioration and ‘off-legs’. On examination in...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman is admitted with general deterioration and ‘off-legs’. On examination in the emergency department, she looks dry and uremic.   Investigations reveal:
      • K+ 7.2 mmol/L
      • Na+ 145 mmol/L
      • Creatinine 512 μmol/L
      • Urea 36.8 mmol/L
      Which TWO of the following measures are most appropriate in her immediate management?

      Your Answer: ECG & IV Calcium gluconate bolus

      Explanation:

      First and foremost, the patient should be put on ECG monitoring to identify the cardiac state, and because of the markedly raised serum potassium, a calcium gluconate bolus will have the immediate effect of moderating the nerve and muscle performance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He is otherwise well. Physical examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals no proteinuria, blood ++, and 2–3 white blood cells/mm3.   What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      IgA nephropathy’s characteristic presentation is haematuria following a non-specific upper respiratory infection as was evident in this case. IgA nephropathy also usually occurs in children and young males, like this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 23-year-old pregnant woman presents with glycosuria. What is the most likely mechanism?...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old pregnant woman presents with glycosuria. What is the most likely mechanism?

      Your Answer: Reduced insulin secretion

      Correct Answer: Reduced renal reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Throughout pregnancy the tubular reabsorption of glucose is less effective than in the non-pregnant state, this leads to glycosuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old gentleman with a history of chronic renal failure due to diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman with a history of chronic renal failure due to diabetes comes to the clinic for review. He has reported increasing bone and muscle aches over the past few weeks.   Medications include ramipril, amlodipine and indapamide for blood pressure control, atorvastatin for lipid management, and insulin for control of his blood sugar. On examination his BP is 148/80 mmHg, his pulse is 79 and regular. His BMI is 28.   Investigations show: Haemoglobin 10.7 g/dl (13.5-17.7) White cell count 8.2 x 10(9)/l (4-11) Platelets 202 x 10(9)/l (150-400) Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (135-146) Serum potassium 5.0 mmol/l (3.5-5) Creatinine 192 μmol/l (79-118) Calcium 2.18 mmol/l (2.2-2.67) Phosphate 1.9 mmol/l (0.7-1.5)   He has tried following a low phosphate diet.   Which of the following would be the next most appropriate step in controlling his phosphate levels?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D supplementation

      Correct Answer: Sevelamer

      Explanation:

      Sevelamer is a phosphate-binding drug that can lower raised serum phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Because of its aluminium-related side-effects, aluminium hydroxide is no longer the drug of choice.
      The other options are calcium-containing salts that may increase risks of tissue calcification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      69.3
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  • Question 15 - A 41-year-old gentleman underwent kidney transplantation for end-stage renal disease. Now, 2 months...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old gentleman underwent kidney transplantation for end-stage renal disease. Now, 2 months after the operation, he has developed fever and features suggestive of bilateral diffuse interstitial pneumonia.   What is the most likely aetiological cause?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      After renal transplantation, cytomegalovirus has been identified to affect 1/4 of the post-op patients. It is the most common viral infection causing morbidity and mortality in post-op patients in the first 3 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      14.4
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  • Question 16 - A 21-year-old gentleman presents with facial and ankle swelling. This has slowly been...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old gentleman presents with facial and ankle swelling. This has slowly been developing over the past week. During the review of systems, he describes passing ‘frothy’ urine. A urine dipstick shows protein +++.   What is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Minimal change disease

      Explanation:

      Minimal change glomerulonephritis usually presents as nephrotic syndrome wherein the patient (usually a young adult) will present with proteinuria, oedema, and impaired kidney function, which were evident in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started on Ramipril to prevent development of renal disease. He reports to his GP that he has developed a troublesome cough since starting the medication. He has no symptoms of lip swelling, wheeze and has no history of underlying respiratory disease.   What increased chemical is thought to be the cause of his cough?

      Your Answer: Bradykinin

      Explanation:

      Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor that blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II as well as preventing the breakdown of bradykinin, leading to blood vessel dilatation and decreased blood pressure. However, bradykinin also causes smooth muscles in the lungs to contract, so the build-up of bradykinin is thought to cause the dry cough that is a common side-effect in patients that are on ACE inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      74.6
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  • Question 18 - A 11-year-old boy has a history of tonsillitis followed by haematuria and hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old boy has a history of tonsillitis followed by haematuria and hypertension about 10 days later.   What would be the characteristic blood test finding in this condition?

      Your Answer: Low C4 level

      Correct Answer: Depressed CH 50 level

      Explanation:

      Because the medical history included tonsillitis followed by haematuria and hypertension, there is a strong suspicion of a case of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN). Patients with PSGN usually have serological findings showing depressed serum haemolytic component CH50 and serum concentrations of C3. Sometimes depressed C4 levels are also apparent, but not always, therefore, the answer to this question is: depressed CH50 level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      92.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Following a road traffic accident, a gentleman is brought to A&E. He is...

    Correct

    • Following a road traffic accident, a gentleman is brought to A&E. He is found to have oliguria and diagnosed with acute renal tubular necrosis.   What is the most common complication and cause of death in this condition?

      Your Answer: Infection

      Explanation:

      In patients with acute renal tubular necrosis, infection in the form of gram-negative septicaemia is the most common cause of death, especially while the patient is awaiting spontaneous recovery of their renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      11.3
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  • Question 20 - A 71-year-old woman with a medical history of a blood transfusion in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old woman with a medical history of a blood transfusion in the early 1980s presents with a 10 month history of malaise and is noted to have impaired renal function. Her urine sediment reveals red cell casts. The results of immunological investigations are as follows: serum IgG 6.5 g/L (normal range 6-13), IgA 1.5 g/L (normal range 0.8-4.0), IgM 5.7 g/L (normal range 0.4-2.0), serum electrophoresis shows a faint band in the gamma region, complement C3 1.02 g/L (normal range 0.75-1.65), complement C4 <0.02 g/L (normal range 0.20-0.65), and rheumatoid factor 894 IU/L (normal range <40). Which of the following investigations is likely to be most important in making a definitive diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Antinuclear antibodies

      Correct Answer: Cryoglobulins

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history of a blood transfusion and lab results showing a markedly low C4 (with normal C3), elevated rheumatoid factor, and elevated serum IgM is highly suggestive of hepatitis C-associated cryoglobulinaemic vasculitis. Testing for Cryoglobulins will confirm this suspicion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      106.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old woman presents with weakness and is found to have a serum...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with weakness and is found to have a serum potassium of 2.2 mmol/l and pH 7.1.   Which of the following would be LEAST useful in differentiating between renal tubular acidosis Types 1 and 2?

      Your Answer: History of Wilson's disease

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia is a marked softening of the bones that can present in both type I and type II Renal Tubular Acidosis (RTA) and will thus not differentiate the two types in any case. The other measures will allow differentiation of the two types.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      27.2
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old gentleman presents to the hospital feeling unwell and breathless. History reveals...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old gentleman presents to the hospital feeling unwell and breathless. History reveals that he has chronic renal failure, for which he receives haemodialysis three times per week. Since one week prior to consultation, he has been on vacation and has missed two dialysis sessions. Examination reveals pulmonary oedema. His ECG shows no P waves, broad QRS complexes and peaked T waves. What should you do?

      Your Answer: Give 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate intravenously

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely complaining of the effects of hyperkalaemia, due to missing his dialysis sessions. Additionally, because the patient presents with a risk of cardiac arrest (based on pulmonary oedema and ECG findings), the best intervention is to give calcium gluconate that will address the hyperkalaemia as well as improve the cardiac condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      44.8
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  • Question 23 - A 38-year-old woman has been reviewed in the hypertension clinic. Abdominal ultrasound scanning...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman has been reviewed in the hypertension clinic. Abdominal ultrasound scanning reveals that her left kidney is much smaller than her right kidney.   You suspect renal artery stenosis, as her GP noticed a deteriorating serum creatinine concentration within 1 month of starting ACE inhibitor therapy.   What is the most appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer: CT scanning

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance angiography

      Explanation:

      MRA is next appropriate management for this case. It is non-invasive and has been shown to correlate with angiographic appearance. Although Renal arteriography is considered gold standard, it is invasive, so a non-invasive option is preferred as first line of investigation in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      36.3
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  • Question 24 - A gentleman arrives at the renal clinic for review. He has longstanding chronic...

    Correct

    • A gentleman arrives at the renal clinic for review. He has longstanding chronic renal failure and is unfortunately suffering from metabolic bone disease. His GP has asked for an explanation of the causes and features of metabolic bone disease. Which of the following best describes the biochemical changes involved?

      Your Answer: Phosphate excretion is decreased, parathyroid hormone levels are increased and 1,25-OH vitamin D levels are decreased

      Explanation:

      The patient’s chronic renal failure causes decreased renal hydroxylation of vitamin D which leads to decreased calcium absorption in the gut. Simultaneously, there is also decreased renal excretion of phosphate, and this combination of factors results in increased PTH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      77.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Of the following disorders, which one causes acute tubular damage? ...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following disorders, which one causes acute tubular damage?

      Your Answer: Cystinosis

      Correct Answer: Myoglobinuria

      Explanation:

      Myoglobinuria is the condition when there is degeneration of necrosed muscle that it is excreted in the urine. This condition would then cause acute tubular damage leading to renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      25.5
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  • Question 26 - An 83-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with increasing oedema and ascites. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with increasing oedema and ascites. He is hypertensive, for which he takes amlodipine. There is shortness of breath on exercise. His alcohol history is two cans of stout per day.   ECG is normal, and CXR reveals normal heart size and no signs of cardiac failure. Serum albumin is 23 g/dl; urinary albumin excretion is 7 g/24 h, with no haematuria. He has mild anaemia with a normal MCV. Total cholesterol is elevated.   What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Nephritic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome usually presents with the symptoms in this patient: low albumin, abnormal cholesterol, increased urinary albumin excretion, oedema, and as a consequence, hypertension as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      68.4
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  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. Which one of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. Which one of the following statements regarding benign prostatic hyperplasia is incorrect?

      Your Answer: 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors typically decrease the prostate specific antigen level

      Correct Answer: Goserelin is licensed for refractory cases

      Explanation:

      Goserelin (Zoladex) is usually prescribed to treat hormone-sensitive cancers of the breast and prostate not for BPH. All other statements are correct.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      33.6
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  • Question 28 - A 22-year-old gentleman presents to A&E for the third time with recurrent urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old gentleman presents to A&E for the third time with recurrent urinary stones. There appear to be no predisposing factors, and he is otherwise well; urine culture is unremarkable. The urine stones turn out to be cystine stones.   What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Cystinosis

      Correct Answer: Cystinuria

      Explanation:

      Cystinuria is strongly suspected because of the recurrent passing of cystine stones and otherwise non-remarkable medical history of this young adult patient. Like Cystinuria, all the conditions listed are also inherited disorders, however, the other differentials usually present in the early years of childhood, usually with failure to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      20.1
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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old gentleman gives a two week history of progressive lethargy and weakness....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman gives a two week history of progressive lethargy and weakness. Eight weeks previously, he was treated for hypertensive heart failure with 120 mg furosemide and 5 mg enalapril daily. His haemoglobin at the time was 12.0, urea 14.2 mmol/l and creatinine 298 μmol/l. His blood pressure in clinic was 148/85 mmHg. His blood results are shown below: Hb 10.2g/dL, MCV 89.2 fl WCC 4.9 x 109/L, Plats 175 x 109/L, Na+ 135 K+ 5.2 mmol/L, Urea 25.2 mmol/L, Creat 600 μmol/L, Assuming that he is not volume overloaded, what would be the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: stop the enalapril

      Correct Answer: stop the enalapril and furosemide

      Explanation:

      The patient presents with worsened renal condition from the last consultation when he was started on enalapril (an ACE inhibitor) so this medication should be stopped. Because there is also no fluid overload; furosemide, a diuretic, should also be stopped.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      36.1
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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old woman who underwent a live related renal transplant for end-stage renal...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman who underwent a live related renal transplant for end-stage renal failure secondary to chronic pyelonephritis 4 months ago, now attends the clinic for routine follow up. She is taking tacrolimus and mycophenolate mofetil (MMF). Her urea and electrolytes are: Na+ 136 mmol/L, K+ 3.7 mmol/L, Urea 7.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 146 μmol/L. She was last seen in clinic 2 weeks previously when her urea was 4.2 mmol/l and creatinine 98 μmol/l. She is clinically well and asymptomatic. On examination she was apyrexial and normotensive. Her transplant site was non-tender with no swelling and there were no other signs to be found. Which initial investigations should be performed first?

      Your Answer: Urine and blood cultures

      Explanation:

      After renal transplant, asymptomatic patients can still have graft dysfunction as an early complication, with rising serum creatinine; therefore, urine and blood cultures should be ordered first. This should be followed by measuring the Tacrolimus levels, as this drug can be directly nephrotoxic. Next, a Doppler ultrasound of the transplant site should be ordered, to check for any obstructions or occlusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      51.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Nephrology (14/30) 47%
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