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  • Question 1 - A patient presents to the Emergency Department after being assaulted. She tells you...

    Correct

    • A patient presents to the Emergency Department after being assaulted. She tells you that this occurred a few hours ago and she has taken several blows to the head. On examination, there is bruising around the eyes. Clear fluid can be seen discharging from her nose.
      Where is the patient’s pathology likely to be?

      Your Answer: Cribriform plate

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skull Fractures and their Symptoms

      Skull fractures can have varying symptoms depending on the location of the fracture. A fracture of the cribriform plate can result in periorbital ecchymosis and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak from the nose. In such cases, nasogastric tubes or nasal airway adjuncts should be avoided to prevent the tube from entering the cranial cavity.

      Fractures of the occiput bone and middle cranial fossa can present with similar symptoms such as bruising around the mastoid process (‘battle sign’), haemotympanum, and otorrhoea. However, an occiput fracture may also cause CSF leak from the ear.

      Fractures of the frontal bone are likely to have a wound at the site of the fracture but are unlikely to cause CSF leak. Similarly, zygoma fractures are unlikely to cause CSF leak. Understanding the symptoms associated with different skull fractures can aid in their proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Megan, a 16-year-old girl, arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a seizure....

    Incorrect

    • Megan, a 16-year-old girl, arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a seizure. During the examination, it is noted that she has a unilateral shoulder deformity and her shoulder is stuck in an internally rotated position. A shoulder x-ray has been requested.

      What findings would you anticipate on Megan's shoulder x-ray?

      Your Answer: Anterior shoulder dislocation

      Correct Answer: Posterior shoulder dislocation

      Explanation:

      FOOSH is commonly associated with anterior shoulder dislocation, while seizures and electric shock are more likely to cause posterior shoulder dislocation.

      When a person falls onto an outstretched hand, it can result in an anterior shoulder dislocation, which is characterized by a visible deformity in the affected shoulder. On the other hand, clavicular fracture is often observed in FOOSH cases, which can also cause deformity along the clavicle.

      X-rays may not show a normal shoulder in cases where the patient presents with unilateral shoulder deformity.

      In contrast, seizures and electric shock are more likely to cause posterior shoulder dislocation, which can also result in a visible deformity in the affected shoulder. While anterior instability and dislocations are still more common in seizures, a shoulder that is locked in an internally rotated position is highly suggestive of a posterior dislocation.

      Shoulder dislocations happen when the humeral head becomes detached from the glenoid cavity of the scapula. This is the most common type of joint dislocation, with the shoulder accounting for around half of all major joint dislocations. In particular, anterior shoulder dislocations make up over 95% of cases.

      There are many different techniques for reducing shoulders, but there is limited evidence to suggest that one is better than another. If the dislocation is recent, it may be possible to attempt reduction without any pain relief or sedation. However, some patients may require analgesia and/or sedation to ensure that the rotator cuff muscles are relaxed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 80-year-old man undergoes surgery to remove his left lung due to advanced...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man undergoes surgery to remove his left lung due to advanced non-small cell lung cancer. What is the most fatal complication that may arise from this treatment?

      Your Answer: Arrhythmias

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      After a pneumonectomy, patients may experience various complications. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema affects a small percentage of patients but can be fatal. Treatment involves supportive measures and may require mechanical ventilation or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation. Pneumonia is a common complication but does not have a high mortality rate. Anastomotic dehiscence, particularly in right pneumonectomies involving the carina, is the most significant cause of mortality. Arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, can occur but are not typically fatal. Pulmonary embolism affects a small percentage of patients but can be deadly if not recognized early. Mortality rates can be reduced to 10% or less with prompt treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      41.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a worsening of his mental health condition. Upon admission, the patient was diagnosed with a major depressive disorder accompanied by hallucinations.
      Lately, the patient has been persistently expressing the belief that he is deceased. Consequently, he has ceased eating and displays obvious signs of self-neglect. The patient has no known medical conditions other than his mental health problems.
      What is the name of the syndrome that this patient is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cotard syndrome is a psychiatric disorder that is characterized by a person’s belief that they are dead or do not exist. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression or psychotic disorders and can lead to self-neglect and withdrawal from others. Treatment options include medication and electroconvulsive therapy.

      Capgras syndrome is a delusional disorder where patients believe that a loved one has been replaced by an identical impostor. This condition is typically associated with schizophrenia, but it can also occur in patients with brain trauma or dementia.

      Charles Bonnet syndrome is a visual disorder that affects patients with significant vision loss. These patients experience vivid visual hallucinations, which can be simple or complex. However, they are aware that these hallucinations are not real and do not experience any other forms of hallucinations or delusions.

      De Clérambault syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a rare delusional disorder where patients believe that someone is in love with them, even if that person is imaginary, deceased, or someone they have never met. Patients may also perceive messages from their supposed admirer through everyday events, such as number plates or television messages.

      Understanding Cotard Syndrome

      Cotard syndrome is a mental disorder that is characterized by the belief that the affected person or a part of their body is dead or non-existent. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders, making it difficult to treat. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is unnecessary, leading to significant health problems.

      The delusion experienced by those with Cotard syndrome can be challenging to manage, and it can have a significant impact on their quality of life. The condition is often accompanied by feelings of hopelessness and despair, which can make it challenging for patients to seek help. Treatment for Cotard syndrome typically involves a combination of medication and therapy, but it can take time to find an effective approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old man comes in with a fistula in ano. During the anal...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man comes in with a fistula in ano. During the anal examination, the Consultant mentions that he is searching for the location of the fistula in relation to a specific anatomical landmark.
      What is the landmark he is referring to?

      Your Answer: Pectinate line

      Explanation:

      Anatomy Landmarks in Relation to Fistulae

      Fistulae are abnormal connections between two organs or tissues that are not normally connected. In the case of anal fistulae, there are several important anatomical landmarks to consider. One of these is the pectinate line, also known as the dentate line, which marks the junction between the columnar epithelium and the stratified squamous epithelium in the rectum and anus. Fistulae that do not cross the sphincter above the pectinate line can be treated by laying the wound open, while those that do require treatment with a seton.

      The anal margin, on the other hand, is not a landmark in relation to fistulae. The ischial spines, which are palpated to assess descent of the baby’s head during labor, are also not directly related to fistulae.

      Another important landmark in relation to anal fistulae is the internal anal sphincter, which is an involuntary sphincter that is always in a state of contraction. This muscle is necessary for fecal continence. Finally, the puborectalis muscle, which is part of the levator ani muscle group that makes up the pelvic floor muscles, is also relevant to anal fistulae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old man visits the Urology Clinic after being referred by his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man visits the Urology Clinic after being referred by his GP due to a painful genital ulcer. The patient reports that the skin lesion has evolved over time, initially presenting as pustular after he returned from South America. During the examination, you observe that the ulcer base is filled with a foul-smelling yellow discharge, and there is tender lymphadenopathy on one side upon palpation. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Correct Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Genital Ulcer Disease: A Case of Chancroid

      A patient presents with a genital ulcer, which has developed from a papule to a painful ulcer. The lesion is diagnosed as chancroid, a sexually transmitted disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. Chancroid is endemic in Asia, South America, and Africa, and typically presents as a single lesion in men and multiple lesions in women. Painful unilateral lymphadenopathy may be present, which can progress to suppurative buboes.

      Other possible differential diagnoses include genital herpes, which produces multiple painful and itchy ulcers, and syphilis, which produces a single painless ulcer (chancre) at an early stage. However, due to the patient’s recent travel and the presence of pain, these are less likely diagnoses.

      Donovanosis, or granuloma inguinale, is caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and produces multiple nodules that burst into painless ulcers. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is minimal, making this an unlikely differential. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, produces a painless ulcer at the contact site, but the patient’s ulcer is painful. In the second stage of LGV infection, painful lymphadenopathy and bubo development occur.

      In conclusion, chancroid is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s genital ulcer, and other differential diagnoses should be considered based on clinical presentation and travel history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      105
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the GP surgery by his mother. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the GP surgery by his mother. He has a two-year history of asthma which has previously been controlled with a salbutamol inhaler twice daily and beclomethasone 50 micrograms bd. He has an audible wheeze that has been gradually worsening over the last few weeks and has not responded to additional doses of salbutamol. His mother also reports that he has a night-time cough for the past 6 weeks.

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Refer to a paediatrician specialising in respiratory disease

      Correct Answer: Add a trial of a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      If a child under the age of 5 has asthma that is not being controlled by a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) and a low dose of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS), then a leukotriene receptor antagonist should be added to their asthma management plan.

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance, after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance, after being found confused by members of the public for the fifth time in the past month. Upon review, he tells you that he came here by bicycle after spending the afternoon with his friends doing shopping, and then later tells you he spent today in the pub with his new dog. He smells strongly of alcohol and you notice a near-empty bottle of unlabelled spirit with him.
      On examination, he has an ataxic gait, dysdiadochokinesia and horizontal nystagmus.
      When you go back later to see him, he has forgotten your previous interaction.
      Which of the following explains his signs and symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ethanol intoxication

      Correct Answer: Korsakoff's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The individual who arrived at the emergency department is exhibiting symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is a result of Wernicke’s encephalopathy. These symptoms include cerebellar signs, eye signs, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. Additionally, the individual is carrying a bottle of alcohol and is inconsistent in their recollection of recent events.

      Understanding Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is a memory disorder that is commonly observed in individuals who have a history of alcoholism. The condition is caused by a deficiency of thiamine, which leads to damage and bleeding in the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus. Korsakoff’s syndrome often develops after untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      The symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome include anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to form new memories, and retrograde amnesia. Individuals with this condition may also experience confabulation, which is the production of fabricated or distorted memories to fill gaps in their recollection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 44-year-old chronic smoker was diagnosed with lung cancer 6 months ago after...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old chronic smoker was diagnosed with lung cancer 6 months ago after presenting with weight loss, haemoptysis, and shortness of breath. He returns to the Emergency Department complaining of nausea and lethargy that have been worsening over the past 3 weeks. While waiting to see the doctor, he has a seizure. He has a history of hypertension. The following are the results of his investigations:
      Investigations Results Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 120 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Serum osmolality 250 mOsmol/kg 280–290 mOsmol/kg
      Urine osmolality 1500 mOsmol/kg 50–1200 mOsmol/kg
      Haematocrit 27%

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic secretion (SIADH)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Secretion (SIADH)

      The patient in this scenario is likely experiencing a seizure due to hyponatremia caused by Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Secretion (SIADH). SIADH is characterized by hyponatremia, serum hypo-osmolality, urine hyperosmolality, and a decreased hematocrit. The patient’s history of lung cancer is a clue to the underlying cause.

      Epilepsy is unlikely as there is no history of seizures mentioned. Central diabetes insipidus presents with hypernatremia, serum hyperosmolality, and urine hypo-osmolality, while nephrogenic diabetes insipidus presents with the same clinical picture. Psychogenic polydipsia is also ruled out as patients with this condition produce hypotonic urine, not hypertonic urine as seen in this patient’s presentation.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and underlying causes of SIADH is crucial in diagnosing and treating patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      113.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Paediatric Outpatient Department by her father...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Paediatric Outpatient Department by her father with symptoms of bloating, mild fever, abdominal pain, lack of appetite, generalised feeling of being unwell and easy bruising for the past two weeks. On examination, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy (non-tender, firm, rubbery) and patches of petechiae and purpura are noted on both lower limbs.
      The child is referred to the Oncology Department where complete laboratory investigations, including full blood count (FBC), differential count and a review of the peripheral smear, were performed. The findings are indicative of acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL).
      Which of the following would be the most likely finding with the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Highly proliferative monomorphic medium-sized cells – starry sky appearance

      Correct Answer: Positive staining for B-cell antibodies (CD19, cytoplasmic CD79a, CD22) and MPO-negative

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Leukemia and Lymphoma: Key Features and Diagnostic Tests

      Leukemia and lymphoma are types of blood cancers that can present with similar symptoms, making diagnosis challenging. However, certain features and diagnostic tests can help differentiate between them.

      For example, positive staining for B-cell antibodies (CD19, cytoplasmic CD79a, CD22) and MPO-negative suggest ALL/LBL, while an expanded population of myeloid cells with t(9;22) (Philadelphia chromosome) is characteristic of CML. Burkitt’s lymphoma is characterized by highly proliferative cells with a starry sky appearance, while hypocellular bone marrow with pancytopenia suggests aplastic anemia. Finally, AML is characterized by immature cells with large nucleoli that are MPO-positive.

      By recognizing these key features and utilizing appropriate diagnostic tests such as flow cytometry and cytochemistry, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat these blood cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      79.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurosurgery (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Cardiothoracic (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Colorectal (1/1) 100%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Oncology (0/1) 0%
Passmed