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  • Question 1 - Which of the following does not predispose to cataract formation? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not predispose to cataract formation?

      Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Cataract formation is more likely to occur due to hypocalcaemia rather than hypercalcaemia.

      Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.

      Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.

      Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14.6
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  • Question 2 - A 53-year-old male presents to the acute medical admissions unit with a one-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old male presents to the acute medical admissions unit with a one-day history of left-sided headache, retro-orbital pain, and dull facial pain on the left side. He has a medical history of hypertension and migraine and is currently taking ramipril 2.5mg. Upon examination, he displays partial ptosis and enophthalmos of the left eye, with anisocoria and miosis of the same eye. His visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and the rest of his neurological exam is unremarkable, with normal sweating bilaterally. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Syringomyelia

      Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition that typically presents with ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis on the same side of the body. The degree of anhidrosis can help determine the location of the lesion along the sympathetic pathway. In cases where anhidrosis is absent, it may indicate a postganglionic lesion, such as in the case of carotid artery dissection. This condition can cause a partial Horner’s syndrome with ptosis and miosis, but without anhidrosis. While this is a rare presentation of carotid artery dissection, it is important to recognize to prevent further neurological complications, such as an ischemic stroke. Preganglionic lesions, such as a cervical rib or Pancoast tumor, can cause anhidrosis of just the face, while central lesions, such as a stroke or syringomyelia, can cause anhidrosis of the head, arm, and trunk in addition to ptosis and miosis.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      100.1
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  • Question 3 - A teenage boy comes to the General Practitioner (GP) with a lump on...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage boy comes to the General Practitioner (GP) with a lump on his eyelid. He has noticed it for the past two days. The GP identifies it as a chalazion.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to ophthalmology urgently

      Correct Answer: Apply heat and massage daily

      Explanation:

      Managing Chalazion: Options and Recommendations

      Chalazion, also known as meibomian cyst, is a painless inflammatory lesion of the eyelid that contains meibomian secretions. While it is a self-limiting condition, it may become infected and cause discomfort to the patient. Here are some management options and recommendations for chalazion:

      Apply Heat and Massage Daily: The best management option for chalazion is to apply heat and massage daily to release the oil. This can help improve the condition without the need for antibiotics.

      Refer to Ophthalmology Urgently: While chalazion can be managed by the GP, referrals to ophthalmology should be made if the lesion does not improve with treatment or if the GP feels the lesion might be suspicious.

      Avoid Topical Antibiotics: There is no indication for the use of antibiotics in the treatment of chalazion.

      Consider Surgical Incision: If medical management has been unsuccessful, chalazions can be removed surgically by incision and curettage.

      Do Not Watch and Wait: While chalazions can sometimes resolve with time without treatment, they usually require treatment and can cause pain and discomfort to the patient. As such, watching and waiting is not an appropriate management option.

      In summary, applying heat and massage daily is the best initial management option for chalazion. Referral to ophthalmology should be considered if the lesion does not improve with treatment. Topical antibiotics are not recommended, and surgical incision may be necessary if medical management is unsuccessful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10.9
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  • Question 4 - A 78-year-old male presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a recent complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a recent complaint of difficulty seeing objects up close, particularly at night. His general practitioner referred him for evaluation. During fundoscopy, the doctor observes distinct red patches. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is a lifelong smoker. What is the most probable diagnosis, and what is the most suitable treatment?

      Your Answer: Laser photocoagulation

      Correct Answer: Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

      Explanation:

      The most effective treatment for wet AMD is anti-VEGF therapy. Wet age-related macular degeneration, also known as exudative or neovascular macular degeneration, is caused by choroidal neovascularization, which can lead to rapid vision loss due to fluid and blood leakage. Symptoms include reduced visual acuity, particularly for near objects, worse vision at night, and red patches visible on fundoscopy indicating fluid leakage or hemorrhage. Anti-VEGF therapy targets vascular endothelial growth factor, a potent mitogen that increases vascular permeability in patients with wet ARMD, reducing leakage. Treatment should begin as soon as possible to prevent further vision loss.

      Amaurosis fugax, on the other hand, is treated with aspirin and is caused by a variety of conditions, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. It typically presents as a sudden loss of vision, as if a curtain is coming down.

      Cataract surgery is the appropriate treatment for cataracts, which cause reduced vision, faded color vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex may be observed on fundoscopy.

      High-dose steroids are used to treat optic neuritis, which presents with unilateral vision loss over hours or days, red desaturation, pain, and scotoma.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      44.7
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  • Question 5 - A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of hand clumsiness...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of hand clumsiness and photophobia that started a day ago. Her colleagues have noticed her struggling to find words for the past two weeks, but she hasn't noticed it herself. She had a dry cough two weeks ago, which has since resolved. She has no known allergies, no regular medications, and no past medical history.

      During the examination, some double vision is observed when assessing the right peripheral visual field. Other than that, there are no significant findings. Due to her photophobia, limited fundoscopy is performed, which reveals blurring of the optic disc margin and venous engorgement.

      What further tests or procedures should be conducted at this point?

      Your Answer: CT head

      Explanation:

      The presence of papilloedema in this patient suggests an increase in intracranial pressure, making a lumbar puncture contraindicated. Her symptoms, including hand clumsiness, difficulty with word-finding, and acute photophobia, are consistent with a space-occupying lesion. A CT or MRI scan of the head should be urgently performed, and the patient should be referred to a neurosurgeon. Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used to treat idiopathic intracranial hypertension, is not appropriate for this patient as her symptoms are not consistent with IIH. Broad-spectrum antibiotics and blood cultures are not necessary as the patient does not exhibit any signs of infection. The focus should be on promptly identifying any potential space-occupying lesions causing mass effect.

      Understanding Papilloedema: Optic Disc Swelling Caused by Increased Intracranial Pressure

      Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition is typically bilateral and can be identified through fundoscopy. During this examination, venous engorgement is usually the first sign observed, followed by loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and the presence of Paton’s lines, which are concentric or radial retinal lines cascading from the optic disc.

      There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may also be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia, or vitamin A toxicity.

      Overall, understanding papilloedema is important for identifying potential underlying conditions and providing appropriate treatment to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      42.8
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner complaining of a painful red...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner complaining of a painful red photophobic eye with some blurred vision. She reports no discharge, headache, nausea or vomiting. She has a medical history of inflammatory bowel disease but is otherwise healthy.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Keratitis

      Correct Answer: Uveitis

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Inflammations and Their Symptoms

      Uveitis, a condition that can affect people of all ages, is often associated with systemic diseases like inflammatory bowel disease, sarcoidosis, and seronegative arthritis. It typically presents as a painful red eye with photophobia, but there is usually no discharge. Upon examination, signs of intraocular inflammation such as cells in the anterior chamber will be present. Urgent referral to ophthalmology is necessary, and treatment may involve cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

      Conjunctivitis, on the other hand, is characterized by a red, sore eye with discharge that can be mucopurulent or clear depending on the cause. Tarsal conjunctiva inflammation is also likely.

      Episcleritis, which affects mostly women and younger people, is self-limiting and causes mild pain, watering, and very mild photophobia. It does not cause any visual symptoms.

      Acute glaucoma is an ophthalmological emergency that requires urgent referral to ophthalmology. Patients with this condition will present with an acutely painful red eye and systemic symptoms like nausea and vomiting. Medications to reduce intraocular pressure are necessary.

      Keratitis, which refers to inflammation of the cornea, has many different causes, with infection being the most common, especially in contact lens wearers. While the symptoms may initially appear similar to uveitis, keratitis is unlikely to be associated with inflammatory bowel disease and will show abnormalities of the cornea upon examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      39.1
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old man presents to the Ophthalmology Clinic with a painful red right...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the Ophthalmology Clinic with a painful red right eye and reduced visual acuity. He complains of watery eyes and photophobia. Upon examination, inflammatory cells are found in the anterior chamber. The patient is typically healthy, but has been receiving treatment from the Physiotherapy Team for back pain. What investigation would be most useful in identifying the underlying cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Intraocular pressure

      Correct Answer: MRI pelvis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Workup of Anterior Uveitis with Back Pain

      Anterior uveitis is a condition characterized by an acutely red painful eye with blurred vision, eye watering, and photophobia. In young men, it is strongly associated with ankylosing spondylitis, which presents with lower back pain. Definitive diagnosis requires evidence of sacroiliitis, which can take years to show up on plain X-rays. However, changes can be seen earlier on MRI of the sacroiliac joints. Patients may also have raised ESR, normochromic anemia, and mildly raised alkaline phosphatase. HLA-B27 may also be raised.

      An ESR test may be useful as part of the workup, but it would not help determine the specific underlying cause of the symptoms. Increased intraocular pressure is seen in patients with glaucoma, which may present with an acutely painful red eye, but it would not explain the presence of inflammatory cells or back pain. An MRI brain may be used in the workup of optic neuritis, which is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. However, multiple sclerosis does not explain the back pain. Positive rheumatoid factor would indicate an underlying diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, which can be associated with scleritis but not uveitis. Back pain is also less likely in rheumatoid arthritis, as it typically affects the smaller joints first and would be less common in someone of this age.

      Therefore, an MRI of the pelvis is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient with anterior uveitis and back pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      28.9
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and dark floaters over the past few weeks. Fundoscopy is challenging due to patches of redness obscuring the fundus. He has a 20-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypercholesterolaemia, and proliferative diabetic retinopathy, and takes metformin, pioglitazone, atorvastatin, and dapagliflozin. He is concerned about having a stroke, as his father had one in the past. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion

      Correct Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment and vitreous haemorrhage are the two main causes of sight loss in proliferative diabetic retinopathy.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 63-year-old man visits his optician for routine screening and is discovered to...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man visits his optician for routine screening and is discovered to have elevated intraocular pressure without any symptoms. The diagnosis of primary open-angle glaucoma is confirmed. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Can you identify a potential treatment and its mode of action?

      Your Answer: Oral latanoprost - increases uveoscleral outflow

      Correct Answer: Topical timolol - reduces aqueous production

      Explanation:

      Timolol eye drops are effective in treating primary open-angle glaucoma by reducing the production of aqueous fluid in the anterior chamber. This helps to lower the intraocular pressure and prevent further fluid buildup. Other medications, such as acetazolamide, latanoprost, brimonidine, and pilocarpine, work by different mechanisms such as reducing aqueous production or increasing uveoscleral outflow. However, timolol is specifically known for its ability to reduce aqueous production and is commonly used as a first-line treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      25.3
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  • Question 10 - A 29-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of sensitivity to light...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of sensitivity to light and a red right eye that began an hour ago. Upon examination, the right eye is painful, red, and has an irregularly-shaped pupil, while the left eye appears normal. The patient is referred to ophthalmology for further evaluation. What is the probable medical treatment that the patient received?

      Your Answer: Pilocarpine drops

      Correct Answer: Steroid and cycloplegic drops

      Explanation:

      The most common treatment for anterior uveitis involves using a combination of steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) drops. This is because the symptoms of photophobia and a small, irregularly-shaped pupil are indicative of anterior uveitis. Steroids are administered to reduce inflammation, while cycloplegics such as atropine or cyclopentolate are used to dilate the pupil and alleviate pain and sensitivity to light. Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that is typically used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis without the need for steroids. Acetazolamide, on the other hand, is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is used to manage acute angle-closure glaucoma. Pilocarpine, a muscarinic receptor agonist, is used to treat primary open-angle glaucoma and acute closed angle glaucoma.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      35.7
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  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old man comes in with redness in his eye, accompanied by mild...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man comes in with redness in his eye, accompanied by mild sensitivity to light and slight tearing. He denies any discomfort or soreness, and his vision remains unaffected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      Episcleritis is the only cause of red eye that is typically not accompanied by pain. Other causes listed are associated with pain, as well as blurred or decreased vision. While episcleritis may cause mild tenderness, it is generally not painful and can be treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatories or steroids if necessary.

      Understanding Episcleritis

      Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.

      One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.

      Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      35.2
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  • Question 12 - A 56-year-old female patient complains of photophobia and a painful, red left eye....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female patient complains of photophobia and a painful, red left eye. During examination, a dendritic corneal ulcer is observed. The patient has recently finished taking oral prednisolone for an asthma flare-up. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Topical ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Topical acyclovir

      Explanation:

      The most suitable treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is topical acyclovir. This patient’s symptoms, including a dendritic corneal ulcer, suggest herpes simplex keratitis, which may have been triggered by their recent use of oral prednisolone. Therefore, the most appropriate medication would be topical antivirals, such as acyclovir. It is important to note that acyclovir should be given topically rather than intravenously. Topical ciprofloxacin would be appropriate for bacterial or amoebic keratitis, which is more common in patients who wear contact lenses. Topical chloramphenicol would be suitable for a superficial eye infection like conjunctivitis, but it would not be appropriate for this patient, who likely has a viral cause for their symptoms.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical acyclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      54.9
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  • Question 13 - A 9-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with increasing redness and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with increasing redness and swelling around her left eye over the past 48 hours. During the examination, she reports pain and double vision when her eye movements are assessed. There is also tenderness and erythema over the left eyelid. Her temperature is 38°C. Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Warm compresses

      Correct Answer: Intravenous cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Orbital cellulitis can be distinguished from preseptal cellulitis by the presence of symptoms such as reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and pain when moving the eyes. If a person experiences painful eye movements and visual disturbances along with a red, swollen, and tender eye, it is a cause for concern and may indicate orbital cellulitis. In such cases, it is crucial to administer urgent empirical intravenous antibiotics that cover gram-positive and anaerobic organisms, such as Intravenous cefotaxime or clindamycin. On the other hand, preseptal cellulitis can be managed with oral co-amoxiclav and close monitoring. Unlike orbital cellulitis, preseptal cellulitis does not cause painful eye movements or visual disturbances and is less likely to cause fever.

      In rare cases, subperiosteal or orbital abscess may complicate orbital cellulitis, leading to symptoms such as proptosis, headache (facial, throbbing), and reduced visual acuity. In such cases, surgical drainage may be necessary, but intravenous empirical antibiotics would still be an essential part of the treatment. It is worth noting that these conditions are more likely to occur as a complication of sinusitis rather than orbital cellulitis.

      Bacterial keratitis, which is more common in contact lens users, can be treated with topical ciprofloxacin. This condition presents with symptoms such as eye pain, watering, and photophobia but does not cause eyelid swelling, diplopia, or fever.

      Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.

      Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.

      To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.

      Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      45.7
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  • Question 14 - A 57-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of pain, redness, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of pain, redness, and tearing in her right eye for the past two weeks. She also experiences sensitivity to light. The pain is constant and dull, and it can be so intense that it wakes her up at night. The pain sometimes spreads to her jaw, neck, and head. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis.
      During the examination, her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/6, while her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/9. The eye appears diffusely injected.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma

      Correct Answer: Scleritis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Scleritis from Other Eye Conditions

      Scleritis is a condition that causes severe, deep, and boring pain in the eye, often associated with systemic diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, vasculitis, and sarcoidosis. Unlike episcleritis, the pain in scleritis is more intense and may be felt even when the eye moves. The eye appears diffusely red, and the globe is tender to touch. To differentiate between episcleritis and scleritis, topical phenylephrine 2.5-10% can be used, which causes the superficial episcleral vessels to blanch in episcleritis but not the deeper scleral vessels in scleritis.

      Other eye conditions can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms. Acute angle-closure glaucoma, for example, presents with sudden, severe pain and a reduction or loss of vision, while central retinal artery occlusion causes painless vision loss. Conjunctivitis, on the other hand, causes milder pain, and episcleritis may cause teary and photophobic symptoms but is usually not associated with systemic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      53.9
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  • Question 15 - A 75-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of painless sudden...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of painless sudden vision loss in his eyes. Upon examination, the GP observes a left homonymous hemianopia. What is the site of the lesion responsible for this visual field defect?

      Your Answer: Right optic tract

      Explanation:

      Lesions and their corresponding visual field defects

      Lesions in different parts of the visual pathway can cause specific visual field defects. Here are some examples:

      – Right optic tract: A left homonymous hemianopia (loss of vision in the left half of both eyes) is caused by a lesion in the contralateral optic tract.
      – Optic chiasm: A lesion in the optic chiasm (where the optic nerves cross) will cause bitemporal hemianopia (loss of vision in the outer half of both visual fields).
      – Left occipital visual cortex: A lesion in the left occipital visual cortex (at the back of the brain) will cause a right homonymous hemianopia (loss of vision in the right half of both visual fields) with macular sparing (preserved central vision).
      – Left temporal lobe optic radiation: A lesion in the left temporal lobe optic radiation (fibers that connect the occipital cortex to the temporal lobe) will cause a right superior quadrantanopia (loss of vision in the upper right quarter of the visual field).
      – Right parietal lobe optic radiation: A lesion in the right parietal lobe optic radiation (fibers that connect the occipital cortex to the parietal lobe) will cause a left inferior quadrantanopia (loss of vision in the lower left quarter of the visual field).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      33.7
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  • Question 16 - A 52-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen right eye. He complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements, which are quite restricted.
      On examination, the visual acuity is 6/18 in the right eye and 6/6 in the left. The periorbital area of the right eye is very swollen and erythematosus. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva was chemosed. Eye movements in the right eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the right.
      Vital observations were as follows:
      Blood pressure 120/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 75 bpm
      Respiratory rate 18 per minute
      Oxygen saturation 98% on air
      Temperature 37.9 °C
      What is the most important step in your management plan to determine the cause of this patient’s eye problem?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan of the orbit, sinuses, and brain

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Steps for Orbital Cellulitis: CT Scan of the Orbit, Sinuses, and Brain

      Orbital cellulitis is commonly caused by ethmoidal sinusitis and requires prompt diagnosis and management. While blood culture and normal blood tests can be helpful, they are not the most important steps in determining the cause of the infection. Instead, a CT scan of the orbit, sinuses, and brain is the most effective diagnostic tool. This scan can reveal diffuse orbital infiltrate, proptosis, sinus opacity, or even orbital abscesses. Once diagnosed, management often involves ENT assessment for sinus drainage and/or subperiosteal abscess. Intravenous cefuroxime and metronidazole or flucloxacillin are necessary to control the infection, but do not aid in determining the cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      56.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An older man comes in with a severe headache, nausea, vomiting and a...

    Incorrect

    • An older man comes in with a severe headache, nausea, vomiting and a painful, red right eye. He has reduced visual acuity in the right eye and normal visual acuity in the left eye. During the examination, he had a stony hard eye with marked pericorneal reddening and a hazy corneal reflex. Tonometry revealed a raised intraocular pressure. The patient reports that he has recently been prescribed a new medication by his general practitioner.
      What medication could be responsible for this sudden onset of symptoms?

      Your Answer: Montelukast

      Correct Answer: Ipratropium nebuliser

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma and its Treatment Options

      Acute closed angle glaucoma is a serious eye condition that can cause sudden vision loss, severe eye pain, and nausea. It occurs when the angle between the iris and cornea is reduced, leading to a blockage of the aqueous humour flow and increased intraocular pressure. Risk factors include female sex, Asian ethnicity, and hypermetropia.

      Certain drugs, such as nebulised ipratropium and tricyclic antidepressants, can induce angle closure due to their antimuscarinic effects. Other antimuscarinic drug side-effects include dry eyes, xerostomia, bronchodilation, decreased gut motility, urinary outflow obstruction, and hallucinations.

      Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is given intravenously to treat acute closed angle glaucoma. It helps to reduce intraocular pressure and prevent damage to the optic nerve. Bisoprolol is a β-blocker that does not precipitate an episode of acute closed angle glaucoma, while montelukast is used in the long-term management of asthma and does not increase the risk of acute closed angle glaucoma.

      Topical pilocarpine is a miotic that is used to treat acute angle closure glaucoma by constricting the pupil and promoting aqueous humour flow. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for acute closed angle glaucoma to prevent vision loss and other serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      142
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 22-year-old woman, who is a known type 1 diabetic, visited the GP...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman, who is a known type 1 diabetic, visited the GP clinic with a complaint of decreased vision. Her left eye has a vision of 6/6, while her right eye has a vision of 6/18.
      Your GP placement supervisor has requested you to conduct a dilated direct fundoscopy on her eyes. During the examination, you observed exudates forming a ring around a dot haemorrhage near the fovea.
      What is the initial treatment for this eye condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Diabetic Maculopathy

      Diabetic maculopathy is a condition that affects the retina and can lead to vision loss. There are several treatment options available to manage this condition, including anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection, focal laser photocoagulation, community diabetic eye screening, increase daily insulin dose, and pan-retinal photocoagulation.

      Anti-VEGF intravitreal injection is a first-line treatment that works by stopping abnormal blood vessels from leaking, growing, and bleeding under the retina. This treatment targets VEGF, a protein that promotes the growth of new blood vessels.

      Focal laser photocoagulation is another treatment option, but it is not recommended for lesions near the fovea due to the risk of damaging vision.

      Community diabetic eye screening is not appropriate for diabetic maculopathy, as it requires more specialized treatment.

      Increasing the daily insulin dose is not recommended unless blood glucose levels are erratic.

      Pan-retinal photocoagulation is typically used in cases of proliferative diabetic retinopathy.

      Overall, the best treatment option for diabetic maculopathy will depend on the individual patient’s condition and needs. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the most appropriate course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 23-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vision abnormalities. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vision abnormalities. She reports seeing a black shadow in her right eye's upper field of vision unilaterally. Additionally, she has been experiencing sudden flashing lights in spindly shapes for a few hours. Upon examination, there are no visible abnormalities in the eye, and both pupils are equal and reactive. The patient has no known medical conditions or allergies. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing painless vision loss with a peripheral curtain over her vision, spider web-like flashing lights, and requires an urgent referral to eye casualty. These symptoms are indicative of a retinal detachment, which is a serious condition that can lead to permanent vision loss if not treated promptly. Other potential causes of vision loss, such as ischemic optic neuropathy, vitreous hemorrhage, and acute optic neuritis, have been ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      57.3
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  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old patient on your morning telephone appointment list reports a painful watering...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old patient on your morning telephone appointment list reports a painful watering left eye after mowing the lawn. His daughter can see a grass seed visibly stuck near his cornea. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to ophthalmology immediately for assessment that day

      Explanation:

      If a patient has an organic foreign body in their eye, such as a grass seed, it is crucial to refer them immediately to ophthalmology for assessment due to the risk of infection. The removal of the foreign body should also be done on the same day as the assessment to prevent further complications. This is especially important in cases where the injury was caused by high-velocity objects, such as during grass cutting. Attempting to remove the foreign body in primary care or delaying the removal to the following day is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection and prolong the patient’s discomfort. It is essential to seek specialist care to ensure proper treatment and avoid any potential complications.

      A corneal foreign body can cause eye pain, a sensation of something being in the eye, sensitivity to light, watering, and redness. If the injury was caused by high-velocity objects or sharp items, or if there is significant trauma to the eye or surrounding area, it is important to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist. If a chemical injury has occurred, the eye should be irrigated for 20-30 minutes before referral. Foreign bodies made of organic material, such as seeds or soil, also require referral due to a higher risk of infection and complications. If the foreign body is located in or near the center of the cornea, or if there are any red flags such as severe pain, irregular pupils, or reduced vision, referral is necessary. For more information on management, please refer to Clinical Knowledge Summaries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old man has been experiencing a gradual decline in his vision in...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has been experiencing a gradual decline in his vision in both eyes. He is struggling to read and recognize faces, and has had multiple falls due to difficulty in perceiving edges of objects such as stairs. Upon examination with a slit-lamp, amber retinal deposits are observed but no signs of neovascularisation are present. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus and is currently taking amlodipine and metformin. He has been a heavy smoker for the past 40 years, smoking 30 cigarettes a day, but does not consume alcohol. What is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient's likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitamins C+E and beta-carotene supplementation

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      77.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 68-year-old man with elevated intraocular pressure is prescribed dorzolamide eye drops. What...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with elevated intraocular pressure is prescribed dorzolamide eye drops. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Dorzolamide is a type of medication that works as a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 54-year-old man contacts his GP regarding visual alterations in his left eye....

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man contacts his GP regarding visual alterations in his left eye. He has been encountering flashes/floaters and spider webs for the past 2 days, and now there is some darkening on the periphery of vision. Additionally, he has observed that straight lines appear somewhat jagged. There is no associated pain or injury. The patient is in good health and has no chronic medical conditions.
      What is the probable diagnosis for the aforementioned symptoms?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      If you experience peripheral vision loss accompanied by spider webs and flashing lights, it could be a sign of retinal detachment. This condition is often described as a curtain coming down over your vision and requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. Additionally, you may notice floaters or string-like shapes, and straight lines may appear distorted due to the retina detaching from the choroid.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blurred vision that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blurred vision that has been ongoing for 3 days. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is being managed with amlodipine, ramipril, and indapamide, as well as type II diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.

      During the examination, his visual acuity is found to be 6/18 in both eyes with a reduction in colour vision. There is no relative afferent pupillary defect. Upon direct fundoscopy, the optic disc margins appear ill-defined and raised in both eyes. Additionally, there are cotton-wool spots scattered around the retina in both eyes.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy

      Correct Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypertensive Retinopathy

      Hypertensive retinopathy is a serious condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. In this case, the patient has grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy according to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification. The fundoscopy revealed bilateral optic disc swelling with cotton-wool spots, indicating optic neuropathy secondary to hypertension. Despite being on multiple medications to control hypertension, the patient’s blood pressure is difficult to manage.

      While considering the diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy, it is important to rule out other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms. An intracranial space-occupying lesion is not indicated in the patient’s history. Optic neuritis can present with loss of optic nerve function, but it is more commonly unilateral and does not typically involve cotton-wool spots. Pre-proliferative and proliferative diabetic retinopathy are also unlikely given the patient’s well-controlled type II diabetes.

      In conclusion, the patient’s presentation is most consistent with hypertensive retinopathy. However, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses and rule them out through further evaluation and testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An 80-year-old man presents with complaints of blurred vision. Upon fundoscopy, drusen, retinal...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents with complaints of blurred vision. Upon fundoscopy, drusen, retinal epithelial changes, and macular neovascularisation are noted. The clinician suspects age-related macular degeneration. What would be the most suitable follow-up investigation?

      Your Answer: Fluorescein angiography

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 26-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a headache and blurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a headache and blurred vision that have been present for 2 days. Upon fundoscopy, it is discovered that she has optic neuritis on the right side. She had a previous episode of arm weakness 5 months ago that was also accompanied by blurred vision. What is the most probable diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer: CT brain

      Correct Answer: MRI brain

      Explanation:

      High dose steroids are the recommended treatment for acute optic neuritis, which is the likely cause of this woman’s symptoms. However, her symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS) as they are spread out over both space and time.

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      35.6
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  • Question 27 - A 72-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a sudden onset of unilateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a sudden onset of unilateral ptosis on the left side. During the examination, the doctor observes anisocoria with miosis of the left pupil and anhidrosis of his left face, arm, and trunk. The patient reports no pain in the left arm or scapular region. He has a history of smoking for 45 pack-years. A chest X-ray is performed, but it shows no abnormalities. What is the probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Pancoast tumour

      Correct Answer: Stroke

      Explanation:

      Causes of Horner Syndrome: A Differential Diagnosis

      Horner syndrome is a rare condition that affects the nerves that control the pupil, eyelid, and sweat glands in the face. It is characterized by a drooping eyelid, a constricted pupil, and decreased sweating on one side of the face. Here are some possible causes of Horner syndrome and their distinguishing features:

      1. Stroke: A central type Horner syndrome is often caused by a stroke, especially in patients with a history of smoking.

      2. Carotid artery dissection: This condition can cause a postganglionic or third-order Horner syndrome, which is characterized by neck pain, headache around the eye, pulsatile tinnitus, and Horner syndrome. Unlike the central and preganglionic types, there is no anhidrosis in postganglionic Horner syndrome.

      3. Cavernous sinus thrombosis: This condition can also cause a postganglionic Horner syndrome, but it is usually accompanied by unilateral periorbital edema, headache, photophobia, and proptosis. Patients may also exhibit signs of sepsis due to the infective cause of this condition.

      4. Multiple sclerosis: While multiple sclerosis can cause central Horner syndrome, it is not the most common cause. Patients with this condition should also present with other features of multiple sclerosis.

      5. Pancoast tumor: Although this patient is a chronic heavy smoker, a Pancoast tumor is not necessarily the cause of Horner syndrome. This type of tumor causes a preganglionic Horner syndrome, which presents with ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis on the face. Additionally, a Pancoast tumor significant enough to cause Horner syndrome would be visible on a chest X-ray.

      In conclusion, Horner syndrome can have various causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 57-year-old man presents with painful weeping rashes on his right upper eyelid...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents with painful weeping rashes on his right upper eyelid and forehead, accompanied by acute punctate keratopathy. He had undergone chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma about a year ago. No other abnormalities are observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial conjunctivitis

      Correct Answer: Herpes zoster

      Explanation:

      Increased Risk of Herpes Zoster in Immunocompromised Patients

      Immunosuppressed individuals who have undergone organ transplantation, as well as those with cancer, leukaemia, and AIDS, are more susceptible to developing herpes zoster. This condition, commonly known as shingles, is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which remains dormant in the body after a previous chickenpox infection.

      In cases of herpes zoster ophthalmicus, where the virus affects the eye and surrounding areas, the presence of the Hutchinson sign – a rash on the tip of the nose supplied by the external nasal nerve – indicates a higher risk of developing uveitis, an inflammation of the eye uvea. It is important for immunocompromised patients to be aware of this increased risk and seek prompt medical attention if they experience any symptoms of herpes zoster.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      20.5
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old individual who wears contact lenses presents to the emergency department complaining...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old individual who wears contact lenses presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in their left eye. They describe a sensation of having something gritty stuck in their eye. The eye appears red all over and they have difficulty looking at bright lights. Upon examination with a slit-lamp, there is a hypopyon and focal white infiltrates on the cornea. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the likely cause of bacterial keratitis in contact lens wearers. Symptoms include a foreign body sensation, conjunctival injection, and hypopyon on slit-lamp examination. Staphylococci and streptococci are also common causes, but pseudomonas is particularly prevalent in this population. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Acanthamoeba, and herpes simplex are less likely causes.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      22.8
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  • Question 30 - Mrs Green is a 58-year-old woman who comes to eye casualty with sudden...

    Correct

    • Mrs Green is a 58-year-old woman who comes to eye casualty with sudden vision loss in her left eye. She reports having observed some dark spots in her vision over the past few days. She is not in any pain and has a medical history of diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. What is the most probable cause of her visual impairment?

      Your Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitreous Haemorrhage

      Vitreous haemorrhage is a condition where there is bleeding into the vitreous humour, which can cause sudden painless loss of vision. This disruption to vision can range from floaters to complete visual loss. The bleeding can come from any vessel in the retina or extend through the retina from other areas. Once the bleeding stops, the blood is typically cleared from the retina at a rate of approximately 1% per day.

      The incidence of spontaneous vitreous haemorrhage is around 7 cases per 100,000 patient-years. The incidence by age and sex varies according to the underlying causes. The most common causes, which collectively account for 90% of cases, include proliferative diabetic retinopathy, posterior vitreous detachment, and ocular trauma (which is the most common cause in children and young adults).

      Patients with vitreous haemorrhage typically present with an acute or subacute onset of painless visual loss or haze, a red hue in the vision, or floaters or shadows/dark spots in the vision. Signs of the condition include decreased visual acuity (depending on the location, size, and degree of vitreous haemorrhage) and visual field defects if the haemorrhage is severe.

      Investigations for vitreous haemorrhage include dilated fundoscopy, slit-lamp examination, ultrasound (useful to rule out retinal tear/detachment and if haemorrhage obscures the retina), fluorescein angiography (to identify neovascularization), and orbital CT (used if open globe injury is suspected).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      81.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (14/30) 47%
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