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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are urgently called to the Surgical Ward to assess a 45-year-old man who has just returned from Theatre after a stoma reversal. The nursing staff have reported that he appears drowsy, and on assessment, his blood pressure is 70/42 mmHg, heart rate is 120 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation is 98%, and temperature is 36.7 °C. On examination, he is difficult to rouse and has a thready pulse. Chest sounds are clear, with normal heart sounds and soft calves. He groans when you palpate his abdomen. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?
Your Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) of abdomen
Correct Answer: Bloods, including full blood count and crossmatch
Explanation:Appropriate Investigations for a Patient with Post-Operative Shock
Post-operative shock can occur for various reasons, including blood loss, infection, and pulmonary embolism. In this scenario, a patient has undergone extensive abdominal surgery and is experiencing significant hypotension and tachycardia, making a post-operative bleed highly likely. Here are some appropriate investigations for this patient:
Bloods, including full blood count and crossmatch: A full blood count can help identify a drop in hemoglobin, while crossmatch is necessary as the patient may require a transfusion.
Chest X-ray: This investigation is not necessary as there is no indication of chest-related issues.
Computerised tomography (CT) of abdomen: If the patient can be stabilized, a CT scan can help determine if there is an intra-abdominal cause for the deterioration.
D-dimer: This investigation is not necessary as there is no strong suspicion of pulmonary embolism.
Return to Theatre for diagnostic laparotomy: This is a possibility if the patient cannot be stabilized on the ward and there is a strong suspicion of an intra-abdominal bleed. However, baseline bloods, including crossmatch, would be required before surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man and his partner visit the GP with a complaint of left-sided testicular pain that has been bothering him for the past 5 days. Upon examination, the left testicle appears swollen and red, and the pain subsides when the testicle is elevated. There are no signs of penile discharge or palpable masses. The right testicle appears normal. What is the most probable causative organism responsible for this man's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:The most frequent cause of epididymo-orchitis in sexually active younger adults is Chlamydia trachomatis. This man’s condition is likely caused by this bacterium. On the other hand, Escherichia coli and Enterococcus faecalis are common culprits in men over 35 years old or those who engage in anal sex, making it improbable that they caused this man’s condition.
Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active young adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.
Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is admitted to the orthopaedic ward for a planned hip replacement surgery. He has been evaluated for VTE prophylaxis. Despite his age, he has no other risk factors for VTE or bleeding. What are the recommended VTE prophylaxis measures for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TED stockings + dalteparin sodium started at least 6 hours post-operation
Explanation:For patients undergoing elective hip replacement, NICE recommends a combination of mechanical and pharmacological methods for preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE). The patient should wear TED stockings upon admission, and pharmacological VTE prophylaxis should be administered after surgery, unless there are contraindications such as a risk of bleeding. Low molecular weight heparin, such as dalteparin sodium, is typically started 6 hours after surgery, but other pharmacological methods may also be used. While mechanical prophylaxis with TED stockings is necessary for this patient, it is not sufficient on its own, especially as there is no risk of bleeding. Pharmacological prophylaxis is not started before surgery due to the risk of bleeding during the operation, and a time window is often used postoperatively in case of haematoma formation. Pharmacological prophylaxis should be continued for up to 35 days after surgery.
Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a serious condition that can lead to severe health complications and even death. However, it is preventable. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for 2018 to provide recommendations for the assessment and management of patients at risk of VTE in hospital. All patients admitted to the hospital should be assessed individually to identify risk factors for VTE development and bleeding risk. The department of health’s VTE risk assessment tool is recommended for medical and surgical patients. Patients with certain risk factors, such as reduced mobility, surgery, cancer, and comorbidities, are at increased risk of developing VTE. After assessing a patient’s VTE risk, healthcare professionals should compare it to their risk of bleeding to decide whether VTE prophylaxis should be offered. If indicated, VTE prophylaxis should be started as soon as possible.
There are two types of VTE prophylaxis: mechanical and pharmacological. Mechanical prophylaxis includes anti-embolism stockings and intermittent pneumatic compression devices. Pharmacological prophylaxis includes fondaparinux sodium, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), and unfractionated heparin (UFH). The choice of prophylaxis depends on the patient’s individual risk factors and bleeding risk.
In general, medical patients deemed at risk of VTE after individual assessment are started on pharmacological VTE prophylaxis, provided that the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding and there are no contraindications. Surgical patients at low risk of VTE are treated with anti-embolism stockings, while those at high risk are treated with a combination of stockings and pharmacological prophylaxis.
Patients undergoing certain surgical procedures, such as hip and knee replacements, are recommended to receive pharmacological VTE prophylaxis to reduce the risk of VTE developing post-surgery. For fragility fractures of the pelvis, hip, and proximal femur, LMWH or fondaparinux sodium is recommended for a month if the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding.
Healthcare professionals should advise patients to stop taking their combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy four weeks before surgery and mobilize them as soon as possible after surgery. Patients should also ensure they are hydrated. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent VTE and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of fever and pain in his perineum and scrotum. He has been experiencing dysuria and urinary frequency for the past three days. Upon examination, he appears stable and does not show any signs of sepsis. The digital rectal examination reveals a tender, boggy prostate. The patient is given appropriate treatment and discharged.
A week later, the patient visits his GP. He has been symptom-free for two days but is concerned about his risk of developing prostate cancer, especially since his father had it. He requests a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test to ensure that he is cancer-free. The patient does not exercise regularly, has not had a digital rectal examination since his hospital visit, and ejaculated 24 hours ago. What should the GP do in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Explain risks and benefits, wait for a month then measure his PSA
Explanation:PSA measurement should be postponed for a month after prostatitis. It is crucial to be aware of the factors that can affect PSA levels, such as vigorous exercise, ejaculation, and digital rectal examination, which can all increase PSA levels. Therefore, measurement should be delayed for at least 48 hours after any of these activities. The clinical description at the beginning indicates acute prostatitis, which elevates PSA levels. As a result, PSA measurement should be postponed for at least a month after prostatitis. It is also important to note that while there is no national screening program for prostate cancer, it is still acceptable and common to measure PSA levels when a patient requests it. However, patients should be informed about the risk of false positives and negatives and the potential consequences before doing so.
Understanding PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland, and it has become an important marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. The National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.
Age-adjusted upper limits for PSA have been recommended by the PCRMP, with levels varying depending on age. PSA levels may also be raised by other factors such as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), prostatitis, urinary tract infection, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract. However, PSA testing has poor specificity and sensitivity, with around 33% of men with a PSA of 4-10 ng/ml found to have prostate cancer, and around 20% of men with prostate cancer having a normal PSA.
Various methods are used to try and add greater meaning to a PSA level, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring changes in PSA level over time. However, the debate continues about the usefulness of PSA testing as a screening tool for prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man with a past medical history of chronic constipation complains of sudden perianal pain. The pain has been persistent for a week and worsens during bowel movements. Additionally, he reports observing a small amount of bright red blood on the toilet paper after wiping.
Upon examination, the abdominal region appears normal, but rectal examination is not feasible due to the patient's discomfort.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fissure
Explanation:Anal Fissures: Symptoms and Treatment
Anal fissures are a common condition characterized by perianal pain that worsens during defecation and is often accompanied by fresh bleeding. The history of these symptoms is typical of a fissure, although visualization of the fissure is often not possible due to the pain associated with rectal examination. Most fissures are located in the midline posteriorly, and in the acute phase, GTN cream can provide relief in two-thirds of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes to you with a chronic inguinal hernia. During the examination, you notice a small, direct inguinal hernia. He asks about the likelihood of strangulation if he chooses not to have surgery within the next year. What is the estimated risk of strangulation over the next 12 months?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Indirect hernias are more likely to cause bowel obstruction, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. Elective repair of hernias is generally safe, but emergency repair carries a higher risk of mortality, especially in older patients.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.
The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.
Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An older man in his 70s arrives with a caregiver who reports that he has been exhibiting aggressive and withdrawn behavior, and failing to recognize staff members, which is unusual for his typically mild-mannered personality. He has a medical history of hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, ischaemic heart disease, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and bilateral knee replacements, but has not previously shown signs of cognitive impairment. Upon examination, he has mild crepitations in his chest and tenderness and distension in the suprapubic region of his abdomen. A digital rectal exam reveals a large, smooth prostate and soft stool in the rectum.
What initial test is most likely to uncover the cause of his delirium?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bladder scan
Explanation:In older patients, acute urinary retention can manifest as delirium. This is evident in a man with prostatic hyperplasia who presents with abdominal distension and suprapubic tenderness. An ultrasound scan of his bladder is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and catheterisation can relieve the large volume of urine. While a blood glucose sample is part of a confusion screen, it would not aid in diagnosing acute urinary retention. Similarly, blood cultures and a CT head may not be helpful in this scenario. A chest X-ray may be done due to the patient’s COPD, but it is unlikely to assist in diagnosing acute urinary retention.
Acute urinary retention is a condition where a person suddenly becomes unable to pass urine voluntarily, typically over a period of hours or less. It is a common urological emergency that requires investigation to determine the underlying cause. While it is more common in men, it rarely occurs in women, with an incidence ratio of 13:1. Acute urinary retention is most frequently seen in men over 60 years of age, and the incidence increases with age. It has been estimated that around a third of men in their 80s will develop acute urinary retention over a five-year period.
The most common cause of acute urinary retention in men is benign prostatic hyperplasia, a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that presses on the urethra, making it difficult for the bladder to empty. Other causes include urethral obstructions, such as strictures, calculi, cystocele, constipation, or masses, as well as certain medications that affect nerve signals to the bladder. In some cases, there may be a neurological cause for the condition. Acute urinary retention can also occur postoperatively and in women postpartum, typically due to a combination of risk factors.
Patients with acute urinary retention typically experience an inability to pass urine, lower abdominal discomfort, and considerable pain or distress. Elderly patients may also present with an acute confusional state. Unlike chronic urinary retention, which is typically painless, acute urinary retention is associated with pain and discomfort. A palpable distended urinary bladder may be detected on abdominal or rectal examination, and lower abdominal tenderness may also be present. All patients should undergo a rectal and neurological examination, and women should also have a pelvic examination.
To confirm the diagnosis of acute urinary retention, a bladder ultrasound should be performed. The bladder volume should be greater than 300 cc to confirm the diagnosis, but if the history and examination are consistent with acute urinary retention, an inconsistent bladder scan does not rule out the condition. Acute urinary retention is managed by decompressing the bladder via catheterisation. Further investigation should be targeted by the likely cause, and patients may require IV fluids to correct any temporary over-diuresis that may occur as a complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What substances or factors prevent osteoclast activity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcitonin
Explanation:The Role of Calcitonin in Bone Health
Calcitonin is a peptide consisting of 32 amino acids that is derived from a larger prohormone. It is produced by the parafollicular or C cells in the thyroid gland and has a direct effect on osteoclasts. Calcitonin binds to receptors on the surface of osteoclasts, causing them to shrink and stop breaking down bone tissue. This process is important for maintaining bone health and preventing conditions such as osteoporosis. The peptide contains a single disulfide bond, which contributes to its stability and effectiveness. Overall, calcitonin plays a crucial role in regulating bone metabolism and maintaining skeletal integrity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. He is restless and describes the pain as 10/10, originating from the right side of his back and radiating to his right testicle. He has vomited once but has no other symptoms. His vital signs are stable except for a heart rate of 100 bpm. A urine dip reveals ++ blood. He is administered PR diclofenac and oramorph for pain relief. The following day, his pain is under control, and the tachycardia has subsided. A CTKUB is performed, which reveals no stones in the ureters but shows stranding of the peri-ureteric fat. There is no indication of any bowel or other abdominal organ pathology. What is the accurate diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spontaneously passed ureteric calculus
Explanation:If a ureteric calculus is not present, the presence of periureteric fat stranding may indicate recent stone passage. Most stones that are less than 5mm in the ureteric axis will pass on their own. Fat stranding can be seen beside the ureter, indicating recent stone passage, or beside the kidney, which may be a sign of pyelonephritis. Urothelial carcinoma typically presents with a chronically obstructed and hydronephrotic kidney, which may have been detected on a contrast CT scan. The patient’s symptoms and radiological findings do not suggest pyelonephritis or malingering. Ureteric rupture is rare and is usually caused by medical intervention, and a urinoma in the retroperitoneal space would be visible on a CTKUB.
Types of Renal Stones and their Appearance on X-ray
Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, are solid masses that form in the kidneys due to the accumulation of certain substances. There are different types of renal stones, each with a unique appearance on x-ray. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common, accounting for 40% of cases, and appear opaque on x-ray. Mixed calcium oxalate/phosphate stones and calcium phosphate stones also appear opaque and make up 25% and 10% of cases, respectively. Triple phosphate stones, which develop in alkaline urine and are composed of struvite, account for 10% of cases and appear opaque as well. Urate stones, which are radiolucent, make up 5-10% of cases. Cystine stones, which have a semi-opaque, ‘ground-glass’ appearance, are rare and only account for 1% of cases. Xanthine stones are the least common, accounting for less than 1% of cases, and are also radiolucent. Staghorn calculi, which involve the renal pelvis and extend into at least 2 calyces, are composed of triple phosphate and are more likely to develop in alkaline urine. Infections with Ureaplasma urealyticum and Proteus can increase the risk of their formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his GP with a concern about a painless lump in his scrotum and bilateral breast enlargement. What would be the most suitable initial test for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testicular ultrasound scan
Explanation:If the cause of this patient’s gynaecomastia was suspected to be hyperprolactinaemia, a pituitary MRI could be considered. Gynaecomastia can also be caused by a prolactinoma, which typically results in galactorrhoea. However, there are no other indications of a prolactinoma.
Understanding Testicular Cancer
Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that commonly affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. Germ-cell tumors are the most common type of testicular cancer, accounting for around 95% of cases. These tumors can be divided into seminomas and non-seminomas, which include embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma. Other types of testicular cancer include Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis.
The most common symptom of testicular cancer is a painless lump, although some men may experience pain. Other symptoms may include hydrocele and gynaecomastia, which occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. Tumor markers such as hCG, AFP, and beta-hCG may be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool for testicular cancer.
Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis for testicular cancer is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for seminomas and 85% for teratomas if caught at Stage I. It is important for men to perform regular self-examinations and seek medical attention if they notice any changes or abnormalities in their testicles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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