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Question 1
Correct
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A 28-year-old male is being evaluated at the pre-operative assessment clinic. A murmur is detected in the 4th intercostal space adjacent to the left side of the sternum. What is the most probable source of the murmur?
Your Answer: Tricuspid valve
Explanation:The optimal location for auscultating the tricuspid valve is near the sternum, while the projected sound from the mitral area is most audible at the cardiac apex.
Heart sounds are the sounds produced by the heart during its normal functioning. The first heart sound (S1) is caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves, while the second heart sound (S2) is due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. The intensity of these sounds can vary depending on the condition of the valves and the heart. The third heart sound (S3) is caused by the diastolic filling of the ventricle and is considered normal in young individuals. However, it may indicate left ventricular failure, constrictive pericarditis, or mitral regurgitation in older individuals. The fourth heart sound (S4) may be heard in conditions such as aortic stenosis, HOCM, and hypertension, and is caused by atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle. The different valves can be best heard at specific sites on the chest wall, such as the left second intercostal space for the pulmonary valve and the right second intercostal space for the aortic valve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman complains of persistent diarrhoea, wheezing, and flushing. During the physical examination, an irregular pulsatile hepatomegaly and a pansystolic murmur that is most pronounced during inspiration are detected. What diagnostic test could provide insight into the probable underlying condition?
Your Answer: ECG
Correct Answer: Urinary 5-HIAA (5-hydroxyindole acetic acid)
Explanation:Carcinoid Syndrome and its Diagnosis
Carcinoid syndrome is characterized by the presence of vasoactive amines such as serotonin in the bloodstream, leading to various clinical features. The primary carcinoid tumor is usually found in the small intestine or appendix, but it may not cause significant symptoms as the liver detoxifies the blood of these amines. However, systemic effects occur when malignant cells spread to other organs, such as the lungs, which are not part of the portal circulation. One of the complications of carcinoid syndrome is damage to the right heart valves, which can cause tricuspid regurgitation, as evidenced by a pulsatile liver and pansystolic murmur.
To diagnose carcinoid syndrome, the 5-HIAA test is usually performed, which measures the breakdown product of serotonin in a 24-hour urine collection. If the test is positive, imaging and histology are necessary to confirm malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 3
Correct
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A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension follow-up. He was diagnosed with high blood pressure two months ago and started on amlodipine. However, his blood pressure remained uncontrolled, so ramipril was added four weeks ago. During his visit today, his blood pressure is measured at 155/92 mmHg. You decide to prescribe indapamide, a thiazide-like diuretic. Can you explain the mechanism of action of thiazide-like diuretics?
Your Answer: Inhibit Na+ Cl- cotransporter
Explanation:Thiazide-like drugs such as indapamide work by blocking the Na+-Cl− symporter at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule, which inhibits sodium reabsorption. Loop diuretics, on the other hand, inhibit the Na+ K+ 2Cl- cotransporters in the thick ascending loop of Henle. Amiloride, a potassium-sparing diuretic, inhibits the epithelial sodium channels in the cortical collecting ducts, while spironolactone, another potassium-sparing diuretic, blocks the action of aldosterone on aldosterone receptors and inhibits the Na+/K+ exchanger in the cortical collecting ducts.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with central chest pain and is diagnosed with a new left bundle branch block on ECG. If a histological analysis of her heart is conducted within the first 24 hours following the MI, what are the probable findings?
Your Answer: Coagulative necrosis
Explanation:In the first 24 hours following a myocardial infarction (MI), histological findings typically show early coagulative necrosis, neutrophils, wavy fibres, and hypercontraction of myofibrils. This is a critical time period as there is a high risk of ventricular arrhythmia, heart failure, and cardiogenic shock. The necrosis occurs due to the lack of blood flow to the myocardium, and within the next few days, macrophages will begin to clear away dead tissue and granulation tissue will form to aid in the healing process. It is important to recognize the early signs of MI in order to provide prompt treatment and prevent further damage to the heart.
Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Correct
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A 72-year-old man has been discharged after an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy and his GP is reviewing his discharge letter. The patient has a history of atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin to reduce the risk of stroke. The GP notices an abnormality in the coagulation screen that was performed before surgery. The discharge letter confirms that this is expected with warfarin use.
What is the most likely abnormality on this patient's coagulation blood results?
Reference ranges:
International normalised ratio (INR) 0.9-1.2
Prothrombin time (PT) 10-14 secsYour Answer: PT 21 secs, INR 2.5
Explanation:Warfarin causes an increase in prothrombin-time (PT) and international normalised ratio (INR) by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. An increase in PT will cause an increase in INR, and a decrease in PT and INR is a prothrombotic state.
Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.
Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.
Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An ECG is performed on a 60-year-old patient in the cardiology ward. On the ECG there are regular p waves present, and a QRS complex is associated with each p wave. The PR interval is 0.26 seconds. There are no missed p waves.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Sinus rhythm
Correct Answer: 1st degree heart block
Explanation:Understanding Heart Blocks: Types and Features
Heart blocks are a type of cardiac conduction disorder that can lead to serious complications such as syncope and heart failure. There are three types of heart blocks: first degree, second degree, and third degree (complete) heart block.
First degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval of more than 0.2 seconds. Second degree heart block can be further divided into two types: type 1 (Mobitz I, Wenckebach) and type 2 (Mobitz II). Type 1 is characterized by a progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs, while type 2 has a constant PR interval but the P wave is often not followed by a QRS complex.
Third degree (complete) heart block is the most severe type of heart block, where there is no association between the P waves and QRS complexes. This can lead to a regular bradycardia with a heart rate of 30-50 bpm, wide pulse pressure, and cannon waves in the neck JVP. Additionally, variable intensity of S1 can be observed.
It is important to recognize the features of heart blocks and differentiate between the types in order to provide appropriate management and prevent complications. Regular monitoring and follow-up with a healthcare provider is recommended for individuals with heart blocks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An eager young medical student inquires about ECGs. Despite your limited knowledge on the subject, you valiantly attempt to respond to her queries! One of her questions is: which part of the ECG denotes ventricular repolarization?
Your Answer: S-T segment
Correct Answer: T wave
Explanation:The final stage of cardiac contraction, ventricular repolarization, is symbolized by the T wave. This can be easily remembered by recognizing that it occurs after the QRS complex, which represents earlier phases of contraction.
Understanding the Normal ECG
The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.
The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.
Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman has come to you with her ambulatory blood pressure monitor readings, which are consistently high. You suggest starting her on ramipril and advise her to avoid certain things that could impact the absorption of the medication.
What should she avoid?Your Answer: Low dose aspirin
Correct Answer: Antacids
Explanation:ACE-inhibitors’ therapeutic effect is reduced by antacids as they interfere with their absorption. However, low dose aspirin is safe to use alongside ACE-inhibitors. Coffee and tea do not affect the absorption of ACE-inhibitors. Patients taking ACE-inhibitors need not avoid high-intensity exercise, unlike those on statins who have an increased risk of muscle breakdown due to rhabdomyolysis.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male presents to the GP clinic complaining of increased shortness of breath during physical activity and swelling in both ankles. The GP schedules an echocardiogram for him as an outpatient. During the echocardiogram, the patient's heart rate was 72 bpm and blood pressure was 136/88 mmHg. The results of the echocardiogram show an end-diastolic volume of 105ml and an end-systolic volume of 65ml. What is the left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of this patient?
Your Answer: 80%
Correct Answer: 40%
Explanation:Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.
Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.
Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Isabella is an 82-year-old female who visits the cardiology clinic for a check-up. She experienced a heart attack half a year ago and has been experiencing swollen ankles and difficulty breathing when lying down. You suspect heart failure and arrange for an echocardiogram, prescribe diuretic medications, and conduct a blood test. What blood marker can indicate excessive stretching of the heart muscle?
Your Answer: Myoglobin
Correct Answer: Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
Explanation:BNP is produced by the ventricles of the heart when the cardiomyocytes are excessively stretched. Its overall effect is to reduce blood pressure by decreasing systemic vascular resistance and increasing natriuresis.
Troponin is a protein that plays a role in cardiac muscle contraction and is a specific and sensitive marker for myocardial damage in cases of myocardial infarction.
Creatine kinase and LDH can be used as acute markers for myocardial infarction.
Myoglobin is released after muscle damage, but it is not specific to acute myocardial infarction and is typically measured in cases of rhabdomyolysis.
B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.
BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An 78-year-old man with a history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease and peripheral vascular disease presents with palpitations and syncope. His ECG reveals an irregularly irregular pulse of 124 beats/min. What factor in his medical history will be given the most consideration when deciding whether or not to administer anticoagulation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age
Explanation:To determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with atrial fibrillation, it is necessary to conduct a CHA2DS2-VASc score assessment. This involves considering various factors, including age (which is weighted heaviest, with 2 points given for those aged 75 and over), hypertension (1 point), and congestive heart disease (1 point). Palpitations, however, are not included in the CHA2DS2-VASc tool.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with hypertension comes in for a routine check-up with her GP. She mentions feeling fatigued for the past few days and has been taking antihypertensive medication for almost a year, but cannot recall the name. Her ECG appears normal.
Hb 142 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 180 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 7.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 133 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 5.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 98 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What medication might she be taking?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrochlorothiazide
Explanation:Thiazide diuretics have been known to cause hyponatremia, as seen in the clinical scenario and blood tests. The question aims to test knowledge of antihypertensive medications that may lead to hyponatremia.
The correct answer is Hydrochlorothiazide, as ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, and calcium channel blockers may also cause hyponatremia. Beta-blockers, such as Atenolol, typically do not cause hyponatremia. Similarly, central agonists like Clonidine and alpha-blockers like Doxazosin are not known to cause hyponatremia.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man has a tonsillectomy due to recurrent acute tonsillitis. During recovery, he experiences a postoperative bleeding. Which vessel is the most probable cause of the bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External palatine vein
Explanation:If the external palatine vein is harmed during tonsillectomy, it can result in reactionary bleeding and is located adjacent to the tonsil.
Tonsil Anatomy and Tonsillitis
The tonsils are located in the pharynx and have two surfaces, a medial and lateral surface. They vary in size and are usually supplied by the tonsillar artery and drained by the jugulodigastric and deep cervical nodes. Tonsillitis is a common condition that is usually caused by bacteria, with group A Streptococcus being the most common culprit. It can also be caused by viruses. In some cases, tonsillitis can lead to the development of an abscess, which can distort the uvula. Tonsillectomy is recommended for patients with recurrent acute tonsillitis, suspected malignancy, or enlargement causing sleep apnea. The preferred technique for tonsillectomy is dissection, but it can be complicated by hemorrhage, which is the most common complication. Delayed otalgia may also occur due to irritation of the glossopharyngeal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old chronic smoker presents to the cardiology clinic with worsening chest pain during physical activity. After initial investigations, an outpatient coronary angiography is performed which reveals severe stenosis/atheroma in multiple vessels. The patient is informed that this condition is a result of various factors, including the detrimental effects of smoking on the blood vessels.
What is the ultimate stage in the development of this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima
Explanation:Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications
Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.
Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 52-year-old patient with hypertension. Her blood pressure remains high despite taking ramipril therefore add-on therapy with a thiazide-like diuretic is being considered.
What is a contraindication to starting this therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gout
Explanation:Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male is admitted for elective surgery for a lymph node biopsy in the supraclavicular region. Following the surgery, the patient experiences difficulty in shrugging his left shoulder. What could be the probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Accessory nerve lesion
Explanation:The posterior triangle is where the accessory nerve is located, and it is susceptible to injury in this area. In addition to experiencing issues with shoulder shrugging, the individual may also encounter challenges when attempting to raise their arm above their head.
The posterior triangle of the neck is an area that is bound by the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, the occipital bone, and the middle third of the clavicle. Within this triangle, there are various nerves, vessels, muscles, and lymph nodes. The nerves present include the accessory nerve, phrenic nerve, and three trunks of the brachial plexus, as well as branches of the cervical plexus such as the supraclavicular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, great auricular nerve, and lesser occipital nerve. The vessels found in this area are the external jugular vein and subclavian artery. Additionally, there are muscles such as the inferior belly of omohyoid and scalene, as well as lymph nodes including the supraclavicular and occipital nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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As a medical student on placement in the pathology lab, you are observing the pathologist examine a section of a blood vessel. Specifically, what can be found within the tunica media of a blood vessel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smooth muscle
Explanation:Artery Histology: Layers of Blood Vessel Walls
The wall of a blood vessel is composed of three layers: the tunica intima, tunica media, and tunica adventitia. The innermost layer, the tunica intima, is made up of endothelial cells that are separated by gap junctions. The middle layer, the tunica media, contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima by the internal elastic lamina and from the adventitia by the external elastic lamina. The outermost layer, the tunica adventitia, contains the vasa vasorum, fibroblast, and collagen. This layer is responsible for providing support and protection to the blood vessel. The vasa vasorum are small blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the larger blood vessels. The fibroblast and collagen provide structural support to the vessel wall. Understanding the histology of arteries is important in diagnosing and treating various cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male presents to his GP with a four week history of shortness of breath when he walks for approximately two minutes on level ground. There is also an associated central chest pain which resolves when he rests. The pain is localised and does not radiate.
On examination, there were obvious signs of ankle and sacral pitting oedema. A left ventricular heave was palpated but the apex beat was not displaced. A systolic murmur was heard best at the second intercostal space just right of the sternum. This murmur also radiated to the carotid arteries.
Which investigation is most likely to confirm the underlying cause of his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Diagnosis of Valvular Heart Disease
Echocardiography is the most sensitive and specific way to diagnose valvular heart disease (VHD). It involves observing the valvular leaflets and degree of calcified stenosis of the aortic valve, as well as calculating cardiac output and ejection fraction for prognostic information. Chest x-ray may reveal a calcified aortic valve and left ventricular hypertrophy, while bilateral ankle edema is a minor sign for congestive heart failure. To assess the severity of heart failure, an x-ray, ECG, and BNP should be performed, but echocardiogram remains the most reliable diagnostic tool for VHD.
A myocardial infarction is unlikely in this patient due to her age and the duration of symptoms. Instead, her angina-type pain is likely due to her underlying aortic valve disease. An angiogram of the coronary arteries alone cannot diagnose valvular defects. Cardiac enzymes such as troponin I and T are markers for myocardial necrosis and will not aid in the diagnosis of VHD. While ECG should be performed in a patient presenting with these symptoms, it alone is insufficient to diagnose VHD. The ECG may show left axis deviation due to left ventricular hypertrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with complaints of shortness of breath and palpitations. During the examination, you observe an irregularly irregular pulse. To check for signs of atrial fibrillation, you opt to conduct an ECG. In a healthy individual, where is the SA node located in the heart?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right atrium
Explanation:The SA node is situated at the junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium, and is responsible for initiating cardiac impulses in a healthy heart. The AV node, located in the atrioventricular septum, regulates the spread of excitation from the atria to the ventricles. The patient’s symptoms of palpitations and shortness of breath, along with an irregularly irregular pulse, strongly indicate atrial fibrillation. ECG findings consistent with atrial fibrillation include an irregularly irregular rhythm and the absence of P waves.
The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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John, a 35-year-old male, is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The ambulance crew explains that the patient has homonymous hemianopia, weakness of left upper and lower limb, and dysphasia.
He has a strong past medical and family history deep vein thromboses.
A CT is ordered and the report suggests a stroke affecting the middle cerebral artery. Months later he is under investigations to explain the stroke at his young age. He is diagnosed with Factor V Leiden thrombophilia, which causes the blood to be in a hypercoagulable state.
What are the potential areas of the brain that can be impacted by an emboli in this artery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontal, temporal and parietal lobes
Explanation:The frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes are mainly supplied by the middle cerebral artery, which is a continuation of the internal carotid artery. As a result, any damage to this artery can have a significant impact on a large portion of the brain. The middle cerebral artery is frequently affected by cerebrovascular events. The posterior cerebral artery, on the other hand, supplies the occipital lobe. The anterior cerebral artery supplies a portion of the frontal and parietal lobes.
The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a syncopal episode. He has no significant medical history and denies any loss of bladder or bowel control or tongue biting.
During examination, an ejection systolic murmur is detected at the right sternal edge in the second intercostal space. The murmur is heard radiating to the carotids.
What intervention can be done to decrease the intensity of the murmur heard during auscultation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Valsalva manoeuvre
Explanation:The intensity of the ejection systolic murmur heard in aortic stenosis can be decreased by performing the Valsalva manoeuvre. On the other hand, the intensity of the murmur can be increased by administering amyl nitrite, raising legs, expiration, and squatting. These actions increase the volume of blood flow through the valve.
Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope or presyncope, and a distinct ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, duration of murmur, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The condition can be caused by degenerative calcification, bicuspid aortic valve, William’s syndrome, post-rheumatic disease, or subvalvular HOCM.
Management of aortic stenosis depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are usually observed, while symptomatic patients require valve replacement. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement. If the valvular gradient is greater than 40 mmHg and there are features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, surgery may be considered even if the patient is asymptomatic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman comes to her doctor for a review of her angina medication. She expresses worry about her condition and inquires about the cause of the narrowing of her coronary arteries.
What alteration takes place during the progression of atherosclerosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fatty infiltration of the subendothelial space
Explanation:The subendothelial space is where fatty infiltration takes place.
Foam cells are created by the ingestion of LDLs, not HDLs.
Infiltration does not occur in the tunica externa, but rather in the subendothelial space.
Smooth muscle proliferation occurs, not hypertrophy.
Endothelial dysfunction leads to a decrease in nitric oxide bioavailability.
Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications
Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.
Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A newborn with Down's syndrome presents with a murmur at birth. Upon performing an echocardiogram, what is the most probable congenital cardiac abnormality that will be detected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrio-ventricular septal defect
Explanation:Congenital Cardiac Anomalies in Down Syndrome
Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by a range of congenital abnormalities. One of the most common abnormalities associated with Down syndrome is duodenal atresia. However, Down syndrome is also frequently associated with congenital cardiac anomalies. The most common cardiac anomaly in Down syndrome is an atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD), followed by ventricular septal defect (VSD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), tetralogy of Fallot, and atrial septal defect (ASD). These anomalies can cause a range of symptoms and complications, including heart failure, pulmonary hypertension, and developmental delays. It is important for individuals with Down syndrome to receive regular cardiac evaluations and appropriate medical care to manage these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is brought to the hospital after a head-on collision. Upon initial resuscitation, a chest X-ray reveals a widened mediastinum. An urgent CT aortogram confirms a traumatic aortic rupture.
Where is the most probable location for a traumatic aortic rupture to occur?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proximal descending aorta distal to origin of left subclavian artery (aortic isthmus)
Explanation:Although the aorta can be ruptured by trauma at any location, the aortic isthmus (the section of the proximal descending aorta located below the left subclavian artery) is the most frequent site of rupture resulting from deceleration injuries.
Thoracic Aorta Rupture: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Thoracic aorta rupture is a life-threatening condition that occurs due to decelerating force, such as a road traffic accident or a fall from a great height. Most people die at the scene, while survivors may have an incomplete laceration at the ligamentum arteriosum of the aorta. The clinical features of thoracic aorta rupture include a contained hematoma and persistent hypotension, which can be detected mainly by history and changes in chest X-rays. The X-ray changes include a widened mediastinum, trachea/esophagus to the right, depression of the left main stem bronchus, widened paratracheal stripe/paraspinal interfaces, obliteration of the space between the aorta and pulmonary artery, and rib fracture/left hemothorax.
The diagnosis of thoracic aorta rupture is usually made through angiography, with CT aortogram being the preferred method. Treatment involves repair or replacement of the ruptured aorta, with endovascular repair being the ideal option. In summary, thoracic aorta rupture is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent fatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Mrs. Smith is a 75-year-old woman who presents to the emergency department with progressive shortness of breath over the past 5 days. Last night she woke up suddenly because she couldn't catch her breath and developed a dry cough. Her breathing improved when she sat upright on the edge of her bed. She denies any chest pain, leg pain or fainting spells.
Her past medical history includes a myocardial infarction 5 years ago for which she underwent a coronary artery bypass graft, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. She has been smoking for 30 years and doesn't drink any alcohol.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left-sided heart failure
Explanation:The likely diagnosis for a patient experiencing paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is left-sided heart failure. This symptom, which involves sudden waking at night due to shortness of breath, is a common feature of heart failure, particularly on the left side. Aortic dissection, myocardial infarction, and pulmonary embolism are unlikely diagnoses as they present with different symptoms. Right-sided heart failure is also an unlikely diagnosis as it presents with different features such as raised JVP, ankle oedema, and hepatomegaly.
Features of Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a condition that affects the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively. It is characterized by several features that can help in its diagnosis. Dyspnoea, or shortness of breath, is a common symptom of chronic heart failure. Patients may also experience coughing, which can be worse at night and accompanied by pink or frothy sputum. Orthopnoea, or difficulty breathing while lying down, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, or sudden shortness of breath at night, are also common symptoms.
Another feature of chronic heart failure is the presence of a wheeze, known as a cardiac wheeze. Patients may also experience weight loss, known as cardiac cachexia, which occurs in up to 15% of patients. However, this may be hidden by weight gained due to oedema. On examination, bibasal crackles may be heard, and signs of right-sided heart failure, such as a raised JVP, ankle oedema, and hepatomegaly, may be present.
In summary, chronic heart failure is a condition that can be identified by several features, including dyspnoea, coughing, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, wheezing, weight loss, bibasal crackles, and signs of right-sided heart failure. Early recognition and management of these symptoms can help improve outcomes for patients with chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old white male is diagnosed with hypertension during a routine checkup at his GP clinic. What is the initial choice of antihypertensive medication for white males who are under 55 years of age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ACE inhibitor
Explanation:For patients under 55 years of age who are white, ACE inhibitors are the preferred initial medication for hypertension. These drugs have also been shown to improve survival rates after a heart attack and in cases of congestive heart failure.
However, for black patients or those over 55 years of age, a calcium channel blocker is the recommended first-line treatment. Beta blockers and diuretics are no longer considered the primary medication for hypertension.
Hypertension is a common medical condition that refers to chronically raised blood pressure. It is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease such as stroke and ischaemic heart disease. Normal blood pressure can vary widely according to age, gender, and individual physiology, but hypertension is defined as a clinic reading persistently above 140/90 mmHg or a 24-hour blood pressure average reading above 135/85 mmHg.
Around 90-95% of patients with hypertension have primary or essential hypertension, which is caused by complex physiological changes that occur as we age. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a variety of endocrine, renal, and other conditions. Hypertension typically does not cause symptoms unless it is very high, but patients may experience headaches, visual disturbance, or seizures.
Diagnosis of hypertension involves 24-hour blood pressure monitoring or home readings using an automated sphygmomanometer. Patients with hypertension typically have tests to check for renal disease, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidaemia, and end-organ damage. Management of hypertension involves drug therapy using antihypertensives, modification of other risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Common drugs used to treat hypertension include angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, thiazide type diuretics, and angiotensin II receptor blockers. Drug therapy is decided by well-established NICE guidelines, which advocate a step-wise approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A middle-aged man is informed of his hypertension during routine check-ups. The physician clarifies that his age increases the likelihood of a secondary cause for his hypertension. What is the primary cause of secondary hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal disease
Explanation:Secondary hypertension is primarily caused by renal disease, while other endocrine diseases like hyperaldosteronism, phaeochromocytoma, and acromegaly are less common culprits. Malignancy and pregnancy typically do not lead to hypertension, although pregnancy can result in pre-eclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure. Certain medications, such as NSAIDs and glucocorticoids, can also induce hypertension.
Secondary Causes of Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can be caused by various factors. While primary hypertension has no identifiable cause, secondary hypertension is caused by an underlying medical condition. The most common cause of secondary hypertension is primary hyperaldosteronism, which accounts for 5-10% of cases. Other causes include renal diseases such as glomerulonephritis, pyelonephritis, adult polycystic kidney disease, and renal artery stenosis. Endocrine disorders like phaeochromocytoma, Cushing’s syndrome, Liddle’s syndrome, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and acromegaly can also result in increased blood pressure. Certain medications like steroids, monoamine oxidase inhibitors, the combined oral contraceptive pill, NSAIDs, and leflunomide can also cause hypertension. Pregnancy and coarctation of the aorta are other possible causes. Identifying and treating the underlying condition is crucial in managing secondary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old female complains of fatigue and occasional palpitations. During one of these episodes, an ECG shows atrial fibrillation that resolves within half an hour. What would be the most suitable subsequent investigation for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:Diagnosis and Potential Causes of Paroxysmal Atrial Fibrillation
Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF) can have various underlying causes, including thyrotoxicosis, mitral stenosis, ischaemic heart disease, and alcohol consumption. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct thyroid function tests to aid in the diagnosis of AF, as it can be challenging to identify based solely on clinical symptoms. Additionally, an echocardiogram should be requested to evaluate the function of the left ventricle and valves, which would typically be performed by a cardiologist. However, coronary angiography is unlikely to be necessary.
Conversely, a full blood count, calcium, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), or lipid profile would not be useful in determining the nature of AF or its potential treatment. It is essential to consider the various causes of AF to determine the most effective course of treatment. The sources cited in this article provide further information on the diagnosis and management of AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman has just had a right hemiarthroplasty and is now experiencing sudden onset of shortness of breath and sharp pleuritic pain on the right side of her chest. A chest x-ray is done as part of the initial evaluation, revealing a wedge-shaped opacification. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Symptoms and Signs of Pulmonary Embolism
Pulmonary embolism is a medical condition that can be difficult to diagnose due to its varied symptoms and signs. While chest pain, dyspnoea, and haemoptysis are commonly associated with pulmonary embolism, only a small percentage of patients present with this textbook triad. The symptoms and signs of pulmonary embolism can vary depending on the location and size of the embolism.
The PIOPED study conducted in 2007 found that tachypnea, or a respiratory rate greater than 16/min, was the most common clinical sign in patients diagnosed with pulmonary embolism, occurring in 96% of cases. Other common signs included crackles in the chest (58%), tachycardia (44%), and fever (43%). Interestingly, the Well’s criteria for diagnosing a PE uses tachycardia rather than tachypnea. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the varied symptoms and signs of pulmonary embolism to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male is admitted post myocardial infarction.
Suddenly, on day seven, he collapses without warning. The physician observes the presence of Kussmaul's sign.
What is the most probable complication of MI in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventricular rupture
Explanation:Complications of Myocardial Infarction: Cardiac Tamponade
Myocardial infarction can lead to a range of complications, including cardiac tamponade. This occurs when there is ventricular rupture, which can be life-threatening. One way to diagnose cardiac tamponade is through Kussmaul’s sign, which is the detection of a rising jugular venous pulse on inspiration. However, the classic diagnostic triad for cardiac tamponade is Beck’s triad, which includes hypotension, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds.
It is important to note that Dressler’s syndrome, a type of pericarditis that can occur after a myocardial infarction, typically has a gradual onset and is associated with chest pain. Therefore, it is important to differentiate between these complications in order to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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