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  • Question 1 - What is the first line treatment recommended by NICE for an adult with...

    Incorrect

    • What is the first line treatment recommended by NICE for an adult with OCD and moderate functional impairment?

      Your Answer: CBT alone

      Correct Answer: Choice of CBT of an SSRI

      Explanation:

      Individuals with OCD who experience moderate functional impairment should be presented with the option to choose between undergoing a course of SSRI medication of receiving more intensive CBT.

      Maudsley Guidelines

      First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)

      Second line:

      – SSRI + antipsychotic
      – Citalopram + clomipramine
      – Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
      – Lamotrigine + SSRI
      – Topiramate + SSRI

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8.4
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  • Question 2 - Can you explain what transference means in the context of psychotherapy? ...

    Correct

    • Can you explain what transference means in the context of psychotherapy?

      Your Answer: The thoughts and feelings of the patient towards the therapist

      Explanation:

      Transference is when a patient unconsciously assigns to their therapist feelings and attitudes that are associated with significant people from their past. These feelings can be positive, negative, of ambivalent. Projection occurs when a patient attributes their unacceptable thoughts and impulses to their therapist. Countertransference refers to the therapist’s emotions towards the patient. When a patient internalizes feelings of anger and self-harms, various processes such as denial, repression, and acting out may be involved. Although Freud initially viewed transference as a hindrance to therapy, it is now recognized that interpreting transference can aid patients in comprehending past relationships.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 3 - A teenager is referred by the transplant team with moderate depression following a...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager is referred by the transplant team with moderate depression following a recent operation. They are prescribed cyclosporin. Which of the following would be the least appropriate antidepressant in this case?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Correct Answer: Nefazodone

      Explanation:

      The primary metabolic pathway for cyclosporin involves the CYP3A3/4 isoenzymes. When this system is inhibited, toxic levels of cyclosporin can accumulate. Reports have shown that interactions with nefazodone and fluvoxamine can lead to cyclosporine toxicity. Vella (1998) published a study on the interactions between cyclosporine and newer antidepressant medications in the American Journal of Kidney Diseases, which supports these findings.

      Interactions of Antidepressants with Cytochrome P450 System

      Antidepressants, particularly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can have significant effects on the cytochrome P450 system. This can result in drug interactions that can affect the efficacy and safety of the medications.

      One example of such interaction is between fluvoxamine and theophylline. Fluvoxamine is a potent inhibitor of CYP1A2, which can lead to increased levels of theophylline in the body. This can cause adverse effects such as nausea, vomiting, and tremors.

      Another example is between fluoxetine and clozapine. Fluoxetine is a potent inhibitor of CYP2D6, which can increase the risk of seizures with clozapine. Clozapine is metabolized by CYP1A2, CYP3A4, and CYP2D6, and any inhibition of these enzymes can affect its metabolism and increase the risk of adverse effects.

      It is important to be aware of these interactions and monitor patients closely when prescribing antidepressants, especially in those who are taking other medications that are metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      109.1
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  • Question 4 - According to Maudsley Guidelines, what is the recommended maximum length of time for...

    Correct

    • According to Maudsley Guidelines, what is the recommended maximum length of time for prescribing benzodiazepines for anxiety?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines and Addiction

      Benzodiazepines are known to be addictive and should only be prescribed as a hypnotic or anxiolytic for a maximum of 4 weeks. Withdrawal symptoms can be physical of psychological, including stiffness, weakness, GI disturbance, paraesthesia, flu-like symptoms, visual disturbance, anxiety, insomnia, nightmares, depersonalisation, decreased memory and concentration, delusions, and hallucinations. Patients who wish to withdraw from short-acting benzodiazepines should first be converted to diazepam, which has a longer half-life and produces less severe withdrawal. The table provides approximate equivalent doses for different benzodiazepines. These guidelines are from the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - How are correlation and regression related? ...

    Incorrect

    • How are correlation and regression related?

      Your Answer: Spearman's correlation coefficient is represented by a small r

      Correct Answer: Regression allows one variable to be predicted from another variable

      Explanation:

      Stats: Correlation and Regression

      Correlation and regression are related but not interchangeable terms. Correlation is used to test for association between variables, while regression is used to predict values of dependent variables from independent variables. Correlation can be linear, non-linear, of non-existent, and can be strong, moderate, of weak. The strength of a linear relationship is measured by the correlation coefficient, which can be positive of negative and ranges from very weak to very strong. However, the interpretation of a correlation coefficient depends on the context and purposes. Correlation can suggest association but cannot prove of disprove causation. Linear regression, on the other hand, can be used to predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed. Scatter graphs are used in correlation and regression analyses to visually determine if variables are associated and to detect outliers. When constructing a scatter graph, the dependent variable is typically placed on the vertical axis and the independent variable on the horizontal axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which antiepileptic medication is associated with a higher risk of causing aggression when...

    Correct

    • Which antiepileptic medication is associated with a higher risk of causing aggression when used for epilepsy treatment?

      Your Answer: Levetiracetam

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly used for the treatment of epilepsy, but many of them also have mood stabilizing properties and are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorder. However, some AEDs carry product warnings for serious side effects such as hepatic failure, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and skin reactions. Additionally, some AEDs have been associated with an increased risk of suicidal behavior and ideation.

      Behavioral side-effects associated with AEDs include depression, aberrant behaviors, and the development of worsening of irritability, impulsivity, anger, hostility, and aggression. Aggression can occur before, after, of in between seizures. Some AEDs are considered to carry a higher risk of aggression, including levetiracetam, perampanel, and topiramate. However, data on the specific risk of aggression for other AEDs is lacking of mixed. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of AEDs when prescribing them for patients with epilepsy of bipolar disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - If you observe a man who has been admitted to a psychiatric hospital...

    Correct

    • If you observe a man who has been admitted to a psychiatric hospital yawning excessively, appearing restless, and having dilated pupils one day after admission, what do you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Opiate withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      8.6
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman who has been struggling with anxiety for at least three...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman who has been struggling with anxiety for at least three years, reports that she often drinks alcohol before going to social events to calm her nerves.

      Which of the following statements is accurate regarding her anxiety?

      Your Answer: It indicates alcohol dependence, and after initial worsening with withdrawal usually will improve after three weeks of abstinence from alcohol

      Explanation:

      This man is experiencing anxiety in the morning due to his dependence on alcohol. Mild alcohol withdrawal commonly causes symptoms such as agitation, fever, sweats, and tremors, which can all be alleviated by consuming alcohol. However, if the patient continues to refrain from drinking, these symptoms typically reach their peak after 72 hours and can last up to a week of more, but usually subside within three weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 9 - A teenager on a psychiatric ward, with a history of bulimia, is suspected...

    Correct

    • A teenager on a psychiatric ward, with a history of bulimia, is suspected to have been vomiting in her room. A set of bloods are taken soon after. Which of the following would indicate that the team's suspicion is valid?:

      Your Answer: Raised serum amylase

      Explanation:

      The salivary gland is likely the source of the elevated amylase levels observed in bulimic patients as a result of vomiting.

      Bulimia, a disorder characterized by inducing vomiting, is a serious health concern. One method used to induce vomiting is through the use of syrup of ipecac, which contains emetine, a toxic alkaloid that irritates the stomach and causes vomiting. While it may produce vomiting within 15-30 minutes, it is not always effective. Unfortunately, nearly 8% of women with eating disorders experiment with ipecac, and 1-2% use it frequently. This is concerning because ipecac is associated with serious cardiac toxicity, including cardiomyopathy and left ventricular dysfunction. Elevated serum amylase levels are a strong indication that a patient has recently been vomiting. It is important to seek professional help for bulimia and avoid using dangerous methods like ipecac to induce vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - What signs of symptoms would indicate a possible diagnosis of Turner syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What signs of symptoms would indicate a possible diagnosis of Turner syndrome?

      Your Answer: Webbed neck

      Explanation:

      Understanding Turner Syndrome

      Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects only females. It occurs when one of the two X chromosomes is missing of partially missing. This happens randomly and does not increase the risk of the condition in future siblings. Although X-inactivation occurs in females, having only one X chromosome can cause issues as not all genes are inactivated in the inactivated X chromosome.

      The features of Turner syndrome include short stature, a webbed neck, a broad chest with widely spaced nipples, gonadal dysfunction leading to amenorrhea and infertility, congenital heart disease, and hypothyroidism. Despite these physical characteristics, girls with Turner syndrome typically have normal intelligence, with a mean full-scale IQ of 90. However, they may struggle with nonverbal, social, and psychomotor skills. It is important to understand the symptoms and effects of Turner syndrome to provide appropriate care and support for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is a true statement about problem gambling? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about problem gambling?

      Your Answer: It is more common in people with psychiatric problems

      Explanation:

      Problem Gambling: Screening and Interventions

      Problem gambling, also known as pathological gambling, refers to gambling that causes harm to personal, family, of recreational pursuits. The prevalence of problem gambling in adults ranges from 7.3% to 0.7%, while in psychiatric patients, it ranges from 6% to 12%. Problem gambling typically starts in early adolescence in males and runs a chronic, progressive course with periods of abstinence and relapses.

      Screening for problem gambling is done using various tools, including the NODS-CLiP and the South Oaks Gambling Screen (SOGS). Brief interventions have been successful in decreasing gambling, with motivational enhancement therapy (MET) being the most effective. Pharmacological interventions, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), naltrexone, and mood stabilizers, have also been effective, but the choice of drug depends on the presence of comorbidity. Psychological interventions, particularly cognitive-behavioral treatments, show promise, but long-term follow-up and high drop-out rates are major limitations. Studies comparing psychological and pharmacological interventions are needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of PANDAS? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of PANDAS?

      Your Answer: Hallucinations

      Explanation:

      PANDAS: A Disorder Linked to Streptococcal Infections

      PANDAS, of Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections, is a condition that affects children who develop sudden onset of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and/of tic disorders like Tourette’s Syndrome after contracting strep infections such as Strep throat of Scarlet Fever. The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) has identified five criteria for diagnosing PANDAS, including the presence of OCD and/of tic disorder, pediatric onset of symptoms, episodic course of symptom severity, association with group A Beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, and association with neurological abnormalities. The anti streptococcal DNAse B (Anti DNAse-B) titre is commonly used to determine if there is immunologic evidence of a previous strep infection. PANDAS is linked to basal ganglia dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - What is the name of the self-reported screening tool for personality disorders that...

    Correct

    • What is the name of the self-reported screening tool for personality disorders that consists of 100 true and false questions and is developed based on DSM-IV criteria?

      Your Answer: PDQ-R

      Explanation:

      There are several screening tools available for personality disorder, including SAPAS, FFMRF, IPDE, PDQ-R, IPDS, and IIP-PD. SAPAS is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete, while FFMRF is self-reported and consists of 30 items rated 1-5. IPDE is a semi-structured clinical interview that includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview, while PDQ-R is self-reported and consists of 100 true/false questions. IPDS is an interview method that consists of 11 criteria and takes less than 5 minutes, while IIP-PD is self-reported and contains 127 items rated 0-4. A score of 3 of more on SAPAS warrants further assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      5.8
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  • Question 14 - What is a true statement about the utilization of lithium? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the utilization of lithium?

      Your Answer: People prescribed lithium require monitoring of thyroid function every 12 months

      Correct Answer: People over the age of 65 should have lithium levels checked every 3 months once stabilised

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to check lithium levels every 6 months if the person has been stabilized for over a year, of every 3 months if there are additional factors such as older age, drug interactions, impaired renal of thyroid function, raised calcium levels, poor symptom control, poor adherence, of previous plasma lithium levels of 0.8 mmol per litre of higher. Thyroid function should also be checked every 6 months. Lithium is typically taken at night to allow for a blood test at least 12 hours after the last dose, and once-daily prescribing is preferred.

      Lithium – Clinical Usage

      Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.

      Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.

      Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.

      Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.

      The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - What is a true statement about anorexia nervosa as defined by the ICD-11?...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about anorexia nervosa as defined by the ICD-11?

      Your Answer: Laxative abuse is more common among females than in males

      Explanation:

      Females are more likely to abuse laxatives, while males are more likely to engage in excessive exercise. Anorexia Nervosa typically develops earlier in females than in males. The prognosis for adolescents diagnosed with Anorexia Nervosa is generally better than for adults. Anorexia Nervosa can involve both bingeing and purging, and the ICD-11 recognizes two patterns: the ‘restricting pattern’ and the ‘binge-purge pattern’. Indications of preoccupation with weight and shape may not always be explicitly reported, but can be inferred from behaviors such as frequent weighing, measuring body shape, monitoring calorie intake, of avoiding certain clothing of mirrors. Such indirect evidence can support a diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa.

      Eating disorders are a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical and psychological consequences. The ICD-11 lists several types of eating disorders, including Anorexia Nervosa, Bulimia Nervosa, Binge Eating Disorder, Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder, Pica, and Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder.

      Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by significantly low body weight, a persistent pattern of restrictive eating of other behaviors aimed at maintaining low body weight, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Bulimia Nervosa involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Binge Eating Disorder is characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors, marked distress of impairment in functioning, and is more common in overweight and obese individuals. Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder involves avoidance of restriction of food intake that results in significant weight loss of impairment in functioning, but is not motivated by preoccupation with body weight of shape. Pica involves the regular consumption of non-nutritive substances, while Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder involves intentional and repeated regurgitation of previously swallowed food.

      It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve a combination of therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - Which of the following do you think is the most likely reason for...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following do you think is the most likely reason for the council's concern about a man who has made multiple claims about his neighbors harassing him and has been relocated twice before for similar reasons?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Individuals with borderline personality disorder may have conflicts with their neighbors, but it is unlikely that they would need to relocate multiple times as a result. On the other hand, those with paranoid personality disorder frequently engage in disputes with their neighbors.

      Paranoid Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals have a deep-seated distrust and suspicion of others, often interpreting their actions as malevolent. This disorder is characterized by a pattern of negative interpretations of others’ words, actions, and intentions, leading to a reluctance to confide in others and holding grudges for long periods of time. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder include at least four of the following symptoms: unfounded suspicions of exploitation, harm, of deception by others, preoccupation with doubts about the loyalty of trustworthiness of friends of associates, reluctance to confide in others due to fear of malicious use of information, reading negative meanings into benign remarks of events, persistent grudges, perceiving attacks on one’s character of reputation that are not apparent to others and reacting angrily of counterattacking, and recurrent suspicions of infidelity in a partner without justification. The ICD-11 does not have a specific category for paranoid personality disorder but covers many of its features under the negative affectivity qualifier under the element of mistrustfulness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      2188.7
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  • Question 17 - What factor increases the likelihood of non-fatal repetition of self-harm? ...

    Correct

    • What factor increases the likelihood of non-fatal repetition of self-harm?

      Your Answer: Alcohol dependency

      Explanation:

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A new antihypertensive medication is trialled for adults with high blood pressure. There...

    Incorrect

    • A new antihypertensive medication is trialled for adults with high blood pressure. There are 500 adults in the control group and 300 adults assigned to take the new medication. After 6 months, 200 adults in the control group had high blood pressure compared to 30 adults in the group taking the new medication. What is the relative risk reduction?

      Your Answer: 30%

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      The RRR (Relative Risk Reduction) is calculated by dividing the ARR (Absolute Risk Reduction) by the CER (Control Event Rate). The CER is determined by dividing the number of control events by the total number of participants, which in this case is 200/500 of 0.4. The EER (Experimental Event Rate) is determined by dividing the number of events in the experimental group by the total number of participants, which in this case is 30/300 of 0.1. The ARR is calculated by subtracting the EER from the CER, which is 0.4 – 0.1 = 0.3. Finally, the RRR is calculated by dividing the ARR by the CER, which is 0.3/0.4 of 0.75 (of 75%).

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 19 - What is a true statement about supportive psychotherapy? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about supportive psychotherapy?

      Your Answer: It aims to increase the patients self-esteem

      Explanation:

      Supportive Psychotherapy: An Overview

      Supportive psychotherapy is a widely used approach in psychiatry, often reserved for clients who are not suitable for other forms of therapy. It aims to provide emotional support and encouragement to help people cope with overwhelming stress and restore them to their previous level of functioning. This therapy is not based on any specific psychological theory and is eclectic in approach.

      Supportive psychotherapy is generally used with two different patient groups: those who were otherwise functioning well but have become symptomatic due to stress, and those who are not suitable for other forms of therapy. The goal of therapy is to help the patient get on with their life as best as possible, without disrupting reasonable defenses of generating conflicts.

      The therapist avoids confrontation and transference issues are rarely analyzed. However, the therapeutic aims of long-term supportive psychotherapy include establishing a therapeutic alliance, holding and containing, promoting awareness of transference issues, promoting stability, facilitating the maturation of defenses, and promoting better adaptation to reality.

      Supportive psychotherapy has been dismissed as ‘hand holding,’ but it should not be underestimated. It is suitable for most patients and is often the only therapy that can help when others have failed. Much of the work doctors do in outpatient clinics could be classified as supportive psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 20 - What is a characteristic of a type II error? ...

    Correct

    • What is a characteristic of a type II error?

      Your Answer: Occurs when the null hypothesis is incorrectly accepted

      Explanation:

      Hypothesis testing involves the possibility of two types of errors, namely type I and type II errors. A type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is wrongly rejected of the alternative hypothesis is incorrectly accepted. This error is also referred to as an alpha error, error of the first kind, of a false positive. On the other hand, a type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is wrongly accepted. This error is also known as the beta error, error of the second kind, of the false negative.

      Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics

      In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.

      The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.

      Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

      P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 21 - In what way can the study on depression be deemed as having limited...

    Correct

    • In what way can the study on depression be deemed as having limited applicability to the average patient population?

      Your Answer: External validity

      Explanation:

      When a study has good external validity, its findings can be applied to other populations with confidence.

      Validity in statistics refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study, while external validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. There are various threats to both internal and external validity, such as sampling, measurement instrument obtrusiveness, and reactive effects of setting. Additionally, there are several subtypes of validity, including face validity, content validity, criterion validity, and construct validity. Each subtype has its own specific focus and methods for testing validity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      4.5
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  • Question 22 - Which of the following has the greatest number of risk factors associated with...

    Correct

    • Which of the following has the greatest number of risk factors associated with completed suicide?

      Your Answer: 45-year-old male, divorced, unemployed, social class V

      Explanation:

      Suicide Risk Factors

      Risk factors for completed suicide are numerous and include various demographic, social, and psychological factors. Men are at a higher risk than women, with the risk peaking at age 45 for men and age 55 for women. Being unmarried and unemployed are also risk factors. Concurrent mental disorders are present in about 90% of people who commit suicide, with depression being the most commonly associated disorder. Previous suicide attempts and substance misuse are also significant risk factors. Co-existing serious medical conditions and personality factors such as rigid thinking, pessimism, and perfectionism also increase the risk of suicide. It is important to identify and address these risk factors in order to prevent suicide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      459.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which statement is false regarding an individual's ability to plead fitness? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is false regarding an individual's ability to plead fitness?

      Your Answer: If someone is unfit to plead there is a trial of facts

      Correct Answer: Someone is unfit to plead if they cannot recall the alleged crime

      Explanation:

      Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process

      Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - How can we best describe a primary prevention approach for suicide among older...

    Correct

    • How can we best describe a primary prevention approach for suicide among older adults?

      Your Answer: Development of social networks

      Explanation:

      Prevention measures can be classified into different levels, depending on the stage at which they are implemented. The first model, developed in the 1960s, includes primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention. Primary prevention aims to intervene before a disease of problem begins, and can be universal (targeted to the general public), selective (targeted to a high-risk population), of indicated (targeted to individuals with minimal but detectable signs of a disorder). Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease that has not yet become symptomatic, while tertiary prevention involves the care of established disease.

      A newer model, developed in 1992, focuses on prevention interventions used before the initial onset of a disorder. This model also includes three levels: universal prevention (targeted to the general population), selective prevention (targeted to a high-risk population), and indicated prevention (targeted to individuals with minimal but detectable signs of a disorder). Examples of prevention measures include cognitive interventions for adolescents with cognitive deficits to prevent the later phases of schizophrenia, screening procedures for early detection and treatment of disease, and the use of low-dose atypical antipsychotics and CBT for patients with prodromal symptoms of schizophrenia to delay of prevent disease onset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What methods can be employed to increase the number of white blood cells...

    Correct

    • What methods can be employed to increase the number of white blood cells in individuals with neutropenia?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the most accurate prediction for the median length of time that...

    Correct

    • What is the most accurate prediction for the median length of time that patients with dementia survive after being diagnosed?

      Your Answer: 6 years

      Explanation:

      Epidemiological Findings on Dementia

      Dementia is a disease that primarily affects older individuals, with a doubling of cases every five years. While the median survival time from diagnosis to death is approximately 5-6 years, 2% of those affected are under 65 years of age. In the UK, early onset dementia is more prevalent in men aged 50-65, while late onset dementia is marginally more prevalent in women. Approximately 60% of people with dementia live in private households, with 55% having mild dementia, 30% having moderate dementia, and 15% having severe dementia. These international and UK-specific epidemiological findings provide insight into the prevalence and characteristics of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is a known cause of difficulty with swallowing in individuals with learning...

    Correct

    • What is a known cause of difficulty with swallowing in individuals with learning disabilities?

      Your Answer: Clonazepam

      Explanation:

      Dysphagia can be caused by sedatives and other CNS depressants as they reduce arousal and suppress brainstem function.

      Swallowing Difficulties Caused by Certain Medications

      Swallowing difficulties, also known as dysphagia, can be caused by various factors, including certain medications. Benzodiazepines, commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders, have been found to cause swallowing problems in patients with learning difficulties. Additionally, other drugs such as metoclopramide, haloperidol, and phenothiazines have also been linked to dysphagia.

      Diagnosis and management of dysphagia is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia and malnutrition. Patients experiencing swallowing difficulties should undergo a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional, including a clinical examination and imaging studies. Treatment options may include modifying the consistency of food and liquids, swallowing exercises, and medication adjustments. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential side effects of certain medications and to monitor patients for any signs of dysphagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which statement accurately describes atomoxetine? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes atomoxetine?

      Your Answer: It can increase the risk of suicidal ideation

      Explanation:

      Patients should be cautioned about the potential for short-term suicidal thoughts when using atomoxetine, particularly if previous treatments with methylphenidate and lisdexamfetamine have been unsuccessful.

      ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is a true statement about opioid withdrawal? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about opioid withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Withdrawal symptoms may develop upon abrupt discontinuation of opioids after 5 days of regular and uninterrupted opioid use

      Explanation:

      The fact that even brief periods of opiate use can lead to withdrawal symptoms highlights the addictive nature of these drugs.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      56.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the recommended safe amount of alcohol to consume after the initial...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended safe amount of alcohol to consume after the initial three months of pregnancy, as per the NICE Guidelines?

      Your Answer: No amount of alcohol is considered safe at any point in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy and Alcohol

      The advice on safe drinking levels during pregnancy varies, but the most recent recommendation is to abstain from alcohol completely. According to NICE, pregnant women of those planning a pregnancy should avoid alcohol altogether to minimize risks to the fetus. This aligns with the UK Chief Medical Officers’ Alcohol Guidelines Review from 2016. It is recommended to follow this guideline to ensure the safety of the developing baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - What is the syndrome exhibited by an elderly woman who expresses feelings of...

    Correct

    • What is the syndrome exhibited by an elderly woman who expresses feelings of internal decay and a sense of non-existence due to depression?

      Your Answer: Cotard's

      Explanation:

      Cotard’s syndrome is a delusion where an individual believes they do not exist of have lost their blood, internal organs, of soul. It is commonly seen in depression, schizophrenia, and bipolar disorder, and can also occur after trauma. The condition is more prevalent in females and the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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      Seconds
  • Question 32 - What substance hinders the transformation of aldehyde into acetic acid? ...

    Correct

    • What substance hinders the transformation of aldehyde into acetic acid?

      Your Answer: Disulfiram

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - You have been asked to prepare a psychiatric report by the Court regarding...

    Correct

    • You have been asked to prepare a psychiatric report by the Court regarding one of your Child and Adolescent Mental Health Team patients who has been charged with a sexual offence, having exposed himself to a group of younger children in a local park. You have been asked to comment specifically on his fitness to plead. He has a diagnosis of treatment-resistant schizophrenia and has been on clozapine for several years. In spite of this he continues to suffer from intermittent, distressing auditory hallucinations several times a day. He is also frequently thought disordered.

      You discuss the alleged offence with the patient. He acknowledges that his behaviour was wrong, stating that he was hearing voices he attributed to the children telling him to remove his clothes. With careful explanation he is able to understand the roles of the various parties in Court (his legal team, prosecution, judge, jury etc). He has an understanding legal team and has developed a good relationship with them, having been accused of similar offences in the past. However he is frequently distracted during the conversation by hearing voices and his concentration is impaired due to the level of thought disorder.

      Which of the following Pritchard Criteria is he likely to fail?:

      Your Answer: Being able to follow proceedings in Court

      Explanation:

      It is likely that the patient’s ongoing psychiatric symptoms will make it difficult for him to follow court proceedings, such as witness statements and cross-examination. The legal test for determining fitness to plead remains the case of R vs. Pritchard from 1836, which includes criteria such as the ability to enter a plea, understand the evidence against them, instruct their solicitor, follow court proceedings, and challenge a juror. While it may be possible to argue that the patient cannot give legal instruction, the question asks for the most likely criteria he would fail, and given his good relationship with his legal team and understanding of relevant issues, this may not be the case. It is important to note that believing actions are morally justified is not part of fitness to plead, but may be relevant to a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity. The patient acknowledges his actions and understands the difference between guilty and not guilty. While challenging a juror is an outdated aspect of the fitness to plead test, the patient appears to understand the roles of everyone present in court and would be able to request the removal of a juror with whom he had a prior acquaintance. There have been calls from psychiatrists to update the criteria for fitness to plead due to inconsistencies in their application, but this has not yet occurred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 34 - A teenager who jumps to a conclusion without enough evidence demonstrates what kind...

    Correct

    • A teenager who jumps to a conclusion without enough evidence demonstrates what kind of automatic thinking?

      Your Answer: Arbitrary inference

      Explanation:

      Negative Automatic Thoughts and Cognitive Distortions

      Negative automatic thoughts, also known as cognitive distortions, are false beliefs that can lead to negative emotions and behaviors. Cognitive therapy uses Socratic questioning to identify and challenge these negative automatic thoughts. Some common cognitive distortions include dichotomous thinking, personalization, overgeneralization, arbitrary inference, selective abstraction, catastrophizing, control fallacies, fallacy of fairness, blaming, shoulds, magnification, minimization, emotional reasoning, fallacy of change, global labeling, always being right, and heaven’s reward fallacy.

      Dichotomous thinking is the tendency to see things as black and white, rather than shades of gray. Personalization involves incorrectly assuming that things happen due to us, even when there is no causal relationship. Overgeneralization is the act of coming to a general conclusion based on a single piece of evidence. Arbitrary inference involves drawing an unjustified conclusion. Selective abstraction, also known as filtering, involves concentrating on the negative while ignoring the positives. Catastrophizing is the act of expecting disaster from relatively trivial events.

      Control fallacies involve believing that we are responsible for everything (internal control fallacy) of nothing (external control fallacy). The fallacy of fairness involves believing that life is fair. Blaming involves holding others responsible for our distress. Shoulds are preconceived rules that we believe, often incorrectly, which makes us angry when others don’t obey them. Magnification involves exaggerating the importance of negative information of experiences, while trivializing of reducing the significance of positive information of experiences. Minimization involves undervaluing positive attributes.

      Emotional reasoning involves believing that what we feel must be true. The fallacy of change involves expecting others to change just because it suits us. Global labeling involves exaggerating and labeling behavior, such as saying I’m a loser when failing at something. Always being right involves the need to be right dominating all other needs. The heaven’s reward fallacy involves expecting our sacrifices to pay off. Magical thinking involves incorrectly believing that our actions influence outcomes.

      Overall, negative automatic thoughts and cognitive distortions can have a significant impact on our mental health and well-being. Identifying and challenging these thoughts can help us develop more positive and realistic beliefs, leading to improved emotional and behavioral outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      2.6
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  • Question 35 - Which antihistamine is most likely to cause delirium in an elderly patient? ...

    Correct

    • Which antihistamine is most likely to cause delirium in an elderly patient?

      Your Answer: Promethazine

      Explanation:

      Delirium is more likely to occur with first generation H1 antihistamines.

      Risk Factors for Delirium

      Delirium is a common condition that affects many elderly individuals. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing delirium. These risk factors include age, cognitive impairment, severe medical illness, previous history of delirium of neurological disease, psychoactive drug use, polypharmacy, and anticholinergic drug use.

      Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Certain classes of drugs, such as opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics, are strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia. Long-acting benzodiazepines are more troublesome than shorter-acting ones. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients. Pethidine, a member of the opioid class, appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other opioids due to its accumulation in individuals with impaired renal function and conversion to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.

      Overall, it is important to be aware of these risk factors and to carefully monitor medication use in elderly individuals to prevent the development of delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      4.7
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  • Question 36 - Which of the following is not a recognised method for testing illicit substances?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a recognised method for testing illicit substances?

      Your Answer: Nasal mucus

      Explanation:

      Testing for drugs cannot be done through nasal mucus.

      Drug Testing

      There are two main approaches to testing for illicit substances: immunoassays and lab testing. Immunoassays are a cheap and quick screening method, but not very specific. Lab testing is more accurate but time-consuming and expensive. Drug testing can be done through urine, saliva, blood, hair, and sweat, although hair and sweat are rarely used in mental health settings.

      False positives can occur when testing for illicit substances, so it’s important to check that patients are not taking other medications that could produce a false positive result. For example, common medications that can lead to false positive results include dimethylamylamine, ofloxacin, bupropion, phenothiazines, trazodone, and methylphenidate for amphetamines/methamphetamines; sertraline and efavirenz for benzodiazepines and cannabis; topical anesthetics for cocaine; codeine, dihydrocodeine, and methadone for opioids; lamotrigine, tramadol, and venlafaxine for PCP; and amitriptyline, bupropion, buspirone, chlorpromazine, fluoxetine, sertraline, and verapamil for LSD.

      In summary, drug testing is an important tool in mental health settings, but it’s crucial to consider potential false positives and medication interactions when interpreting results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 37 - What is the most frequently observed defence mechanism in individuals with borderline personality...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently observed defence mechanism in individuals with borderline personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Projection

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms in Specific Conditions

      Certain psychiatric conditions are characterized by specific defense mechanisms. These mechanisms are used by individuals to protect themselves from anxiety and other negative emotions. The following conditions and the associated defenses tend to come up on membership exams.

      Phobias are characterized by intense and irrational fears of specific objects of situations. The defense mechanisms commonly used in phobias are repression and displacement. Repression involves pushing the anxiety-provoking thoughts of memories out of conscious awareness. Displacement involves redirecting the anxiety onto a less threatening object of situation.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by intrusive and repetitive thoughts (obsessions) and/of repetitive behaviors (compulsions). The defense mechanisms commonly used in OCD are isolation, undoing, and reaction formation. Isolation involves separating the anxiety-provoking thought from the associated emotion. Undoing involves performing a ritual of action to undo the anxiety-provoking thought. Reaction formation involves expressing the opposite emotion of the anxiety-provoking thought.

      Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by unstable moods, relationships, and self-image. The defense mechanisms commonly used in BPD are projection and splitting. Projection involves attributing one’s own unacceptable thoughts of feelings onto another person. Splitting involves seeing people of situations as either all good of all bad.

      Narcissistic personality disorder (NPD) is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. The defense mechanisms commonly used in NPD are projection and splitting, similar to BPD.

      Agoraphobia is characterized by a fear of being in situations where escape may be difficult of embarrassing. The defense mechanism commonly used in agoraphobia is displacement, which involves redirecting the anxiety onto a less threatening object of situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 38 - Which of the following factors has the greatest impact on clozapine levels? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors has the greatest impact on clozapine levels?

      Your Answer: Smoking status

      Explanation:

      The levels of clozapine can be significantly impacted by smoking.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - One accurate statement about epidemiological measures is: ...

    Correct

    • One accurate statement about epidemiological measures is:

      Your Answer: Cross-sectional surveys can be used to estimate the prevalence of a condition in the population

      Explanation:

      Measures of Disease Frequency: Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two important measures of disease frequency. Incidence measures the speed at which new cases of a disease are emerging, while prevalence measures the burden of disease within a population. Cumulative incidence and incidence rate are two types of incidence measures, while point prevalence and period prevalence are two types of prevalence measures.

      Cumulative incidence is the average risk of getting a disease over a certain period of time, while incidence rate is a measure of the speed at which new cases are emerging. Prevalence is a proportion and is a measure of the burden of disease within a population. Point prevalence measures the number of cases in a defined population at a specific point in time, while period prevalence measures the number of identified cases during a specified period of time.

      It is important to note that prevalence is equal to incidence multiplied by the duration of the condition. In chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence. The incidence rate is stated in units of person-time, while cumulative incidence is always a proportion. When describing cumulative incidence, it is necessary to give the follow-up period over which the risk is estimated. In acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence may be similar, while for conditions such as the common cold, the incidence may be greater than the prevalence.

      Incidence is a useful measure to study disease etiology and risk factors, while prevalence is useful for health resource planning. Understanding these measures of disease frequency is important for public health professionals and researchers in order to effectively monitor and address the burden of disease within populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      83
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A new drug is trialled for the treatment of heart disease. Drug A...

    Correct

    • A new drug is trialled for the treatment of heart disease. Drug A is given to 500 people with early stage heart disease and a placebo is given to 450 people with the same condition. After 5 years, 300 people who received drug A had survived compared to 225 who received the placebo. What is the number needed to treat to save one life?

      Your Answer: 10

      Explanation:

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 41 - Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing Alzheimer's...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Aluminium exposure

      Explanation:

      In the 1960s and 1970s, there was a suspicion that aluminum could be a cause of Alzheimer’s disease. This led to concerns about exposure to aluminum in everyday items such as cooking pots, foil, beverage cans, antacids, and antiperspirants. However, subsequent studies have not found any evidence to support this theory. Today, most scientists are focused on other areas of research, and very few experts believe that everyday sources of aluminum are a risk factor for Alzheimer’s disease.

      Alzheimer’s Association: Risk Factors

      The Alzheimer’s Association has identified several risk factors for the development of Alzheimer’s disease. These include age, family history, head trauma (especially if associated with loss of consciousness), hypertension, heart disease, diabetes, CVA, high cholesterol, lower educational level, and female gender. Increasing age is a significant risk factor, as is having a family history of the disease. Head trauma, particularly if it results in loss of consciousness, can also increase the risk of developing Alzheimer’s. Other medical conditions such as hypertension, heart disease, and diabetes have also been linked to an increased risk of Alzheimer’s. Additionally, individuals with lower levels of education and females may be at higher risk. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce them where possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 42 - Which option is not suggested by NICE for aiding relapse prevention in individuals...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not suggested by NICE for aiding relapse prevention in individuals with alcohol addiction?

      Your Answer: Nalmefene

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - What is the recommended combination of antidepressants for treatment resistant depression according to...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended combination of antidepressants for treatment resistant depression according to the Maudsley Guidelines?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine and mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      The Maudsley Guidelines recommend the combination of venlafaxine and mirtazapine, also known as California Rocket Fuel (CRF), due to its effectiveness in quickly controlling depressive symptoms. This combination works by combining the selective serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor properties of venlafaxine with the noradrenergic-specific serotonergic properties of mirtazapine, resulting in a powerful noradrenergic and serotonergic effect. It is important to avoid other options as they can lead to serious interactions.

      Depression (Refractory)

      Refractory depression is a term used when two successive attempts at treatment have failed despite good compliance and adequate doses. There is no accepted definition of refractory depression. The following options are recommended as the first choice for refractory depression, with no preference implied by order:

      – Add lithium
      – Combined use of olanzapine and fluoxetine
      – Add quetiapine to SSRI/SNRI
      – Add aripiprazole to antidepressant
      – Bupropion + SSRI
      – SSRI (of venlafaxine) + mianserin (of mirtazapine)

      These recommendations are taken from the 13th edition of the Maudsley Guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 44 - A worldwide epidemic of influenza is known as a: ...

    Correct

    • A worldwide epidemic of influenza is known as a:

      Your Answer: Pandemic

      Explanation:

      Epidemiology Key Terms

      – Epidemic (Outbreak): A rise in disease cases above the anticipated level in a specific population during a particular time frame.
      – Endemic: The regular of anticipated level of disease in a particular population.
      – Pandemic: Epidemics that affect a significant number of individuals across multiple countries, regions, of continents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - The percentage of victims of the most severe sexual offenses in the previous...

    Incorrect

    • The percentage of victims of the most severe sexual offenses in the previous year who were acquainted with the perpetrator, as per data from England and Wales, is what?

      Your Answer: 0.50%

      Correct Answer: 90%

      Explanation:

      Sexual Offending in England and Wales: Key Findings

      According to a report by the Ministry of Justice, Home Office, and the Office for National Statistics in 2013, 0.5% of females reported being victims of the most serious sexual offences, such as rape of sexual assault by penetration, in the previous year. Young males between the ages of 20 and 39 were found to be the most common offenders, accounting for 47% of cases. The majority of victims (56%) reported that the offender was their partner.

      In 2011/12, the police recorded 53,665 sexual offences, which made up approximately 1% of all recorded crimes. Sexual assault was the most commonly reported offence, accounting for 41% of cases, followed by rape at 30%. Other offences included exposure, voyeurism, and sexual activity with minors. In contrast, less than 0.1% of males (around 12,000) reported being victims of the same types of offences in the previous year.

      The report also found that around 90% of victims of the most serious sexual offences knew the perpetrator, compared to less than half for other sexual offences. These findings provide insight into the prevalence and characteristics of sexual offending in England and Wales.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      6.5
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  • Question 46 - In Korsakoff syndrome, which aspect of memory is most significantly impacted? ...

    Incorrect

    • In Korsakoff syndrome, which aspect of memory is most significantly impacted?

      Your Answer: Working

      Correct Answer: Episodic

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome, also known as amnesic syndrome, is a chronic condition that affects recent and anterograde memory in an alert and responsive patient. It is caused by prolonged thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency and often follows Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The syndrome is characterized by a lack of insight, apathy, and confabulation. Thiamine is essential for glucose metabolism in the brain, and its deficiency leads to a toxic buildup of glucose, causing neuronal loss. The Mammillary bodies are the main areas affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      While intelligence on the WAIS is preserved, episodic memory is severely affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome. Semantic memory is variably affected, but implicit aspects of memory, such as response to priming and procedural memory, are preserved. Immediate memory tested with the digit span is normal, but information can only be retained for a few minutes at most. Patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome often display apathy, lack of initiative, and profound lack of insight.

      Source: Kopelman M (2009) The Korsakoff Syndrome: Clinical Aspects, Psychology and Treatment. Alcohol and Alcoholism 44 (2): 148-154.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 47 - Which antipsychotic medication would be the most suitable for a patient with epilepsy...

    Incorrect

    • Which antipsychotic medication would be the most suitable for a patient with epilepsy who has developed a psychotic illness, considering its minimal impact on seizure threshold?

      Your Answer: Quetiapine

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy

      People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 48 - Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between odds and odds...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between odds and odds ratio?

      Your Answer: When applied to survival analysis is termed the hazard ratio

      Correct Answer: The odds ratio approximates to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare

      Explanation:

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 49 - What is the estimated percentage of psychiatrists who experience stalking behavior at some...

    Correct

    • What is the estimated percentage of psychiatrists who experience stalking behavior at some point in their professional lives?

      Your Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      Stalking is a serious issue that can cause significant distress to victims. While most victims are not physically assaulted, the psychological and social damage can be severe. It is concerning that nearly half of stalkers re-offend, with personality disordered individuals and substance abusers being the most likely to do so. It is also alarming that professionals, such as psychiatrists, are at higher risk of being stalked by patients of their relatives. It is important for society to take stalking seriously and provide support and protection for victims.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 50 - What is a true statement about antisocial personality disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about antisocial personality disorder?

      Your Answer: Over 90% of those with conduct disorder will later meet criteria for antisocial personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Antisocial behaviours seen in conduct disorder are typically present before the age of 8

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder (Antisocial / Dissocial)

      Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by impulsive, irresponsible, and often criminal behavior. The criteria for this disorder differ somewhat between the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 abolished all categories of personality disorder except for a general description of personality disorder. This diagnosis can be further specified as “mild,” “moderate,” of “severe.” Patient behavior can be described using one of more of five personality trait domains; negative affectivity, dissociality, anankastic, detachment, and disinhibition. Clinicians may also specify a borderline pattern qualifier.

      The core feature of dissociality is a disregard for the rights and feelings of others, encompassing both self-centeredness and lack of empathy. Common manifestations of Dissociality include self-centeredness and lack of empathy. The DSM-5 defines antisocial personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, occurring since age 15, as indicated by three (of more) of the following: failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviors, deceitfulness, impulsivity of failure to plan ahead, irritability and aggressiveness, reckless disregard for safety of self of others, consistent irresponsibility, and lack of remorse.

      Prevalence estimates are between 1%-6% in men and between 0.2-0.8% in women. Antisocial behaviors typically have their onset before age 8 years. Nearly 80% of people with ASPD developed their first symptom by age 11 years. Boys develop symptoms earlier than girls, who may not develop symptoms until puberty. An estimated 25% of girls and 40% of boys with Conduct Disorder will later meet criteria for ASPD.

      The 2009 NICE Guidelines essentially make two recommendations on treatment: consider offering group-based cognitive and behavioral interventions and pharmacological interventions should not be routinely used for the treatment of antisocial personality disorder of associated behaviors of aggression, anger, and impulsivity. A Cochrane review found that there is not enough good quality evidence to recommend of reject any psychological treatment for people with a diagnosis of AsPD.

      The term psychopathy has varied meanings. Some use the term synonymously with APD and consider it to represent the severe end of the spectrum of APD. Others maintain a clear distinction between psychopathy and APD. Psychopathy has been said to be a richer (broader) concept than APD. The DSM-5 view of APD is largely based on behavioral difficulties whereas the concept of psychopathy considers behavior in addition to personality-based (interpersonal of affective) symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      12
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  • Question 51 - As per NICE guidelines, what is the recommended time frame for a clinic...

    Incorrect

    • As per NICE guidelines, what is the recommended time frame for a clinic review of a 25 year-old man who has been started on an SSRI for his first episode of depression?

      Your Answer: 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: 1 week

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that individuals who are under 30 years of age of are at an increased risk of suicide and have started taking antidepressants should be monitored closely and seen for follow-up appointments. This is particularly important in the early stages of treatment when there may be a higher prevalence of suicidal thoughts.

      Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:

      – Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
      – Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
      – After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
      – Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
      – Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.

      The stepped care approach involves the following steps:

      – Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.

      Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.

      NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.

      NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.

      When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.

      The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 52 - What is a true statement about frontotemporal lobar dementias? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about frontotemporal lobar dementias?

      Your Answer: Personality is preserved better than in Alzheimer's

      Correct Answer: Compared to Alzheimer's recent memory is preserved better than remote memory

      Explanation:

      Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

      Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that involve the atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by progressive dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. FTLD is the third most common form of dementia across all age groups and a leading type of early-onset dementia.

      The disease has common features such as onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD: behavioral-variant (bvFTD), language variant – primary progressive aphasia (PPA), and the language variant is further subdivided into semantic variant PPA (aka semantic dementia) and non-fluent agrammatic variant PPA (nfvPPA).

      As the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge, as an initially focal degeneration becomes more diffuse and spreads to affect large regions in the frontal and temporal lobes. The key differences between the subtypes are summarized in the table provided. The bvFTD subtype is characterized by poor personal and social decorum, disinhibition, poor judgment and problem-solving, apathy, compulsive/perseverative behavior, hyperorality of dietary changes, and loss of empathy. The nfvPPA subtype is characterized by slow/slurred speech, decreased word output and phrase length, word-finding difficulties, apraxia of speech, and spared single-word comprehension. The svPPA subtype is characterized by intact speech fluency, word-finding difficulties (anomia), impaired single-word comprehension, repetitive speech, and reduced word comprehension.

      In conclusion, FTLD is a progressive, heterogeneous, neurodegenerative disorder that affects the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD, and as the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 53 - How does the suicide rate in patients with epilepsy compare to the general...

    Correct

    • How does the suicide rate in patients with epilepsy compare to the general population?

      Your Answer: 3 times higher

      Explanation:

      Suicide Risk in Epilepsy

      Several studies have shown that individuals with epilepsy have an increased risk of suicide. A large study published in the Lancet in 2007 found that individuals with epilepsy were three times more likely to commit suicide compared to those without epilepsy. This risk remained high even after excluding those with a history of psychiatric disease and adjusting for socioeconomic factors.

      The highest risk of suicide was found in individuals with epilepsy and comorbid psychiatric disease, with a risk of 13.7 times higher than controls. The risk of suicide was also highest during the first six months after diagnosis, especially in those with a history of comorbid psychiatric disease.

      These findings highlight the importance of addressing mental health concerns in individuals with epilepsy, particularly during the early stages of diagnosis. Healthcare providers should be aware of the increased risk of suicide in this population and provide appropriate support and resources to prevent suicide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 54 - What hormonal imbalance is observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa? ...

    Correct

    • What hormonal imbalance is observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Raised growth hormone levels

      Explanation:

      Extensive research has been conducted on the endocrine alterations linked to anorexia nervosa, revealing compelling evidence of hypothalamic dysfunction. These changes are all secondary and can be reversed through weight gain. Additional changes associated with anorexia nervosa include decreased levels of gonadotropins (FSH and LH), normal of elevated cortisol levels, reduced sex hormones, and imbalanced thyroid hormones characterized by low T3, high reverse T3, and an elevated T4:T3 ratio.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 55 - A woman is referred by her GP due to her persistent belief that...

    Correct

    • A woman is referred by her GP due to her persistent belief that she has stomach cancer. She remains convinced of this despite multiple normal investigations and reassurance from medical specialists. What is the most probable diagnosis for her condition?

      Your Answer: Hypochondriasis

      Explanation:

      There is often confusion between hypochondriasis and bodily distress disorder. Hypochondriasis involves a fixation on having a particular illness, while bodily distress disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with symptoms rather than a specific diagnosis.

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 56 - If a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder develops tics due to taking...

    Correct

    • If a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder develops tics due to taking methylphenidate, what would be the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Atomoxetine

      Explanation:

      ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 57 - Which of the following is an atypical symptom of generalised anxiety disorder? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an atypical symptom of generalised anxiety disorder?

      Your Answer: Visual disturbance

      Explanation:

      While anxiety is not commonly associated with visual disturbance, it is important to explore potential underlying causes, such as a pheochromocytoma, to determine the root of the issue.

      Generalised Anxiety Disorder: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Generalised anxiety disorder is a condition characterized by persistent symptoms of anxiety that last for several months and occur on most days. The symptoms can be either general apprehension of excessive worry about multiple everyday events, such as family, health, finances, and work of school. In addition to these symptoms, individuals with generalised anxiety disorder may experience muscular tension, motor restlessness, sympathetic autonomic overactivity, nervousness, difficulty concentrating, irritability, of sleep disturbance.

      To diagnose generalised anxiety disorder, healthcare professionals look for specific essential features. These include marked symptoms of anxiety that are not restricted to any particular environmental circumstance, and are accompanied by additional characteristic symptoms such as muscle tension, autonomic overactivity, nervousness, difficulty concentrating, irritability, and sleep disturbances. The symptoms must persist for at least several months, for more days than not, and cannot be better accounted for by another mental disorder of medical condition. The symptoms must also result in significant distress of impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 58 - What is the information provided by ICD-11 regarding bipolar disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the information provided by ICD-11 regarding bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: Hypomania can be regarded as a normal psychological state

      Correct Answer: Hypomania, is by definition, not accompanied by delusions of hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Manic episodes have similar symptoms to hypomanic episodes, but they are more severe and can cause significant impairment in various areas of life. They may also require hospitalization to prevent harm to oneself of others, of be accompanied by delusions of hallucinations. Hypomanic episodes last for at least several days and may include flight of ideas, which is not a helpful way to distinguish between the two. If a hypomanic syndrome occurs during treatment with antidepressants of other therapies, it should be considered a hypomanic episode if it persists after treatment is stopped and meets the full diagnostic criteria for hypomania.

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 59 - Which option is not advised by NICE for the treatment of delirium? ...

    Correct

    • Which option is not advised by NICE for the treatment of delirium?

      Your Answer: Avoid regular visits from family

      Explanation:

      Delirium Management

      Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.

      Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 60 - What is the illicit substance with the highest lifetime prevalence of use in...

    Correct

    • What is the illicit substance with the highest lifetime prevalence of use in Europe?

      Your Answer: Cannabis

      Explanation:

      Drug usage patterns in the UK are comparable to those observed throughout Europe, as reported by the EMCDDA. Cannabis remains the most frequently used drug in the UK, followed by amphetamines, hallucinogens, cocaine, and ecstasy.

      Illicit Drug Use Epidemiology

      The EMCDDA regularly gathers data on the misuse of illicit drugs. A survey conducted between 2004 and 2008 revealed the following results regarding the lifetime prevalence of drug use:

      – Cannabis: 22.5%
      – Cocaine: 4.1%
      – Amphetamine: 3.7%
      – Ecstasy: 3.3%
      – Opioids*: 0.5%

      *Note that opioids were only included if they were taken for illicit purposes, rather than for pain relief.

      The above figures provide insight into the extent of illicit drug use across Europe during the survey period. While cannabis was the most commonly used drug, followed by cocaine, amphetamine, and ecstasy, opioid use was relatively low. These findings can inform public health policies and interventions aimed at reducing drug-related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 61 - What is the term used to describe how a person's age affects their...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe how a person's age affects their likelihood of reporting past exposure to a certain risk factor?

      Your Answer: Recall bias

      Explanation:

      Recall bias pertains to how a person’s illness status can influence their tendency to report past exposure to a risk factor. Confounding arises when an additional variable is associated with both an independent and dependent variable. Observer bias refers to the possibility that researchers’ cognitive biases may unconsciously impact the results of a study. Publication bias refers to the tendency for studies with positive results to be more likely to be published. Selection bias occurs when certain individuals of groups are overrepresented, leading to inadequate randomization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      1293.1
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  • Question 62 - Which of the following is not a symptom of niacin deficiency? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a symptom of niacin deficiency?

      Your Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Pellagra (niacin deficiency) is associated with diarrhea instead of constipation.

      Pellagra: A Vitamin B3 Deficiency Disease

      Pellagra is a disease caused by a lack of vitamin B3 (niacin) in the body. The name pellagra comes from the Italian words pelle agra, which means rough of sour skin. This disease is common in developing countries where corn is a major food source, of during prolonged disasters like famine of war. In developed countries, pellagra is rare because many foods are fortified with niacin. However, alcoholism is a common cause of pellagra in developed countries. Alcohol dependence can worsen pellagra by causing malnutrition, gastrointestinal problems, and B vitamin deficiencies. It can also inhibit the conversion of tryptophan to niacin and promote the accumulation of 5-ALA and porphyrins.

      Pellagra affects a wide range of organs and tissues in the body, so its symptoms can vary. The classic symptoms of pellagra are known as the three Ds: diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia. Niacin deficiency can cause dementia, depression, mania, and psychosis, which is called pellagra psychosis. The most noticeable symptom of pellagra is dermatitis, which is a hyperpigmented rash that appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin. This rash is usually symmetrical and bilateral, and it is often described as Casal’s necklace when it appears on the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      3.6
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  • Question 63 - In the Rechtschaffen and Kales sleep classification, during which stage of sleep do...

    Incorrect

    • In the Rechtschaffen and Kales sleep classification, during which stage of sleep do night terrors typically occur?

      Your Answer: During transition from stage 2 - 3

      Correct Answer: During transition from stage 3 - 4

      Explanation:

      Night terrors happen when a person is transitioning from stage 3 to stage 4 of sleep.

      Night Terrors: Understanding the Condition

      Night terrors, also known as pavor nocturnus of sleep terrors, are a common occurrence in children aged 3-12, with the majority of cases happening when a child is 3-4 years old. Both boys and girls are equally affected, and the condition usually resolves on its own during adolescence, although it can still occur in adults. These episodes typically last between 1 to 15 minutes and occur 1 to 3 hours after sleep has begun.

      Night terrors are different from nightmares, which occur during REM sleep. Night terrors happen during the transition from stage 3 to stage 4 sleep, and children have no memory of the event the next morning. During a night terror, a child experiences intense crying and distress while asleep, usually around 90 minutes after falling asleep. They are unresponsive to external stimuli during this time.

      Night terrors are distinct from nightmares in several ways. For example, there is no recall of the event with night terrors, while there may be partial recall with nightmares. Night terrors occur early in sleep, while nightmares occur later. Additionally, night terrors are associated with significant autonomic arousal, while nightmares have minimal arousal.

      It is important to note that the information presented here is based on the Rechtschaffen and Kales sleep classification model developed in 1968, which is the classification used in the Royal College questions. However, in 2004, the American Academy of Sleep Medicine (AASM) reclassified NREM (non-REM) sleep into three stages, the last of which is also called delta sleep of slow-wave sleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 64 - Which drug is most likely to cause withdrawal symptoms between doses? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug is most likely to cause withdrawal symptoms between doses?

      Your Answer: Alprazolam

      Correct Answer: Oxazepam

      Explanation:

      Interdose withdrawal can occur with short-acting drugs, causing withdrawal symptoms to manifest as the effects of the previous dose start to diminish.

      Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders. It is important to have a working knowledge of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life. Half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body.

      Some of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life include diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours, clonazepam with a half-life of 18-50 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours, nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, alprazolam with a half-life of 10-15 hours, oxazepam with a half-life of 6-10 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 5-6 hours, zolpidem with a half-life of 2 hours, and zaleplon with a half-life of 2 hours. Understanding the half-life of these drugs is important for determining dosages and timing of administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 65 - A study which aims to see if women over 40 years old have...

    Incorrect

    • A study which aims to see if women over 40 years old have a different length of pregnancy, compare the mean in a group of women of this age against the population mean. Which of the following tests would you use to compare the means?

      Your Answer: Mann Whitney U test

      Correct Answer: One sample t-test

      Explanation:

      The appropriate statistical test for the study is a one-sample t-test as it involves the calculation of a single mean.

      Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      1781.3
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - What statistical test would be appropriate to compare the mean blood pressure measurements...

    Correct

    • What statistical test would be appropriate to compare the mean blood pressure measurements of a group of individuals before and after exercise?

      Your Answer: Paired t-test

      Explanation:

      Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - What is the likelihood of patients experiencing a relapse of their depressive illness...

    Incorrect

    • What is the likelihood of patients experiencing a relapse of their depressive illness within 3-6 months if they discontinue their antidepressant medication immediately upon recovery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Depression Treatment Duration

      It is recommended to treat a single episode of depression for 6-9 months after complete remission. Abruptly stopping antidepressants after recovery can lead to a relapse in 50% of patients within 3-6 months. For patients who have experienced 2 of more depressive episodes in recent history, NICE recommends a minimum of 2 years of antidepressant treatment. These guidelines are outlined in the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - For a study comparing two chemotherapy regimens for small cell lung cancer patients...

    Incorrect

    • For a study comparing two chemotherapy regimens for small cell lung cancer patients based on survival time, which statistical measure is most suitable for comparison?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hazard ratio

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hazard Ratio in Survival Analysis

      Survival analysis is a statistical method used to analyze the time it takes for an event of interest to occur, such as death of disease progression. In this type of analysis, the hazard ratio (HR) is a commonly used measure that is similar to the relative risk but takes into account the fact that the risk of an event may change over time.

      The hazard ratio is particularly useful in situations where the risk of an event is not constant over time, such as in medical research where patients may have different survival times of disease progression rates. It is a measure of the relative risk of an event occurring in one group compared to another, taking into account the time it takes for the event to occur.

      For example, in a study comparing the survival rates of two groups of cancer patients, the hazard ratio would be used to compare the risk of death in one group compared to the other, taking into account the time it takes for the patients to die. A hazard ratio of 1 indicates that there is no difference in the risk of death between the two groups, while a hazard ratio greater than 1 indicates that one group has a higher risk of death than the other.

      Overall, the hazard ratio is a useful tool in survival analysis that allows researchers to compare the risk of an event occurring between different groups, taking into account the time it takes for the event to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - What are the factors that have been demonstrated to elevate the likelihood of...

    Incorrect

    • What are the factors that have been demonstrated to elevate the likelihood of suicide among prisoners?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Being on remand

      Explanation:

      Suicide in Prison: High Rates and Risk Factors

      Suicide rates among prisoners are significantly higher than in the general population, with an average rate of 133 per 100,000 population per year in England and Wales in 1999-2000. Remand prisoners had an even higher rate of 339 per 100,000 population per year. Early suicides were more common in drug-dependent prisoners, with 59% occurring within 7 days of reception into prison.

      The most common method of suicide was hanging of self-strangulation, with bedclothes being the most common ligature used. Window bars, beds, and cell fittings such as lights, pipes, cupboards, sinks, toilets, of doors were the main ligature points. 72% of prisoners had at least one known psychiatric diagnosis, with drug dependence being the most common primary diagnosis at 27%. Schizophrenia was diagnosed in 6% of prisoners, and affective disorder in 18%.

      Risk factors for suicide in prisoners include being in a single cell, being male, having a psychiatric illness, having a history of substance misuse, having a history of previous self-harm of attempted suicide, recent suicidal ideation, and being on remand. Surprisingly, being married was found to be a risk factor for suicide in prisoners, in contrast to the general population where it is a protective factor.

      Overall, these findings highlight the urgent need for effective suicide prevention strategies in prisons, particularly for those at higher risk. This may include improved mental health services, better screening and assessment of risk factors, and measures to reduce access to means of suicide such as ligature points.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Which of the following is not typically linked to conduct disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not typically linked to conduct disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Social phobia

      Explanation:

      ADHD, depression, learning disabilities, substance misuse, psychosis, and autism are frequently observed alongside conduct disorders.

      Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders

      Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.

      ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).

      The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.

      The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.

      NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      0
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  • Question 71 - A 15-year-old boy is brought for review. He is normally fit and well...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought for review. He is normally fit and well and hasn't seen a doctor for over five years. His mother has been increasingly concerned about his behaviour in the past few weeks. She describes him staying up late at night, talking quickly and being very irritable. Yesterday he told his mother he was planning to 'take-over' the company meeting and give 'constructive criticism' to his bosses in front of the other employees. He feels many of his colleagues are 'underperforming' and need to be 'retaught' their jobs by him. He admits to trying cannabis once around six months ago and has drunk alcohol 'a few times' in the past year, the last time being two weeks ago. Prior to his deterioration a few weeks ago his mother describes him as a happy, well-adjusted, sociable young man.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mania

      Explanation:

      It is highly improbable for him to experience issues related to cannabis and alcohol use, considering the significant amount of time that has passed since he last consumed those substances.

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 72 - What is the intervention (buprenorphine) relative risk reduction for non-prescription opioid use at...

    Incorrect

    • What is the intervention (buprenorphine) relative risk reduction for non-prescription opioid use at six months in the group of patients with opioid dependence who received the treatment compared to those who did not receive it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.45

      Explanation:

      Relative risk reduction (RRR) is calculated as the percentage decrease in the occurrence of events in the experimental group (EER) compared to the control group (CER). It can be expressed as:

      RRR = 1 – (EER / CER)

      For example, if the EER is 18 and the CER is 33, then the RRR can be calculated as:

      RRR = 1 – (18 / 33) = 0.45 of 45%

      Alternatively, the RRR can be calculated as the difference between the CER and EER divided by the CER:

      RRR = (CER – EER) / CER

      Using the same example, the RRR can be calculated as:

      RRR = (33 – 18) / 33 = 0.45 of 45%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
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  • Question 73 - What is the recommended course of treatment for a man who experiences depression...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended course of treatment for a man who experiences depression after a heart attack?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      SSRI for Post-MI Depression

      Post-myocardial infarction (MI), approximately 20% of people develop depression, which can worsen prognosis if left untreated. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the preferred antidepressant group for post-MI depression. However, they can increase the risk of bleeding, especially in those using anticoagulation. Mirtazapine is an alternative option, but it is also associated with bleeding. The SADHART study found sertraline to be a safe treatment for depression post-MI. It is important to consider the bleeding risk when choosing an antidepressant for post-MI depression.

      References:
      – Davies, P. (2004). Treatment of anxiety and depressive disorders in patients with cardiovascular disease. BMJ, 328, 939-943.
      – Glassman, A. H. (2002). Sertraline treatment of major depression in patients with acute MI of unstable angina. JAMA, 288, 701-709.
      – Goodman, M. (2008). Incident and recurrent major depressive disorder and coronary artery disease severity in acute coronary syndrome patients. Journal of Psychiatric Research, 42, 670-675.
      – Na, K. S. (2018). Can we recommend mirtazapine and bupropion for patients at risk for bleeding? A systematic review and meta-analysis. Journal of Affective Disorders, 225, 221-226.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 74 - What is the estimated percentage of patients with schizophrenia who will not adhere...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated percentage of patients with schizophrenia who will not adhere to their antipsychotic medication regimen after 24 months of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      Non-Compliance

      Studies have shown that adherence rates in patients with psychosis who are treated with antipsychotics can range from 25% to 75%. Shockingly, approximately 90% of those who are non-compliant admit to doing so intentionally (Maudsley 12th edition). After being discharged from the hospital, the expected non-compliance rate in individuals with schizophrenia is as follows (Maudsley 12th Edition): 25% at ten days, 50% at one year, and 75% at two years. The Drug Attitude Inventory (DAI) is a useful tool for assessing a patient’s attitude towards medication and predicting compliance. Other scales that can be used include the Rating of Medication Influences Scale (ROMI), the Beliefs about Medication Questionnaire, and the Medication Adherence Rating Scale (MARS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - What factor is most likely to impact the generalizability of a study's findings...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is most likely to impact the generalizability of a study's findings to the larger population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive effects of the research setting

      Explanation:

      Validity in statistics refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study, while external validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. There are various threats to both internal and external validity, such as sampling, measurement instrument obtrusiveness, and reactive effects of setting. Additionally, there are several subtypes of validity, including face validity, content validity, criterion validity, and construct validity. Each subtype has its own specific focus and methods for testing validity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - What is the correct statement about the use of desmopressin in treating nocturnal...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement about the use of desmopressin in treating nocturnal enuresis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can be used to gain short-term control in children over the age of 7 years

      Explanation:

      Desmopressin is an artificial version of vasopressin and is approved for treating primary nocturnal enuresis in children aged 5 to 17. The recommended dosage is 200 mcg once daily. When taken with loperamide, desmopressin plasma concentrations can increase by up to three times. To ensure optimal effectiveness, children should avoid drinking fluids for one hour before and eight hours after taking desmopressin, according to the British National Formulary (BNF).

      Elimination Disorders

      Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.

      Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.

      Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.

      Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 77 - Which principle is not included in motivational interviewing? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which principle is not included in motivational interviewing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Encourage confrontation

      Explanation:

      Motivational interviewing aims to prevent conflict and necessitates the therapist to maintain a neutral stance.

      Motivational Interviewing: A Model for Resolving Ambivalence and Facilitating Change

      Motivational interviewing (MI) is an evidence-based method used for people with substance misuse problems. It was introduced by William Miller in 1983, based on his experience with alcoholics. MI focuses on exploring and resolving ambivalence and centres on the motivational process that facilitates change. It is based on three key elements: collaboration, evocation, and autonomy.

      There are four principles of MI: expressing empathy, supporting self-efficacy, rolling with resistance, and developing discrepancy. MI involves the use of micro-counseling skills called OARS, which stands for open-ended questions, affirmations, reflections, and summaries.

      Change talk is defined as statements by the client that reveal consideration of, motivation for, of commitment to change. In MI, the therapist aims to guide the client to expression of change talk. Types of change talk can be remembered by the mnemonic DARN-CAT, which stands for desire, ability, reason, need, commitment, activation, and taking steps.

      Overall, MI is a model for resolving ambivalence and facilitating change that emphasizes collaboration, evocation, and autonomy. It is a useful tool for therapists working with clients with substance misuse problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 78 - Which of the following options is considered the least appropriate for managing behavioral...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options is considered the least appropriate for managing behavioral difficulties associated with dementia, as per the Maudsley Guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia

      Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 79 - What is the term used to describe the inability of limitation to perform...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the inability of limitation to perform an activity within the typical range expected for a human being?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Disability

      Explanation:

      Understanding Learning Disabilities: Key Terms to Know

      Learning disabilities can be complex and challenging to understand. To help make sense of this topic, it’s important to be familiar with some key terms. Two important terms to know are impairments and disability.

      Impairments refer to problems in body function and structure, such as significant deviation of loss. This can include difficulties with vision, hearing, mobility, of cognitive functioning. Impairments can impact a person’s ability to learn and participate in daily activities.

      Disability is an umbrella term that encompasses impairments, activity limitations, and participation restrictions. It refers to the negative aspects of the interaction between a person’s health condition(s) and their contextual factors, including environmental and personal factors. For example, a person with a learning disability may experience difficulty with reading, writing, of math, which can impact their ability to participate fully in school of work.

      Understanding these terms can help individuals better understand the challenges faced by those with learning disabilities and work towards creating more inclusive and supportive environments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
      0
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  • Question 80 - What scales are suitable for assessing drug-induced Parkinsonism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What scales are suitable for assessing drug-induced Parkinsonism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Simpson-Angus scale

      Explanation:

      The Simpson-Angus scale was created to evaluate parkinsonism caused by medication, utilizing consistent assessments for stiffness, shaking, and excessive saliva production. The scale solely relies on observable symptoms.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 81 - What is a true statement about eating disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about eating disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychological treatments for binge eating disorder have a limited effect on body weight

      Explanation:

      The 2017 NICE Guidelines advise clinicians to inform individuals with binge eating disorder that psychological treatments focused on addressing binge eating may not have a significant impact on body weight and that weight loss is not the primary goal of therapy. However, it is important to clarify that while CBT-ED does not specifically target weight loss, it can lead to weight reduction in the long run by addressing binge eating behaviors.

      Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines

      Anorexia:
      For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Bulimia:
      For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Binge Eating Disorder:
      The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Advice for those with eating disorders:
      Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.

      Additional points:
      Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.

      Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 82 - What is a skin alteration that can be observed in individuals with anorexia...

    Incorrect

    • What is a skin alteration that can be observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Skin Changes in Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. In addition to the physical effects of malnutrition, anorexia can also cause various skin changes. These changes include xerosis of dry skin, cheilitis of inflammation of the lips, gingivitis of inflammation of the gums, hypertrichiosis of excess hair growth in areas that do not normally have hair, hyperpigmentation, Russell’s sign of scarring on knuckles and back of hand, carotenoderma of yellow/orange skin color, acne, nail changes, acrocyanosis of persistent blue, cyanotic discoloration of the digits, and seborrheic dermatitis. These skin changes can be a sign of underlying malnutrition and should be addressed as part of the treatment plan for anorexia nervosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
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  • Question 83 - Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of self-injury in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of self-injury in individuals with learning disabilities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polypharmacy

      Explanation:

      Medication for Self-Mutilating Behaviour in People with Learning Disability

      Self-injurious behaviour is a common issue among people with learning disability, and several risk factors have been identified, including younger age, lower developmental ability, autistic symptoms, and sensory impairment. According to R Collacott’s study published in the British Journal of Psychiatry in 1998, these factors increase the likelihood of self-injury in this population.

      Currently, lithium is the only medication that is licensed for the treatment of self-mutilating behaviour in people with learning disability. Other medications may be prescribed off-label, but their effectiveness and safety in this population are not well-established. Therefore, healthcare professionals should carefully consider the risks and benefits of medication use and closely monitor their patients for any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
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  • Question 84 - What symptom is more frequently observed in individuals experiencing mania compared to those...

    Incorrect

    • What symptom is more frequently observed in individuals experiencing mania compared to those with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grandiose delusions

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia typically presents with delusions that are not consistent with the individual’s mood, while grandiose delusions that align with a manic state are an example of mood congruent delusions.

      Mania: Features and Characteristics

      Mania is a mental state characterized by a range of symptoms that can significantly impact an individual’s behavior, thoughts, and emotions. Some of the key features of mania include an elated of irritable mood, restlessness, and overactivity. People experiencing mania may also exhibit disinhibited and reckless behavior, such as excessive spending of engaging in risky activities. They may have over-ambitious plans for the future and experience a flight of ideas and pressured speech. Additionally, mania can involve mood congruent delusions, increased libido, and a decreased need for sleep. Overall, mania can be a challenging and disruptive condition that requires professional treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 85 - What is a true statement about eating disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about eating disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: When treating anorexia nervosa, helping people to reach a healthy body weight of BMI for their age is a key goal

      Explanation:

      A key objective in the treatment of anorexia nervosa is to assist individuals in achieving a healthy body weight of BMI appropriate for their age. It is not recommended to rely solely on screening tools like SCOFF to diagnose eating disorders. While eating disorders can occur at any age, it is important to note that the risk is greatest for adolescents between the ages of 13 and 17, particularly young men and women. It is not advisable to use a single metric such as BMI of duration of illness to determine whether treatment for an eating disorder is necessary.

      Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines

      Anorexia:
      For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Bulimia:
      For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Binge Eating Disorder:
      The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Advice for those with eating disorders:
      Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.

      Additional points:
      Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.

      Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 86 - A 45-year-old man had a single episode of mania that was managed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man had a single episode of mania that was managed with medication during a two-week stay in a psychiatric facility. He is currently adhering to his medication regimen without any negative side effects and has gained full awareness of his condition. He is curious about when he will be able to resume driving.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After a period of three months of remaining stable and well

      Explanation:

      Individuals with psychiatric illness may inquire about the criteria for being able to continue driving. Following an acute episode of uncomplicated mania of psychosis, a period of three months of stability is necessary before resuming driving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - What is the estimated percentage of male prisoners who have been sentenced in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated percentage of male prisoners who have been sentenced in England and Wales and are believed to have antisocial personality disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Prisoner Mental Health: Epidemiological Data from the UK

      The Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity Among Prisoners in England and Wales, conducted by the Department of Health in 1997, is the primary source of epidemiological data on prisoner mental health in the UK. Despite the lack of updates, this survey remains a valuable resource for understanding the mental health needs of prisoners.

      Although the prison population represents only 0.1% of the total UK population, prisoners are extensive consumers of mental health services. In 1997, the UK prison population consisted of 46,872 male sentenced prisoners (76%), 12,302 male remand prisoners, and 2,770 female prisoners (<5%). The 1997 study involved interviews with over 3000 prisoners. The key findings of the 1997 study revealed high rates of personality disorders among prisoners, with 78% of male remand, 64% of male sentenced, and 50% of female prisoners having any personality disorder. Antisocial personality disorder had the highest prevalence, followed by paranoid personality disorder. Borderline personality disorder was more common in females than paranoid personality disorder. The study also found high rates of functional psychosis, with prevalence rates of 7% for male sentenced, 10% for male remand, and 14% for females. Rates of suicidal ideation and attempts were higher in remand compared to sentenced prisoners, with women reporting higher rates of suicidal ideation and attempts than males. Overall, the 1997 survey highlights the significant mental health needs of prisoners in the UK and underscores the importance of providing adequate mental health services to this population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 88 - What is another name for asthenic personality disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is another name for asthenic personality disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dependent personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Asthenic personality disorder, which used to be a common term, is now referred to as dependent personality disorder. It is important to be aware of this older term as it may still appear in older records.

      Dependent Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals excessively rely on others for support and fear abandonment. This disorder falls under Cluster C personality disorders. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder includes exhibiting five of more of the following behaviors: difficulty making decisions without input from others, requiring others to take on responsibilities, fear of disagreement, difficulty starting projects without support, excessive need for nurturance and support, feeling vulnerable and helpless when alone, seeking new relationships when one ends, and having an unrealistic fear of being left alone and unable to care for oneself. The ICD-11 removed the specific diagnosis of Dependent Personality Disorder, but individuals can still be diagnosed with a general personality disorder if they exhibit dependent features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 89 - What is a factor that increases the risk of agranulocytosis when using clozapine?...

    Incorrect

    • What is a factor that increases the risk of agranulocytosis when using clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Being Asian

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 90 - What is the most frequently observed eye abnormality in individuals with Wernicke's encephalopathy?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently observed eye abnormality in individuals with Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nystagmus

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
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  • Question 91 - What is the most prevalent personality disorder among women incarcerated in England and...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most prevalent personality disorder among women incarcerated in England and Wales?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antisocial

      Explanation:

      Prisoner Mental Health: Epidemiological Data from the UK

      The Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity Among Prisoners in England and Wales, conducted by the Department of Health in 1997, is the primary source of epidemiological data on prisoner mental health in the UK. Despite the lack of updates, this survey remains a valuable resource for understanding the mental health needs of prisoners.

      Although the prison population represents only 0.1% of the total UK population, prisoners are extensive consumers of mental health services. In 1997, the UK prison population consisted of 46,872 male sentenced prisoners (76%), 12,302 male remand prisoners, and 2,770 female prisoners (<5%). The 1997 study involved interviews with over 3000 prisoners. The key findings of the 1997 study revealed high rates of personality disorders among prisoners, with 78% of male remand, 64% of male sentenced, and 50% of female prisoners having any personality disorder. Antisocial personality disorder had the highest prevalence, followed by paranoid personality disorder. Borderline personality disorder was more common in females than paranoid personality disorder. The study also found high rates of functional psychosis, with prevalence rates of 7% for male sentenced, 10% for male remand, and 14% for females. Rates of suicidal ideation and attempts were higher in remand compared to sentenced prisoners, with women reporting higher rates of suicidal ideation and attempts than males. Overall, the 1997 survey highlights the significant mental health needs of prisoners in the UK and underscores the importance of providing adequate mental health services to this population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - What is the negative predictive value of the blood test for bowel cancer,...

    Incorrect

    • What is the negative predictive value of the blood test for bowel cancer, given a sensitivity of 60% and a specificity of 80% and a negative test result for a patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.5

      Explanation:

      Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 93 - An economic analysis conducted in 2011 on the Rapid Assessment Interface and Discharge...

    Incorrect

    • An economic analysis conducted in 2011 on the Rapid Assessment Interface and Discharge (RAID) psychiatric liaison service at City Hospital in Birmingham revealed what benefit-to-cost ratio?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      The Rapid Assessment Interface and Discharge (RAID) psychiatric liaison service at Birmingham’s City Hospital was evaluated by the London School of Economics, which found that the benefit:cost ratio was over 4:1. The evaluation showed that the service resulted in savings of £3.55 million per year in general hospital bed use, at a cost of £0.8 million.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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  • Question 94 - What is the accuracy of the NICE guidelines for anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accuracy of the NICE guidelines for anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral oestrogen should not be routinely offered to treat bone density problems in children

      Explanation:

      The use of medical treatment for osteoporosis in individuals with anorexia is not advisable. Additionally, administering oestrogen as a solution for bone density issues in children should not be a standard practice. While there are no specific medications recommended for anorexia, they may be useful in addressing concurrent conditions like depression.

      Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines

      Anorexia:
      For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Bulimia:
      For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Binge Eating Disorder:
      The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Advice for those with eating disorders:
      Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.

      Additional points:
      Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.

      Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 95 - Which license allows for self-mutilating behavior? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which license allows for self-mutilating behavior?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Medication for Self-Mutilating Behaviour in People with Learning Disability

      Self-injurious behaviour is a common issue among people with learning disability, and several risk factors have been identified, including younger age, lower developmental ability, autistic symptoms, and sensory impairment. According to R Collacott’s study published in the British Journal of Psychiatry in 1998, these factors increase the likelihood of self-injury in this population.

      Currently, lithium is the only medication that is licensed for the treatment of self-mutilating behaviour in people with learning disability. Other medications may be prescribed off-label, but their effectiveness and safety in this population are not well-established. Therefore, healthcare professionals should carefully consider the risks and benefits of medication use and closely monitor their patients for any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
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  • Question 96 - A patient in their late 50s with a history of schizophrenia attends the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their late 50s with a history of schizophrenia attends the out-patient clinic. They were discharged from hospital 9 months ago following a relapse of their psychotic illness. They report sustained improvement in their psychotic symptoms. During the clinic they complain that they are feeling very low, and lacking energy and they have felt this way for the past month. Their carer also comments that they are not attending to their self care as they usually do. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post-schizophrenic depression

      Explanation:

      If an individual experiences depression within a year of a relapse of schizophrenia, it should be classified as post-schizophrenic depression.

      Understanding Post-Psychotic Depression

      The term post-psychotic depression refers to three distinct groups of patients who experience depressive symptoms after an acute psychotic episode. The first group experiences depressive symptoms during the acute episode, which only become apparent as the positive psychotic symptoms resolve. The second group develops depressive symptoms as their positive psychotic symptoms resolve, while the third group experiences significant depressive symptoms after the acute episode has resolved.

      The timing of the onset of depressive symptoms is not important for diagnostic purposes. The ICD 10 diagnostic guidelines for post-schizophrenic depression require that the patient has met general criteria for schizophrenia within the past 12 months, with some schizophrenic symptoms still present but no longer dominating the clinical picture. The depressive symptoms must be prominent and distressing, fulfilling at least the criteria for a depressive episode, and have been present for at least two weeks. While they are rarely severe enough to meet the criteria for a severe depressive episode, they can still be debilitating for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 97 - For what discovery did someone receive a Nobel Prize in 1949 regarding the...

    Incorrect

    • For what discovery did someone receive a Nobel Prize in 1949 regarding the therapeutic benefits of frontal leucotomy in specific psychoses?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Moniz

      Explanation:

      A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

      In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 98 - If a 12 year old boy diagnosed with schizophrenia does not show any...

    Incorrect

    • If a 12 year old boy diagnosed with schizophrenia does not show any improvement after starting olanzapine 5 mg, what would be your next course of action in the clinic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase olanzapine to 10 mg

      Explanation:

      According to BNFC (children), the maximum daily dose of olanzapine for children aged 12-17 is 20 mg. However, a dose of 5 mg is not sufficient for an adequate trial and the dose should be increased to 10 mg before considering switching to a different antipsychotic.

      Schizophrenia in children and young people is treated similarly to adults, according to the NICE Guidelines. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest avoiding first generation antipsychotics and using olanzapine, aripiprazole, and risperidone, which have been proven effective in randomized controlled trials. In cases where treatment resistance is present, clozapine should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 99 - A teenager is referred for a review following a stressful life event associated...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager is referred for a review following a stressful life event associated with a deterioration in their mental health.

      How can we distinguish between post traumatic stress disorder and an acute stress reaction in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The duration of the symptoms

      Explanation:

      The primary distinction between PTSD and an acute stress reaction lies in the length of time that symptoms persist. If symptoms have not significantly diminished within a month, the diagnosis shifts to PTSD; prior to that point, it is classified as an acute stress reaction.

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 100 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with the Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with the Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 101 - What is the percentage of individuals who experience delirium tremens during alcohol withdrawal?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the percentage of individuals who experience delirium tremens during alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 102 - Which study design is considered to generate the most robust and reliable evidence?...

    Incorrect

    • Which study design is considered to generate the most robust and reliable evidence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cohort study

      Explanation:

      Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine

      To evaluate the quality of evidence on a subject of question, levels of grades are used. The traditional hierarchy approach places systematic reviews of randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system, which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each.

      The grading approach to be aware of is the GRADE system, which classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, of very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical of important. The evidence is then gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence, with the type of evidence being a significant factor. Evidence can be promoted of downgraded based on certain criteria, such as limitations to study quality, inconsistency, uncertainty about directness, imprecise of sparse data, and reporting bias. The GRADE system allows for the promotion of observational studies to high-quality evidence under the right circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 103 - Which mood stabilizer has the strongest evidence for preventing suicide in individuals diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • Which mood stabilizer has the strongest evidence for preventing suicide in individuals diagnosed with bipolar affective disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Clinical Usage

      Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.

      Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.

      Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.

      Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.

      The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 104 - What statement accurately describes measures of dispersion? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes measures of dispersion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The standard error indicates how close the statistical mean is to the population mean

      Explanation:

      Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 105 - A newly admitted elderly patient on the ward attends ward round. They are...

    Incorrect

    • A newly admitted elderly patient on the ward attends ward round. They are found to have been on lorazepam 4 mg QDS for a number of years. Your consultant asks you to convert this to diazepam so that the patient can be slowly weaned off benzodiazepines. Select the correct equivalent dose of diazepam:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40mg QDS

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines and Addiction

      Benzodiazepines are known to be addictive and should only be prescribed as a hypnotic or anxiolytic for a maximum of 4 weeks. Withdrawal symptoms can be physical of psychological, including stiffness, weakness, GI disturbance, paraesthesia, flu-like symptoms, visual disturbance, anxiety, insomnia, nightmares, depersonalisation, decreased memory and concentration, delusions, and hallucinations. Patients who wish to withdraw from short-acting benzodiazepines should first be converted to diazepam, which has a longer half-life and produces less severe withdrawal. The table provides approximate equivalent doses for different benzodiazepines. These guidelines are from the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 106 - What is a known factor that can lead to inaccurate positive results for...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known factor that can lead to inaccurate positive results for amphetamine on drug screening tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atomoxetine

      Explanation:

      Drug Screening

      Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.

      People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.

      Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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      Seconds
  • Question 107 - Which of the following resources has been filtered? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following resources has been filtered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DARE

      Explanation:

      The main focus of the Database of Abstracts of Reviews of Effect (DARE) is on systematic reviews that assess the impact of healthcare interventions and the management and provision of healthcare services. In order to be considered for inclusion, reviews must satisfy several requirements.

      Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.

      When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.

      There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 108 - The Maudsley Guidelines suggest a particular treatment option to enhance the effectiveness of...

    Incorrect

    • The Maudsley Guidelines suggest a particular treatment option to enhance the effectiveness of clozapine.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 109 - An HIV+ patient in their 60s attends clinic in view of ongoing depression....

    Incorrect

    • An HIV+ patient in their 60s attends clinic in view of ongoing depression. You note a number of cutaneous lesions in the form of purple-red macules on their face and neck. These are also apparent on the mucous membranes. Which of the following would you most suspect?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma

      Explanation:

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is a tumor that develops due to human herpesvirus 8. When associated with AIDS, it typically appears as red to purple-red macules on the skin that quickly progress to papules, nodules, and plaques. These lesions are commonly found on the head, back, neck, trunk, and mucous membranes, and can also occur in the lymph nodes, stomach, intestines, and lungs. Individuals with severe mental illness are at a higher risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and have a greater prevalence of HIV infection compared to the general population. Therefore, it is important to have a basic understanding of the symptoms of this condition.

      HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options

      Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.

      Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.

      Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 110 - What is a true statement about diagnosing attention deficit hyperactivity disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about diagnosing attention deficit hyperactivity disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Both the ICD-11 and the DSM-5 recognise the combined, predominantly inattentive, and predominantly hyperactive-impulsive subtypes

      Explanation:

      Both the ICD-11 and DSM-5 acknowledge the subtypes of ADHD that are predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined. To make a diagnosis, both require evidence of symptoms before the age of 12 and for at least six months. While DSM-5 specifies six of more symptoms from each category, ICD-11 only requires ‘several’ symptoms without specifying a number. If the hyperactive-impulsive subtype is present, symptoms of inattention are not necessary for a diagnosis. Instead, the diagnosis would be ‘Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive presentation’, as long as there is a persistent pattern of inattention symptoms and/of a combination of hyperactivity and impulsivity symptoms for at least six months.

      ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 111 - What is the most common reason for individuals being deemed 'unfit to plead'?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common reason for individuals being deemed 'unfit to plead'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      The Pritchard Criteria, which assess cognitive ability, are not the sole determining factor for individuals found unfit to plead. In fact, less than one third of those deemed unfit have an intellectual impairment. The majority of individuals found unfit to plead actually have schizophrenia. This information was reported in a systematic review of the constructs and their application in the Journal of Forensic Psychiatry and Psychology by T Rogers in 2008.

      Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process

      Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 112 - What is a true statement about mild cognitive impairment (MCI)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about mild cognitive impairment (MCI)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MCI represents a middle ground between normality and dementia

      Explanation:

      Mild cognitive impairment is a stage that occurs between normal ageing and dementia, marking a transition from one to the other.

      Mild Cognitive Impairment: A Transitional Zone between Normal Function and Alzheimer’s Disease

      Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a clinical syndrome that describes individuals who do not meet the criteria for dementia but have a high risk of progressing to a dementia disorder. MCI is a transitional zone between normal cognitive function and clinically probable Alzheimer’s disease (AD). The diagnosis of MCI is based on self and/of informant report and impairment on objective cognitive tasks, evidence of decline over time on objective cognitive tasks, and preserved basic activities of daily living/minimal impairment in complex instrumental functions.

      When individuals with MCI are followed over time, some progress to AD and other dementia types, while others remain stable of even recover. The principal cognitive impairment can be amnestic, single non-memory domain, of involving multiple cognitive domains. There is evidence that deficits in regional cerebral blood flow and regional cerebral glucose metabolism could predict future development of AD in individuals with MCI.

      Currently, there is no evidence for long-term efficacy of approved pharmacological treatments in MCI. However, epidemiological studies have indicated a reduced risk of dementia in individuals taking antihypertensive medications, cholesterol-lowering drugs, antioxidants, anti-inflammatories, and estrogen therapy. Randomized clinical trials are needed to verify these associations.

      Two clinical screening instruments, the CAMCog (part of the CAMDEX) and the SISCO (part of the SIDAM), allow for a broad assessment of mild cognitive impairment. MCI represents a critical stage in the progression of cognitive decline and highlights the importance of early detection and intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 113 - In an economic evaluation study, which of the options below would be considered...

    Incorrect

    • In an economic evaluation study, which of the options below would be considered a direct cost?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Costs of training staff to provide an intervention

      Explanation:

      Methods of Economic Evaluation

      There are four main methods of economic evaluation: cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA), cost-benefit analysis (CBA), cost-utility analysis (CUA), and cost-minimisation analysis (CMA). While all four methods capture costs, they differ in how they assess health effects.

      Cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA) compares interventions by relating costs to a single clinical measure of effectiveness, such as symptom reduction of improvement in activities of daily living. The cost-effectiveness ratio is calculated as total cost divided by units of effectiveness. CEA is typically used when CBA cannot be performed due to the inability to monetise benefits.

      Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) measures all costs and benefits of an intervention in monetary terms to establish which alternative has the greatest net benefit. CBA requires that all consequences of an intervention, such as life-years saved, treatment side-effects, symptom relief, disability, pain, and discomfort, are allocated a monetary value. CBA is rarely used in mental health service evaluation due to the difficulty in converting benefits from mental health programmes into monetary values.

      Cost-utility analysis (CUA) is a special form of CEA in which health benefits/outcomes are measured in broader, more generic ways, enabling comparisons between treatments for different diseases and conditions. Multidimensional health outcomes are measured by a single preference- of utility-based index such as the Quality-Adjusted-Life-Years (QALY). QALYs are a composite measure of gains in life expectancy and health-related quality of life. CUA allows for comparisons across treatments for different conditions.

      Cost-minimisation analysis (CMA) is an economic evaluation in which the consequences of competing interventions are the same, and only inputs, i.e. costs, are taken into consideration. The aim is to decide the least costly way of achieving the same outcome.

      Costs in Economic Evaluation Studies

      There are three main types of costs in economic evaluation studies: direct, indirect, and intangible. Direct costs are associated directly with the healthcare intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, cost of travel for the patient, childcare costs for the patient, and costs falling on other social sectors such as domestic help from social services. Indirect costs are incurred by the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work, reduced work productivity, and time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are difficult to measure, such as pain of suffering on the part of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 114 - Which drug is known to have the smallest impact on the threshold for...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug is known to have the smallest impact on the threshold for seizures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Individuals with epilepsy are at a low risk when taking sertraline.

      Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy

      People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 115 - Which plant species, commonly known as St John's Wort, is used for treating...

    Incorrect

    • Which plant species, commonly known as St John's Wort, is used for treating depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypericum perforatum

      Explanation:

      Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety

      Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.

      Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 116 - What is the truth about myocarditis in relation to the use of clozapine?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the truth about myocarditis in relation to the use of clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chest pain is only present in approximately 25% of people with biopsy-proven idiopathic myocarditis

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 117 - What is the relationship between clozapine use and hypersalivation? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the relationship between clozapine use and hypersalivation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is potentially life threatening

      Explanation:

      According to the Maudsley Guidelines, there is a likelihood that hypersalivation caused by clozapine is linked to the dosage administered. This condition can lead to asphyxiation, which poses a significant risk to life.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 118 - Which drug is most likely to cause postural hypotension? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug is most likely to cause postural hypotension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Maudsley Guidelines: Antipsychotics for Postural Hypotension

      When postural hypotension is a concern, it may be necessary to switch to an antipsychotic that is less likely to cause this side effect. The following antipsychotics are recommended by the Maudsley Guidelines:

      – Amisulpride
      – Aripiprazole
      – Haloperidol
      – Sulpiride
      – Trifluoperazine

      These medications have a lower risk of causing postural hypotension compared to other antipsychotics such as risperidone, clozapine, olanzapine, paliperidone, quetiapine, and ziprasidone. It is important to discuss any concerns about side effects with a healthcare provider before making any changes to medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 119 - What is a true statement about Cognitive Analytic Therapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Cognitive Analytic Therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It was developed to be suitable for research

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cognitive Analytic Therapy

      Cognitive Analytic Therapy (CAT) is a form of therapy that combines psychodynamic and cognitive approaches. It is a brief therapy that typically lasts between 16-24 sessions. Developed by Anthony Ryle, CAT aims to identify the useful parts of psychotherapy and make it more efficient. It also aims to create a therapy that can be easily researched.

      CAT focuses on identifying key issues early on and conceptualizing them as repeated unsuccessful strategies. These strategies are categorized into traps, dilemmas, and snags. Traps are flawed thinking patterns that result in a vicious cycle of negative assumptions and actions. Dilemmas occur when a person believes their choices are restricted to opposite actions, neither of which is satisfactory. Snags are thinking patterns that restrict actions due to a perception of potential harm of failure.

      CAT follows a procedural sequence model, where the problem is appraised, options are discussed, a plan is created and put into place, and consequences are evaluated. The therapist often summarizes the problem and plan in a letter to the client.

      CAT also identifies reciprocal role procedures (RRPs), which are patterns observed in the way we related to others. These patterns are visually presented using a sequential diagrammatic reformulation. For example, a client who rebelled against a stern, dominating father may be dismissive of therapy because they see the therapist as a demanding authority figure.

      Overall, CAT is a useful therapy that combines psychodynamic and cognitive approaches to identify and address maladaptive patterns. Its procedural sequence model and use of RRPs make it an efficient and effective therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 120 - Which of the following is one of the Pritchard criteria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is one of the Pritchard criteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ability to follow the court proceedings

      Explanation:

      Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process

      Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 121 - What term did 'Yalom' use to refer to the cohesive force that unites...

    Incorrect

    • What term did 'Yalom' use to refer to the cohesive force that unites individuals in group psychotherapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cohesiveness

      Explanation:

      Group Psychotherapy: Yalom’s Therapeutic Principles

      Group psychotherapy involves a trained therapist and a group of individuals. Yalom, a prominent figure in group therapy, outlined the therapeutic principles of group psychotherapy. These principles include universality, altruism, instillation of hope, imparting information, corrective recapitulation of the primary family experience, development of socializing techniques, imitative behavior, cohesiveness, existential factors, catharsis, interpersonal learning, and self-understanding. Psychodrama, a specific form of group therapy, involves examining relationships and problems through drama.

      Bion and Basic Assumption Groups

      Bion, a psychoanalyst interested in group dynamics, believed that groups had a collective unconscious that operated similarly to an individual’s. He distinguished between two types of groups: working groups and basic assumption groups. Basic assumption groups act out primitive fantasies and prevent things from getting done. Bion described different types of basic assumption groups, including dependency, fight-flight, and pairing. Dependency involves the group turning to a leader to protect them from anxiety. Fight-flight involves the group acting as if there is an enemy who must be attacked of avoided. Pairing involves the group acting as if the answer lies in the pairing of two members.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 122 - According to Gottesman (1982), what is the risk of a child developing schizophrenia...

    Incorrect

    • According to Gottesman (1982), what is the risk of a child developing schizophrenia if they have an affected parent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 13%

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors

      Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.

      While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.

      Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.

      Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.

      Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 123 - How can the ethnic differences observed in psychiatry in the UK be accurately...

    Incorrect

    • How can the ethnic differences observed in psychiatry in the UK be accurately described?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: People from Black minorities have the highest rate of mental illness in UK

      Explanation:

      Institutional Racism in Psychiatry

      There has been growing concern that institutional racism may be contributing to the overrepresentation of Black patients in mental health settings. Despite ethnic minorities making up only 9% of the UK population, the 2010 ‘Count me in Census’ found that 23% of inpatients and those on CTOs were from Black and minority ethnic groups. Black minority groups also had higher rates of admission, detention, and seclusion.

      While patient factors, such as higher rates of mental illness in Black minority groups, may contribute to these findings, there is also a suggestion of inherent racism within psychiatry. This may manifest in perceptions of Black and minority ethnic patients being at greater risk, as well as systemic factors that disadvantage these groups.

      It is important to address these issues and work towards a more equitable and just mental health system for all patients, regardless of their ethnicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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  • Question 124 - Which model of family therapy is linked to the concepts of 'hierarchy', 'boundaries',...

    Incorrect

    • Which model of family therapy is linked to the concepts of 'hierarchy', 'boundaries', and 'coalitions'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Structural

      Explanation:

      Family Therapy Models

      Family therapy emerged in the 1950s, shifting the focus from individual problems to the context of the environment. There are five main models of family therapy: structural, strategic, systemic, transgenerational, and solution-focused.

      Structural therapy, developed by Salvador Minuchin, assumes that the family’s structure is wrong and aims to establish clear boundaries and no coalitions. Dysfunctional families are marked by impaired boundaries, inappropriate alignments, and power imbalances.

      Strategic therapy, associated with Jay Haley and Cloe Madanes, claims that difficulties in families arise due to distorted hierarchies. Dysfunctional families communicate in problematic repetitive patterns that kept them dysfunctional. Key terms include task setting and goal setting.

      Systemic therapy, associated with Mara Selvini-Palazzoli, sees the family as a self-regulating system that controls itself according to rules formed over time. The focus is on exploring differences between family members’ behaviors, emotional responses, and beliefs at different points in time. Key terms include hypothesizing, neutrality, positive connotation, paradox and counterparadox, circular and interventive questioning, and the use of reflecting teams.

      Transgenerational family therapy aims to understand how families, across generations, develop patterns of behaving and responding to stress in ways that prevent health development and lead to problems. Seven interlocking concepts make up the theory.

      Solution-focused therapy emphasizes solutions over problems and collaborates with the family through in-depth questioning to focus on the solutions already being used by the clients. The therapist is non-interventionist, and the focus is on the present and the future. Blame, shame, and conflict are seen as issues that impede people from realizing these solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 125 - How can bipolar II be accurately described? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can bipolar II be accurately described?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less severe manic episodes (hypomania) with depressive episodes

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 126 - What is the most likely diagnosis for a three year old girl with...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most likely diagnosis for a three year old girl with declining language skills, decelerated head growth, ataxia, and self stimulatory behaviors such as repeated finger licking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rett syndrome

      Explanation:

      Childhood disintegrative disorder, also known as Heller’s syndrome, is a condition that affects children and is characterized by a significant loss of previously acquired skills and abilities, such as language, social skills, and motor skills.

      Rett Syndrome: A Rare Neurodevelopmental Disorder

      Rett syndrome is a neurodevelopmental disorder that is rare, affecting approximately 1 in 10,000 female births. Although it mostly affects females, there have been cases of males with the disorder. While the exact cause of the disorder is not known, it is believed to have a genetic basis, with mutations in the MECP2 gene (Xq28) being associated with the disorder. Monozygotic twins have been found to have complete concordance in cases of Rett syndrome.

      The disorder has a unique presentation, with affected children experiencing a normal period of development until 6-18 months. After this period, they begin to develop problems with language, losing previously acquired speech. Purposeful hand movements are replaced with stereotypic movements, such as hand wringing, and ataxia and psychomotor retardation may occur. Other stereotypical movements, such as finger licking of biting and tapping of slapping, may also be seen. Head circumference is normal at birth, but growth begins to decelerate between 6-12 months, resulting in microcephaly. All language skills are lost, both receptive and expressive, and social skills plateau at developmental levels between 6-12 months.

      Seizures are associated with Rett syndrome in 75% of those affected, and almost all affected children have abnormal EEG findings. Breathing problems, such as hyperventilation, apnea, and breath holding, are also seen. Children with Rett syndrome may live for well over a decade after the onset of the disorder, but after 10 years, many patients are wheelchair-bound with virtually no language ability. Additional features of the disorder include seizures, breath holding and hyperventilation, sleep difficulties, and issues with locomotion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 127 - A 42 year old man presents to the emergency department with his partner...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old man presents to the emergency department with his partner due to alcohol withdrawal, he typically drinks around 18 units per day of alcohol. He reports a severe headache and feeling agitated, but there is no evidence of tremors. Using the Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, he scores a 12. There is no history of withdrawal seizures.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiamine should be offered

      Explanation:

      Thiamine should be offered to all alcohol patients, unless there are reasons not to. A CIWA-Ar score of 14 suggests moderate withdrawal, which typically does not require hospitalization unless there are additional factors, such as a history of seizures of other medical conditions.

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 128 - What is the alternative name for pavor nocturnus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the alternative name for pavor nocturnus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Night terrors

      Explanation:

      Night Terrors: Understanding the Condition

      Night terrors, also known as pavor nocturnus of sleep terrors, are a common occurrence in children aged 3-12, with the majority of cases happening when a child is 3-4 years old. Both boys and girls are equally affected, and the condition usually resolves on its own during adolescence, although it can still occur in adults. These episodes typically last between 1 to 15 minutes and occur 1 to 3 hours after sleep has begun.

      Night terrors are different from nightmares, which occur during REM sleep. Night terrors happen during the transition from stage 3 to stage 4 sleep, and children have no memory of the event the next morning. During a night terror, a child experiences intense crying and distress while asleep, usually around 90 minutes after falling asleep. They are unresponsive to external stimuli during this time.

      Night terrors are distinct from nightmares in several ways. For example, there is no recall of the event with night terrors, while there may be partial recall with nightmares. Night terrors occur early in sleep, while nightmares occur later. Additionally, night terrors are associated with significant autonomic arousal, while nightmares have minimal arousal.

      It is important to note that the information presented here is based on the Rechtschaffen and Kales sleep classification model developed in 1968, which is the classification used in the Royal College questions. However, in 2004, the American Academy of Sleep Medicine (AASM) reclassified NREM (non-REM) sleep into three stages, the last of which is also called delta sleep of slow-wave sleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 129 - What is true about the process of alcohol detoxification? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about the process of alcohol detoxification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Home detoxification is usually complete within 5-9 days

      Explanation:

      Alcohol detoxification can be done at home of in an inpatient setting. Studies have shown that there is no significant difference between the two methods, but inpatient detox is much more expensive. However, inpatient detox is recommended for patients who have a high risk of seizures during alcohol withdrawal, which occurs in 5-10% of patients. Age, prolactin, blood alcohol concentration on admission, and elevated homocysteine levels are all risk factors for seizures, with the latter being the strongest predictor. Chronic alcohol intake can lead to elevated homocysteine levels due to impaired metabolism from B12 and folate deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 130 - What is the estimated percentage of women who go through temporary periods of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated percentage of women who go through temporary periods of emotional instability after giving birth?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40

      Explanation:

      Perinatal Depression, Baby Blues, and Postpartum Depression

      Perinatal depression, also known as postpartum depression, is a common mood disorder experienced by new mothers after childbirth. The term baby blues is used to describe the emotional lability that some mothers experience during the first week after childbirth, which usually resolves by day 10 without treatment. The prevalence of baby blues is around 40%. Postpartum depression, on the other hand, refers to depression that occurs after childbirth. While neither DSM-5 nor ICD-11 specifically mention postpartum depression, both diagnostic systems offer categories that encompass depression during pregnancy of in the weeks following delivery. The prevalence of postpartum depression is approximately 10-15%.

      Various factors have been shown to increase the risk of postnatal depression, including youth, marital and family conflict, lack of social support, anxiety and depression during pregnancy, substance misuse, previous pregnancy loss, ambivalence about the current pregnancy, and frequent antenatal admissions to a maternity hospital. However, obstetric factors such as length of labor, assisted delivery, of separation of the mother from the baby in the Special Care Baby Unit do not seem to influence the development of postnatal depression. Additionally, social class does not appear to be associated with postnatal depression.

      Puerperal psychosis, along with severe depression, is thought to be mainly caused by biological factors, while psychosocial factors are most important in the milder postnatal depressive illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 131 - The prevalence of depressive disease in a village with an adult population of...

    Incorrect

    • The prevalence of depressive disease in a village with an adult population of 1000 was assessed using a new diagnostic score. The results showed that out of 1000 adults, 200 tested positive for the disease and 800 tested negative. What is the prevalence of depressive disease in this population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      The prevalence of the disease is 20% as there are currently 200 cases out of a total population of 1000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 132 - Which of the following is an unrecognized physical complication of anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an unrecognized physical complication of anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 133 - What does NICE recommend as the most effective method for reducing harm related...

    Incorrect

    • What does NICE recommend as the most effective method for reducing harm related to alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Making alcohol less affordable

      Explanation:

      Reducing Alcohol-Related Harm

      According to NICE (2010), the most effective and targeted approach to reducing heavy drinking and alcohol-related harm is through implementing a minimum alcohol price. Additionally, limiting the availability of alcohol by reducing the number of outlets selling it in a specific area and restricting the days and hours when it can be sold is another effective strategy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 134 - A 67-year old man with a history of depression has recently developed Parkinson's....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year old man with a history of depression has recently developed Parkinson's. His wife complains that in the last 2 weeks he has been sending her sexually-explicit messages, and accusing her of having an affair. What is the most likely drug to have caused this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ropinirole

      Explanation:

      Ropinirole is a medication that mimics the effects of dopamine and is prescribed for Parkinson’s disease. However, it has been known to trigger impulse control disorders, similar to other drugs that also act on dopamine receptors.

      Parkinson’s Disease: Presentation, Aetiology, Medical Treatment, and Psychiatric Aspects

      Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease of the brain that is characterised by motor symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. It has a long prodromal phase and early symptoms generally present asymmetrically. The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is classically described as ‘pill rolling’. The principle abnormality is the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra, which leads to an accumulation of alpha-synuclein in these abnormal dopaminergic cells. The majority of cases of Parkinson’s disease are idiopathic, but single gene mutations occur in a minority of cases. Pesticide, herbicide, and heavy metal exposures are linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease in some epidemiologic studies, whereas smoking and caffeine use are associated with decreased risks.

      Treatment for Parkinson’s disease predominantly focuses on symptomatic relief with drugs aiming to either restore the level of dopamine in the striatum of to act on striatal postsynaptic dopamine receptors. However, as dopamine is not the only neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson’s disease, many other drugs are also being used to target specific symptoms, such as depression of dementia. Psychiatric symptoms are common in Parkinson’s disease and range from mild to severe. Factors associated with severe symptoms include age, sleep disturbance, dementia, and disease severity. Hallucinations are common in Parkinson’s disease and tend to be visual but can be auditory of tactile. In the majority of patients, psychotic symptoms are thought to be secondary to dopaminergic medication rather than due to the Parkinson’s disease itself. Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists seem to be associated with a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa of catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors. Medications used for psychotic symptoms may worsen movement problems. Risperidone and the typicals should be avoided completely. Low dose quetiapine is the best tolerated. Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic drug for treating psychosis in Parkinson’s disease but its use in clinical practice is limited by the need for monitoring and the additional physical risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 135 - What signs of symptoms would indicate a subcortical cause rather than a cortical...

    Incorrect

    • What signs of symptoms would indicate a subcortical cause rather than a cortical cause when evaluating a patient with early dementia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calculation preserved

      Explanation:

      Although the distinction between cortical and subcortical dementia is now considered arbitrary and there is limited evidence to support it, the college continues to include it as a question.

      Distinguishing Cortical and Subcortical Dementia: A Contested Area

      Attempts have been made to differentiate between cortical and subcortical dementia based on clinical presentation, but this remains a contested area. Some argue that the distinction is not possible. Cortical dementia is characterized by impaired memory, visuospatial ability, executive function, and language. Examples of cortical dementias include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. On the other hand, subcortical dementia is characterized by general slowing of mental processes, personality changes, mood disorders, and abnormal movements. Examples of subcortical dementias include Binswanger’s disease, dementia associated with Huntington’s disease, AIDS, Parkinson’s disease, Wilson’s disease, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Despite ongoing debate, questions on this topic may appear in exams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 136 - A 42-year-old woman with a family history of schizophrenia is involved in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a family history of schizophrenia is involved in a road traffic accident whereby she is bumped by a car from behind. She sustains no serious injuries from the accident. Three months later she presents with a two month history of persistent worry and rumination about the incident. She says that she is lying in bed awake at night replaying the accident over and over again. She reports being unable to get back in a car since the accident.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adjustment disorder

      Explanation:

      The presence of a family history of schizophrenia is not relevant to this case and may lead to a false conclusion.

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 137 - Which statement accurately describes Freud's topographical model? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes Freud's topographical model?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The unconscious system has no concept of time

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Topographical Model of the Mind

      Freud’s topographical model of the mind, introduced in his book The Interpretation of Dreams, divides the mind into three regions: the conscious system, the preconscious system, and the unconscious system.

      The conscious system refers to the part of the mind that is aware. The preconscious system is the information that is known and can potentially be brought into consciousness. Finally, the unconscious system is believed to be outside conscious awareness and operates on primary process thinking, which is aimed at wish fulfillment. It is governed by the pleasure principle, has no concept of time, denies the existence of negatives, and allows the existence of contradictions, making it irrational.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 138 - What proportion of individuals who have been stalked experience symptoms that meet the...

    Incorrect

    • What proportion of individuals who have been stalked experience symptoms that meet the criteria for PTSD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Approximately one-third of individuals who are victims of stalking exhibit symptoms that meet the diagnostic criteria for posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), while an additional 20% display symptoms associated with PTSD but do not meet the full diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 139 - What is the most prevalent type of disorder among secondary school children residing...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most prevalent type of disorder among secondary school children residing in England, based on the 2017 survey data?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emotional disorders

      Explanation:

      Conduct disorder is prevalent among children aged 5-15, while emotional problems are the primary concern for secondary school-aged children. Conversely, primary-aged children are more likely to exhibit behavioural problems.

      Epidemiology of Mental Health Disorders in Children and Adolescents

      The Department of Health (DoH) survey titled The Mental Health of Children and Young People in England is the primary source of epidemiological data on children and adolescents aged 2-19. The latest survey was conducted in 2017 and involved over 9000 participants. The data was collected through interviews with the child, their parent, and their teacher (if school-aged).

      The survey found that 1 in 8 children aged 5-19 had a mental disorder, with emotional disorders being the most common, followed by behavioural, hyperactivity, and other disorders such as ASD, eating disorders, and tic disorders. The prevalence of mental disorders has slightly increased over recent decades, with a rise in emotional problems since 2004.

      Rates of mental disorders tend to be higher in older age groups, but there is some inconsistency with behavioural and hyperactivity types. For preschool children, 1 in 18 had at least one mental disorder, while for primary school children, 1 in 10 had at least one mental disorder, with behavioural and emotional disorders being the most common. Rates of emotional disorders were similar in boys and girls, while other types of disorders were more common in boys.

      For secondary school children, 1 in 7 had at least one mental disorder, with emotional disorders being the most common. Among those aged 17-19, 1 in 6 had at least one mental disorder, with emotional disorders being the most common, mainly anxiety. Girls aged 17-19 had the highest likelihood of having a mental disorder, with nearly one in four having a mental disorder and 22.4% having an emotional disorder.

      In summary, the epidemiology of mental health disorders in children and adolescents in England highlights the need for early intervention and support for emotional and behavioural problems, particularly in older age groups and among girls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 140 - A 32-year-old man is referred by his primary care service due to concerns...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is referred by his primary care service due to concerns about social anxiety and isolation.

      His mother reports that he avoids socialising and instead spends his time on the internet in chat rooms. He expresses numerous beliefs that are considered to be paranoid, for example, that the government is trying to suppress the minds of the public by encouraging unhealthy diets.

      He is highly animated throughout the discussion and smiles and laughs for much of the interview. He states that the COVID pandemic introduced him to the concept of viruses and that this was a sign to him that his purpose in life is to educate the public that viruses are not real.

      He is very suspicious of psychiatrists and suggests that as an arm of the state they will try and limit him so that the government remains in power.

      Based on this presentation, which personality disorder would you most expect to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal

      Explanation:

      Paranoid personality disorder and schizotypal personality disorder share some common traits such as suspiciousness, interpersonal aloofness, and paranoid ideation. However, schizotypal personality disorder also includes symptoms like magical thinking, unusual perceptual experiences, and odd thinking and speech. In this particular case, the individual’s inappropriate affect and ideas of reference suggest schizotypal personality disorder rather than paranoid personality disorder. Individuals with schizoid personality disorder are often perceived as strange, eccentric, cold, and aloof, but they do not usually exhibit prominent paranoid ideation. Interestingly, research has shown that schizotypal personality disorder is a significant predictor of belief in conspiracy theories (March, 2019).

      Schizotypal Personality Disorder: Symptoms and Diagnostic Criteria

      Schizotypal personality disorder is a type of personality disorder that is characterized by a pervasive pattern of discomfort with close relationships, distorted thinking and perceptions, and eccentric behavior. This disorder typically begins in early adulthood and is present in a variety of contexts. To be diagnosed with schizotypal personality disorder, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following symptoms:

      1. Ideas of reference (excluding delusions of reference).
      2. Odd beliefs of magical thinking that influences behavior and is inconsistent with subcultural norms.
      3. Unusual perceptual experiences, including bodily illusions.
      4. Odd thinking and speech.
      5. Suspiciousness of paranoid ideation.
      6. Inappropriate or constricted affect.
      7. Behavior of appearance that is odd, eccentric, of peculiar.
      8. Lack of close friends of confidants other than first-degree relatives.
      9. Excessive social anxiety that does not diminish with familiarity and tends to be associated with paranoid fears rather than negative judgments about self.

      It is important to note that the ICD-11 does not have a specific category for schizotypal personality disorder, as it has abandoned the categorical approach in favor of a dimensional one.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 141 - What is a correct statement about the pathology of Wernicke's encephalopathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a correct statement about the pathology of Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is demyelination of periventricular grey matter

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 142 - What is the purpose of using the Kolmogorov-Smirnov and Jarque-Bera tests? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of using the Kolmogorov-Smirnov and Jarque-Bera tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normality

      Explanation:

      Normality Testing in Statistics

      In statistics, parametric tests are based on the assumption that the data set follows a normal distribution. On the other hand, non-parametric tests do not require this assumption but are less powerful. To check if a distribution is normally distributed, there are several tests available, including the Kolmogorov-Smirnov (Goodness-of-Fit) Test, Jarque-Bera test, Wilk-Shapiro test, P-plot, and Q-plot. However, it is important to note that if a data set is not normally distributed, it may be possible to transform it to make it follow a normal distribution, such as by taking the logarithm of the values.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 143 - What is the most frequently observed behavior in children diagnosed with conduct disorder?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently observed behavior in children diagnosed with conduct disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperactivity

      Explanation:

      Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders

      Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.

      ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).

      The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.

      The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.

      NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 144 - What is a true statement about Hirschsprung's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Hirschsprung's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is usually diagnosed by the age of 2

      Explanation:

      Elimination Disorders

      Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.

      Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.

      Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.

      Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 145 - What was the tool utilized in the Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) research? ...

    Incorrect

    • What was the tool utilized in the Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) research?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS)

      Explanation:

      Epidemiological surveys and prevalence estimates have been conducted to determine the prevalence of various mental health conditions. The Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) study was conducted in the mid-1980s using the Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) based on DSM-III criteria. The National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) used the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI) and was conducted in the 1990s and repeated in 2001. The Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey (APMS) used the Clinical Interview Schedule (CIS-R) and was conducted in England every 7 years since 1993. The WHO World Mental Health (WMH) Survey Initiative used the World Mental Health Composite International Diagnostic Interview (WMH-CIDI) and was conducted in close to 30 countries from 2001 onwards.

      The main findings of these studies show that major depression has a prevalence of 4-10% worldwide, with 6.7% in the past 12 months and 16.6% lifetime prevalence. Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) has a 3.1% 12-month prevalence and 5.7% lifetime prevalence. Panic disorder has a 2.7% 12-month prevalence and 4.7% lifetime prevalence. Specific phobia has an 8.7% 12-month prevalence and 12.5% lifetime prevalence. Social anxiety disorder has a 6.8% 12-month prevalence and 12.1% lifetime prevalence. Agoraphobia without panic disorder has a 0.8% 12-month prevalence and 1.4% lifetime prevalence. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has a 1.0% 12-month prevalence and 1.6% lifetime prevalence. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has a 1.3-3.6% 12-month prevalence and 6.8% lifetime prevalence. Schizophrenia has a 0.33% 12-month prevalence and 0.48% lifetime prevalence. Bipolar I disorder has a 1.5% 12-month prevalence and 2.1% lifetime prevalence. Bulimia nervosa has a 0.63% lifetime prevalence, anorexia nervosa has a 0.16% lifetime prevalence, and binge eating disorder has a 1.53% lifetime prevalence.

      These prevalence estimates provide important information for policymakers, healthcare providers, and researchers to better understand the burden of mental health conditions and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 146 - What is the most accurate approximation of the lifetime occurrence rate of obsessive...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most accurate approximation of the lifetime occurrence rate of obsessive compulsive disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.60%

      Explanation:

      Epidemiological surveys and prevalence estimates have been conducted to determine the prevalence of various mental health conditions. The Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) study was conducted in the mid-1980s using the Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) based on DSM-III criteria. The National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) used the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI) and was conducted in the 1990s and repeated in 2001. The Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey (APMS) used the Clinical Interview Schedule (CIS-R) and was conducted in England every 7 years since 1993. The WHO World Mental Health (WMH) Survey Initiative used the World Mental Health Composite International Diagnostic Interview (WMH-CIDI) and was conducted in close to 30 countries from 2001 onwards.

      The main findings of these studies show that major depression has a prevalence of 4-10% worldwide, with 6.7% in the past 12 months and 16.6% lifetime prevalence. Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) has a 3.1% 12-month prevalence and 5.7% lifetime prevalence. Panic disorder has a 2.7% 12-month prevalence and 4.7% lifetime prevalence. Specific phobia has an 8.7% 12-month prevalence and 12.5% lifetime prevalence. Social anxiety disorder has a 6.8% 12-month prevalence and 12.1% lifetime prevalence. Agoraphobia without panic disorder has a 0.8% 12-month prevalence and 1.4% lifetime prevalence. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has a 1.0% 12-month prevalence and 1.6% lifetime prevalence. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has a 1.3-3.6% 12-month prevalence and 6.8% lifetime prevalence. Schizophrenia has a 0.33% 12-month prevalence and 0.48% lifetime prevalence. Bipolar I disorder has a 1.5% 12-month prevalence and 2.1% lifetime prevalence. Bulimia nervosa has a 0.63% lifetime prevalence, anorexia nervosa has a 0.16% lifetime prevalence, and binge eating disorder has a 1.53% lifetime prevalence.

      These prevalence estimates provide important information for policymakers, healthcare providers, and researchers to better understand the burden of mental health conditions and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 147 - Caution should be exercised when administering clozapine in which of the following circumstances?...

    Incorrect

    • Caution should be exercised when administering clozapine in which of the following circumstances?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      TCAs, low-potency antipsychotics, topiramate, and SSRIs have been linked to angle-closure glaucoma, a severe condition.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 148 - A 42-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of increasing forgetfulness over...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of increasing forgetfulness over the past year. She has trouble recalling the names of close family members and has gotten lost in familiar places. Her husband reports that she has left the stove on multiple times and has difficulty managing household tasks. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any prescribed medications. Her mother had similar symptoms in her 50s. What is the most probable genetic association?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mutation in presenilin 1

      Explanation:

      The individual in the image is displaying symptoms consistent with early onset Alzheimer’s disease, which can affect individuals in their 40s. This form of the disease is often inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, and mutations in the presenilin 1 and 2 genes have been linked to its development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 149 - A teacher makes regular visits to a student. During these visits she reinforces...

    Incorrect

    • A teacher makes regular visits to a student. During these visits she reinforces adaptive behaviours with praise and tries to improve the student's self-esteem. Which type of therapy is being provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supportive psychotherapy

      Explanation:

      Supportive Psychotherapy: An Overview

      Supportive psychotherapy is a widely used approach in psychiatry, often reserved for clients who are not suitable for other forms of therapy. It aims to provide emotional support and encouragement to help people cope with overwhelming stress and restore them to their previous level of functioning. This therapy is not based on any specific psychological theory and is eclectic in approach.

      Supportive psychotherapy is generally used with two different patient groups: those who were otherwise functioning well but have become symptomatic due to stress, and those who are not suitable for other forms of therapy. The goal of therapy is to help the patient get on with their life as best as possible, without disrupting reasonable defenses of generating conflicts.

      The therapist avoids confrontation and transference issues are rarely analyzed. However, the therapeutic aims of long-term supportive psychotherapy include establishing a therapeutic alliance, holding and containing, promoting awareness of transference issues, promoting stability, facilitating the maturation of defenses, and promoting better adaptation to reality.

      Supportive psychotherapy has been dismissed as ‘hand holding,’ but it should not be underestimated. It is suitable for most patients and is often the only therapy that can help when others have failed. Much of the work doctors do in outpatient clinics could be classified as supportive psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 150 - What is the classification system that exclusively identifies the causes of paternal filicide?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the classification system that exclusively identifies the causes of paternal filicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scott

      Explanation:

      Hopwood (1927) and Meyer and Oberman (2001) focused on maternal filicide, while Resnick (1969) examined filicide committed by both genders and identified five motives. Guileyardo (1999) expanded on Resnick’s work to include a wider range of motives. Scott (1973) created the initial classification of filicide based on a sample of fathers exclusively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 151 - A 25-year-old man is referred for an opinion having been persuaded to see...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is referred for an opinion having been persuaded to see his GP by his girlfriend. He explains that he struggles to concentrate at work and has been criticised for being disorganised. His girlfriend tells you that her boyfriend never seems to listen and always seems distracted. A further inquiry into his personal history reveals that he was often in trouble at school for interrupting and fidgeting and that one teacher called him the 'Red Devil'. Which of the following would be the most appropriate option based on the above description?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methylphenidate

      Explanation:

      Based on the description, it appears that the individual may have adult ADHD.

      ADHD Diagnosis and Management in Adults

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for ADHD, with the DSM-5 recognising three subtypes of the condition: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for ADHD in adults includes medication and non-pharmacological interventions. NICE recommends offering medication to adults with ADHD if their symptoms are still causing significant impairment after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine are first-line medications, with atomoxetine offered for those who cannot tolerate the former two. Additional medication options may be considered with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’ for ADHD. Prior to initiating medication, referral to cardiology is recommended if there is a suggestion of cardiac pathology. If a person with ADHD develops mania of psychosis, ADHD treatment should be stopped until the episode has resolved. If a person taking stimulants develops tics, medication options may be adjusted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 152 - What is a true statement about eating disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about eating disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laxative misuse is ineffective at reducing calorie absorption

      Explanation:

      When an imbalance in electrolytes is identified, the first step is to address the behavior causing it. In rare cases where supplementation is necessary to restore balance, oral administration is preferred over intravenous, unless there are issues with absorption in the gastrointestinal tract.

      Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines

      Anorexia:
      For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Bulimia:
      For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Binge Eating Disorder:
      The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Advice for those with eating disorders:
      Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.

      Additional points:
      Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.

      Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 153 - What evidence suggests that interpersonal therapy has a distinct purpose of function? ...

    Incorrect

    • What evidence suggests that interpersonal therapy has a distinct purpose of function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Evidence of a significant role transition

      Explanation:

      Interpersonal Therapy: A Structured Approach to Addressing Social Functioning Problems

      Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is a structured form of psychotherapy that is often used to treat depression. It is based on the belief that social functioning problems have a significant impact on psychological problems. IPT is a time-limited therapy that typically runs for 10-16 one hour sessions. The therapy is organized into three phases, with the first phase involving data collection and formulation. The remaining sessions explore the formulation in more detail.

      IPT focuses on four areas of social functioning problems: grief, role transitions, interpersonal deficits, and interpersonal disputes. The therapy aims to intervene at the level of social functioning, rather than focusing on personality. The therapy has been found to be effective in treating depression, particularly in patients with severe depression. However, it may be less effective in treating people with depression and comorbid personality disorders.

      The evidence base for IPT is most developed for eating disorders, and the intervention is recommended in NICE guidelines for eating disorders. Overall, IPT is a structured approach to addressing social functioning problems that can be effective in treating depression and other psychological problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 154 - Which of the following should be monitored in children who are prescribed methylphenidate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following should be monitored in children who are prescribed methylphenidate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Height and weight

      Explanation:

      The Maudsley guidelines recommend supplementary monitoring for growth retardation associated with methylphenidate use. However, the guidelines do not specify the frequency of such monitoring.

      ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 155 - A 45-year-old male complains of headaches, weakness in his arms and legs, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male complains of headaches, weakness in his arms and legs, and body aches. He reports feeling like his condition is deteriorating. He has no significant medical history except for a surgery for appendicitis 10 years ago.
      Upon examination, his neurological and musculoskeletal systems appear normal. There are no alarming symptoms associated with his headaches. His primary care physician orders a complete blood count, which returns with normal results.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Somatoform disorder

      Explanation:

      This young woman is experiencing physical symptoms, but there is no evidence of any underlying disease. This could be a manifestation of somatisation/somatoform disorder, where patients develop various symptoms such as pain, memory problems, visual problems, of neurological issues without any apparent cause. Often, there is an underlying psychological distress that may lead to depression of anxiety. It is possible that this women’s history, such as her miscarriage, may reveal underlying depression. It is important to differentiate somatisation disorder from hypochondriasis, where patients believe they have a severe disorder, and Münchhausen syndrome, where patients mimic a particular disorder to gain attention of sympathy. To diagnose Münchhausen syndrome, there must be evidence that the patient is causing their own physical illness. Malingering is another condition where patients purposefully generate symptoms for personal gain, such as time off work. In somatisation disorder, patients may have no clinical evidence of illness of injury, but they believe they are experiencing symptoms and are often quite worried about it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 156 - What should people with insomnia avoid doing? ...

    Incorrect

    • What should people with insomnia avoid doing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Get regular exercise in the evening

      Explanation:

      Insomnia Treatment: Sleep Hygiene

      Before resorting to medication, it is important to try sleep hygiene approaches to treat insomnia. These approaches include increasing daily exercise (but not in the evening), avoiding large meals in the evening, ensuring exposure to natural light during the day, reducing of stopping daytime napping, reducing alcohol and stimulant (caffeine and nicotine) intake, associating the bed with sleep (not using it for TV, radio, of reading), using anxiety management and relaxation techniques, and developing a regular routine of rising and retiring at the same time each day (regardless of the amount of sleep taken). By implementing these strategies, individuals can improve their sleep quality and quantity without the use of medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 157 - A patient in their 60s on Clozaril receives an amber result from the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s on Clozaril receives an amber result from the CPMS. What course of action should be taken in response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient should continue taking clozapine but should have another blood test in two days time and then twice weekly until the result becomes normal

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 158 - One of the following treatments would not be recommended for a young girl...

    Incorrect

    • One of the following treatments would not be recommended for a young girl with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder who also has liver disease.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pemoline

      Explanation:

      Pemoline, which is utilized to treat ADHD as a CNS stimulant, has been linked to severe liver failure that can be fatal.

      ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 159 - A team of scientists embarked on a research project to determine if a...

    Incorrect

    • A team of scientists embarked on a research project to determine if a new vaccine is effective in preventing a certain disease. They sought to satisfy the criteria outlined by Hill's guidelines for establishing causality.
      What is the primary criterion among Hill's guidelines for establishing causality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporality

      Explanation:

      The most crucial factor in Hill’s criteria for causation is temporality, of the temporal relationship between exposure and outcome. It is imperative that the exposure to a potential causal factor, such as factor ‘A’, always occurs before the onset of the disease. This criterion is the only absolute requirement for causation. The other criteria include the strength of the relationship, dose-response relationship, consistency, plausibility, consideration of alternative explanations, experimental evidence, specificity, and coherence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 160 - If you anticipate that a drug will result in more side-effects than a...

    Incorrect

    • If you anticipate that a drug will result in more side-effects than a placebo, what would be your estimated relative risk of side-effects occurring in the group receiving the drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: >1

      Explanation:

      Disease Rates and Their Interpretation

      Disease rates are a measure of the occurrence of a disease in a population. They are used to establish causation, monitor interventions, and measure the impact of exposure on disease rates. The attributable risk is the difference in the rate of disease between the exposed and unexposed groups. It tells us what proportion of deaths in the exposed group were due to the exposure. The relative risk is the risk of an event relative to exposure. It is calculated by dividing the rate of disease in the exposed group by the rate of disease in the unexposed group. A relative risk of 1 means there is no difference between the two groups. A relative risk of <1 means that the event is less likely to occur in the exposed group, while a relative risk of >1 means that the event is more likely to occur in the exposed group. The population attributable risk is the reduction in incidence that would be observed if the population were entirely unexposed. It can be calculated by multiplying the attributable risk by the prevalence of exposure in the population. The attributable proportion is the proportion of the disease that would be eliminated in a population if its disease rate were reduced to that of the unexposed group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 161 - How can authors ensure they cover all necessary aspects when writing articles that...

    Incorrect

    • How can authors ensure they cover all necessary aspects when writing articles that describe formal studies of quality improvement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SQUIRE

      Explanation:

      As an AI language model, I do not have personal opinions of beliefs. However, I can provide information and guidance on the standards of reporting for different types of research studies. The guidelines mentioned above are essential for ensuring that research studies are reported accurately and transparently, which is crucial for the scientific community to evaluate and replicate the findings. It is important for researchers to be familiar with these standards and follow them when reporting their studies to ensure the quality and integrity of their research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 162 - Which intervention has the strongest evidence for its effectiveness in managing non-cognitive symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • Which intervention has the strongest evidence for its effectiveness in managing non-cognitive symptoms of dementia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Music therapy

      Explanation:

      Out of the given options, music therapy has the most compelling evidence to back up its effectiveness (Maudsley 14th). The remaining choices have either not demonstrated any positive outcomes of lack sufficient evidence to support their use.

      Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia

      Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 163 - What is the primary benefit of conducting non-inferiority trials in the evaluation of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary benefit of conducting non-inferiority trials in the evaluation of a new medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small sample size is required

      Explanation:

      Study Designs for New Drugs: Options and Considerations

      When launching a new drug, there are various study design options available. One common approach is a placebo-controlled trial, which can provide strong evidence but may be deemed unethical if established treatments are available. Additionally, it does not allow for a comparison with standard treatments. Therefore, statisticians must decide whether the trial aims to demonstrate superiority, equivalence, of non-inferiority to an existing treatment.

      Superiority trials may seem like the obvious choice, but they require a large sample size to show a significant benefit over an existing treatment. Equivalence trials define an equivalence margin on a specified outcome, and if the confidence interval of the difference between the two drugs falls within this margin, the drugs are assumed to have a similar effect. Non-inferiority trials are similar to equivalence trials, but only the lower confidence interval needs to fall within the equivalence margin. These trials require smaller sample sizes, and once a drug has been shown to be non-inferior, larger studies may be conducted to demonstrate superiority.

      It is important to note that drug companies may not necessarily aim to show superiority over an existing product. If they can demonstrate that their product is equivalent of even non-inferior, they may compete on price of convenience. Overall, the choice of study design depends on various factors, including ethical considerations, sample size, and the desired outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 164 - You are providing oral testimony in Court in the case of a 30-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You are providing oral testimony in Court in the case of a 30-year-old patient with a mixed personality disorder (with emotionally unstable and dissocial features) and co-occurring substance misuse (opiate dependence). The patient has been found guilty of Grievous Bodily Harm following a violent assault during a burglary, presumably to fund drug use.

      The patient is well-known to local psychiatric services and has had multiple brief admissions in the past after parasuicidal behavior. The patient has been detained in the local Medium Secure Unit for 12 months under section 38 of the Mental Health Act for assessment of his treatability in hospital. The patient has engaged with treatment, although there are concerns among the clinical team that this engagement is superficial and the patient may be using the hospital system to avoid receiving a custodial sentence.

      Based on this information, what would be the most appropriate medical recommendation for sentencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Section 45a of the Mental Health Act

      Explanation:

      Section 45a of the Mental Health Act allows for a Hybrid Order, which combines both a Mental Health and Criminal Justice component to a sentence. This means that the offender would receive treatment in a hospital initially, but would also be given a prison sentence. Once the treatment is complete, the offender would return to prison to serve the remaining time.

      Extending the offender’s section 38 assessment in hospital post-conviction is not possible as it can only last for a maximum of one year.

      The most appropriate sentencing option could be Section 37/41, which is a Hospital Order with Restrictions. However, it is uncertain if the offender is treatable as there seems to be little connection between his mental disorder and offending behavior.

      Section 47/49 is for the transfer of sentenced prisoners and is not applicable in this case.

      No hospital disposal is also an option, but the offender has responded well to treatment and has a mental disorder, which makes him suitable for disposal under the Mental Health Act, even if he does not have a mental illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 165 - What surgical procedure would be the most suitable for managing OCD that is...

    Incorrect

    • What surgical procedure would be the most suitable for managing OCD that is unresponsive to other treatments?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior capsulotomy

      Explanation:

      Capsulotomy is a procedure that creates lesions on both sides of the anterior limb of the internal capsule and is commonly used to treat OCD and depression. Cingulotomy is another procedure used to treat refractory anxiety, pain, depression, and OCD. SST is primarily used for depression but can also be used for anxiety and OCD. Limbic leucopathy is a combination of SST and cingulotomy and is used to treat depression, anxiety, and OCD. Although amygdalotomy was originally developed to treat aggression, it is now rarely used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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  • Question 166 - Within what timeframe after delivery do infant homicides fall under the category of...

    Incorrect

    • Within what timeframe after delivery do infant homicides fall under the category of neonaticide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Infant Homicide

      Homicide is a significant contributor to infant mortality, with infants under 1 year of age being more likely to be victims of homicide than older children of the general population. Neonaticide, the killing of a baby within 24 hours of delivery, is different from the homicide of infants older than a day. Neonaticide is usually committed by the mother, who is often young, single, and living with her parents. The pregnancy is often unintentional and concealed, and the motivation to kill is usually because the child was unwanted. In contrast, the homicide of infants older than a day is more likely to be committed by a parent, with boys at greater risk than girls. Risk factors for the homicide of infants older than a day include younger age, family history of violence, violence in current relationships of the perpetrator, evidence of past abuse of neglect of children, and personality disorder and/of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 167 - A 50 year old man with bipolar affective disorder who has been taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old man with bipolar affective disorder who has been taking carbamazepine for many years presents with an episode of mania. You are confident that he is compliant with the medication. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue the carbamazepine and add in quetiapine

      Explanation:

      The Maudsley 13th Edition suggests considering the addition of an antipsychotic when taking carbamazepine.

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 168 - What treatment option has the strongest evidence for managing dementia in individuals with...

    Incorrect

    • What treatment option has the strongest evidence for managing dementia in individuals with Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rivastigmine

      Explanation:

      It is difficult to provide a definitive answer to this question as there is currently no consensus on the matter. However, the limited evidence available suggests that both rivastigmine and donepezil may be effective, although donepezil may be associated with higher dropout rates.

      Dementia with Parkinson’s Disease: Understanding Cognitive Symptoms

      Dementia with Parkinson’s disease is a syndrome that involves a decline in memory and other cognitive domains, leading to social and occupational dysfunction. Along with motor problems, non-motor symptoms such as cognitive, behavioral, and psychological issues can also arise. There is debate over whether Lewy body dementia and dementia due to Parkinson’s are different conditions. Drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can interfere with cognitive function, and people with this type of dementia tend to have marked problems with executive function. Cholinesterase inhibitors can improve cognitive performance, but they are not well tolerated and can cause side effects. Understanding the cognitive symptoms of dementia with Parkinson’s disease is crucial for effective clinical management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 169 - What is a recommended guideline for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) when treating obsessive...

    Incorrect

    • What is a recommended guideline for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) when treating obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient and the therapist should have shared formulation of the problem

      Explanation:

      Establishing shared goals and a formulation between the therapist and patient is crucial at the beginning of therapy. The therapist should utilize Socratic dialogue to develop alternative theories regarding obsessive-compulsive thoughts and behaviors. It is important for the therapist to be cautious of the patient adopting self-reassurance of appraisals as another form of compulsion of neutralization. Early establishment of therapy goals is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 170 - Which of the following drugs is not recommended by NICE for the treatment...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is not recommended by NICE for the treatment of PTSD in adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      There are various treatment options available for PTSD, including the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and venlafaxine.

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 171 - What is an alternative to clozapine that can be used in combination with...

    Incorrect

    • What is an alternative to clozapine that can be used in combination with an antipsychotic for patients with schizophrenia if clozapine is not effective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 172 - What is the licensed treatment for obsessive compulsive disorder in young people in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the licensed treatment for obsessive compulsive disorder in young people in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluvoxamine

      Explanation:

      In the UK, sertraline and fluvoxamine are approved for treating obsessive compulsive disorder in young individuals, while other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, paroxetine, and citalopram have demonstrated safety and efficacy and may be used off-label.

      OCD and BDD are two mental health disorders that can affect children. OCD is characterized by obsessions and compulsions, while BDD is characterized by a preoccupation with an imagined defect in one’s appearance. Both disorders can cause significant distress and impairment in daily functioning.

      For mild cases of OCD, guided self-help may be considered along with support and information for the family of caregivers. For moderate to severe cases of OCD, cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) that involves the family of caregivers and is adapted to suit the child’s developmental age is recommended. For all children and young people with BDD, CBT (including exposure and response prevention) is recommended.

      If a child declines psychological treatment, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be prescribed. However, a licensed medication (sertraline of fluvoxamine) should be used for children and young people with OCD, while fluoxetine should be used for those with BDD. If an SSRI is ineffective of not tolerated, another SSRI of clomipramine may be tried. Tricyclic antidepressants other than clomipramine should not be used to treat OCD of BDD in children and young people. Other antidepressants (MAOIs, SNRIs) and antipsychotics should not be used alone in the routine treatment of OCD of BDD in children of young people, but may be considered as an augmentation strategy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 173 - For which condition is Dialectical Behavioural Therapy specifically recommended for treatment? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which condition is Dialectical Behavioural Therapy specifically recommended for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      DBT is a specialized version of CBT designed specifically for individuals with borderline personality disorder.

      Dialectical Behavioural Therapy (DBT) is a form of psychotherapy that is tailored for patients with borderline personality disorder. It combines behavioural therapy with aspects of Zen Buddhism and dialectical thinking to help patients develop important interpersonal and emotional regulation skills. DBT has five functions, including enhancing behavioural capabilities, improving motivation to change, assuring new capabilities generalise to the natural environment, structuring the environment so that appropriate behaviours are reinforced, and enhancing motivation of the therapist.

      DBT uses a hierarchy of treatment targets to help the therapist determine the order in which problems should be addressed. The treatment targets in order of priority are life-threatening behaviours, therapy-interfering behaviours, quality of life behaviours, and skills acquisition. DBT skills include mindfulness, distress tolerance, interpersonal effectiveness, and emotion regulation. Overall, DBT is an effective form of therapy for patients with multiple problems, and it helps them develop the skills they need to achieve their goals and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
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  • Question 174 - What is the medical condition that is identified by the presence of global...

    Incorrect

    • What is the medical condition that is identified by the presence of global confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia as its triad of symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 175 - Researchers have conducted a study comparing a new blood pressure medication with a...

    Incorrect

    • Researchers have conducted a study comparing a new blood pressure medication with a standard blood pressure medication. 200 patients are divided equally between the two groups. Over the course of one year, 20 patients in the treatment group experienced a significant reduction in blood pressure, compared to 35 patients in the control group.

      What is the number needed to treat (NNT)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7

      Explanation:

      The Relative Risk Reduction (RRR) is calculated by subtracting the experimental event rate (EER) from the control event rate (CER), dividing the result by the CER, and then multiplying by 100 to get a percentage. In this case, the RRR is (35-20)÷35 = 0.4285 of 42.85%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 176 - What diagnostic tool is most effective in identifying dementia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What diagnostic tool is most effective in identifying dementia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clinical interview

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of dementia is based on a clinical interview, as it is a clinical syndrome.

      Dementia: An Overview

      Dementia is a syndrome that results in a decline in memory and at least one other cognitive domain, such as language, visuospatial of executive functioning. This decline is significant enough to interfere with social and occupational function in an alert person. The diagnosis of dementia is based on evidence of neurocognitive impairment, which is demonstrated by standardized neuropsychological of cognitive testing. Behavioural changes may also be present, and the symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      Epidemiology

      The total population prevalence of dementia among over 65s is 7.1%, which equals 1.3% of the entire UK population. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia in the UK, followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. These conditions may coexist. The proportions of dementia severity among people with late-onset dementia are as follows: 55.4% have mild dementia, 32.1% have moderate dementia, and 12.5% have severe dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 177 - Among the listed medications, which one has the strongest evidence for reducing persistent...

    Incorrect

    • Among the listed medications, which one has the strongest evidence for reducing persistent aggression and violence in individuals with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Recent research suggests that clozapine may be effective in reducing persistent aggression in individuals with schizophrenia, even independent of its antipsychotic properties. However, this evidence is largely based on uncontrolled trials. Additionally, there is some indication that mood stabilizers, specifically carbamazepine, may be helpful as an adjunct treatment for assaultive behavior in schizophrenia. On the other hand, there is currently no strong evidence to support the use of benzodiazepines of high-dose antipsychotics for chronic aggression in this population. These findings were discussed in a 2005 article by Davison on the management of violence in general psychiatry.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 178 - What is the best course of action for a 32-year-old pregnant woman with...

    Incorrect

    • What is the best course of action for a 32-year-old pregnant woman with a heroin addiction who is interested in detoxing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methadone

      Explanation:

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 179 - What is a risk management factor included in the HCR-20? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a risk management factor included in the HCR-20?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exposure to destabilizers

      Explanation:

      The HCR-20 is a comprehensive tool used to assess the risk of violence in adults. It takes into account various factors from the past, present, and future to provide a holistic view of the individual’s risk. The tool consists of 20 items, which are divided into three domains: historical, clinical, and risk management.

      The historical domain includes factors such as previous violence, young age at first violent incident, relationship instability, employment problems, substance use problems, major mental illness, psychopathy, early maladjustment, personality disorder, and prior supervision failure. These factors are important to consider as they provide insight into the individual’s past behavior and potential risk for future violence.

      The clinical domain includes factors such as lack of insight, negative attitudes, active symptoms of major mental illness, impulsivity, and unresponsiveness to treatment. These factors are important to consider as they provide insight into the individual’s current mental state and potential risk for future violence.

      The risk management domain includes factors such as plans lack feasibility, exposure to destabilizers, lack of personal support, noncompliance with remediation attempts, and stress. These factors are important to consider as they provide insight into the individual’s ability to manage their risk and potential for future violence.

      Overall, the HCR-20 is a valuable tool for assessing the risk of violence in adults. It provides a comprehensive view of the individual’s risk and can be used to inform treatment and risk management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 180 - The epidemiology of ADHD can be described as follows: ...

    Incorrect

    • The epidemiology of ADHD can be described as follows:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The male to female ratio of ADHD in adults is approximately 1.6:1

      Explanation:

      Primary inattentive features are more commonly observed in females with ADHD, as opposed to hyperactivity and impulsivity which are more prevalent in males.

      ADHD is a prevalent disorder worldwide, with a prevalence of 7% in those under 18 and 3.5% in those over 18. It is more common in males, with a male to female ratio of 2:1 in children and 1.6:1 in adults. While some improvement in symptoms is seen over time, the majority of those diagnosed in childhood continue to struggle with residual symptoms and impairments through at least young adulthood, with an estimated persistence rate of 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 181 - If a couple has a child with autism, what advice would you give...

    Incorrect

    • If a couple has a child with autism, what advice would you give them regarding the likelihood of having another child with the same condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a 8 fold increase in risk to a future sibling

      Explanation:

      According to a study conducted in 2019 across various countries, the likelihood of developing ASD is significantly higher if a sibling has already been diagnosed with the disorder, with an 8-fold increase in risk.

      Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a lifelong disorder characterized by deficits in communication and social understanding, as well as restrictive and repetitive behaviors. The distinction between autism and Asperger’s has been abandoned, and they are now grouped together under the ASD category. Intellectual ability is difficult to assess in people with ASD, with an estimated 33% having an intellectual disability. ASD was first described in Europe and the United States using different terms, with Leo Kanner and Hans Asperger being the pioneers. Diagnosis is based on persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction, as well as restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. The worldwide population prevalence is about 1%, with comorbidity being common. Heritability is estimated at around 90%, and both genetic and environmental factors seem to cause ASD. Currently, there are no validated pharmacological treatments that alleviate core ASD symptoms, but second-generation antipsychotics are the first-line pharmacological treatment for children and adolescents with ASD and associated irritability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 182 - Which option has the strongest evidence to support its effectiveness as a method...

    Incorrect

    • Which option has the strongest evidence to support its effectiveness as a method for quickly calming someone down?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhaled loxapine

      Explanation:

      Violence and aggression can be managed through rapid tranquillisation, although the evidence base for this approach is not strong. Different guidelines provide varying recommendations for rapid tranquillisation, including NICE, Maudsley Guidelines, and the British Association for Psychopharmacology (BAP). NICE recommends using IM lorazepam of IM haloperidol + IM promethazine for rapid tranquillisation in adults, taking into account factors such as previous response and patient preference. BAP provides a range of options for oral, inhaled, IM, and IV medications, including inhaled loxapine, buccal midazolam, and oral antipsychotics. Maudsley Guidelines suggest using oral lorazepam, oral promethazine, of buccal midazolam if prescribed a regular antipsychotic, of oral olanzapine, oral risperidone, of oral haloperidol if not already taking an antipsychotic. IM options include lorazepam, promethazine, olanzapine, aripiprazole, and haloperidol, although drugs should not be mixed in the same syringe. Haloperidol should ideally be used with promethazine to reduce the risk of dystonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 183 - What is a true statement about specific phobias? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about specific phobias?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The majority of those with phobias do not seek treatment

      Explanation:

      The concept of reciprocal inhibition, which was first described by Sherrington in 1906, was adapted by Wolpe to address phobias.

      Understanding Specific Phobia: Diagnosis, Course, and Treatment

      A specific phobia is a type of anxiety disorder characterized by an intense fear of anxiety about a particular object of situation that is out of proportion to the actual danger it poses. This fear of anxiety is evoked almost every time the individual comes into contact with the phobic stimulus, and they actively avoid it of experience intense fear of anxiety if they cannot avoid it. Specific phobias usually develop in childhood, with situational phobias having a later onset than other types. Although most specific phobias develop in childhood, they can develop at any age, often due to traumatic experiences.

      Exposure therapy is the current treatment of choice for specific phobias, involving in-vivo of imaging approaches to phobic stimuli of situations. Pharmacotherapy is not commonly used, but glucocorticoids and D-cycloserine have been found to be effective. Systematic desensitization, developed by Wolpe, was the first behavioral approach for phobias, but subsequent research found that exposure was the crucial variable for eliminating phobias. Graded exposure therapy is now preferred over flooding, which is considered unnecessarily traumatic. Only a small percentage of people with specific phobias receive treatment, possibly due to the temporary relief provided by avoidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 184 - Which variable classification is not included in Stevens' typology? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which variable classification is not included in Stevens' typology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ranked

      Explanation:

      Stevens suggested that scales can be categorized into one of four types based on measurements.

      Scales of Measurement in Statistics

      In the 1940s, Stanley Smith Stevens introduced four scales of measurement to categorize data variables. Knowing the scale of measurement for a variable is crucial in selecting the appropriate statistical analysis. The four scales of measurement are ratio, interval, ordinal, and nominal.

      Ratio scales are similar to interval scales, but they have true zero points. Examples of ratio scales include weight, time, and length. Interval scales measure the difference between two values, and one unit on the scale represents the same magnitude on the trait of characteristic being measured across the whole range of the scale. The Fahrenheit scale for temperature is an example of an interval scale.

      Ordinal scales categorize observed values into set categories that can be ordered, but the intervals between each value are uncertain. Examples of ordinal scales include social class, education level, and income level. Nominal scales categorize observed values into set categories that have no particular order of hierarchy. Examples of nominal scales include genotype, blood type, and political party.

      Data can also be categorized as quantitative of qualitative. Quantitative variables take on numeric values and can be further classified into discrete and continuous types. Qualitative variables do not take on numerical values and are usually names. Some qualitative variables have an inherent order in their categories and are described as ordinal. Qualitative variables are also called categorical of nominal variables. When a qualitative variable has only two categories, it is called a binary variable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 185 - What is the most appropriate way to describe the method of data collection...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate way to describe the method of data collection used for the Likert scale questionnaire created by the psychiatrist and administered to 100 community patients to better understand their religious needs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ordinal

      Explanation:

      Likert scales are a type of ordinal scale used in surveys to measure attitudes of opinions. Respondents are presented with a series of statements of questions and asked to rate their level of agreement of frequency of occurrence on a scale of options. For instance, a Likert scale question might ask how often someone prays, with response options ranging from never to daily. While the responses are ordered in terms of frequency, the intervals between each option are not necessarily equal of quantifiable. Therefore, Likert scales are considered ordinal rather than interval scales.

      Scales of Measurement in Statistics

      In the 1940s, Stanley Smith Stevens introduced four scales of measurement to categorize data variables. Knowing the scale of measurement for a variable is crucial in selecting the appropriate statistical analysis. The four scales of measurement are ratio, interval, ordinal, and nominal.

      Ratio scales are similar to interval scales, but they have true zero points. Examples of ratio scales include weight, time, and length. Interval scales measure the difference between two values, and one unit on the scale represents the same magnitude on the trait of characteristic being measured across the whole range of the scale. The Fahrenheit scale for temperature is an example of an interval scale.

      Ordinal scales categorize observed values into set categories that can be ordered, but the intervals between each value are uncertain. Examples of ordinal scales include social class, education level, and income level. Nominal scales categorize observed values into set categories that have no particular order of hierarchy. Examples of nominal scales include genotype, blood type, and political party.

      Data can also be categorized as quantitative of qualitative. Quantitative variables take on numeric values and can be further classified into discrete and continuous types. Qualitative variables do not take on numerical values and are usually names. Some qualitative variables have an inherent order in their categories and are described as ordinal. Qualitative variables are also called categorical of nominal variables. When a qualitative variable has only two categories, it is called a binary variable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 186 - What is the expected duration of detectability in urine after a one-time use...

    Incorrect

    • What is the expected duration of detectability in urine after a one-time use of cannabis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 days

      Explanation:

      Drug Screening

      Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.

      People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.

      Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 187 - A 45-year-old individual with a long-standing history of bipolar disorder has been an...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old individual with a long-standing history of bipolar disorder has been an inpatient on an acute admission ward for four months detained under section 2 of the Mental Health Act. Their manic episodes have subsided to their chronic baseline level. Periods of escorted leave have been associated with substance misuse and impulsive behavior including shoplifting and suspected vandalism. What would be the most suitable course of action for their treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transfer to rehabilitation unit

      Explanation:

      Given the patient’s improved psychotic symptoms, an extended stay in an acute ward would not be beneficial. However, due to ongoing substance misuse and challenging behaviors, discharge from the hospital is not yet possible. While an addictions admission of transfer to a forensic ward is not necessary, a rehabilitation psychiatry ward would be the most appropriate next step. This would provide the patient with the necessary support to address their substance misuse and challenging behaviors, while also promoting their skills and independence for a successful return to community living.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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  • Question 188 - What is the most suitable significance test to examine the potential association between...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable significance test to examine the potential association between serum level and degree of sedation in patients who are prescribed clozapine, where sedation is measured on a scale of 1-10?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Logistic regression

      Explanation:

      This scenario involves examining the correlation between two variables: the sedation scale (which is ordinal) and the serum clozapine level (which is a ratio scale). While the serum clozapine level can be measured using arithmetic and is considered a parametric variable, the sedation scale cannot be treated in the same way due to its non-parametric nature. Therefore, the analysis of the correlation between these two variables will need to take into account the limitations of the sedation scale as an ordinal variable.

      Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 189 - What is a true statement about depression after a stroke? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about depression after a stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antidepressants used in post-stroke depression may enhance motor recovery

      Explanation:

      The use of mianserin for post-stroke depression has been found to be ineffective.

      Depression is a common occurrence after a stroke, affecting 30-40% of patients. The location of the stroke lesion can play a crucial role in the development of major depression. Treatment for post-stroke depression must take into account the cause of the stroke, medical comorbidities, and potential interactions with other medications. The Maudsley guidelines recommend SSRIs as the first-line treatment, with paroxetine being the preferred choice. Nortriptyline is also an option, as it does not increase the risk of bleeding. If the patient is on anticoagulants, citalopram and escitalopram may be preferred. Antidepressant prophylaxis has been shown to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression, with nortriptyline, fluoxetine, escitalopram, duloxetine, sertraline, and mirtazapine being effective options. Mianserin, however, appears to be ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 190 - What is the conventional cutoff for a p-value of 0.05 and what does...

    Incorrect

    • What is the conventional cutoff for a p-value of 0.05 and what does it mean in terms of the likelihood of detecting a difference by chance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 14 times

      Explanation:

      The probability of detecting a difference by chance is 1 in 20 times when the p-value is 0.05, which is the conventional cutoff. In this case, the answer is 1 in 14 times, which is equivalent to a p-value of 0.07.

      Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics

      In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.

      The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.

      Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

      P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 191 - Which statement accurately describes alcoholic blackouts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes alcoholic blackouts?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blackouts do not predict long term cognitive impairment

      Explanation:

      Alcoholic Blackouts: Definition and Causes

      Alcoholic blackouts are temporary memory loss episodes caused by alcohol intoxication. They do not involve loss of consciousness and are not exclusive to individuals with alcohol dependence. In fact, they can occur in a significant number of social drinkers. The risk factors for experiencing alcoholic blackouts include starting drinking at an early age, consuming high levels of alcohol, and having a history of head injury. However, experiencing blackouts does not necessarily predict long-term cognitive impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 192 - Within what timeframe after giving birth should women requiring inpatient treatment for a...

    Incorrect

    • Within what timeframe after giving birth should women requiring inpatient treatment for a mental disorder be admitted to a specialized mother and baby unit, as per the guidelines of NICE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0 - 12 months

      Explanation:

      Mothers who require hospitalization for a mental illness within a year of delivering a baby should be admitted to a dedicated facility that specializes in caring for both the mother and her infant.

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 193 - What is a true statement about transient global amnesia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about transient global amnesia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repetitive questioning is a common feature

      Explanation:

      Transient Global Amnesia: Definition, Diagnostic Criteria, and Possible Causes

      Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a clinical syndrome characterized by sudden and severe amnesia, often accompanied by repetitive questioning, that lasts for several hours. The term was first coined in 1964 by Fisher and Adams. To diagnose TGA, the following criteria have been established: (1) the attack must be witnessed, (2) there must be clear anterograde amnesia, (3) clouding of consciousness and loss of personal identity must be absent, (4) there should be no accompanying focal neurological symptoms, (5) epileptic features must be absent, (6) attacks must resolve within 24 hours, and (7) patients with recent head injury of known active epilepsy are excluded.

      Epidemiological studies have shown that thromboembolic cerebrovascular disease does not play a role in the causation of TGA. However, the incidence of migraine in patients with TGA is higher than in the general population. A small minority of cases with unusually brief and recurrent attacks eventually manifest temporal lobe epilepsy. EEG recording is typically normal after an attack, even when performed during the attack.

      Possible causes of TGA include venous congestion with Valsalva-like activities before symptom onset, arterial thromboembolic ischemia, and vasoconstriction due to hyperventilation. Precipitants of TGA often include exertion, cold, pain, emotional stress, and sexual intercourse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 194 - Compared to other research models, which one yields the most robust and reliable...

    Incorrect

    • Compared to other research models, which one yields the most robust and reliable findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Randomised control trials (RCTs) with non-definitive results

      Explanation:

      According to Greenhalgh (1997), when making decisions about clinical interventions, the standard notation for the relative weight carried by different types of primary studies is arranged in a hierarchy of evidence. Randomised control trials with non-definitive results are ranked third in this hierarchy, carrying stronger relative weight than cohort studies, case-control studies, cross-sectional surveys, and case reports. The top two positions are occupied by systematic reviews/meta-analyses and RCTs with definitive results, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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  • Question 195 - The clinical director of a pediatric unit conducts an economic evaluation study to...

    Incorrect

    • The clinical director of a pediatric unit conducts an economic evaluation study to determine which type of treatment results in the greatest improvement in asthma symptoms (as measured by the Asthma Control Test). She compares the costs of three different treatment options against the average improvement in asthma symptoms achieved by each. What type of economic evaluation method did she employ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cost-effectiveness analysis

      Explanation:

      Methods of Economic Evaluation

      There are four main methods of economic evaluation: cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA), cost-benefit analysis (CBA), cost-utility analysis (CUA), and cost-minimisation analysis (CMA). While all four methods capture costs, they differ in how they assess health effects.

      Cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA) compares interventions by relating costs to a single clinical measure of effectiveness, such as symptom reduction of improvement in activities of daily living. The cost-effectiveness ratio is calculated as total cost divided by units of effectiveness. CEA is typically used when CBA cannot be performed due to the inability to monetise benefits.

      Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) measures all costs and benefits of an intervention in monetary terms to establish which alternative has the greatest net benefit. CBA requires that all consequences of an intervention, such as life-years saved, treatment side-effects, symptom relief, disability, pain, and discomfort, are allocated a monetary value. CBA is rarely used in mental health service evaluation due to the difficulty in converting benefits from mental health programmes into monetary values.

      Cost-utility analysis (CUA) is a special form of CEA in which health benefits/outcomes are measured in broader, more generic ways, enabling comparisons between treatments for different diseases and conditions. Multidimensional health outcomes are measured by a single preference- of utility-based index such as the Quality-Adjusted-Life-Years (QALY). QALYs are a composite measure of gains in life expectancy and health-related quality of life. CUA allows for comparisons across treatments for different conditions.

      Cost-minimisation analysis (CMA) is an economic evaluation in which the consequences of competing interventions are the same, and only inputs, i.e. costs, are taken into consideration. The aim is to decide the least costly way of achieving the same outcome.

      Costs in Economic Evaluation Studies

      There are three main types of costs in economic evaluation studies: direct, indirect, and intangible. Direct costs are associated directly with the healthcare intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, cost of travel for the patient, childcare costs for the patient, and costs falling on other social sectors such as domestic help from social services. Indirect costs are incurred by the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work, reduced work productivity, and time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are difficult to measure, such as pain of suffering on the part of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 196 - What are the accurate statements about the renal and biochemical complications associated with...

    Incorrect

    • What are the accurate statements about the renal and biochemical complications associated with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients usually have normal albumin levels

      Explanation:

      Infection may be indicated by low serum albumin levels, as the body shifts its production from albumin to acute phase proteins. It is important to note that normal albumin levels should not be relied upon as a marker of nutritional status, as patients with anorexia may still have normal levels despite electrolyte imbalances. Additionally, eGFR may overestimate renal function in these patients due to low muscle mass. Binge-purge anorexia carries a higher risk of electrolyte disturbance, particularly hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia, due to induced vomiting and subsequent loss of hydrogen ions and potassium in the urine.

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 197 - Which of the following is classified as class B under the Misuse of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is classified as class B under the Misuse of Drugs Act?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cannabis

      Explanation:

      Class B substances are elevated to the status of Class A when they are administered through injection.

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 198 - A 38-year-old man with schizophrenia requests to stop taking his chlorpromazine medication after...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man with schizophrenia requests to stop taking his chlorpromazine medication after hearing from another patient that it is outdated. Despite the fact that chlorpromazine has effectively managed his symptoms since he was diagnosed at age 20, the patient insists on switching to a newer and more modern medication. Which of the following atypical antipsychotics would be the least appropriate for him to start taking next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Before starting clozapine, it is recommended to try at least two other antipsychotic medications. However, in this particular case, the individual has only been treated with one antipsychotic.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 199 - In the elderly population, which group of psychotropic medications is most associated with...

    Incorrect

    • In the elderly population, which group of psychotropic medications is most associated with causing gastrointestinal bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SSRIs

      Explanation:

      SSRI and Bleeding Risk: Management Strategies

      SSRIs have been linked to an increased risk of bleeding, particularly in vulnerable populations such as the elderly, those with a history of bleeding, and those taking medications that predispose them to bleeding. The risk of bleeding is further elevated in patients with comorbidities such as liver of renal disease, smoking, and alcohol of drug misuse.

      To manage this risk, the Maudsley recommends avoiding SSRIs in patients receiving NSAIDs, aspirin, of oral anticoagulants, of those with a history of cerebral of GI bleeds. If SSRI use cannot be avoided, close monitoring and prescription of gastroprotective proton pump inhibitors are recommended. The degree of serotonin reuptake inhibition varies among antidepressants, with some having weaker of no inhibition, which may be associated with a lower risk of bleeding.

      NICE recommends caution when using SSRIs in patients taking aspirin and suggests considering alternative antidepressants such as trazodone, mianserin, of reboxetine. In patients taking warfarin of heparin, SSRIs are not recommended, but mirtazapine may be considered with caution.

      Overall, healthcare providers should carefully weigh the risks and benefits of SSRI use in patients at risk of bleeding and consider alternative antidepressants of gastroprotective measures when appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 200 - A teenager is experiencing symptoms of depression. What self-rated scale could be utilized...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager is experiencing symptoms of depression. What self-rated scale could be utilized to evaluate the intensity of their depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beck depression inventory

      Explanation:

      The HAMD is a tool used by clinicians to assess the severity of depression, whereas the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale is primarily used for screening purposes.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Adult Psychiatry (13/21) 62%
Psychotherapy (4/4) 100%
Substance Misuse/Addictions (10/12) 83%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (7/11) 64%
Learning Disability (2/2) 100%
Child And Adolescent Psychiatry (3/4) 75%
Forensic Psychiatry (3/6) 50%
Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services (1/1) 100%
Old Age Psychiatry (4/5) 80%
Passmed