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Question 1
Correct
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A 55-year-old man visits his optometrist for a check-up. He has hyperopia and his current prescription is +3/+3.25 without any astigmatism or myopia. What is the primary eye condition that this patient is susceptible to with his present eye condition?
Your Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Explanation:Hypermetropia is linked to acute angle-closure glaucoma, while myopia is associated with primary open-angle glaucoma. This is because those with hypermetropia have smaller eyes, shallower anterior chambers, and narrower angles. The connection between myopia and primary open-angle glaucoma is not as clear, but it may be due to the optic nerve head being more vulnerable to damage from increased intraocular pressure. Cataracts are commonly linked to aging and severe short-sightedness, while central retinal artery occlusion is associated with aneurysms, arterial disease, and emboli.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 42-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erythema around his right eye and limited eye movements for the past 2 days. He has been experiencing sinusitis symptoms for the last week. During the examination of his right eye, the doctor observes erythema around the eye, proptosis, painful and restricted eye movements, and decreased visual acuity. The examination of his left eye is normal.
What is the most suitable test to perform?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) orbit, sinuses and brain
Explanation:Imaging and Diagnostic Tools for Orbital Cellulitis
Orbital cellulitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. To evaluate patients with suspected orbital cellulitis, a computed tomography (CT) scan of the orbit, sinuses, and brain is necessary if they have central nervous system involvement, proptosis, eye movement restriction or pain, reduced visual acuity, or other symptoms. If patients do not improve after 36-48 hours of IV antibiotics, surgical drainage may be required, making imaging crucial for evaluation.
Ophthalmic ultrasound is not useful in the diagnosis or assessment of orbital cellulitis, but it is used in the evaluation of intra-ocular tumors. Optical coherence photography (OCT) is also not used in the assessment of orbital cellulitis, but it is useful in the diagnosis and assessment of other eye conditions such as glaucoma and macular degeneration.
An X-ray of the skull bones is not useful in the assessment of orbital cellulitis and is typically used in cases of suspected non-accidental injury in children. Overall, proper imaging and diagnostic tools are essential for the accurate diagnosis and treatment of orbital cellulitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a gradual onset of dry, itchy right eye and associated blurring of his vision. The patient and his family have also observed that he has difficulty completely closing his eyelid. The patient has a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes but has never been hospitalized or had any eye problems before.
During the examination, the patient displays signs of miosis, partial ptosis, anhidrosis of the face, and enophthalmos.
What is the probable cause of this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Carotid artery dissection
Correct Answer: Pancoast tumour
Explanation:Horner’s syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is a lesion in the sympathetic nerve trunk, resulting in symptoms such as miosis, partial ptosis, enophthalmos, and anhidrosis on the same side as the lesion. The location of the lesion can be determined by the presence and location of anhidrosis. If anhidrosis is present only in the face, it indicates a Preganglionic lesion, which can be caused by conditions such as Pancoast tumors, cervical rib, and thyroid issues. On the other hand, a postganglionic lesion, which can be caused by carotid artery dissection or cavernous sinus thrombosis, results in Horner’s syndrome without anhidrosis. Central lesions, such as those caused by stroke or syringomyelia, result in Horner’s syndrome with anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk on the affected side.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with a history of type I diabetes visits her GP complaining of a 4-day decrease in visual acuity on her left side. During the examination, she reports that the object used appears to have a different color when using her left eye compared to her right eye. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: Optic neuritis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest optic neuritis as the most likely diagnosis, which can be associated with multiple sclerosis, diabetes, and syphilis. The patient has experienced a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a few days and has difficulty distinguishing colors, particularly with red appearing washed out, pink, or orange when viewed with the affected eye. The blind spot assessment is significant because it typically involves a red-tipped object, which may further highlight the patient’s red desaturation. Other exam findings may include pain with eye movement, a relative afferent pupillary defect, and a central scotoma. Acute angle-closure glaucoma would not typically cause color desaturation, and type I diabetes is not a risk factor for this condition. While type I diabetes can increase the risk of age-related macular degeneration, patients typically present with a gradual reduction in visual acuity without affecting color vision. Cataracts can also cause faded color vision, but the history would typically span several weeks to months.
Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of double vision that occurs when both eyes are open. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
During the examination, his visual acuity is measured at 6/9 in both eyes. The patient has complete drooping of his left eyelid. The size of his left pupil is the same as the right. His left eye is turned outward and slightly downward when looking straight ahead. The patient's left eye movements are limited in most directions except for outward movement.
What is the next step in investigating this condition?Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) head with magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)
Correct Answer: Blood tests including full blood count (FBC), erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), C-reactive protein (CRP), lipids and blood glucose
Explanation:Investigations for Third-Nerve Palsy: What to Consider
When presented with a third-nerve palsy, it is important to investigate the potential causes and determine the appropriate course of action. A pupil-sparing complete palsy may suggest a medical cause, such as hypertension or diabetes, which can be assessed through blood tests including FBC, ESR, CRP, lipids, and blood glucose. Once all causes have been investigated and treated, an orthoptic review with Hess charts can help resolve diplopia. CSF testing for oligoclonal bands is not necessary unless a demyelinating cause is suspected. In cases of severe symptoms, an MRI head with MRA is the correct option to rule out a posterior-communicating artery aneurysm. A non-contrast CT head is only necessary if an acute intracranial or subarachnoid bleed is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presented with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision and lacrimation in the left eye. He also felt a foreign body sensation in the affected eye. He had been doing some DIY work at home without wearing any goggles for the past few days prior to the onset of pain.
On examination, his visual acuities were 6/18 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The conjunctiva in the left was red. The cornea was tested with fluorescein and it showed an uptake in the centre of the cornea, which looked like a dendrite. You examined his face and noticed some small vesicles at the corner of his mouth as well.
What is the first-line treatment for this patient’s eye condition?Your Answer: Topical antiviral ointment such as acyclovir
Explanation:Treatment Options for Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that requires prompt and appropriate treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for this condition is topical antiviral ointment, such as acyclovir 3% ointment, which should be applied for 10-14 days. Topical artificial tears and topical antibiotic drops or ointment are not indicated for this condition. In fact, the use of topical steroid drops, such as prednisolone, may worsen the ulcer and should be avoided until the corneal ulcer is healed. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention and follow the recommended treatment plan to manage herpes simplex keratitis effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a complaint of unequal pupil size. Upon examination, there is an anisocoria of >1mm. The anisocoria appears to be more pronounced when a light is shone on the patient's face compared to when the room is darkened. The patient's eye movements are normal, and a slit-lamp examination reveals no evidence of synechiae. What possible condition could be responsible for these findings?
Your Answer: Physiological anisocoria
Correct Answer: Adie's tonic pupil
Explanation:When a patient presents with anisocoria, it is important to determine whether the issue lies with dilation or constriction. In this case, the anisocoria is exacerbated by bright light, indicating a problem with the parasympathetic innervation and the affected pupil’s inability to constrict. Adie’s tonic pupil is a likely cause, as it involves dysfunction of the ciliary ganglion. Horner syndrome and oculomotor nerve palsy are unlikely causes, as they would result in different symptoms. Physiological anisocoria and pilocarpine are also incorrect answers.
Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 29-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of painful red eye on one side. Upon examination, the GP observes reduced visual acuity, photophobia, eye watering, and a poorly reactive pupil. The patient is suspected to have uveitis. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Same-day referral to an Ophthalmologist
Explanation:Management of Acutely Painful Red Eye with Suspected Uveitis
Explanation:
When a patient presents with an acutely painful red eye and suspected uveitis, it is crucial to refer them for same-day assessment by an Ophthalmologist. A slit-lamp examination is necessary to confirm the diagnosis, which cannot be performed by a GP. Non-infective anterior uveitis is treated with a combination of steroids and cycloplegics to reduce inflammation and ciliary spasm. In cases of infective uveitis, antimicrobials are also added.Chloramphenicol is used in the treatment of conjunctivitis, but it is not appropriate for uveitis. Conservative management with pain relief alone is not sufficient for this condition. Topical steroids are required to reduce inflammation, along with a cycloplegic such as atropine to reduce ciliary spasm. However, topical steroids should not be initiated in primary care, and patients require urgent assessment in secondary care.
Referral within two weeks is not appropriate for a patient with an acutely painful red eye and suspected uveitis. Any delay in treatment can result in adhesions within the eye and long-term damage. Therefore, same-day referral to an Ophthalmologist is necessary for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision and lacrimation in the left eye. He also feels a foreign body sensation in the affected eye. He had been doing some DIY work at home without wearing any goggles for the past few days prior to the onset of pain.
On examination, his visual acuities are 6/18 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The conjunctiva in the left is red. The cornea is tested with fluorescein and it shows an uptake in the centre of the cornea which looks like a dendrite. On examination of his face, there are some small vesicles at the corner of his mouth as well.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Viral keratitis
Explanation:Possible Eye Conditions and Diagnosis for a Patient with Corneal Ulcer
Upon examination of a patient with a corneal ulcer, several possible eye conditions can be considered. However, based on the presence of a dendritic ulcer and a history of cold sores, a viral keratitis, specifically herpes simplex keratitis, is likely. A corneal abrasion is unlikely as there is no history of eye injury. A corneal foreign body is also unlikely as there is no visible foreign object on the cornea. Fungal keratitis is unlikely as there are no risk factors present. Microbial keratitis is a possibility, but it typically presents with a round-shaped ulcer. Overall, a viral keratitis diagnosis seems most probable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with blurring of her vision and pain on eye movement. The GP suspects that she may have optic neuritis.
Which of the following signs is most likely to be present on examination?Your Answer: Reduced colour vision
Explanation:Signs and Symptoms of Optic Neuritis
Optic neuritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the optic nerve, often associated with demyelinating diseases like multiple sclerosis. One of the signs of optic neuritis is reduced color vision in the affected eye. Other symptoms may include decreased pupillary light reaction, relative afferent pupillary defect, reduced visual acuity, visual field defects, swollen optic disc, and pain on eye movements. However, optic neuritis is not associated with increased intraocular pressure, erythema, or vesicles around the affected eye. It is important to differentiate optic neuritis from other eye conditions to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 11
Correct
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An 82-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden vision loss in her right eye. She reports experiencing painless vision loss without prior symptoms two hours ago, which has not improved. The left eye has a visual acuity of 6/12 (corrected with a pinhole), while the right eye has undetectable visual acuity. Upon fundoscopic examination, prominent retinal haemorrhages are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion
Explanation:A sudden painless loss of vision with severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy is indicative of central retinal vein occlusion. This is a common cause of monocular vision loss seen in emergency departments. Acute glaucoma, on the other hand, presents with a painful eye, fixed pupil, hazy cornea, and increased ocular pressures. Central retinal artery occlusion can be difficult to distinguish from venous occlusion, but a ‘cherry red spot’ in the macula is often seen on fundoscopy. However, the absence of this finding and the presence of retinal haemorrhages suggest that arterial occlusion is less likely in this case. Optic neuritis, which presents with eye pain and pain on eye movements, is another possible cause of vision loss.
Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.
Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.
Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.
Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of gradual deterioration of her vision. She has been experiencing difficulty recognizing faces and distinguishing colors for several months. The patient also reports that her central vision appears somewhat blurry. She is a smoker and consumes 10 cigarettes per day. Her blood pressure is 124/76 mmHg, and recent blood tests, including HbA1c of 38 mmol/mol, are unremarkable. What is the expected finding on fundoscopy when examining the patient's macula, given the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Choroidal neovascularisation
Correct Answer: Drusen
Explanation:Dry macular degeneration, also known as drusen, is a common cause of visual loss in individuals over the age of 50. The accumulation of lipid and protein debris around the macula is a strong indication of this condition. Wet macular degeneration, on the other hand, is characterized by choroidal neovascularization. Hypertensive retinopathy is typically associated with blot hemorrhages and cotton wool spots, while microaneurysms can indicate either hypertensive retinopathy or diabetic retinopathy. However, given the patient’s normal blood pressure and HbA1c levels, it is less likely that these findings are present.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his father. He has been experiencing blurred vision for the past few months, along with headaches and eye fatigue. The blurred vision is more noticeable when looking at distant objects but can also be a problem when looking at closer objects.
What is the most suitable initial investigation to perform?Your Answer: Anterior segment optical coherence tomography
Correct Answer: Retinoscopy
Explanation:Investigating Astigmatism: Different Techniques and Their Uses
When a young girl with Down syndrome presents with symptoms of blurred vision and eye strain, the first investigation that should be done is retinoscopy. This simple procedure can determine refractive errors such as astigmatism, which is a risk factor in this case. Any irregularities in the width of the retinal reflex can indicate astigmatism.
Other techniques that can be used to investigate astigmatism include anterior segment optical coherence tomography, corneal topography, keratometry, and wavefront analysis technology. Anterior segment optical coherence tomography produces images of the cornea using optical light reflection and is useful for astigmatism caused by eye surgery. Corneal topography uses software to gather data about the dimensions of the cornea to develop colored maps that can display the axes of the cornea. Keratometry may be used to assess astigmatism, but it is less useful in cases of irregular astigmatism or when the corneal powers are too small or too big. Wavefront analysis technology is an emerging technology that can graphically present astigmatism on a map, but it is not widely used at present.
In conclusion, the choice of investigation for astigmatism depends on the individual case and the specific needs of the patient. Retinoscopy is usually the first-line investigation, but other techniques may be used depending on the circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 72-year-old male visits his eye doctor for evaluation. His brother has been diagnosed with primary open-angle glaucoma, and he is worried that he may also have the same condition as his eyesight is deteriorating. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and prostate cancer.
What signs or symptoms would indicate a diagnosis of primary open-angle glaucoma in this patient?Your Answer: Myopia
Explanation:Myopia is commonly associated with primary open-angle glaucoma, while hypermetropia is associated with acute angle closure glaucoma. Astigmatism, which is characterized by a rugby ball-shaped cornea, can be linked to either myopia or hypermetropia. Central scotoma, a blurred vision point in the center of the visual field, is often observed in optic nerve glioma, multiple sclerosis, or alcohol-induced ophthalmic disease. Glaucoma, on the other hand, is more likely to cause peripheral or off-center scotoma.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 25-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain in his left eye, photophobia, and blurred vision that have been present for 2 days. He has no medical history but reports experiencing lower back pain that improves with exercise for the past year. During the examination, the doctor observes hyperemia of the sclera and yellow crusting on the patient's eyelashes. The patient experiences pain during cranial nerve examination, making it difficult to follow the doctor's finger with his eyes. Additionally, there is some swelling of his eyelids and constriction of the left pupil. What is the most appropriate next step, given the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Urgent ophthalmology review
Explanation:The most appropriate course of action for a patient displaying symptoms consistent with anterior uveitis is to urgently refer them for assessment by an ophthalmologist on the same day. This condition is indicated by symptoms such as blurred vision, photophobia, miosis, and pain. Ankylosing spondylitis is a possible underlying cause, and anterior uveitis is a common feature of spondyloarthropathies. Prompt specialist evaluation is crucial as anterior uveitis can have significant morbidity. Treatment typically involves the use of topical steroids, mydriatics, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and cycloplegics, with immunosuppression as an option under specialist guidance. Ocular steroid drops, systemic antibiotics, topical chloramphenicol, and high-dose oral steroids are not appropriate treatments for anterior uveitis in this scenario.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of vision issues. She reports seeing a red tint in her vision and dark spots in her right eye. The physician sends her to the eye casualty department where they suspect a vitreous haemorrhage.
What factors could potentially increase the likelihood of developing this condition?Your Answer: Use of warfarin
Explanation:The use of blood thinning agents such as warfarin is a predisposing factor for vitreous haemorrhage, which is characterized by red-tinged vision and dark spots. Other risk factors include diabetes, trauma, coagulation disorders, and severe short sightedness.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a right-sided headache associated with diplopia, binocularly. He is known to have hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus.
On examination, his visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. There is a ptosis of his right eye. His right pupil appears larger than the left. His right eye is abducted on primary gaze. His right eye movements are restricted in most directions except abduction.
Which one of the following is the most important cause you need to rule out in this condition?Your Answer: Space-occupying lesion
Correct Answer: Posterior-communicating artery aneurysm
Explanation:Causes of Third-Nerve Palsy and Their Differentiating Features
Third-nerve palsy is a condition that can be caused by various factors, each with its own differentiating features. One of the most urgent causes is a posterior-communicating artery aneurysm, which can be fatal due to subarachnoid hemorrhage. A space-occupying lesion can also compress onto the third nerve, but ruling out an impending subarachnoid hemorrhage caused by a posterior-communicating artery aneurysm is more urgent. On the other hand, an anterior-communicating artery aneurysm does not normally cause a third-nerve palsy. Demyelination can cause third-nerve palsy, but the presentation usually points towards a more ‘surgical’ than ‘medical’ cause. Microvascular ischemia is a common cause of ‘medical’ third-nerve palsy, but the pupillary fibers that control pupil dilation are not affected. Therefore, understanding the differentiating features of each cause is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with multiple facial lesions that appeared suddenly 24 hours ago and are painful to the touch. She experienced burning pain on her forehead a week ago. Upon examination, she has tenderness on the left side of her forehead and several 4-6mm vesicles on the left side. Hutchinson's sign is positive. What aspect of her condition necessitates an immediate evaluation by an ophthalmologist?
Your Answer: Lesions on the top eyelid
Correct Answer: Lesions on the tip of the nose
Explanation:Hutchinson’s sign is a strong indicator of ocular involvement in shingles, characterized by vesicles extending to the tip of the nose. This patient is presenting with herpes zoster ophthalmicus, which is caused by the reactivation of herpes zoster affecting the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve. Urgent ophthalmological review is necessary due to the presence of lesions on the tip of the nose. Management involves oral antivirals and, if there is secondary inflammation of the eye, topical steroids may be given. Lesions above the eyebrow can also occur if the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve is affected, but this has no association with ocular involvement. Pain over the affected area is a common symptom preceding the eruption of the vesicles, but it is not indicative of ocular involvement. Lesions on the top eyelid can also occur if the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve is affected.
Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.
Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 67-year-old man with a history of glaucoma presents to the emergency department with sudden blurring and subsequent loss of vision in his left eye. He reports no pain or discharge. Fundoscopy reveals extensive flame haemorrhages and cotton wool spots, and there is a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) on examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)
Explanation:If a patient has a history of glaucoma and experiences sudden, painless vision loss accompanied by severe retinal haemorrhages and RAPD, it is likely that they are suffering from central retinal vein occlusion. This is a medical emergency and requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist.
Amaurosis fugax, on the other hand, is characterized by brief episodes of sudden, painless vision loss that typically last for only a few seconds to minutes and resolve on their own. This condition is often indicative of underlying vascular disease.
Central retinal artery occlusion also causes sudden, painless vision loss, but it is typically described as a descending curtain. On fundoscopy, a pale retina with a cherry-red spot at the fovea centralis and atheromatous plaques are visible, and RAPD is also present.
Lens subluxation, which is often caused by trauma, does not typically result in severe vision loss or changes in visual acuity unless the condition is severe.
Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.
Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.
Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.
Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset blurring of vision in both eyes and light sensitivity. He is a known type II diabetic with well-controlled blood sugars through diet. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 36.6 °C, BP 191/127 mmHg, heart rate 80 bpm, respiratory rate 19, and O2 saturations 99% on room air. Dilated fundoscopy reveals swollen optic discs with widespread flame-shaped haemorrhages and cotton-wool spots. What is the initial treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (anti-VEGF) injection
Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) labetalol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hypertensive Retinopathy: Understanding the Appropriate Interventions
Hypertensive emergency with retinopathy requires careful management to avoid complications such as watershed infarcts in the brain. Intravenous (IV) labetalol is a suitable option for lowering blood pressure (BP) slowly, with the aim of reducing diastolic BP to 100 mmHg or 20-25 mmHg/day, whichever is lesser. However, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (anti-VEGF) injection is not a treatment for hypertensive retinopathy. Oral amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is also not useful in an acute setting of hypertensive emergency. Similarly, pan-retinal photocoagulation or any laser treatment for the eye is not a treatment for hypertensive retinopathy, but rather for proliferative diabetic retinopathy. Lastly, sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray, although capable of reducing blood pressure, is typically used in patients with angina and acute coronary syndrome (ACS). Understanding the appropriate interventions for hypertensive retinopathy is crucial for effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman with uncontrolled diabetes visits her doctor reporting sudden vision loss in her right eye without any pain. She also mentions seeing flashes of light in the periphery of her vision. What could be the possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest retinal detachment, which is characterized by a painless loss of vision over several hours and the presence of flashes and floaters. Acute closed-angle glaucoma, optic neuritis, diabetic retinopathy, and central retinal artery occlusion are less likely causes as they do not fit the patient’s presentation or symptoms.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old swim instructor arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe pain in his right eye and feeling like there is something foreign in it, even though he has already removed his contact lenses. Upon examination, the right eye shows conjunctival injection, and the patient experiences photophobia, tearing, and discharge. His visual acuity is 6/6 in the left eye and 6/12 in the right eye, with intact ocular reflexes. A slit lamp inspection reveals mild, regular ulceration in the right eye. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Scleritis
Correct Answer: Acanthamoeba keratitis
Explanation:Wearing contact lenses increases the risk of acanthamoeba infection, which can cause keratitis. This is especially true for individuals who are frequently exposed to bodies of water, such as swimmers and lifeguards. Symptoms of acanthamoeba keratitis include eye pain, reduced visual acuity, redness, photophobia, and discharge. Treatment typically involves a combination of antiamoebic medications such as biguanides and diamidines. Anterior uveitis, conjunctivitis, and herpes simplex virus keratitis are less likely causes of the patient’s symptoms, given the history of contact lens use and occupation as a lifeguard.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 54-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of severe pain and redness in her right eye. She denies any history of foreign body injury and has not experienced any cold-like symptoms. The patient has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus, which is currently being managed with hydroxychloroquine. She has no fever and upon examination, her sclera is erythematous and injected with a bluish hue. Her pupils are equal and reactive, and her visual acuity is normal in both eyes. There is no significant discharge present. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer: Scleritis
Explanation:The patient’s autoimmune history, painful red-eye, and bluish hue suggest scleritis, which is a medical emergency requiring urgent ophthalmology review. Episcleritis, which is not painful and presents with a different type of redness, is unlikely. Acute angle closure glaucoma and foreign body injury are also possible differentials, but the patient’s clear and reactive pupils and lack of eye discharge make these less likely. In any case, intraocular pressure should be checked to rule out acute glaucoma.
Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Patients may also experience watering and photophobia, as well as a gradual decrease in vision.
Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease. With proper treatment, most patients with scleritis can achieve relief from their symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of itchy eyes. She reports a sensation of grittiness in both eyes and observes that they stick together in the morning. The grittiness is most severe upon waking up. She denies experiencing any other symptoms.
What is the probable diagnosis based on her presentation?Your Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing bilateral grittiness that is worse in the mornings and sticking eyelids, which is a classic symptom of blepharitis. Dry eye syndrome, which is more common in the elderly, can also cause a bilateral gritty feeling, but symptoms are typically worse at the end of the day and may be associated with pain. Cellulitis, on the other hand, would present with redness, inflammation, tenderness, and signs of infection such as fever or discharge. A basal cell carcinoma (BCC) of the eyelid may cause a gritty feeling in the eye, but it would be unilateral, not bilateral. Allergic rhinitis (hay fever) may also cause itchy eyes, but other symptoms such as sneezing, a runny nose, and an itchy nose are typically present.
Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency department with complaints of severe pain and decreased vision in her right eye. She experienced sudden onset of symptoms earlier in the evening, accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and a headache. Upon examination, her visual acuity in the right eye is reduced to counting fingers, and there is significant congestion of conjunctival blood vessels. The cornea appears hazy, making it difficult to examine the pupil and fundus. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma
Explanation:Differentiating Ocular Conditions
When it comes to ocular conditions, it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide the appropriate treatment. Acute angle closure glaucoma, for example, typically occurs in the evening and can cause headache, nausea, and vomiting due to high intraocular pressure. This condition can also lead to corneal haze, which is caused by oedema of the cornea. While reduced vision, ocular pain, and conjunctival injection can be seen in other conditions, systemic symptoms are typically only present in acute angle closure glaucoma.
Anterior uveitis, on the other hand, can have sudden or subacute symptoms. Corneal abrasions are usually accompanied by a history of trauma, while herpes simplex keratitis is associated with dendritic ulcer formation on the corneal surface. Viral conjunctivitis is often bilateral and preceded by a systemic viral episode.
By the unique symptoms and characteristics of each ocular condition, healthcare professionals can provide more effective treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen right eye. He complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements, which were quite restricted. He has no past medical history and is allergic to penicillin.
On examination, the visual acuity is 6/18 in the right, 6/6 in the left. The periorbital area of the right eye is very swollen and erythematosus. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the right eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the right. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the right eye. Computed tomography (CT) scan shows diffuse orbital infiltrate and proptosis.
Vital observations are as follows:
Blood pressure 120/70 mmHg
Heart rate 75 bpm
Respiratory rate 18 per minute
Oxygen saturation 98% on air
Temperature 37.9 °C
What is first-line management for this patient?Your Answer: Clindamycin and ciprofloxacin IV
Explanation:Treatment Options for Penicillin-Allergic Patients with Orbital Cellulitis
When treating a patient with orbital cellulitis who is allergic to penicillin, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. One option is to administer clindamycin and ciprofloxacin intravenously. However, cefuroxime alone is not sufficient and requires the addition of metronidazole. Co-amoxiclav should not be used in penicillin-allergic patients, and Tazocin® is also not recommended. It is important to note that drainage of the orbit is not necessary for the treatment of orbital cellulitis unless there are signs of an abscess. By considering these options, healthcare providers can effectively treat penicillin-allergic patients with orbital cellulitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A parent brings her daughter in for surgery suspecting a squint. She believes her left eye is 'turned inwards'. You conduct a cover test to gather more information. What result would indicate a left esotropia?
Your Answer: On covering the right eye the left eye moves laterally to take up fixation
Correct Answer: On covering the left eye the right eye moves laterally to take up fixation
Explanation:Squints can be categorized based on the direction in which the eye deviates. If the eye turns towards the nose, it is called esotropia. If it turns towards the temporal side, it is called exotropia. If it turns upwards, it is called hypertropia, and if it turns downwards, it is called hypotropia. For instance, when the left eye is covered, the right eye may move laterally from its esotropic position towards the center to focus on an object.
Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.
To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.
If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 28
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of blurred vision in her right eye for the past few months. She reports that straight lines appear crooked or wavy, but only in the center of her right visual field. She has never used glasses or contact lenses. During the examination, a central scotoma is observed in the right eye.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Age related macular degeneration
Explanation:Vision can be affected by various eye disorders, with macular degeneration causing loss of central field and primary open-angle glaucoma causing loss of peripheral field.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic exhibiting typical symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis. He also reports experiencing eye itchiness. What is the most probable diagnosis to accompany seborrhoeic dermatitis in this case?
Your Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis, dry eye syndrome, and acne rosacea are conditions that may be linked to blepharitis. However, the treatment for blepharitis remains consistent, with patients advised to clean their eyelids twice daily and use a warm compress with their eyes closed for 5-10 minutes. There is no apparent reason for an elevated risk of the other conditions mentioned.
Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents with a complaint of seeing an 'arc of white light and some cobwebs' in her vision for the past week. She reports no pain or recent trauma. The patient has a history of myopia in both eyes. Upon examination, her vision is 6/9 in both eyes and the anterior segments appear normal. Dilated fundoscopy reveals no horseshoe tear in either eye. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cataract
Correct Answer: Posterior vitreous detachment
Explanation:Understanding Eye Conditions: Posterior Vitreous Detachment and Other Possibilities
Posterior vitreous detachment is a common condition that occurs with age, particularly in myopic patients. It happens when the vitreous becomes more liquid and separates from the retina, causing symptoms like flashes and floaters. However, it’s important to rule out any retinal tears or breaks that could lead to retinal detachment. Cataracts, on the other hand, are unlikely to cause these symptoms. Exudative retinal detachment is rare and usually associated with underlying pathologies. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is the most common type but not evident in the fundoscopy result. Tractional retinal detachment is uncommon and often linked to diseases like diabetes. However, there’s no indication of diabetes or retinal detachment in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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