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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man with oesophageal cancer has completed two cycles of neo-adjuvant cisplatin...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with oesophageal cancer has completed two cycles of neo-adjuvant cisplatin and 5-fluorouracil (5FU) and is scheduled for his third cycle of chemotherapy in a week. He complains of pain, discharge, and redness around the site of his jejunostomy and has a fever of 38.5 °C. Upon examination, he is stable, with a clear chest and soft abdomen, but shows signs of infection around the jejunostomy. His renal function is normal, and he has no known drug allergies. A full blood count taken yesterday reveals a neutrophil count of 0.5 × 109/l.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Obtain iv access, take full blood count and blood cultures and commence iv piperacillin–tazobactam (as per local policy) as soon as possible

      Explanation:

      Management of Neutropenic Sepsis in a Patient Receiving Chemotherapy

      Neutropenic sepsis is a life-threatening condition that can occur in patients receiving chemotherapy. It is defined as pyrexia in the presence of a neutrophil count of <0.5 × 109/l. Prompt administration of broad-spectrum iv antibiotics is crucial in improving outcomes. Therefore, obtaining iv access, taking full blood count and blood cultures, and commencing iv piperacillin–tazobactam (as per local policy) should be done as soon as possible. In cases where there is suspicion of a collection around the jejunostomy, further imaging and surgical consultation may be required. It is important to discuss the management of chemotherapy with the patient’s oncologist. Delaying chemotherapy is necessary in cases of active infection and worsening neutropenia. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines advise treating suspected neutropenic sepsis as an acute medical emergency and offering empiric antibiotic therapy immediately. It is important to note that NICE guidelines recommend offering β-lactam monotherapy with piperacillin with tazobactam as initial empiric antibiotic therapy to patients with suspected neutropenic sepsis who need iv treatment, unless there are patient-specific or local microbiological contraindications. However, this should be reviewed with the result of cultures at 48 hours. In summary, the management of neutropenic sepsis in a patient receiving chemotherapy requires prompt and appropriate administration of antibiotics, delaying chemotherapy, and close collaboration with the patient’s oncologist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You go on a home visit to see Mrs. Jones, an elderly woman...

    Incorrect

    • You go on a home visit to see Mrs. Jones, an elderly woman who is suffering from an acute diarrhoeal illness she picked up from her grandchildren. Her past medical history includes: ischaemic heart disease, type 2 diabetes, hypercholesterolaemia, and osteoarthritis. Her medications are bisoprolol 2.5mg OD, ramipril 2.5mg OD, aspirin 75 mg, lansoprazole 30 mg OD, metformin 1g BD, atorvastatin 40 mg ON, and paracetamol 1g PRN. Her pulse is 92/min, blood pressure 152/82 mmHg, oxygen saturations 97%, respiratory rate 16/min. Her tongue looks a little dry, abdomen is soft and non-tender, with very active bowel sounds. After examining her, you feel she is well enough to stay at home, and you prescribe some rehydration sachets and arrange telephone review for the following day.

      What other medication changes should you advise Mrs. Jones to make immediately?

      Your Answer: Double the dose of lansoprazole

      Correct Answer: Suspend metformin

      Explanation:

      During intercurrent illness such as diarrhoea and vomiting, it is important to suspend the use of metformin as it increases the risk of lactic acidosis. Increasing the dose of ramipril is not recommended as it may increase the risk of electrolyte disturbance while the patient is unwell. Similarly, there is no indication to double the dose of lansoprazole. Suspending ramipril is also not necessary as there is no evidence of acute electrolyte disturbance. However, reducing the dose of paracetamol to 500 mg may be considered if the patient has a low body weight.

      The following table provides a summary of the typical side-effects associated with drugs used to treat diabetes mellitus. Metformin is known to cause gastrointestinal side-effects and lactic acidosis. Sulfonylureas can lead to hypoglycaemic episodes, increased appetite and weight gain, as well as the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion and liver dysfunction (cholestatic). Glitazones are associated with weight gain, fluid retention, liver dysfunction, and fractures. Finally, gliptins have been linked to pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      96.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe pain in his left leg, below the knee. This pain came on suddenly an hour ago, after walking to his bathroom. He knows that he gets claudication on walking over 250 metres, and is unsure if this pain is the same. His medical history includes hypertension, controlled with amlodipine 5 mg od. On examination, his left leg below the knee is pale, cold and numb, with absent dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses, but present pulses on his right leg.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Angiography and stenting

      Correct Answer: Embolectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Limb Ischaemia: Embolectomy and Thrombolysis

      Acute limb ischaemia can be caused by either an embolus or a thrombosis. The diagnosis is clinical and can be remembered using the 6Ps: Pale, Pulseless, Paraesthesia, Pain, Paralysis, and Perishingly cold. In the case of an embolic cause, urgent embolectomy using a Fogarty catheter to retrieve the clot is the appropriate treatment. Post-embolectomy, patients should be anticoagulated with IV heparin and then switched over to warfarin.

      Thrombolysis is the appropriate treatment if the ischaemia is caused by a thrombosis. However, based on the clinical history, if the patient has an embolic cause, thrombolysis is not recommended. Thrombosis tends to present over hours to days, with a history of claudication and is less severe as collateral blood supply develops. Contralateral pulses tend to be absent.

      Amputation below the right knee is an effective treatment but should only be considered by experienced consultants as it will have serious long-term implications for patients. Because the man has presented relatively quickly, it is unlikely that amputation will be required.

      High dose warfarin is not a treatment for acute limb ischaemia. The clot needs to be removed.

      Angiography is not performed when complete occlusion is suggested by the clinical picture, as it introduces a delay in revascularisation. In an incomplete occlusion, angiography is used to place stents to open the vessels.

      In summary, the appropriate treatment for acute limb ischaemia caused by an embolus is embolectomy, while thrombolysis is the appropriate treatment for ischaemia caused by a thrombosis. Amputation should only be considered as a last resort, and high dose warfarin is not a treatment option. Angiography and stenting are only used in cases of incomplete occlusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      109.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 15-year-old boy visits his GP complaining of dull, aching pain and swelling...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy visits his GP complaining of dull, aching pain and swelling in the distal part of his right thigh that has been present for 4 months. He has a history of exercise-induced asthma and a family history of retinoblastoma. During the examination, a knee X-ray is performed, revealing a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone in the metaphyseal region of the femur with a 'sunburst' pattern. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Bone Tumours

      Bone tumours can be classified into two categories: benign and malignant. Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a common benign tumour that occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, on the other hand, is the most common benign bone tumour and is usually diagnosed in patients aged less than 20 years. It is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma and is most commonly seen in the epiphysis of long bones.

      Malignant tumours, on the other hand, are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and is mainly seen in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that is also seen mainly in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and tends to cause severe pain. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age. It is important to diagnose and treat bone tumours early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      81.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting rectal bleeding and a significant family...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting rectal bleeding and a significant family history of colon cancer. The doctor refers him to a colorectal surgeon who orders a colonoscopy. The results show a cancerous tumor in the sigmoid colon after a biopsy and pathological analysis. What is the colon's venous drainage, and where is colonic cancer likely to spread?

      Your Answer: Sigmoid veins to the inferior mesenteric veins

      Explanation:

      Venous Drainage of the Intestines

      The intestines are drained by a complex network of veins that ultimately lead to the hepatic portal vein. The sigmoid veins drain into the inferior mesenteric veins, while the superior rectal veins drain into the same. The left colic vein drains into the inferior mesenteric vein, while the middle colic vein drains into the superior mesenteric vein. Finally, the jejunal and ileal veins drain into the middle colic vein. This intricate system of venous drainage is essential for the proper functioning of the digestive system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      75.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet that feel...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet that feel like walking on pebbles. He has been generally healthy, but he recently returned from a trip to Corfu where he had a diarrheal illness. He admits to infrequently taking ecstasy but takes no other medication. On examination, he has limited movement and pain in the sacroiliac joints and soreness in the soles of his feet upon deep palpation. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) related arthropathy

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      After a diarrhoeal illness, the patient may be at risk of developing reactive arthritis, which is a possible diagnosis for both sacroiliitis and plantar fasciitis. However, it is less likely to be related to inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) if there is only one acute episode of diarrhoea.

      Sacroiliitis is a condition that affects the sacroiliac joint, which is located at the base of the spine where it connects to the pelvis. It causes inflammation and pain in the lower back, buttocks, and legs. Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot. It causes pain and stiffness in the heel and arch of the foot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      90.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a persistent headache that has...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a persistent headache that has been bothering her for two weeks. The pain is more intense on the right side and is aggravated when she combs her hair. She also experiences discomfort in her jaw when eating. Her neurological and fundoscopy examinations reveal no abnormalities, and she is referred to the emergency department.

      Upon admission, the patient is prescribed high-dose oral prednisolone and undergoes a temporal artery biopsy, which yields normal results. What is the next most appropriate course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Continue high-dose prednisolone and repeat biopsy

      Explanation:

      Performing an emergency computed tomography (CT) of the brain is not necessary for this patient. Emergency CT head scans are typically reserved for cases of head injury with symptoms such as reduced GCS, repeated vomiting, skull base fracture signs, post-traumatic seizures, or focal neurological deficits. Elderly patients may require a CT scan if they have experienced a fall with head injury or confusion.

      Stopping high-dose prednisolone and referring the patient to a neurology clinic is not recommended. With a high suspicion of GCA, it is crucial to continue corticosteroid treatment to prevent inflammation from spreading to the eye. Any vision changes caused by GCA are typically irreversible, making it an acute problem that cannot wait for a referral to a neurology clinic.

      Switching the patient to a lower dose of oral prednisolone is not advised. There is no evidence to suggest that reducing the dose of prednisolone is beneficial for GCA if the biopsy is negative. It is important to remember that a negative biopsy result may be due to skip lesions and not because the diagnosis is less likely.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 83-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency and dysuria. She reports that her...

    Incorrect

    • A 83-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency and dysuria. She reports that her urine appears bubbly. Over the past year, she has been treated for UTI five times. Her medical history includes hypertension, which is managed with amlodipine. On examination, she has mild suprapubic tenderness but no other significant findings. Her vital signs are heart rate 88/min, blood pressure 128/84 mmHg, respiratory rate 22/min, temperature 37.3ºC, and saturation 93%. A urine dipstick reveals the following: Blood +, Protein +, Leucocytes ++, Nitrites ++. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bladder stone

      Correct Answer: Enterovesical fistula

      Explanation:

      The presence of bubbly urine in a woman with recurrent UTIs may indicate an enterovesical fistula, which is a connection between the bowel and bladder. This condition is often associated with colorectal cancer, as suggested by the patient’s tissue wasting. It is important to investigate this possibility. There are no symptoms of pyelonephritis or bladder stones, which would not cause gas in the urine. While the patient’s wasting could be a sign of malignancy, there is no indication that it is endometrial cancer, which typically presents with postmenopausal bleeding. The most common organism in UTIs is E. coli, which is a facultative anaerobe and does not produce large amounts of gas.

      Fistulas are abnormal connections between two epithelial surfaces, with the majority arising from diverticular disease and Crohn’s in the abdominal cavity. They can be enterocutaneous, enteroenteric or enterocolic, enterovaginal, or enterovesicular. Conservative measures may be the best option for management, but high output fistulas may require octreotide and TPN for nutritional support. Surgeons should avoid probing perianal fistulae with acute inflammation and use setons for those secondary to Crohn’s disease. It is important to delineate the fistula anatomy using barium and CT studies for intraabdominal sources and recalling Goodsall’s rule for perianal fistulae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      71.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old retired plumber presents with progressive shortness of breath, haemoptysis and weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired plumber presents with progressive shortness of breath, haemoptysis and weight loss. He has a smoking history of 25 pack years.
      A focal mass is seen peripherally in the left lower lobe on chest X-ray (CXR).
      Serum biochemistry reveals:
      Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l (normal range: 135–145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+): 3.8 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
      Corrected Ca2+: 3.32 mmol/l (normal range: 2.20–2.60 mmol/l)
      Urea: 6.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5–6.5 mmol/l)
      Creatinine: 76 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l)
      Albumin: 38 g/l (normal range: 35–55 g/l)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mesothelioma

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Squamous Cell Bronchial Carcinoma and Hypercalcemia

      Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma is a type of non-small cell lung cancer that can cause hypercalcemia, a condition characterized by elevated levels of calcium in the blood. This occurs because the cancer produces a hormone that mimics the action of parathyroid hormone, leading to the release of calcium from bones, kidneys, and the gut. Focal lung masses on a chest X-ray can be caused by various conditions, including bronchial carcinoma, abscess, tuberculosis, and metastasis. Differentiating between subtypes of bronchial carcinoma requires tissue sampling, but certain features of a patient’s history may suggest a particular subtype. Small cell bronchial carcinoma, for example, is associated with paraneoplastic phenomena such as Cushing’s syndrome and SIADH. Mesothelioma, on the other hand, is linked to asbestos exposure and presents with pleural thickening or malignant pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Overall, a focal lung mass in a smoker should be viewed with suspicion and thoroughly evaluated to determine the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      76.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A man in his late thirties has presented to the clinic with a...

    Correct

    • A man in his late thirties has presented to the clinic with a complaint of numbness in the skin over his scrotum. Can you identify the nerve responsible for supplying sensation to this area?

      Your Answer: Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Supply to Male Genitalia

      The male genitalia are innervated by various nerves responsible for different functions. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve provides sensory nerve supply to the surface of the scrotum. On the other hand, the pudendal nerve, which gives rise to the dorsal nerve of the penis, is responsible for innervations of the bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernosus muscles, which are essential for erectile and ejaculatory functions.

      However, the long course of the genitofemoral nerve, which includes travel through the superficial inguinal ring along with the spermatic cord, makes it susceptible to injury. Any damage to this nerve can result in sensory loss in the scrotum, leading to discomfort and pain.

      The inferior anal and rectal nerve, which is also a branch of the pudendal nerve, provides sensory and motor innervation to the anal canal and rectum. These nerves play a crucial role in bowel and bladder control, and any damage to them can result in fecal and urinary incontinence.

      In summary, the male genitalia are innervated by various nerves responsible for different functions, and any damage to these nerves can result in discomfort, pain, and loss of function. It is essential to understand the anatomy and function of these nerves to prevent injury and provide appropriate treatment in case of damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      44.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Oncology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Vascular (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Colorectal (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Passmed