00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 10-year-old boy presents to the Emergency department with rectal bleeding and periumbilical...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy presents to the Emergency department with rectal bleeding and periumbilical pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant. The medical team suspects appendicitis but instead diagnoses Meckel's diverticulum. What is a true statement about this condition?

      Your Answer: Normally occurs 2 feet from the ileocaecal junction

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s Diverticulum: A Congenital Bulge in the Small Bowel

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital bulge that occurs in the small bowel. It affects approximately 2% of the population and is typically 2 inches long. The diverticulum is located about 2ft from the ileocaecal junction and affects twice as many males as females. While most patients do not experience any symptoms, inflamed diverticula can mimic the symptoms of acute appendicitis. However, painless rectal bleeding and a history of similar symptoms can help distinguish between the two conditions.

      Overall, Meckel’s diverticulum is a relatively common condition that can cause discomfort and mimic other conditions. its features and potential symptoms can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following tissues does not have considerable levels of AST and...

    Correct

    • Which of the following tissues does not have considerable levels of AST and is therefore not used as a marker of liver hepatocellular damage?

      Your Answer: Testes

      Explanation:

      AST and ALT as Markers of Liver Function

      AST and ALT are enzymes that are commonly used as markers of liver function. AST is found in metabolically active tissues such as muscle, heart, liver, kidney, and brain, while ALT is mainly found in the liver with very low levels elsewhere. However, because of its wide distribution, AST is not specific as a marker of liver disease. It can also be elevated in myocardial infarction, myositis, and other conditions. Therefore, many laboratories now use ALT preferentially as a more specific test for liver dysfunction.

      It is important to note that neither AST nor ALT test the true ‘function’ of the liver. They merely represent markers of hepatocyte disruption or damage. For a better measure of the synthetic function of the liver, the prothrombin time (PT) or INR is used as it produces coagulation factors. It is crucial to interpret the results of AST and ALT tests with caution and in conjunction with other liver function tests to accurately diagnose liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old man in India is attacked by a wild dog and subsequently...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man in India is attacked by a wild dog and subsequently shows symptoms of rabies, including irritability, drooling, and seizures. The virus responsible for rabies is a rhabdovirus, which uses RNA polymerase to create a complementary RNA strand from a single strand of RNA. This newly-synthesised strand then acts as messenger-RNA (mRNA). What is the best description of the rhabdovirus genome?

      Your Answer: Double stranded RNA (dsRNA)

      Correct Answer: Negative-sense RNA (−RNA)

      Explanation:

      Virus Classification Based on Genome

      Viruses are categorized based on their genome, which can either be DNA or RNA. The RNA or DNA can be single or double-stranded. The genome of a virus determines its classification. The rhabdovirus, for instance, contains a single strand of RNA initially, which means that the first, second, and last answer options cannot be correct.

      Positive-sense RNA viruses, such as picornavirus, flavivirus, coronavirus, and calicivirus, use the RNA strand directly as mRNA. On the other hand, negative-sense RNA viruses require RNA polymerase to copy the RNA strand and generate a complementary RNA strand, which then acts as mRNA. The rhabdovirus falls under this category. virus classification based on genome is crucial in developing effective treatments and vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What function does lipoprotein lipase serve? ...

    Incorrect

    • What function does lipoprotein lipase serve?

      Your Answer: To form triglycerides from fatty acids and glycerol

      Correct Answer: To split triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol

      Explanation:

      Lipoprotein Lipase and its Role in Lipid Metabolism

      Lipoprotein lipase (LPL) is a crucial enzyme that plays a significant role in lipid metabolism. It is found on various cells, including adipocytes, capillary endothelial cells, muscle cells, and cardiac cells. LPL is responsible for breaking down triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol, which can then be utilized by the body’s cells for energy or stored for later use.

      The form of LPL found on muscle cells can remove triglycerides even at low concentrations in the blood, while the form found on adipocytes only allows for uptake when triglyceride levels are high. This ensures that triglycerides are primarily used as a fuel source and only stored in adipocytes when levels are abundant.

      Insulin plays a crucial role in regulating LPL secretion from adipocytes and promoting the storage of triglycerides as fat. This has clinical implications, as individuals with new-onset type 1 diabetes, who cease insulin production due to pancreatic damage, often experience weight loss. In contrast, individuals with established type 2 diabetes, who produce excessive amounts of insulin, are more likely to store excess calories as fat.

      In summary, lipoprotein lipase is a vital enzyme in lipid metabolism, and its regulation by insulin has significant clinical implications. the role of LPL in the body can help inform strategies for managing weight and metabolic disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the intracellular pathway that is triggered by NK cells and CD8+...

    Incorrect

    • What is the intracellular pathway that is triggered by NK cells and CD8+ T cells in infected cells to induce apoptosis?

      Your Answer: Ras-kinase pathway

      Correct Answer: Caspase system

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Cell Killing and Metabolic Pathways

      NK cells and cytotoxic T cells have two ways of killing virally infected cells. The first way is through the release of perforin and granzyme, which creates small holes in the membrane of the target cell, allowing entry of granzyme. Granzyme then activates the caspase cascade, resulting in apoptosis. The second way is through ligation of Fas-receptors, which triggers the caspase cascade, also resulting in apoptosis.

      The pentose phosphate pathway is a metabolic pathway that produces NADPH and riboses, which are 5-carbon sugars. This pathway is involved in the production of energy and biosynthetic precursors for the cell.

      The PI3K pathway is an intracellular signaling pathway that is used by some growth-related factors, such as insulin. This pathway plays a crucial role in regulating cell growth, proliferation, and survival.

      The protein C cascade is a natural antithrombotic mechanism that helps prevent blood clots from forming. This cascade is activated when there is damage to the blood vessel wall, and it helps to break down blood clots that have already formed.

      The Ras-kinase pathway is the main pro-growth pathway that is activated by growth factors. This pathway plays a crucial role in regulating cell growth, proliferation, and differentiation. It is involved in many cellular processes, including cell cycle progression, cell survival, and cell migration.

      Overall, these mechanisms and pathways play important roles in maintaining the health and function of cells in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 12-year-old girl is experiencing intense pain around her belly button that is...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is experiencing intense pain around her belly button that is spreading to her right iliac fossa. She has a fever and is vomiting on and off. The medical team has decided to perform a laparoscopic removal of her appendix. Can you identify the most frequent location of the appendix in the pelvis?

      Your Answer: Pelvic

      Correct Answer: Retrocaecal

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Appendix

      The appendix is a tube that is approximately 10 cm long and can be found in different positions in the body depending on the individual. It is most commonly located behind the caecum, which is retrocaecal, in about 65% of people. However, it can also be found in the pelvic area in around 30% of individuals. Other variations include being located below the caecum, which is subcaecal, or in front of the terminal ileum, which is pre-ileal. Additionally, it can be found behind the ileum, which is post-ileal. The position of the appendix can vary greatly from person to person, and it is important for medical professionals to be aware of these variations when diagnosing and treating conditions related to the appendix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 38-year-old obese woman presents to the Emergency department complaining of sharp cramping...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old obese woman presents to the Emergency department complaining of sharp cramping pains in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. The pain started this afternoon after a large meal, but she has experienced similar problems over the past few weeks and ignored them, hoping they would go away. She denies any vomiting or diarrhea and is apyrexial. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft, but there is tenderness in the right upper quadrant. Her FBC and U&Es are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dyspepsia

      Correct Answer: Cholelithiasis

      Explanation:

      Cholecystitis and Other Digestive Conditions

      Cholecystitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the gallbladder, which can cause mild fever and vomiting. On the other hand, cholelithiasis, or the presence of gallstones, can lead to cramping pains after eating as the gallbladder contracts to expel bile. This condition is more common in women who are fair, fat, and fertile.

      Dyspepsia, or indigestion, typically causes central pain that is not severe enough to warrant a hospital visit. Gastroenteritis, which is characterized by diarrhea and vomiting, is unlikely if these symptoms are not present. Peptic ulcers, which can cause pain related to eating, are usually accompanied by vomiting and bloating.

      these different digestive conditions can help individuals identify and seek appropriate treatment for their symptoms. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for an accurate diagnosis and treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old female patient complains of cough and difficulty breathing. During examination, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female patient complains of cough and difficulty breathing. During examination, a mid-diastolic murmur is detected and the patient has a flushed face. What past infection could have caused these symptoms 10-20 years ago?

      Your Answer: Corynebacterium diphtheriae

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      Rheumatic Heart Disease and Mitral Stenosis

      Rheumatic heart disease is the leading cause of mitral stenosis, a condition characterized by shortness of breath and a mid-diastolic murmur in the heart. This disease is an immune response to a Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, such as streptococcus pyogenes. Acute rheumatic fever can occur within two weeks of the initial infection and can lead to a pan carditis, along with other symptoms like erythema marginatum and arthritis. If left untreated, chronic carditis may develop, which can result in mitral stenosis.

      Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diptheriae, while Enterococcus faecalis is a group G streptococcal organism that can cause urinary tract and intra-abdominal infections. Neisseria meningitidis is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis, and Staphylococcus aureus can cause skin, bone, and joint infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the hormone that controls the levels of calcium in the blood?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the hormone that controls the levels of calcium in the blood?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Parathyroid Hormone in Regulating Blood Calcium Levels

      Calcium plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including bone support, blood clotting, muscle contraction, nervous transmission, and hormone production. However, excessively high or low levels of calcium in the blood and interstitial fluid can lead to serious health issues such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. This is where parathyroid hormone comes in.

      Parathyroid hormone is responsible for regulating blood calcium levels. It works directly on the bone, stimulating bone production or resorption depending on the concentration and duration of exposure. It also acts on the kidney, increasing the loss of phosphate in the urine, decreasing the loss of calcium in the urine, and promoting the activity of the enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase, which activates vitamin D. Additionally, parathyroid hormone indirectly affects the gut through the action of activated vitamin D.

      Overall, the regulation of blood calcium levels is crucial for maintaining optimal bodily functions. Parathyroid hormone plays a vital role in this process by directly and indirectly affecting various organs and systems in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the accurate statement about Purkinje fibers in the myocardium? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about Purkinje fibers in the myocardium?

      Your Answer: Have action potentials about a tenth as long as those in heart muscle

      Correct Answer: Have a conduction velocity about four to six times the rate seen in heart muscle

      Explanation:

      Purkinje Fibres: Conductors of the Cardiac Impulse

      Purkinje fibres are specialized muscle fibres found in the ventricular myocardium of the heart. These fibres are responsible for conducting the cardiac impulse at a much faster rate than normal cardiac muscle, typically four to six times faster. Unlike neuronal axons, Purkinje fibres are not myelinated.

      Disorders of Purkinje fibres can lead to various arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, even in patients with structurally normal hearts. It is important to understand the role of Purkinje fibres in the heart’s electrical conduction system to diagnose and treat these conditions effectively. Proper functioning of Purkinje fibres is crucial for maintaining a healthy heart rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - In what location is LDL produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • In what location is LDL produced?

      Your Answer: Gut

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The Formation and Function of LDL Particles

      Low density lipoprotein (LDL) particles are created in the liver through the conversion of intermediate density lipoprotein (IDL) particles. The liver receives triglycerides and cholesterol esters from chylomicrons, which are then repackaged and secreted into the bloodstream as very low density lipoproteins (VLDL). Lipoprotein lipase on endothelial walls converts VLDL to IDL, which is then converted to LDL by the hepatic tricylglycerol lipase enzyme in the liver.

      LDL particles transport triglycerides to cells that express the LDL receptor on their surfaces, which includes most normal body cells. The LDL binds to the LDL receptor, allowing cholesterol to enter the cells and maintain their cell membrane. While most body cells can produce cholesterol, if an excess amount is received from the bloodstream, endogenous cholesterol production is slowed.

      Macrophages have scavenger receptors that can take up LDL particles from the bloodstream, especially when the particles are modified or oxidized. Lipid-laden macrophages enter the arterial wall and become foam cells, which accumulate in fatty streaks and can become atherosclerotic plaques. the formation and function of LDL particles is crucial in preventing the development of atherosclerosis and related cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are a third year medical student assisting a plastic surgeon in theatre....

    Incorrect

    • You are a third year medical student assisting a plastic surgeon in theatre. The plastic surgeon hands you a surgical retractor and asks you to retract the latissimus dorsi muscle. Once you have successfully done so, the surgeon inquires about the nerve responsible for innervating this muscle.

      What is the nerve that innervates the latissimus dorsi muscle?

      Your Answer: Upper subscapular nerve

      Correct Answer: Thoracodorsal nerve

      Explanation:

      The Functions of Different Nerves in the Brachial Plexus

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originate from the spinal cord and provide innervation to the upper limb. Each nerve in the brachial plexus has a specific function and innervates a particular muscle or group of muscles. the functions of these nerves is essential for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.

      One of the nerves in the brachial plexus is the thoracodorsal nerve, which originates from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Its primary function is to provide somatic innervation to the latissimus dorsi muscle, which is a large muscle in the posterior thorax involved in shoulder joint movement.

      Another nerve in the brachial plexus is the upper subscapular nerve, which innervates the subscapularis muscle. The long thoracic nerve, on the other hand, innervates the serratus anterior muscle, and damage to this nerve can cause a winging effect on the scapula.

      The axillary nerve is another nerve in the brachial plexus that originates from the posterior cord. Its primary motor supply is to the deltoid muscle, which is involved in shoulder abduction.

      Lastly, the lateral pectoral nerve is a branch of the lateral cord and innervates the pectoralis major muscle. The pectoralis major muscle also receives innervation from the medial pectoral nerve, which is a branch of the median cord of the brachial plexus.

      In summary, each nerve in the brachial plexus has a specific function and innervates a particular muscle or group of muscles. the functions of these nerves is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the enzyme necessary for the degradation of glycogen (glycogenolysis)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the enzyme necessary for the degradation of glycogen (glycogenolysis)?

      Your Answer: Glycogen synthase

      Correct Answer: Glycogen phosphorylase

      Explanation:

      Enzymes Involved in Glycogen Degradation and Production

      Glycogen degradation is a process that requires several enzymes. One of these enzymes is glycogen phosphorylase, which plays a role in releasing glucose molecules from the polysaccharide chain by removing α1-4 glycosidic linkages. Another enzyme required for glycogen degradation is the debranching enzyme, which removes the α1-6 glycosidic linkages that occur only at the branch points. This enzyme accomplishes this by removing a short row of glucose molecules near a branch point and attaching it to the end of a glucose chain. Once this is done, glucose phosphorylase can remove the glucose units one by one.

      It is important to note that the debranching enzyme and glycogen phosphorylase are both used in the breakdown of glycogen, while the branching enzyme and glycogen synthase are involved in glycogen production. Additionally, phosphofructokinase is an enzyme in the glycolysis pathway, while pyruvate carboxylase is required for gluconeogenesis. the roles of these enzymes is crucial in the complex processes involved in glycogen metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old patient complains of abdominal pain and a recent alteration in bowel...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient complains of abdominal pain and a recent alteration in bowel movements. Upon conducting a colonic biopsy, the results reveal the presence of granulomas, inflammation lesions that extend to the submucosa and muscularis, and areas of unaffected mucosa in the rectum. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Inflammatory bowel disease should be considered in young adults with a change in bowel habit and raised inflammatory markers. Crohn’s disease has skip lesions and can affect anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis affects a continuous stretch of bowel starting in the rectum. Biopsy of Crohn’s shows intramural inflammation with lymphocyte infiltration and granulomas, while ulcerative colitis only causes intramural inflammation without granulomas. Bacterial overgrowth syndrome occurs after major reconstructive bowel surgery and can cause diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal distension, and pain. Cryptosporidiosis is a protozoan infection that can cause severe colitis in immunocompromised patients with AIDS. Whipple’s disease is a rare infection caused by Tropheryma whipplei and mainly presents with symptoms of malabsorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are examining an adult with a neck lump which is located within...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining an adult with a neck lump which is located within the anterior triangle of the neck.

      Which of the following structures forms a boundary of the anterior triangle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The lower border of the mandible

      Explanation:

      Triangles of the Neck

      The neck is divided into several triangles, each with its own set of boundaries. The anterior triangle is defined by the lower border of the mandible, the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid, and the midline of the neck. On the other hand, the posterior triangle is bounded by the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid and the anterior border of trapezius.

      Another important triangle in the neck is the digastric triangle, which is formed by the posterior belly of digastric, the inferior border of the mandible and the mastoid process, and the anterior belly of the digastric muscle. These triangles are important landmarks for clinicians when examining the neck and its structures. the boundaries of each triangle can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the hormone responsible for controlling blood sodium levels? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the hormone responsible for controlling blood sodium levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antidiuretic hormone

      Explanation:

      The Role of Antidiuretic Hormone in Regulating Blood Sodium Levels

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a polypeptide hormone produced in the hypothalamus and released into the circulation by the posterior pituitary. Its main function is to promote the reabsorption of water from the kidney, preventing its loss in the urine. This, in turn, has a secondary effect on blood sodium levels.

      ADH works by stimulating the production of a water channel called aquaporin, which is inserted into the cell membrane of cells lining the collecting duct of the kidney. This allows water molecules to move from the collecting duct lumen into the cells, from where they can move back to the interstitial fluid and the bloodstream. As a result, less water is lost in the urine, and blood sodium levels are regulated.

      In summary, ADH plays a crucial role in regulating blood sodium levels by conserving water and preventing its loss in the urine. Its action on aquaporin production allows for the reabsorption of water from the kidney, which has a secondary effect on blood sodium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 78-year-old man recovering in hospital from a knee replacement experiences increasing difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man recovering in hospital from a knee replacement experiences increasing difficulty breathing. He also has a fever and has started coughing. The medical team suspects he may have a lower respiratory tract infection.
      Which of the following anatomical features is not susceptible to a lower respiratory tract infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pharynx

      Explanation:

      The Respiratory Tract and its Infections

      The respiratory tract can be divided into two parts: the upper and lower respiratory tract. The upper respiratory tract consists of the nose, nasal passages, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, and larynx. On the other hand, the lower respiratory tract includes the bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli, which are all located distal to the trachea.

      Acute upper respiratory tract infections are usually caused by viruses and can affect the nose, sinuses, pharynx, and larynx. These infections include rhinosinusitis, pharyngitis, and laryngitis. Symptoms of these infections may include coughing, sneezing, sore throat, and nasal congestion.

      Lower respiratory tract infections, on the other hand, are more severe and can affect the bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli. These infections include pneumonia, bronchitis, and lung abscesses. Symptoms of lower respiratory tract infections may include coughing, chest pain, shortness of breath, and fever.

      It is important to understand the different parts of the respiratory tract and the infections that can affect them. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and promote recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which organ is in direct contact with the left kidney's anterior surface without...

    Incorrect

    • Which organ is in direct contact with the left kidney's anterior surface without being separated by peritoneum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      Retroperitoneal Structures in Proximity to the Left Kidney

      The retroperitoneal structures that are in direct contact with the anterior surface of the left kidney include the pancreas, adrenal gland, and colon. While the pancreas is the only structure commonly listed as retroperitoneal, it is important to note that the adrenal gland and colon also share this classification and are located in close proximity to the left kidney.

      According to Gray’s Anatomy of the Human Body, which focuses on the urinary organs, the location and relationship of these structures is important for medical professionals. By knowing the retroperitoneal structures in proximity to the left kidney, doctors can better diagnose and treat conditions that may affect these organs.

      In summary, while the pancreas is commonly listed as the only retroperitoneal structure in contact with the left kidney, it is important to also consider the adrenal gland and colon in this classification. the location and relationship of these structures is crucial for medical professionals in providing effective care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A boy dashes to catch a bus.
    What adjustments does his body undergo...

    Incorrect

    • A boy dashes to catch a bus.
      What adjustments does his body undergo for this brief physical activity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased blood flow to skin

      Explanation:

      Phases of Physiological Response to Exercise

      Regular exercise triggers a series of physiological responses in the body. These responses can be divided into three phases: stress reaction, resistance reaction, and adaptation reaction. The stress reaction is the initial response to short-term exercise. During this phase, the body increases sympathetic activity, reduces parasympathetic activity, and redirects blood flow to muscles and skin for cooling. Respiration becomes deeper and metabolic buffering responds to the generation of lactic acid through anaerobic respiration.

      As exercise continues, the resistance reaction takes over. This phase occurs minutes to hours after the initiation of exercise and involves the release of hormones such as ACTH, cortisol, growth hormone, and adrenaline. Finally, the adaptation reaction develops over days to weeks of regular exercise. During this phase, genes are activated in exercising tissues, promoting increases in strength, speed, and endurance.

      Overall, the phases of physiological response to exercise can help individuals tailor their exercise routines to achieve their desired outcomes. By gradually increasing the intensity and duration of exercise, individuals can promote the adaptation reaction and achieve long-term improvements in their physical fitness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the final product of glucose breakdown in the absence of oxygen?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the final product of glucose breakdown in the absence of oxygen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lactate

      Explanation:

      Anaerobic Metabolism and Lactic Acidosis

      During anaerobic metabolism, glucose can be broken down through the glycolysis pathway without the need for oxygen. This process generates pyruvate, but without oxygen, it cannot be further metabolized through the Kreb cycle or electron transfer chain to produce energy. Instead, pyruvate is converted into lactate, which yields two molecules of ATP. While small periods of anaerobic respiration are tolerable, excessive accumulation of lactate can lead to lactic acidosis, which reduces cellular pH. This reduction in pH can cause enzyme dysfunction, compromising cell function and ultimately leading to cell death.

      During intense exercise, muscle tissue relies on lactate as a quick source of ATP. The lactate produced can diffuse out of the cells and into the bloodstream, where it is taken up by other cells that can regenerate pyruvate from it. This pyruvate can then enter the Kreb cycle to produce more energy.

      However, in patients with serious illnesses where oxygen delivery to the body’s tissues is compromised, lactic acidosis can occur. This includes conditions such as pneumonia, heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. In these cases, the body may rely more heavily on anaerobic metabolism, leading to an accumulation of lactate and a decrease in cellular pH, which can have serious consequences for cell function and survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (8/13) 62%
Passmed