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  • Question 1 - Which one of the following is not a recognized feature of anorexia nervosa...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a recognized feature of anorexia nervosa in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Correct Answer: Reduced growth hormone levels

      Explanation:

      Anorexia is characterized by low levels of various substances, including growth hormone, glucose, salivary glands, cortisol, cholesterol, and carotene.

      Characteristics of Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is a disorder that is characterized by a number of clinical signs and physiological abnormalities. The most notable feature of this disorder is a reduced body mass index, which is often accompanied by bradycardia and hypotension. In addition, individuals with anorexia nervosa may experience enlarged salivary glands, which can cause discomfort and difficulty swallowing.

      Physiological abnormalities associated with anorexia nervosa include hypokalaemia, which is a deficiency of potassium in the blood, as well as low levels of FSH, LH, oestrogens, and testosterone. Individuals with anorexia nervosa may also have raised levels of cortisol and growth hormone, impaired glucose tolerance, hypercholesterolaemia, hypercarotinaemia, and low T3.

      Overall, anorexia nervosa is a complex disorder that can have a significant impact on an individual’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important for individuals who are struggling with this disorder to seek professional help in order to receive the support and treatment they need to recover.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 39-year-old man with a psychiatric history visits his doctor with a complaint...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old man with a psychiatric history visits his doctor with a complaint of tremors. During the examination, the doctor observes a fine bilateral tremor in his hands that does not improve with intention. The patient's neurological examination is otherwise normal. Which of the medications he takes regularly is the probable cause of this side effect?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium is known to cause tremors, particularly a fine non-distractible rest tremor. This side effect is more common at higher doses and in cases of toxicity, but can still occur at treatment levels. Diazepam, a medication commonly used to manage acute anxiety and tremors, is unlikely to produce any motor effects from typical use. Mirtazapine, an antidepressant, can cause tremors but it is much less common than in other antidepressants. Olanzapine, an antipsychotic medication, can also cause tremors but they are usually coarse and affect the mouth and face. Based on the description of the tremor, it is more likely that lithium is the cause.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old man visits his general practice surgery, explaining that his depression has...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man visits his general practice surgery, explaining that his depression has been cured after four months taking sertraline. He says he is ready to stop taking the medication immediately and is looking forward to being 'normal again'.
      What is the most appropriate management advice you can give this patient?

      Your Answer: He should be treated for at least six months

      Explanation:

      Duration of Antidepressant Treatment for Depression

      It is recommended that a single episode of depression should be treated for at least six months after recovery to prevent relapse. Recurrent episodes warrant at least 12 months of treatment after recovery. Stopping antidepressant treatment immediately on recovery puts patients at a high risk of relapse, with 50% of patients experiencing a relapse of their depressive symptoms. During the recovery phase, adults should receive the same dose used for the treatment of the acute phase. The medication should then be tapered off over a few weeks, according to the type of antidepressant used.

      Stopping medication prematurely, such as after one month or six weeks, would put the patient at a high risk of relapse. If the patient has been using antidepressants over a very short term and has found it maximally effective, they may be able to come off medication sooner than six months. However, this should be managed with caution and only recommended if there are other extenuating factors which would cause them to want to stop, such as side-effects or poor compliance. In this case, the patient has been using sertraline for four months already, has not indicated poor compliance, and there is no indication of issues with side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A 23-year-old man is sent to your office for evaluation by his family....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man is sent to your office for evaluation by his family. The patient recently graduated from university and has had trouble adapting and fitting in. His parents note that he has always been a loner, preferring to stay in his room. They hoped graduation would bring him out of his shell. He has not made any new friends, but only his parents are bothered by this. Instead of socialising, he seems to have continued to stay alone in his room.
      On interview, he is withdrawn and quiet. His range of affect is restricted, and he displays no clear happiness or joy when discussing activities that he reports enjoying. He denies any auditory or visual hallucinations and has no suicidal or homicidal intent. He reports that he has no change in his sleep, appetite, energy or concentration.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Avoidant personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Schizoid Personality Disorder: Differentiating from Other Psychiatric Conditions

      Personality disorders are characterized by enduring patterns of perception, processing, and engagement that become ingrained, inflexible, and maladaptive. Schizoid personality disorder is a type of personality disorder that falls under the weird cluster of disorders. Patients with this disorder are withdrawn loners with flat affects, but they do not have weird/magical thinking (schizotypal) or psychotic symptoms (schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder). They classically have a very flat affect and no interest in interpersonal relationships, preferring to work and play alone. It is important to differentiate schizoid personality disorder from other psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia, avoidant personality disorder, schizoaffective disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder, as they have distinct features and treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman who delivered a baby 3 days ago comes for evaluation...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who delivered a baby 3 days ago comes for evaluation due to her mood concerns. She is experiencing trouble sleeping and feels generally anxious and weepy. Additionally, she has noticed that she is becoming irritable with her spouse. This is her initial pregnancy, she is not nursing, and there is no previous history of mental health disorders. What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Discuss with psychiatric team to consider admission to mother and baby unit

      Correct Answer: Explanation and reassurance

      Explanation:

      This woman is experiencing the common postpartum mood disorder known as baby-blues, which affects approximately two-thirds of women. Although lack of sleep can be a symptom of depression, it is a normal occurrence for new mothers.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - As a GPST on a psychiatry placement, you encounter a 75-year-old patient who...

    Correct

    • As a GPST on a psychiatry placement, you encounter a 75-year-old patient who has been brought in by the police under Section 136. The patient is displaying confusion and aggression towards the nursing team, making it difficult to provide care. Despite attempts to offer oral medication, the patient has refused all treatment and has also declined an ECG. What is the most appropriate medication to administer in order to quickly calm this patient?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      When it comes to quickly calming down patients who are exhibiting disruptive behavior, oral lorazepam is typically the first choice. According to NICE guidelines, either intramuscular lorazepam or a combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine should be used for rapid tranquilization in patients with acute behavioral disturbances. However, lorazepam is recommended for patients who have not previously taken antipsychotic medication and for those whose heart health is uncertain.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman with mild learning disability lives with her sister who has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with mild learning disability lives with her sister who has recently undergone surgery. Her sister reports that, since her surgery, the woman has stopped attending her weekly art class, has lost weight and has become withdrawn, refusing to engage in conversation.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psychosis

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Mental Health Disorders in Patients with Learning Disabilities

      When diagnosing mental health disorders in patients with learning disabilities, it can be challenging to differentiate between different conditions. In cases of major depression, patients may present with loss of interests, social withdrawal, and biological symptoms such as loss of appetite and weight. However, individuals with learning disabilities may be less likely to express depressive ideas, making diagnosis more reliant on changes in behavior and physical symptoms. Treatment for depression in patients with learning disabilities is similar to that of the general population, but special care must be taken in selecting antidepressants due to the higher incidence of physical health problems.

      In cases of dementia, cognitive decline is typically present, whereas the patient in this scenario is experiencing depression following a traumatic event. Anxiety can also accompany depression, but the presence of biological symptoms and loss of interests suggest major depression. Social withdrawal in this scenario is more likely caused by depression rather than psychosis, and symptoms of mania would be the opposite of those listed. Overall, careful observation and consideration of individual patient history and symptoms are necessary for accurate diagnosis and treatment of mental health disorders in patients with learning disabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - John is a 35-year-old male who has been detained by the police under...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 35-year-old male who has been detained by the police under a section of the Mental Health Act. He was seen running in and out of traffic in a public area, openly responding to unseen stimuli and avoiding social interaction.
      Regarding the section he has likely been placed under, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Treatment can be given without consent

      Correct Answer: It lasts up to 24 hours

      Explanation:

      The police can utilize Section 136 to transport individuals who may be exhibiting indications of mental illness and pose a danger to themselves or others to a secure location. This section is only valid for a maximum of 24 hours, during which time a Mental Health Act Assessment can be scheduled. In rare cases, it may be extended by an additional 12 hours. It is only applicable to individuals in public areas, not in their own or someone else’s residence – Section 135 is required for this. It does not authorize involuntary treatment. A secure location can be a hospital, the individual’s home or a friend’s home, or, if no other option is available, a police station.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old man with a 20-year history of treatment with antipsychotic medications for...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man with a 20-year history of treatment with antipsychotic medications for bipolar disorder complains of the onset of writhing tongue and finger movements.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Movement Disorders Associated with Anti-Psychotic Medication

      Anti-psychotic medication can cause a range of movement disorders, including tardive dyskinesia, akathisia, and Parkinsonism. Tardive dyskinesia is a common side-effect of long-term treatment with anti-psychotics, but can also occur with minimal doses. It is characterized by choreoathetoid movements, often starting in the fingers and tongue and becoming more generalized. Treatment is often unsuccessful, but may involve switching to a different medication or using agents such as tetrabenazine or benzodiazepines. Akathisia is an inner feeling of motor restlessness, with voluntary movements such as pacing or rocking. Parkinsonism is characterized by resting tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. These movement disorders can be mistaken for other conditions such as Huntington’s or Wilson’s disease, but the association with anti-psychotic medication and the specific symptoms make tardive dyskinesia a more likely option. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients on anti-psychotic medication for these potential side-effects and adjust treatment as necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old man visits his GP and insists on getting a CT scan...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man visits his GP and insists on getting a CT scan of his abdomen, claiming that he is certain he has cancer despite previous negative test results. What type of disorder does this behavior exemplify?

      Your Answer: Munchausen's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Hypochondrial disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatisation refers to the manifestation of physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. On the other hand, hypochondria is a condition where a person constantly worries about having a serious illness, often believing that minor symptoms are signs of a life-threatening disease such as cancer.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - A woman contacts the local psychiatry crisis team, worried about her daughter -...

    Incorrect

    • A woman contacts the local psychiatry crisis team, worried about her daughter - who has previously been diagnosed with schizophrenia - becoming more isolated and paranoid about her surroundings. She reports that her daughter is increasingly concerned about her neighbors eavesdropping on her conversations. Her symptoms were previously well managed on daily risperidone. When the woman visited her daughter, she discovered unopened boxes of her medication on the counter.

      What would be a suitable course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Change to quetiapine

      Correct Answer: Depot risperidone injections

      Explanation:

      Considering the patient’s increasing symptoms of psychosis, it is possible that non-compliance with their risperidone medication is an issue. In such cases, it is recommended to consider once monthly IM antipsychotic depot injections for patients with poor oral compliance. However, the patient’s risperidone dose would need to be re-titrated to their previous level.

      Clozapine is typically used for treatment-resistant psychosis after trying two other antipsychotics. However, there is no evidence of the patient having tried multiple antipsychotics, and it appears that risperidone was effectively controlling their symptoms. If risperidone is not effective, quetiapine could be tried before considering Clozapine, provided there are no contraindications.

      While cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) can be helpful in reducing symptoms of psychosis, it is less likely to be effective than monthly depot injections.

      Based on the patient’s history, there is no indication that they pose a risk to themselves or others that would warrant admission. Therefore, efforts should be made to manage the patient in the community.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - As a side-effect, which antidepressants cause the cheese effect (a hypertensive reaction)?

    ...

    Correct

    • As a side-effect, which antidepressants cause the cheese effect (a hypertensive reaction)?

      Your Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Jaundice and Abdominal Symptoms

      Gilbert Syndrome:
      Gilbert syndrome is an inherited condition that can manifest as jaundice on clinical examination. Patients may also experience non-specific symptoms such as abdominal cramps, fatigue, and malaise. Fasting, febrile illness, alcohol, or exercise can exacerbate jaundice in patients with Gilbert syndrome. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests that show unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.

      Haemolytic Anaemia:
      Haemolysis is the premature destruction of erythrocytes, which can lead to anaemia if bone marrow activity cannot compensate for erythrocyte loss. Mild haemolysis can be asymptomatic, while severe haemolysis can cause life-threatening symptoms such as angina and cardiopulmonary decompensation. Changes in lactate dehydrogenase and serum haptoglobin levels are the most sensitive general tests for haemolytic anaemia.

      Hepatitis A:
      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that results almost exclusively from ingestion, typically through faecal-oral transmission. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody to HAV.

      Hepatitis B:
      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted haematogenously and sexually. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).

      Cholecystitis:
      Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gall bladder that occurs most commonly because of an obstruction of the cystic duct by gallstones arising from the gall bladder. Symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Signs of peritoneal irritation may also be present.

      Conclusion:
      In summary, the differential diagnosis of jaundice and abdominal symptoms includes Gilbert syndrome, haemolytic anaemia, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and cholecystitis. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests and serologic testing as appropriate. Treatment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - A 27-year-old police officer presents following a recent traumatic incident where a colleague...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old police officer presents following a recent traumatic incident where a colleague was killed in the line of duty. She reports experiencing recurrent nightmares and flashbacks for the past 4 months. A diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder is suspected. What is the most suitable initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy or eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy

      Explanation:

      Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy or EMDR are both effective methods for managing PTSD.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - In a 16-year-old girl with severe weight loss, which of the following would...

    Incorrect

    • In a 16-year-old girl with severe weight loss, which of the following would be a common finding in association with anorexia nervosa (AN)?

      Your Answer: Buccal pigmentation

      Correct Answer: Increased excessive physical activity

      Explanation:

      Features and Diagnostic Criteria of Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia Nervosa (AN) is a serious eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. Here are some features and diagnostic criteria of AN:

      Increased excessive physical activity: Patients with AN tend to exercise excessively to lose weight.

      Low plasma cortisol levels: AN patients have low levels of cortisol, a hormone that helps regulate metabolism and stress response.

      Buccal pigmentation: This is not a typical feature of AN.

      Raised gonadotrophin levels: Gonadotrophin levels are usually reduced in AN, leading to amenorrhoea in women and loss of sexual interest in men.

      Hyperkalaemia: AN patients may have high levels of potassium in their blood.

      Diagnostic criteria: According to the ICD-10, a definite diagnosis of AN requires body weight maintained at least 15% below the expected, self-induced weight loss, body image distortion, endocrine disorder involving the hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal axis, and delayed or arrested pubertal events if onset is prepubertal.

      Understanding Anorexia Nervosa: Features and Diagnostic Criteria

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman returns home from hospital after the birth of her first...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman returns home from hospital after the birth of her first child. Over the next week, she becomes increasingly irritable, feels low in mood and is very anxious that she is not taking good care of her baby.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Postpartum blues

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Blues: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Postpartum blues, also known as baby blues, is a common condition that affects many new mothers. It typically occurs within the first week after delivery and is characterized by short-lived episodes of irritability, crying, emotional lability, and mildly low mood. Unlike postpartum psychosis or major depression, postpartum blues does not involve confusion, delusional beliefs, or frank major depressive symptoms.

      While anxiety is a common feature of many affective disorders, it is not sufficient to warrant a diagnosis of a specific anxiety disorder in the case of postpartum blues. However, it is important to consider depression as a possible diagnosis when a patient presents with low mood, anxiety, and irritability.

      It is essential to follow up with patients experiencing postpartum blues to ensure that their symptoms resolve within a few days. If symptoms persist or worsen, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out other conditions such as postpartum depression. By understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of postpartum blues, healthcare providers can provide appropriate reassurance and support to new mothers during this challenging time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - A woman who gave birth 4 weeks ago visits her nearby GP clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who gave birth 4 weeks ago visits her nearby GP clinic with her partner. She reports feeling 'constantly tearful' and 'unable to connect' with her newborn. Which screening tool is best suited for identifying postpartum depression?

      Your Answer: Patient Health Questionnaire-9

      Correct Answer: Edinburgh Scale

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A patient with a history of depression at the age of 50 presents...

    Correct

    • A patient with a history of depression at the age of 50 presents for review. What indicates an elevated risk of suicide?

      Your Answer: History of arm cutting

      Explanation:

      Arm cutting may be seen as attention-seeking or a way to release pain, but studies indicate that it increases the risk of suicide for those with a history of deliberate self harm. Employment is a protective factor.

      Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors

      Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - You are on a GP placement and seeing a 44-year-old woman with a...

    Incorrect

    • You are on a GP placement and seeing a 44-year-old woman with a history of depression. She has recently gone through a divorce and admits to having thoughts of taking an overdose. She has never attempted suicide before, but feels like she has no other options. She has the pills at home and is considering taking them. She denies any substance abuse. What is the appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Ask the patient to come back and see you the next day.

      Correct Answer: Speak to the CRISIS team

      Explanation:

      This scenario requires you to demonstrate your ability to evaluate and handle a patient who is contemplating suicide. The patient in question has several risk factors, including being male, having a history of depression, recently going through a separation, and expressing a desire to end his life in the future. It is crucial to respond appropriately in this situation. The most suitable team to evaluate and manage this patient is the CRISIS team, who can provide urgent assessment and care.

      The other options are not as effective. Transferring the patient to the Emergency Department would only delay the referral to the crisis team. CAMH, which stands for child and adolescent mental health, is not the appropriate team to handle this case. It is not within your professional scope to initiate relationship counseling. Given the patient’s numerous risk factors, it would not be safe to discharge him without a psychiatric evaluation.

      In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - A 19-year-old man with a history of anxiety and depression is being managed...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man with a history of anxiety and depression is being managed by the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service. They have suggested prescribing an SSRI. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Fluoxetine is the preferred SSRI for children and adolescents.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 40-year-old inpatient experienced an episode of acute psychosis. He was given a...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old inpatient experienced an episode of acute psychosis. He was given a medication on the ward and later developed severe torticollis.
      What is the most probable drug that was administered to the patient?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Common Psychiatric Medications and Their Side-Effects

      Haloperidol: A typical antipsychotic drug that can cause extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs), including acute dystonic reactions. Treatment is with anticholinergic drugs or benzodiazepines.

      Clozapine: An atypical antipsychotic mainly used in treatment-resistant schizophrenia. Common side-effects include sedation, constipation, hypersalivation, weight gain, and metabolic syndrome. Rare but important side-effects include agranulocytosis, arrhythmias, and myocarditis. EPSEs are possible but rare.

      Diazepam: A benzodiazepine used in anxiety, insomnia, seizures, and muscle spasms. Side-effects include sedation, muscle weakness, drowsiness, and confusion. EPSEs are not a recognised side-effect and may improve with the use of benzodiazepines.

      Lithium: A mood stabiliser used in the treatment of mania, depression, and bipolar disorder. Side-effects include gastrointestinal disturbances, tremor, polydipsia, polyuria, and electrolyte disturbances. Lithium-induced hypothyroidism is common. EPSEs are not a side-effect of lithium.

      Olanzapine: An atypical antipsychotic used in the treatment of schizophrenia and acute mania. Common side-effects include sedation, weight gain, and metabolic symptoms. EPSEs can occur but are not a typical side-effect of olanzapine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - A young librarian seeks therapy as he is lonely and unhappy. He describes...

    Incorrect

    • A young librarian seeks therapy as he is lonely and unhappy. He describes a solitary life cataloguing books all day and then remaining alone all night and on weekends. He declines invitations for dinners, as he feels anxious when other people are around.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Correct Answer: Social phobia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Anxiety Disorders: A Vignette Analysis

      The following vignette describes a patient with symptoms of anxiety in a social situation. To properly diagnose the patient, it is important to differentiate between various anxiety disorders.

      Social Phobia: This disorder is characterized by anxiety in public, particularly when feeling scrutinized. It typically starts in adolescence and is equally prevalent in men and women. Some patients have a specific social phobia, while others have a more diffuse type. Treatment is mainly with psychological interventions.

      Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD): GAD is characterized by non-specific and persistent anxiety. Patients feel anxious most days for periods of at least several weeks, and may experience a variety of worries that are not objectively warranted by their circumstances. Autonomic and motor overactivity are also common.

      Panic Disorder: Panic attacks are recurrent episodes of severe anxiety that occur unpredictably and under unrestricted circumstances. A diagnosis of panic disorder can be given only if several panic attacks have occurred in about 1 month in situations that do not pose an objective danger, in unrestricted circumstances and with relative freedom from symptoms of anxiety between attacks.

      Separation Anxiety Disorder: This disorder is mainly diagnosed in children, although an adult form has been increasingly recognized. Symptoms include anxiety and fear when separated from emotionally attached individuals, and avoidance of being alone.

      Conduct Disorder: This disorder is a precursor to dissocial personality disorder and presents as a persistent and repetitive pattern of dissocial behavior beyond the expected mischief and rebelliousness of childhood and adolescence.

      In the vignette, the patient’s anxiety is specific to certain situations and therefore predictable, which excludes the diagnosis of panic disorder. The patient’s symptoms do not fit the criteria for GAD or separation anxiety disorder. The most likely diagnosis is social phobia, which is characterized by anxiety in public situations.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - Which one of the following is not an example of an atypical antipsychotic...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not an example of an atypical antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer: Quetiapine

      Correct Answer: Flupentixol

      Explanation:

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old man tells his family doctor (FD) that he discovered six months...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man tells his family doctor (FD) that he discovered six months ago that his wife is having an affair. He seems upset and reports feeling fatigued and experiencing difficulty sleeping for the past six months.
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Patient with Depressive Symptoms

      Depression is a common mental health condition that can present with a variety of symptoms. In this vignette, the patient shows signs of anhedonia, change in appetite, early morning awakening, psychomotor retardation, decreased sexual drive, poor concentration, ideas of worthlessness or guilt, and thoughts of death and suicide. To diagnose and classify depression, various assessment tools are available, such as the PHQ-9, Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) Scale, and Beck Depression Inventory.

      Other possible diagnoses that need to be ruled out include acute alcohol withdrawal, acute psychosis, hypomania, and schizophrenia. Acute alcohol withdrawal typically manifests with psychomotor agitation, anxiety, tremor, insomnia, nausea, vomiting, hallucinations, seizures, and autonomic instability. Delirium tremens is a severe complication of alcohol withdrawal that can be life-threatening. Acute psychosis is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, or thought disorder. Hypomania is a milder form of mania that features elated mood, pressure of speech, increased energy, activity, appetite, sexual desire, and pain threshold, but does not cause significant impairment. Schizophrenia is a chronic and severe mental disorder that involves a range of cognitive, emotional, and behavioral symptoms, including hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and social withdrawal.

      Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s history, physical examination, and mental status is necessary to arrive at an accurate diagnosis and develop an appropriate treatment plan. Collaborating with a mental health specialist may also be beneficial in managing complex cases of depression or other mental health conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - A 67-year-old male with metastatic prostate cancer is seen in clinic. His wife...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male with metastatic prostate cancer is seen in clinic. His wife reports that he has been experiencing confusion and occasionally talks to people who are not present. Despite investigations for reversible causes, no underlying issues are found. If conservative measures prove ineffective and he continues to exhibit confusion and agitation, what is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Palliative Care Prescribing for Agitation and Confusion

      When dealing with agitation and confusion in palliative care patients, it is important to identify and treat any underlying causes such as hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, or medication. If these specific treatments fail, medication can be used to manage symptoms. Haloperidol is the first choice for treating agitation and confusion, with chlorpromazine and levomepromazine as alternative options. In the terminal phase of the illness, midazolam is the preferred medication for managing agitation or restlessness. Proper management of these symptoms can greatly improve the quality of life for palliative care patients.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A 14-year-old girl has been found to be regularly skipping school, frequently arguing...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl has been found to be regularly skipping school, frequently arguing with other students and has been caught smoking on several occasions. Her general practitioner suspects a diagnosis of conduct disorder. She has already been diagnosed with anxiety disorder. She is not currently on any medications.
      Given the new suspected diagnosis of conduct disorder, what is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Referral to Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) for another primary assessment by the team

      Correct Answer: Refer for cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Management of Conduct Disorder: Interventions and Referrals

      Conduct disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by persistent patterns of aggressive and antisocial behavior. The management of conduct disorder involves a combination of pharmacological and psychosocial interventions. Here are some of the key interventions and referrals for managing conduct disorder:

      Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT): CBT techniques are used as part of the psychosocial interventions for conduct disorder. These techniques are considered as part of the first-line management of conduct disorder.

      Methylphenidate: Methylphenidate is a medication that is used in the treatment of ADHD, which is often a coexisting condition with conduct disorder. This medication should only be initiated and coordinated by a specialist in secondary care (such as CAMHS).

      Antidepressant Medications: Antidepressant medications should not be the first line in the management of conduct disorder, particularly with no coexisting health conditions. If there were depressive symptoms, these medications could be considered but are generally avoided in this age group.

      Psychosocial Interventions: Psychosocial interventions are important in the management of conduct disorder. These include child-focussed programmes, multimodal interventions and parent training programmes. These interventions would be considered first-line management for conduct disorder if there was not the co-existing complicating factor of ADHD.

      Referral to Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS): Patients presenting with symptoms of conduct disorder with a significant complicating factor should be referred to CAMHS for specialist assessment. These factors include mental health problems, neurodevelopmental disorder, learning disability or difficulty, and substance misuse. However, if the patient has already been referred to CAMHS, re-referral would not be necessary.

      Managing Conduct Disorder: Interventions and Referrals

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - In an elderly patient, which of the following is the single most likely...

    Correct

    • In an elderly patient, which of the following is the single most likely statement indicating an increased risk of suicide?

      Your Answer: A direct statement of intent to attempt suicide

      Explanation:

      Understanding Suicide Risk Factors

      Suicide is a complex issue with various risk factors that can contribute to its occurrence. One of the most obvious warning signs is a direct statement of intent to attempt suicide. It is important to take these statements seriously and seek help immediately.

      Physical illness, especially if it is prolonged and associated with pain and/or a poor prognosis, is also a well-recognized risk factor for suicide. Additionally, caring for a dying friend or relative can increase the risk, albeit to a lesser extent.

      Unemployment is another risk factor, as it can lead to feelings of hopelessness and financial strain. Living alone, particularly after a bereavement, can also indicate a higher risk, especially if the person was dependent on the deceased.

      While paranoid delusions can occur in depressive illness, they do not have any special significance in assessing suicide risk. However, approximately one in twenty people with schizophrenia attempt suicide, with a higher risk at the onset of the illness and if there is associated depressive illness.

      It is important to understand these risk factors and seek help if you or someone you know is struggling with suicidal thoughts. Remember, there is always hope and help available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old man with schizophrenia is brought to the clinic by one of...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man with schizophrenia is brought to the clinic by one of his caregivers. He is currently taking clozapine and procyclidine. The caregiver reports that he seems more fatigued than usual and generally not feeling well. She also suspects that he may have gained weight. What is the most crucial examination to conduct?

      Your Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      Monitoring FBC is crucial to detect agranulocytosis/neutropenia, a potentially fatal adverse reaction of clozapine. Additionally, patients taking this medication often experience weight gain.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old man with a history of asthma and bipolar disorder visits his...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man with a history of asthma and bipolar disorder visits his local GP clinic complaining of 'tonsillitis' and requesting an antibiotic. Upon examination, he has inflamed tonsils on both sides, a temperature of 37.8ÂșC, and a pulse rate of 90/min. He is currently taking salbutamol inhaler as needed, Clenil inhaler 2 puffs twice daily, co-codamol 30/500 2 tablets four times a day, and quetiapine 100mg twice daily. The decision is made to prescribe penicillin. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Arrange a full blood count

      Explanation:

      Monitoring FBC is crucial in patients taking clozapine as agranulocytosis/neutropenia, a potentially fatal side effect, can occur. It is imperative to rule out neutropenia in case of infections.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol. What is the most significant indicator of an ongoing high risk of suicide?

      Your Answer: Made efforts to avoid herself being found by friends and family

      Explanation:

      Although deliberate self-harm is more prevalent among females, completed suicide is more prevalent among males.

      Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors

      Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder is scheduled for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder is scheduled for a medication review. When inquiring about his current state, he starts discussing the vast array of emotions that exist and wonders if everyone has experienced all of them. Eventually, he spontaneously mentions that he is feeling quite good.
      What is the patient exhibiting in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Tangentiality

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      The patient’s lengthy response to the question suggests circumstantiality, which can be a symptom of anxiety disorders or hypomania. However, the patient has remained on topic and has not derailed. Their response is coherent, and there is no evidence of pressured speech in this text-based interaction. Incoherence would be demonstrated by nonsensical statements, which is not the case here.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

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      • Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (14/30) 47%
Passmed