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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old man with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis has a well-controlled vasculitis. He was...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis has a well-controlled vasculitis. He was previously treated with cyclophosphamide and pulse methylprednisolone, and is currently on cyclosporine (100 mg/day) and a reducing course of oral prednisolone (15 mg/day to 7.5 mg/day) for the last two months. Despite starting on amlodipine and doxazosin, he has worsening hypertension. His urine dipstick and renal ultrasound are normal, and he has normal inflammatory markers and FBC over the last few months. His blood tests over the past eight weeks are as follows:

      0 week:
      - BP (mmHg) 140/90
      - Na (mmol/L) 142
      - K (mmol/L) 4.5
      - Urea (µmol/L) 10.2
      - Creat (µmol/L) 110

      2 weeks:
      - BP (mmHg) 145/95
      - Na (mmol/L) 140
      - K (mmol/L) 4.7
      - Urea (µmol/L) 12.4
      - Creat (µmol/L) 135

      6 weeks:
      - BP (mmHg) 150/100
      - Na (mmol/L) 141
      - K (mmol/L) 5.0
      - Urea (µmol/L) 12.6
      - Creat (µmol/L) 170

      8 weeks:
      - BP (mmHg) 160/110
      - Na (mmol/L) 139
      - K (mmol/L) 5.0
      - Urea (µmol/L) 14.2
      - Creat (µmol/L) 190

      What is the most likely cause for the deterioration of his renal function?

      Your Answer: Cyclosporine toxicity

      Explanation:

      Serious Side Effects of Cyclosporine

      Cyclosporine is a medication that can have serious side effects, including hypertension and renal impairment. If a patient experiences difficult-to-control hypertension or an increase in creatinine levels by more than 30% from their baseline, it is recommended to stop the use of cyclosporine. However, in the case of this patient, there is no evidence of active vasculitis, as indicated by normal inflammatory markers and urine dipstick results. It is important to note that Cushing’s syndrome does not lead to renal impairment, and hypertension and renal impairment are not delayed adverse events of cyclophosphamide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A 53-year-old woman with hypertension is hospitalized after taking an overdose of a...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old woman with hypertension is hospitalized after taking an overdose of a month's worth of amlodipine 5 mg tablets. Upon arrival at the Emergency Department, her blood pressure is 70/50 mmHg, and her pulse is regular at 100 bpm. What is the reason for hypotension and tachycardia in amlodipine overdose?

      Your Answer: L-type calcium channel blockade

      Explanation:

      There are different types of calcium channels in the body, including L-type, P-type, N-type, R-type, and T-type. L-type calcium channels are found in various tissues, including skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, osteoblasts, and ventricular myocytes. Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers like amlodipine target vascular smooth muscle, while non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers like diltiazem and verapamil are specific to the heart. P-type calcium channels are found in the cerebellum, but there are currently no specific drugs that target them. N-type calcium channels are found throughout the brain and peripheral nervous system and are a promising target for treating chronic neuropathic pain. R-type calcium channels are found in cerebellar granule cells, but their function is not well understood. T-type calcium channels are found in neurons and cardiac pacemaker cells and are a potential target for treating diabetic neuropathy and Parkinson’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 3 - A 60-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with complaints of increasing joint...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with complaints of increasing joint pain and stiffness despite being on a combination of methotrexate, folic acid, and azathioprine for her rheumatoid arthritis. She has also been experiencing fatigue and respiratory tract infections, as well as easy bruising. On examination, she appears well but has a mass in the left upper quadrant of her abdomen. Her joint examination is unremarkable. Her recent blood work shows a low hemoglobin, low platelets, and low white blood cell count with a predominance of eosinophils. Her liver function tests are mildly elevated. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms and abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Felty's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Felty’s syndrome is a complication that can arise from Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) and typically occurs in cases of long-standing RA. It is characterized by a combination of rheumatoid arthritis, neutropenia, and splenomegaly. While drug-induced marrow aplasia is a possible differential diagnosis, the presence of splenomegaly would not be easily explained by this cause.

      Complications of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing inflammation and pain. However, it can also lead to a variety of extra-articular complications. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and mental health.

      Respiratory complications of RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, methotrexate pneumonitis, and pleurisy. Ocular complications can include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, keratitis, steroid-induced cataracts, and chloroquine retinopathy. RA can also lead to osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, and an increased risk of infections. Depression is also a common complication of RA.

      Less common complications of RA include Felty’s syndrome, which is characterized by RA, splenomegaly, and a low white cell count, and amyloidosis, which is a rare condition where abnormal proteins build up in organs and tissues.

      In summary, RA can lead to a variety of complications that affect different parts of the body. It is important for patients with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or treat any complications that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 20-year-old man has been referred to the Rheumatology Clinic due to a...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man has been referred to the Rheumatology Clinic due to a long history of pain in his back and knee joints. He first experienced recurrent back and wrist pain at the age of 7 and was treated for possible juvenile arthritis, which often responded to analgesia. However, the disease has been relapsing and remitting over the years, and since last year, the back pain has been constant all over his spine and has not responded to analgesia.

      Despite several investigations in the past, including X-rays of the spine and knee, rheumatoid factor, antinuclear antibody, and autoimmune profile, all results were reported as normal. He had a normal childhood with no illness, and there is no family history of note. He has also seen dermatologists for an abnormal dark-brown pigmentation in his ears and sclera, but no cause was found.

      During examination, his knees are swollen and painful, and he has tenderness all over his spine. Both sclera and ears show an abnormal dark brown pigmentation. Further investigations reveal abnormal results in his haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, and urinalysis.

      What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alkaptonuria

      Explanation:

      Alkaptonuria is a genetic disorder that results in the deficiency of the enzyme homogentisic oxidase, leading to the accumulation of homogentisic acid. This causes pigmentation of urine, sclera, and connective tissues, as well as cartilage pigmentation and degeneration in the joints. The Glucostix test may give a false positive, but the Clinitest is normal. Phenylketonuria, on the other hand, is an inborn error of metabolism that leads to decreased metabolism of phenylalanine. If left untreated, it can cause intellectual disability, seizures, behavioural problems, and mental disorder, as well as a musty smell and lighter skin. Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterised by abnormal X-rays and blue sclerae. Ankylosing spondylitis, meanwhile, shows changes in the sacroiliac joints in X-rays, but no pigmentary problems. Finally, Polyarticular Still’s disease is not associated with urinary problems or ocular pigmentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 5 - A 24-year-old presents with a painful right knee, without any history of trauma...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old presents with a painful right knee, without any history of trauma or past medical issues. During examination, the knee appears red and warm with a moderate effusion. The patient's vital signs include a respiratory rate of 24/min, blood pressure of 120/72 mmHg, and a temperature of 37.8ºC. The knee is aspirated, revealing cloudy fluid with calcium pyrophosphate crystals. The Gram stain results are pending. What is the recommended course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Admit for intravenous antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Septic arthritis cannot be ruled out until the absence of organisms is confirmed. Therefore, the patient must receive intravenous antibiotics immediately after the aspirate is taken and should only be discharged after septic arthritis has been ruled out.

      While calcium pyrophosphate crystals are commonly associated with pseudo gout, their presence does not exclude septic arthritis. In addition, using ferritin as a screening tool for haemochromatosis in this situation would not be recommended since it is likely to be elevated in septic arthritis.

      Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and swelling. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, while Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism in sexually active young adults. The infection is usually spread through the bloodstream, often from distant bacterial infections such as abscesses. The knee is the most commonly affected joint in adults.

      Symptoms of septic arthritis include acute joint swelling, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever. To diagnose the condition, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if needed. Blood cultures and joint imaging may also be necessary.

      Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci, such as flucloxacillin or clindamycin if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotics are typically given for several weeks, and patients may be switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration is used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required. Overall, prompt diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent joint damage and other complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old man has completed treatment for community-acquired pneumonia and is awaiting a...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man has completed treatment for community-acquired pneumonia and is awaiting a package of care before discharge. He has a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, type 2 diabetes, and advanced chronic kidney disease. The patient complains of severe pain in his left foot, which is swollen, erythematous, and hot to touch. His latest blood results show elevated creatinine levels. What would be the most appropriate treatment to commence given his likely diagnosis and co-morbidities?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      In cases where NSAIDs and colchicine cannot be used for gout treatment due to contraindications or intolerance, the next option is to administer steroids. The patient is currently experiencing an acute gout attack, which typically affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Although NICE recommends NSAIDs and colchicine as the primary treatment for acute gout, they are not suitable for this patient due to their severe chronic kidney disease. Therefore, oral steroids like prednisolone should be considered as an alternative.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man who is known to be HIV positive visits the clinic...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man who is known to be HIV positive visits the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain, weakness, exertional dyspnea, xerophthalmia, and xerostomia. He has marked bilateral facial swelling and hepatomegaly, and a few fine scattered crepitations are heard upon chest auscultation. The following investigations were conducted: negative rheumatoid factor, negative antinuclear antibody, and negative extractable nuclear antigens (ENA). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diffuse infiltrative lymphocytic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Infiltrative Lymphocytic Syndrome: A Rare Condition with Various Manifestations

      Infiltrative lymphocytic syndrome (DILS) is a rare condition that can mimic Sjogren’s syndrome with symptoms such as parotid gland enlargement and dryness of the eyes and mouth. However, unlike Sjogren’s syndrome, patients with DILS often do not have positive autoantibodies. In addition to these glandular symptoms, patients with DILS may also experience weakness due to a peripheral motor neuropathy. Other possible manifestations of DILS include aseptic meningitis and cranial nerve palsies. The most serious complication of DILS is lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis.

      Overall, DILS is a complex condition that can present with a variety of symptoms and complications. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this condition and consider it in the differential diagnosis of patients with glandular symptoms and other manifestations. Early recognition and treatment can help improve outcomes for patients with DILS.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the Rheumatology Clinic for evaluation. She has been...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the Rheumatology Clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing weight loss, night sweats, and multiple joint pains. Additionally, she has noticed significant hair loss with scarring around the affected areas. She is also sensitive to the sun, particularly on her face, and requires factor 50 sunscreen. On examination, her blood pressure is 155/82 mmHg, and she has a flushed facial appearance. She has small joint polyarthropathy, particularly affecting her fingers, toes, ankles, and wrists. Her BMI is 21 kg/m2, and there is scarring alopecia on her scalp. Her laboratory results show a low hemoglobin level, elevated ESR, and positive urine for blood and protein. Which test is most likely to be positive?

      Your Answer: Anti-nuclear antibody

      Explanation:

      Autoantibodies in Systemic Lupus Erythematous and Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Systemic lupus erythematous (SLE) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA) are autoimmune diseases that are associated with specific autoantibodies. The most common autoantibody in SLE is the anti-nuclear antibody (ANA), which is present in virtually all patients with the disease. If ANA is positive, further testing for antibodies to ds-DNA, complement, ANA subtypes, and anti-Ro/La may be done to determine the prognosis and potential organ involvement.

      In contrast, the anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody is associated with RA, with a specificity of around 95%. It is present in approximately 75% of patients with RA. Rheumatoid factor, another autoantibody associated with RA, is present in up to 30% of patients with SLE but is less specific.

      Anti-smooth muscle antibody may be positive in autoimmune hepatitis rather than SLE, while c-ANCA is associated with granulomatous polyangiitis and not SLE. Therefore, ANA and anti-CCP are the most likely positive tests in SLE and RA, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old female has presented to your neurology clinic with complaints of difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female has presented to your neurology clinic with complaints of difficulty lifting her arms during exercises at the gym for the past few months. She is visibly upset and tearful, mentioning that she has been using a lot of make-up to cover a new purple rash and swelling around her eyelids. She has no significant medical history or recent trauma and is generally healthy. She has had a dry cough for the past 6 months, which she attributes to her previous social smoking habit of up to 2 cigarettes every 2 weeks when going out with friends.

      Upon examination, you note limited passive movement in both shoulders and hips due to tender deltoids and hip flexors. Power examination reveals 4-out-of-5 symmetrically in hip flexion and shoulder abduction. She has an elliptical erythematous rash around her eyes, and the skin around her fingers appears tough bilaterally. Auscultation of her chest reveals bibasal fine inspiratory crackles and normal heart sounds. Her observations show a low-grade temperature of 37.7 degrees. A chest radiograph shows bilateral fibrotic changes.

      Her admission blood tests are as follows:

      - Hb 121 g/l
      - Platelets 590 * 109/l
      - WBC 12.3 * 109/l
      - ESR 20 mm/hr
      - Creatine kinase 3000 u/l
      - LDH 250 u/l

      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis that unifies all of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that she may be suffering from an inflammatory myositis, as she is experiencing proximal myopathy along with a violaceous rash on her eyelid and mechanics hands, and may also have interstitial lung disease. While inclusion body myositis is a possibility, it is typically limited to proximal muscles and less commonly affects distal, bulbar, and facial muscles. Systemic sclerosis is another potential diagnosis, but it tends to produce inflammatory myositis that is similar to polymyositis and is often accompanied by cranial and peripheral neuropathies. However, the patient’s distinctive cutaneous features strongly suggest dermatomyositis, as she has a heliotropic rash with oedema on her eyelid, as well as other characteristic findings such as Gottron’s papules, shawl and V sign, mechanics hands, and periungual erythema. It is worth noting that the patient’s ESR result was normal, which is not uncommon in dermatomyositis patients.

      Understanding Dermatomyositis

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and weakness in the muscles, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying malignancies. Patients with dermatomyositis may experience symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness, and photosensitive skin rashes. The skin lesions may include a macular rash over the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash in the periorbital region, Gottron’s papules, and mechanic’s hands. Other symptoms may include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease, dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      To diagnose dermatomyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including screening for underlying malignancies. The majority of patients with dermatomyositis are ANA positive, and around 30% have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, such as anti-synthetase antibodies, antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

      In summary, dermatomyositis is a condition that affects both the muscles and skin. It can be associated with other disorders or malignancies, and patients may experience a range of symptoms. Proper diagnosis and management are essential for improving outcomes and quality of life for those with dermatomyositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old man presents to the rheumatology clinic with recurrent gout. He was...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the rheumatology clinic with recurrent gout. He was previously started on allopurinol but developed a rash and gastrointestinal upset, and his eGFR limits an increase in dosage. On examination, he is obese and reports previous gout attacks in his left foot and right knee. He also has hypertension, type II diabetes mellitus, and a history of myocardial infarction. His current medications include aspirin, ramipril, amlodipine, atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and metformin. His recent blood work shows an increase in urea and creatinine levels. What are the available options for managing his gout in the long-term?

      Your Answer: Initiate febuxostat 80 mg OD

      Explanation:

      Febuxostat is a viable option for preventing gout in patients who cannot tolerate the side effects of allopurinol or have reduced renal function that prevents effective dose escalation. According to NICE and the British Society of Rheumatology, febuxostat can be used as an alternative to allopurinol in such cases. Unlike allopurinol, febuxostat is a non-purine selective xanthine oxidase inhibitor that inhibits both oxidized and reduced versions of the enzyme without affecting purine or pyrimidine metabolism. Although recent studies suggest an increased risk of cardiovascular events with febuxostat use, no changes have been made to the guidelines. While indomethacin, prednisolone, and colchicine are effective in treating acute gout, their preventive use is limited. Colchicine can be used as a temporary measure while a xanthine oxidase inhibitor is being prescribed to prevent acute gout attacks.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. Her mother was recently hospitalized...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. Her mother was recently hospitalized due to a hip fracture, and she is worried that she may have inherited osteoporosis. She has no significant medical history, does not take any regular medication, and has never experienced any fractures. She is a smoker, consuming around 20 cigarettes per day, and drinks 3-4 units of alcohol daily.

      What would be the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Use the FRAX tool

      Explanation:

      Due to her positive family history, smoking, and excess alcohol intake, this woman is at a higher risk for developing osteoporosis. Therefore, it is recommended that she undergo a FRAX assessment without delay, rather than waiting until the age of 65 as typically recommended for women without such risk factors.

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture does not automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 12 - A 31-year-old man presents with a history of recurrent ulcers over several months....

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old man presents with a history of recurrent ulcers over several months. He reports experiencing oral ulcers regularly, with multiple occurring at a time, which typically resolve within a week. Additionally, he has been experiencing painless genital ulcers. He has recently attended the eye casualty department twice, where he was diagnosed with uveitis. On examination today, he has several oral ulcers and genital ulcers. What findings would support the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pathergy test

      Explanation:

      A positive result for antinuclear antibodies would not support a diagnosis of Behcet’s syndrome and should lead to investigation of other autoimmune causes of the symptoms. Similarly, culture and serology of the ulcers would be expected to be negative in Behcet’s and any positive results should prompt reconsideration of the diagnosis. HLA-B27 positivity is not typically associated with Behcet’s and would suggest the possibility of seronegative spondyloarthropathies, requiring further investigation.

      Behcet’s syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body and is believed to be caused by inflammation of the arteries and veins due to an autoimmune response. The exact cause of the condition is not yet fully understood. The classic symptoms of Behcet’s syndrome include oral and genital ulcers, as well as anterior uveitis. The condition is more common in men and tends to affect young adults, particularly those in the eastern Mediterranean region. Behcet’s syndrome is associated with HLA B51, and around 30% of patients have a positive family history. Other features of the condition may include thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, arthritis, neurological involvement, gastrointestinal symptoms, and erythema nodosum. Diagnosis is typically based on clinical findings, and a positive pathergy test may be suggestive of the condition.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 13 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe headaches...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe headaches on the left side of her head. She also reports intermittent jaw pain while chewing. Her daughter reports that her mother has been increasingly fatigued over the past few weeks. Laboratory testing shows an ESR of 95 mm/h. What is the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Start 20 mg prednisolone per day

      Correct Answer: Start 60 mg prednisolone per day

      Explanation:

      Management of Giant Cell Arteritis: Starting Prednisone and Urgent Treatment

      Giant cell arteritis (GCA) is a serious condition that can lead to sudden unilateral visual loss if left untreated. The definitive diagnostic test is a temporal artery biopsy, but treatment with high-dose prednisolone should not be delayed while awaiting biopsy. The histological features on biopsy include intimal hypertrophy, inflammation of the intima and sub-intima, breaking up of the internal elastic lamina, and giant cell infiltration of the internal elastic lamina. Treatment with prednisolone is both diagnostic and dramatic, with a symptom response that confirms the diagnosis. Around three-quarters of patients require between 1 and 3 years of steroid therapy, while the remaining quarter may require continued steroids for some years. Urgent treatment is necessary to prevent potential visual impairment, and investigations such as immunoglobulin testing and CT scan of the head should not delay treatment. A temporal artery biopsy can be booked for surgical list in 5 days’ time to confirm the diagnosis.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes and a history of social alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes and a history of social alcohol consumption presents with an acutely swollen and red mid foot that has been bothering him for the past three weeks. He denies any recent foot injuries. Upon examination, the mid foot is warm and pedal pulses are intact. However, there is a glove and stocking distribution of sensory loss bilaterally. Recent blood tests reveal normal FBC, CRP, and UEC, and a foot radiograph appears normal. What should be the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Immobilise in a plaster cast

      Explanation:

      Charcot neuroarthropathy is a condition that presents as a warm, swollen, erythematous foot and ankle, and is often seen in patients with long-standing diabetes and peripheral neuropathy. It can progress through four stages, with radiographs being an important part of diagnosis and treatment involving immobilization and avoidance of weight-bearing. Bisphosphonates and surgery may also be used in severe cases. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is evidence of cellulitis. The cause of peripheral neuropathy is most likely diabetes.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old man who is being treated with methotrexate for psoriasis has misunderstood...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man who is being treated with methotrexate for psoriasis has misunderstood the directions for therapy and presents to the clinic with glossitis, severe mouth ulcers and megaloblastic anaemia.

      On further questioning, it transpires he has been taking a dose of 30 mg per week, rather than 15 mg per week.

      Investigations reveal the following:

      Haemoglobin (Hb) - 95 g/l (normal value: 130-180 g/l)

      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) - 110 fl (normal value: 80-100 fl)

      White cell count (WCC) - 2.5 × 109/l (normal value: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)

      Platelets (PLT) - 100 × 109/l (normal value: 150-400 × 109/l)

      What is the most appropriate rescue medication for this patient?

      Your Answer: Folinic acid

      Explanation:

      Medication Error and Treatment for Methotrexate Overdose

      Medication errors can occur in patients with rheumatoid arthritis who are prescribed methotrexate. Calcium folinate, also known as folinic acid, is a potent antagonist for the effects of methotrexate on the hematopoietic system. It is given by intravenous infusion at doses of up to 75 mg in the first 12 hours, followed by doses of 6-12 mg every 4 hours. Blood transfusion may also be required in exceptional circumstances. In cases of massive methotrexate overdose, hydration and urinary alkalinisation may be an option, while standard dialysis is ineffective. Intermittent high-flux dialysis may be of value.

      However, medication errors can occur when patients find it difficult to understand that they must take their medication weekly, as opposed to daily. In such cases, patients may require treatment for methotrexate overdose. Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause similar symptoms to folate deficiency, but it occurs over years, while folate deficiency develops over months. Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy, primarily seen in patients with drug or alcohol dependence or in severe malnourishment. Iron deficiency can occur due to decreased dietary intake, reduced absorption, and blood loss, causing microcytic anemia. Niacin deficiency causes pellagra, characterized by photosensitive pigmented dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia, primarily seen in patients with malabsorption and alcohol dependence.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 16 - A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a follow-up after being treated...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a follow-up after being treated for a left Colles fracture at the Emergency Department. She has a medical history of severe oesophagitis, a previous lumbar spine fracture, and a deep vein thrombosis while on hormone replacement therapy (HRT) 10 years ago. She is interested in preventive measures against osteoporosis.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 131 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 210 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      T score –4.2
      What is the most suitable treatment option for her?

      Your Answer: Teriparatide

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Osteoporosis: Evaluating the Appropriate Choice for a Patient with a Low T Score

      When considering treatment options for osteoporosis, it is important to evaluate the individual patient’s T score and fracture history. For a patient with a T score of -4.0 or below and two or more fractures, teriparatide is a suitable option. This synthetic PTH analogue increases osteoblast activity and is given as a once-a-day subcutaneous injection.

      Etidronate, although it can be given in larger doses with decreased dosing frequency, should be avoided due to its propensity to cause oesophagitis. Calcium and vitamin D alone are not appropriate for a patient with a very low T score.

      Raloxifene, a selective oestrogen receptor modulator, is less effective at preserving BMD than bisphosphonates and is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. It is not an appropriate option for this patient.

      Strontium, which is associated with increased cardiovascular events and potentially with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is reserved for patients where other options for treating osteoporosis are unsuitable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old female patient complains of erythema nodosum, accompanied by low-grade fever and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female patient complains of erythema nodosum, accompanied by low-grade fever and bilateral ankle arthritis. She has no medical history and is not taking any medication. There is no record of her traveling abroad. What would be the most suitable test to conduct for this patient?

      Your Answer: Chest x ray

      Explanation:

      Erythema Nodosum and its Possible Causes

      Erythema nodosum is a condition that often has no known cause. However, it can also be linked to streptococcal infections, acute sarcoidosis, or certain medications like the oral contraceptive pill, sulphonamides, and penicillins. In some cases, it may be a symptom of rarer conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease, tuberculosis, Behçet’s disease, and other connective tissue disorders.

      To diagnose the underlying cause of erythema nodosum, a chest x-ray is often the most useful investigation. This is because it can identify bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, which, when combined with a bilateral ankle arthropathy, strongly suggests acute sarcoidosis. However, investigating the bowel is unlikely to be helpful if there are no bowel symptoms present. Non-specific tests like viral titres and ESR may also be conducted, but they may not provide a definitive diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 18 - A 56-year-old patient with tophaceous gout is unable to tolerate allopurinol tablets due...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old patient with tophaceous gout is unable to tolerate allopurinol tablets due to hypersensitivity reaction. The patient is considering long-term urate-lowering treatment with febuxostat. What is the mechanism of action of febuxostat?

      Your Answer: URAT -1 inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Febuxostat is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that works by blocking the enzyme responsible for the production of uric acid in the body. By reducing the amount of uric acid produced, febuxostat helps to lower the levels of uric acid in the blood, which can prevent the formation of urate crystals that cause gout. Unlike allopurinol, febuxostat does not require dose adjustment in patients with renal impairment and has a lower risk of hypersensitivity reactions.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb. The right first carpometacarpal joint is swollen and tender.
      What could be the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Common Hand and Wrist Pathologies

      The hand and wrist are common sites of pathology, particularly in postmenopausal women. Osteoarthritis frequently affects the first carpometacarpal joint, causing tenderness, stiffness, crepitus, swelling, and pain on thumb abduction. This can lead to squaring of the hand, radial subluxation of the metacarpal, and atrophy of the thenar muscles.

      Scaphoid fractures are also relatively common, often resulting from a fall onto an outstretched hand. The proximal portion of the scaphoid lacks its own blood supply, which can lead to avascular necrosis if a fracture isolates it from the rest of the bone. This produces pain and tenderness on the radial side of the wrist, typically in the anatomical snuffbox, worsened by wrist movement.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is another common pathology, characterized by stenosing tenosynovitis of the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. It presents with pain, swelling, and tenderness on the radial aspect of the wrist. Treatment typically involves splinting, with or without corticosteroid injection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old patient with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents for follow-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents for follow-up. She is currently being treated with low-dose methotrexate, folic acid, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for her condition. However, she has noticed a deterioration in her rheumatoid nodules over the past few months and has recently developed dry eyes. During the examination, splenomegaly is noted. Further investigations reveal a low total white count of 3.4 × 109/l, along with anemia and a platelet count of 105 × 109/l. What would be the most appropriate initial intervention in this case?

      Your Answer: Splenectomy (for Felty syndrome patients who fail to respond to medical intervention)

      Correct Answer: Pulsed corticosteroid therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Felty Syndrome in a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Felty syndrome is a condition characterized by splenomegaly and low white blood cell count in patients with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis. In this case, the patient’s worsening extra-articular manifestations and low white count suggest Felty syndrome. Pulsed corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide therapy can be effective in raising neutrophil counts, while appropriate switching/intensification of DMARD therapy for rheumatoid arthritis may also help. Busulphan is not indicated in this case, as the patient does not have lymphoma. Stopping methotrexate therapy is not the solution, as the patient’s symptoms are not due to methotrexate toxicity. Folinic acid rescue is also not indicated in this case, as it is used for methotrexate toxicity. In patients who fail to respond to medical intervention, splenectomy may be considered as an option.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 21 - A 38-year-old Turkish man presents with superficial thrombophlebitis in his leg veins.

    Upon questioning,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old Turkish man presents with superficial thrombophlebitis in his leg veins.

      Upon questioning, he reports experiencing recurrent episodes of oral and genital ulcers over the past year, some of which have resulted in scarring. He also has a history of anterior uveitis.

      Recent blood tests indicate a normocytic normochromic anemia, normal liver function tests, urea and electrolytes, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (66 mm/hr). A venous Doppler revealed below knee deep venous thrombosis.

      Which medication should he be started on?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Behçet’s Disease: A Systemic Vasculitis with Various Manifestations

      Behçet’s syndrome is a systemic vasculitis that affects both small and large vessels, including venous and arterial vessels. The cause of this disease is unknown, but more than 60% of patients are HLA-B51, and it is more prevalent in Mediterranean countries. Behçet’s syndrome is commonly associated with mucocutaneous manifestations, such as oro-genital ulceration and erythema nodosum, as well as ocular disease, gastrointestinal involvement, and neurological features. Venous thrombosis is a common complication, but thrombo-embolism is rare as the thrombi adhere to the vessel wall.

      In cases of venous or arterial involvement, corticosteroids in conjunction with immunosuppressants like azathioprine, cyclosporine, and cyclophosphamide may be used. However, evidence is lacking for the use of anticoagulation, antifibrinolytics, and antiplatelet agents, and routine use of these is not recommended. This is due to the possibility of a coexisting pulmonary arterial aneurysm, which might result in fatal bleeding. Despite a high frequency of venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism is rare in Behçet’s syndrome. In cases of DVT, treatment should be discussed with local experts and commenced as required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 22 - A 57-year-old male presents with gradual onset bilateral tinnitus over the past 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male presents with gradual onset bilateral tinnitus over the past 3 months, along with worsening hearing, intermittent headache, and increasing lower limb edema. He denies diplopia, vertigo, dysphagia, or dysarthria, as well as any urinary symptoms or weight loss. The patient has a past medical history of hypertension and insulin-dependent diabetes, and reports a family history of prostate carcinoma with both his father and uncle previously undergoing resections. On examination, cranial nerves are unremarkable except for bilateral hearing loss, and there is no limb weakness but significant spinal kyphosis. Heart sounds I and II are heard with no added sounds, and bibasal crackles are auscultated. His abdomen is soft and non-tender. Initial serum markers show platelets at 264 * 109/l, WBC at 9 * 109/l, and Neuts at 5.4 * 109/l, with Na+ at 142 mmol/l, K+ at 4.3 mmol/l, urea at 7.8 mmol/l, creatinine at 90 µmol/l, bilirubin at 6 µmol/l, ALP at 902 u/l, and ALT at 28 u/l, and CRP at 16 mg/l. Parathyroid hormone and vitamin D are within normal range. What other biochemical marker will be abnormal?

      Your Answer: Corrected calcium

      Correct Answer: C-telopeptide (CTx)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting around 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities.

      Several factors can predispose an individual to Paget’s disease, including increasing age, male sex, living in northern latitudes, and having a family history of the condition. Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. In untreated cases, patients may experience bowing of the tibia or bossing of the skull.

      To diagnose Paget’s disease, doctors may perform blood tests to check for elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), a marker of bone turnover. Other markers of bone turnover, such as procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP), serum C-telopeptide (CTx), urinary N-telopeptide (NTx), and urinary hydroxyproline, may also be measured. X-rays and bone scintigraphy can help identify areas of active bone lesions.

      Treatment for Paget’s disease is typically reserved for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fractures, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, such as oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are commonly used to manage the condition. Calcitonin may also be used in some cases. Complications of Paget’s disease can include deafness, bone sarcoma, fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 23 - A 56-year-old woman is currently being treated for back pain with 1g of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman is currently being treated for back pain with 1g of paracetamol four times a day and the maximum dose of 2.4g of ibuprofen daily. Despite tolerating the medication well, she continues to experience persistent pain. What is the most effective solution to enhance her pain management?

      Your Answer: Continue paracetamol, continue ibuprofen and commence morphine

      Correct Answer: Continue paracetamol, stop ibuprofen and commence naproxen

      Explanation:

      To manage mild to moderate pain, a stepwise approach should be taken. The first step is to use paracetamol and increase the dosage to a maximum of 1 gram four times a day. If this is not effective, ibuprofen can be substituted and the dosage increased to a maximum of 2.4 grams daily. If necessary, paracetamol can be added to ibuprofen. If ibuprofen is not effective, it can be replaced with another NSAID such as naproxen while continuing with paracetamol. Strong opioids like morphine should not be used at this stage. It is important to avoid using two NSAIDs together as this can increase the risk of adverse effects. Therefore, the best option for this patient is to continue with paracetamol and switch from ibuprofen to naproxen.

      Understanding Lower Back Pain and its Possible Causes

      Lower back pain is a common complaint among patients seeking medical attention. Although most cases are due to non-specific muscular issues, it is important to consider possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Some red flags to watch out for include age below 20 or above 50 years, a history of previous malignancy, night pain, history of trauma, and systemic symptoms such as weight loss and fever.

      There are several specific causes of lower back pain that healthcare providers should be aware of. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, with pain typically worse in the morning and on standing. On examination, there may be pain over the facets, which is typically worse on extension of the back. Spinal stenosis, on the other hand, usually has a gradual onset and presents with unilateral or bilateral leg pain (with or without back pain), numbness, and weakness that worsens with walking and resolves when sitting down. Ankylosing spondylitis is typically seen in young men who present with lower back pain and stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arthritis is also common in this condition. Finally, peripheral arterial disease presents with pain on walking that is relieved by rest, and may be accompanied by absent or weak foot pulses and other signs of limb ischaemia. A past history of smoking and other vascular diseases may also be present.

      In summary, lower back pain is a common presentation in clinical practice, and healthcare providers should be aware of the possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. By identifying red flags and conducting a thorough examination, providers can help ensure that patients receive appropriate care and management.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old female patient complains of dry eyes, dry mouth, an erythematous rash,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female patient complains of dry eyes, dry mouth, an erythematous rash, and polyarthralgia. Upon investigation, the patient's anti-nuclear antibody is strongly positive (1:1600), anti-Ro/SSA antibodies are strongly positive, rheumatoid factor is positive, and IgG is 45 g/L (<15), while IgM and IgA are normal, and the kappa/lambda ratio is normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Correct Answer: Primary Sjögren's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Serology and Clinical Features of Sjögren’s Syndrome

      Sjögren’s syndrome is a condition that affects the immune system and causes dryness in the eyes and mouth. There are two types of Sjögren’s syndrome: primary and secondary. Primary Sjögren’s syndrome occurs alone and is more likely to have positive anti Ro SSA antibodies than secondary Sjögren’s. The clinical features and serology are typical of primary Sjögren’s syndrome. Hypergammaglobulinaemia is present in 80% of individuals, and the normal kappa/lambda ratio confirms the hypergammaglobulinaemia is polyclonal. Autoantibodies include rheumatoid factors, antinuclear antibodies, and multiple organ-specific antibodies. Antibodies to Ro (SS-A) and La (SS-B) are also common. ANA and anti-Ro/SSA antibodies are present in approximately 90% of individuals, as is a weakly positive rheumatoid factor.

      On the other hand, secondary Sjögren’s syndrome typically has pre-existent rheumatoid or systemic lupus erythematosus before the development of Sjögren’s symptoms. It is important to differentiate between primary and secondary Sjögren’s syndrome as the treatment and management may differ. Overall, the serology and clinical features of Sjögren’s syndrome can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 25 - A 68-year-old Caucasian patient with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis has been receiving monthly i.v....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old Caucasian patient with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis has been receiving monthly i.v. cyclophosphamide and oral prednisolone for six months, resulting in well-controlled vasculitis. The next step is to start him on azathioprine. All his blood tests, including full blood count, urea electrolytes, creatinine, and liver function tests, are normal. What screening test should be done before initiating azathioprine therapy?

      Your Answer: Blood for thiopurine methyltransferase

      Explanation:

      Importance of Checking TPMT Levels Before Starting Azathioprine

      Prior to initiating treatment with azathioprine, it is crucial to check the patient’s blood for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) levels. Azathioprine is metabolized into 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP) in the body, which can either be converted into inactive 6-methyl mercaptopurine or methylated into active compounds by TPMT. In Caucasians, 89% of individuals have normal or high levels of TPMT, while 11% have low levels and 0.3% are deficient in TPMT. Administering azathioprine to those who are TPMT deficiency can lead to severe side effects such as myelosuppression.

      Patients with normal or high levels of TPMT can safely begin treatment with azathioprine. However, those with low levels of TPMT should be closely monitored and given low doses of azathioprine under expert supervision. Therefore, it is essential to check TPMT levels before starting azathioprine to ensure the safety and efficacy of the treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 26 - You review a 54-year-old man who complains of persistent bone pain. Bone scanning...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 54-year-old man who complains of persistent bone pain. Bone scanning indicates activity particularly affecting the femurs. You discuss treatment options including bisphosphonate therapy. He has no other medical conditions and no family history of bone conditions or malignancy. The patient has been studying the condition on the Internet and is worried about possible risk of osteogenic sarcoma.
      What factors increase the risk of osteogenic sarcoma?

      Your Answer: Age >50 years

      Correct Answer: Retinoblastoma

      Explanation:

      Retinoblastoma is a rare type of eye cancer that primarily affects children. In cases where it is hereditary, there is an increased risk of developing bone or soft tissue sarcomas, especially if the patient has undergone radiotherapy. Other conditions that may increase the risk of osteosarcoma include Paget’s disease of the bone, hereditary multiple ostochondromas, and inherited cancer syndromes like Li-Fraumeni syndrome. Bisphosphonate therapy, which is commonly used to treat Paget’s disease, has not been linked to osteosarcoma and may even be beneficial when used alongside conventional chemotherapy. While chemotherapy has not been associated with osteosarcoma, individuals who have undergone radiotherapy may have an increased risk of developing the condition in the area of previous treatment. Osteopenia, a condition characterized by low bone density, is not causally linked to osteosarcoma. Osteosarcoma is most commonly found in children and young adults, and symptoms include localized pain and pathological fracture. Although the risk of developing osteosarcoma is higher in patients with Paget’s disease, the incidence is still relatively low, with less than 1% of patients developing the condition. In adults with Paget’s disease, the incidence tends to peak in the seventh decade, particularly in those with long-standing disease and multiple sites of involvement.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 27 - A 78-year-old man has been referred to your clinic by his doctor due...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man has been referred to your clinic by his doctor due to a complaint of stiffness in his proximal muscles, particularly in the morning, for the past two months. He reports no weakness. What is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic process?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica and its Association with Giant Cell Arteritis

      The patient’s symptoms suggest polymyalgia rheumatica, which is characterized by stiffness in the proximal muscles but not weakness, typically seen in elderly patients. On the other hand, polymyositis is characterized by muscle pain and weakness. While other tests may be relevant in the overall evaluation of the patient, a high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) would require immediate treatment with steroids.

      It is important to note that polymyalgia rheumatica is often associated with giant cell arteritis, which can lead to blindness if left untreated. Therefore, prompt treatment with steroids is crucial in preventing this complication.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old man presents with pain in his left elbow when extending his...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents with pain in his left elbow when extending his forearm and wrist. He is an avid tennis player and has been playing more frequently lately. Despite taking NSAIDs and resting for the past 4 weeks, his pain has not improved and he has a tournament coming up in 2 weeks.

      During examination, the elbow is slightly flexed and there is tenderness over the lateral epicondyle. Resisted wrist extension also reproduces his pain.

      What would be the most appropriate intervention to provide short term relief for this patient?

      Your Answer: Local steroid/anaesthetic injection

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Lateral Epicondylitis (Tennis Elbow)

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, can be treated with various options. One of the most effective treatments is a local steroid/anaesthetic injection, which can be combined with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents. Oral prednisolone is not recommended as it is a systemic steroid and may cause side effects. Physiotherapy and stretching exercises can also be beneficial in the long term. Elbow immobilisation is not recommended as it may cause muscle wasting. Surgical intervention for lateral tendon release may be considered if medical therapy fails.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 29 - A 26-year-old patient with a history of psoriasis complains of arthralgia. The patient...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old patient with a history of psoriasis complains of arthralgia. The patient reports experiencing swelling in her knuckles and worsening psoriasis symptoms over the past four months. Upon examination, severe plaque psoriasis is observed on the patient's extensors and scalp, resulting in alopecia. The metacarpophalangeal joints are visibly swollen and tender. The patient is currently taking naproxen 500mg BD, paracetamol 1g TDS, and using topical steroids and calcipotriol. What additional medication would you recommend?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate is the most effective DMARD for treating psoriatic arthritis, as it not only improves joint symptoms but also has a significant impact on skin disease. In contrast, other DMARDs have less of an effect on skin symptoms. If methotrexate cannot be used due to contraindications, leflunomide is the second-line treatment for peripheral psoriatic arthritis. Anti-TNF drugs like infliximab are only used as a first-line treatment if the patient has predominantly axial spondyloarthropathy. Hydroxychloroquine is not routinely used for psoriatic arthritis as it can worsen skin symptoms and has limited efficacy for joint symptoms. These recommendations are based on EULAR guidelines.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old patient with sero-positive erosive RA is currently being treated with methotrexate...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient with sero-positive erosive RA is currently being treated with methotrexate (20 mg/week) and sulfasalazine (1 gram bd) but still experiences active inflammatory arthritis. The patient has decided to try abatacept as a biological agent. What is the mechanism of action of abatacept?

      Your Answer: Anti-TNF alpha antibody

      Correct Answer: CTLA4 homologue

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid Arthritis Treatment Options

      Abatacept, a drug used to treat rheumatoid arthritis (RA), is a homologue of cytotoxic lymphocyte antigen 4 (CTLA 4). It works by inhibiting T-cell activation, which is a key factor in the development of RA. Adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab, golimumab, and certolizumab are all anti-tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF alpha) agents. These drugs work by blocking the action of TNF alpha, a cytokine that plays a major role in the inflammation associated with RA. Rituximab is an anti-CD 20 antibody that targets B cells, which are involved in the immune response that leads to RA. Finally, anakinra is an anti-interleukin 1 (IL 1) antibody that blocks the action of IL 1, another cytokine involved in the inflammation associated with RA.

      Overall, these drugs offer a range of treatment options for RA patients, targeting different aspects of the immune response that leads to the disease. By inhibiting T-cell activation, blocking TNF alpha, targeting B cells, or blocking IL 1, these drugs can help reduce inflammation and slow the progression of RA. However, each drug has its own set of potential side effects and risks, and the choice of treatment will depend on the individual patient’s needs and medical history. It is important for RA patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to determine the best treatment plan for their specific case.

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      • Rheumatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (20/30) 67%
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