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  • Question 1 - You have been asked to give a tutorial on common upper limb neurology...

    Correct

    • You have been asked to give a tutorial on common upper limb neurology to a group of medical students. You use the example of a man falling from a balcony onto spiked fencing, sustaining a puncture wound to the axilla. This results in an injury to the musculocutaneous nerve. Which of the following clinical features would you LEAST expect to see in this patient:

      Your Answer: Weakness of forearm pronation

      Explanation:

      Flexion of the arm and flexion and supination of the forearm are weakened but not lost entirely due to the actions of the pectoralis major and deltoid, the brachioradialis and the supinator muscles respectively. There is loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Forearm pronation would not be affected as this is primarily produced by the pronator quadratus and pronator teres muscles, innervated by the median nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      12.8
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - You review a 46-year-old woman who has recently been prescribed antibiotics for a...

    Correct

    • You review a 46-year-old woman who has recently been prescribed antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. She suffers from COPD and is currently prescribed salbutamol and Seretide inhalers, and Phyllocontin continus. Since starting the antibiotics, she has been experiencing nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain.Which of the following antibiotics is she MOST LIKELY to have been prescribed for her UTI? Select ONE answer only .

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Phyllocontin continus contains aminophylline (a mixture of theophylline and ethylenediamine), a bronchodilator used in the management of COPD and asthma.This patient is exhibiting symptoms of theophylline toxicity, which may have been triggered by the prescription of the antibiotic. Quinolone antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin, and macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, increase the plasma concentration of theophyllines and can lead to toxicity.The drugs that commonly affect the half-life and the plasma concentration of theophylline are summarised in the table below:Drugs increasing plasma concentration of theophyllineDrugs decreasing plasma concentration of theophyllineCalcium channel blockers, e.g. VerapamilCimetidineFluconazoleMacrolides, e.g. erythromycinQuinolones, e.g. ciprofloxacinMethotrexateBarbituratesCarbamazepinePhenobarbitolPhenytoin (and fosphenytoin)RifampicinSt. John’s wort

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      21.6
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - A 62-year-old female complains of pain in her right upper quadrant. An abdominal ultrasound...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old female complains of pain in her right upper quadrant. An abdominal ultrasound is conducted, and a big gallstone is discovered. The radiologist who performs the scan speaks with you about the physiology of the gallbladder and biliary tract.During a 24-hour period, how much bile does the gallbladder produce?

      Your Answer: 400-800 ml

      Explanation:

      The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile, which is produced by the liver. In a 24-hour period, around 400 to 800 mL of bile is generated. The breakdown of fats into fatty acids, the removal of waste materials, and cholesterol homeostasis are all crucial functions of bile.Bile is created on a constant basis, however it is only necessary after a meal has been consumed. The elimination of water and ions concentrates bile in the gallbladder, which is subsequently stored for later use. Food induces the release of the hormone cholecystokinin from the duodenum, the contraction of the gallbladder, and the relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. The bile then enters the duodenum.Bile acids have a hydrophobic and hydrophilic area, making them amphipathic. Bile acids’ amphipathic nature allows them to perform the following crucial functions:Emulsification of lipid aggregates increases the surface area of fat and makes it easier for lipases to digest it.Lipid solubilization and transport: solubilizes lipids by creating micelles, which are lipid clumps that float in water.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      15.1
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A 59-year-old man presents with increased sweating, weight loss, and palpitations. A series...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man presents with increased sweating, weight loss, and palpitations. A series of blood tests done found a very low TSH level and a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism is made.What is the commonest cause of hyperthyroidism?

      Your Answer: Graves’ disease

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroidism results from an excess of circulating thyroid hormones. It is commoner in women, and incidence increases with age.Hyperthyroidism can be subclassified into:Primary hyperthyroidism – the thyroid gland itself is affectedSecondary hyperthyroidism – the thyroid gland is stimulated by excessive circulating thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).Graves’ disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism (estimates are that it causes between 50 and 80% of all cases).Although toxic multinodular goitre, thyroiditis,TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma and drug-induced hyperthyroidism also causes hyperthyroidism, the commonest cause is Graves’ disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      13.4
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - In the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, the tenase complex is: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, the tenase complex is:

      Your Answer: Factor VIII-tissue factor complex

      Correct Answer: Factor VIIa-tissue factor complex

      Explanation:

      The extrinsic pathway for initiating the formation of prothrombin activator begins with a traumatized vascular wall or traumatized extravascular tissues that come in contact with the blood. Exposed and activated by vascular injury, with plasma factor VII. The extrinsic tenase complex, factor VIIa-tissue factor complex, activates factor X to factor Xa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      8.9
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - An ambulance transports a 40-year-old man to the hospital. He ingested a significant...

    Incorrect

    • An ambulance transports a 40-year-old man to the hospital. He ingested a significant amount of aspirin.In the early stages of an aspirin overdose, which form of acid-base problem should you anticipate? 

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      When you take too much aspirin, you have a mix of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Respiratory centre stimulation produces hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis in the early phases. The direct acid actions of aspirin tend to create a higher anion gap metabolic acidosis in the latter phases.Below summarizes some of the most common reasons of acid-base abnormalities:Respiratory alkalosis: – Hyperventilation (e.g. anxiety, pain, fever)- Pulmonary embolism- Pneumothorax- CNS disorders (e.g. CVA, SAH, encephalitis)- High altitude- Pregnancy- Early stages of aspirin overdoseRespiratory acidosis:- COPD- Life-threatening asthma- Pulmonary oedema- Respiratory depression (e.g. opiates, benzodiazepines)- Neuromuscular disease (e.g. Guillain-Barré syndrome, muscular dystrophy- Incorrect ventilator settings (hypoventilation)- ObesityMetabolic alkalosis:- Vomiting- Cardiac arrest- Multi-organ failure- Cystic fibrosis- Potassium depletion (e.g. diuretic usage)- Cushing’s syndrome- Conn’s syndromeMetabolic acidosis (with raised anion gap):- Lactic acidosis (e.g. hypoxaemia, shock, sepsis, infarction)- Ketoacidosis (e.g. diabetes, starvation, alcohol excess)- Renal failure- Poisoning (e.g. late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol, ethylene glycol)Metabolic acidosis (with normal anion gap):- Renal tubular acidosis- Diarrhoea- Ammonium chloride ingestion- Adrenal insufficiency

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      16.3
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Which of the following is typically used in diabetes mellitus as the cut-off...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is typically used in diabetes mellitus as the cut-off to define hypoglycaemia?

      Your Answer: < 2.5 mmol/L

      Correct Answer: < 4.0 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Hypoglycaemia is defined as plasma glucose of less than 4 mmol/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      9.3
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A pheochromocytoma is diagnosed in a 38-year-old female who has had episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A pheochromocytoma is diagnosed in a 38-year-old female who has had episodes of acute sweating, palpitations, and paroxysmal hypertension.Which of the following is the MOST SUITABLE INITIAL TREATMENT?

      Your Answer: Beta-blocker

      Correct Answer: Alpha-blocker

      Explanation:

      A phaeochromocytoma is a rare functional tumour that develops in the adrenal medulla from chromaffin cells. Extra-adrenal paragangliomas (extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas) are tumours that arise in the sympathetic nervous system’s ganglia and are closely connected to extra-adrenal paragangliomas (extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas). Catecholamines are secreted by these tumours, which generate a variety of symptoms and indications associated with sympathetic nervous system hyperactivity.Hypertension is the most prevalent presenting symptom, which can be continuous or intermittent.Symptoms are usually intermittent, occurring anywhere from many times a day to occasionally. The symptoms of the condition tend to grow more severe and frequent as the disease progresses.The ultimate therapy of choice is surgical resection, and if full resection is done without metastases, hypertension is typically cured.Preoperative medical treatment is critical because it lowers the risk of hypertensive crises during surgery. This is commonly accomplished by combining non-competitive alpha-blockers (such as phenoxybenzamine) with beta-blockers. To allow for blood volume expansion, alpha-blockade should be started at least 7-10 days before surgery. Beta-blockade, which helps to regulate tachycardia and some arrhythmias, can be started after this is accomplished. Hypertensive crises can be triggered if beta-blockade is started too soon.There should also be genetic counselling, as well as a search for and management of any linked illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      20.5
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A man working as a waiter cuts his arm on a glass while...

    Incorrect

    • A man working as a waiter cuts his arm on a glass while he was working. The palmaris longus muscle was damaged as a consequence of his injury.Which of the following statements regarding the palmaris longus muscle is considered correct?

      Your Answer: Damage to it will cause a significant functional deficit at the wrist

      Correct Answer: It receives its blood supply from the ulnar artery

      Explanation:

      The palmaris longus is a small, fusiform-shaped muscle located on the anterior forearm of the human upper extremity. The palmaris longus muscle is commonly present but may be absent in a small percentage of the population, ranging from 2.5% to 26% of individuals, depending on the studied population.The palmaris longus belongs to the anterior forearm flexor group in the human upper extremity. The muscle attaches proximally to the medial humeral epicondyle and distally to the palmar aponeurosis and flexor retinaculum. The blood supply to the palmaris longus muscle is via the ulnar artery, a branch of the brachial artery in the human upper extremity.The palmaris longus muscle receives its innervation via branches of the median nerve containing nerve roots C5-T1. Median nerve injury at or above the elbow joint (including brachial plexus and nerve root injury) can lead to deficits in the palmaris longus and other forearm flexor muscles, leading to weakened elbow flexion, wrist flexion, radial deviation, finger flexion, thumb opposition, flexion, and abduction, in addition to the loss of sensory function in the distribution of the median nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      213.5
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated...

    Correct

    • A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated wound on the abdomen, situated above the umbilicus. A short segment of the small bowel has herniated through the wound.Which of these anatomic structures is the deepest structure injured in the case above?

      Your Answer: Transversalis fascia

      Explanation:

      The following structures are the layers of the anterior abdominal wall from the most superficial to the deepest layer:SkinFatty layer of the superficial fascia (Camper’s fascia)Membranous layer of the superficial fascia (Scarpa’s fascia)Aponeurosis of the external and internal oblique musclesRectus abdominis muscleAponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominisFascia transversalisExtraperitoneal fatParietal peritoneum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      23
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Since the fluid that enters the loop of Henle is isotonic, what is...

    Incorrect

    • Since the fluid that enters the loop of Henle is isotonic, what is its estimated osmolality?

      Your Answer: 200 mOsm

      Correct Answer: 300 mOsm

      Explanation:

      The loop of Henle connects the proximal tubule to the distal convoluted tubule and lies parallel to the collecting ducts. It is consists of three major segments, the thin descending limb, the thin ascending limb, and the thick ascending limb. The segments are differentiated based on structure, anatomic location, and function. The main action of the loop of Henle is to recover water and sodium chloride from urine. The liquid entering the loop of Henle is a solution of salt, urea, and other substances traversed along by the proximal convoluted tubule, from which most of the dissolved components are needed by the body, particularly glucose, amino acids, and sodium bicarbonate that have been reabsorbed into the blood. This fluid is isotonic. Isotonic fluids generally have an osmolality ranging from 270 to 310 mOsm/L. With the fluid that enters the loop of Henle, it is estimated to be 300 mOsm/L. However, after passing the loop, fluid entering the distal tubule is hypotonic to plasma since it has been diluted during its passage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      7.8
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Which statement concerning aerosol transmission is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement concerning aerosol transmission is true?

      Your Answer: They can be spread via ventilation systems in hospitals

      Explanation:

      Aerosols are airborne particles less than 5 µm in size containing infective organisms. They usually cause infection of both the upper and/or lower respiratory tract.The organisms can remain suspended in the air for long periods and also survive outside the body. They can be transmitted through the ventilation systems and can spread over great distances. Some examples of organisms transmitted by the aerosol route include: Varicella zoster virus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis and measles virus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      33.8
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis was made on a patient with a known...

    Incorrect

    • A diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis was made on a patient with a known history of sickle cell disease. He has no joint prosthesis on in-dwelling metal work and no known drug allergies.Which of the following is most likely the causative agent of the case presented above?

      Your Answer: Group B streptococcus

      Correct Answer: Salmonella spp .

      Explanation:

      Patients with sickle cell disease are prone to infection of the bone and bone marrow in areas of infarction and necrosis. Although Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in the general population, studies have shown that in patients with sickle cell disease, the relative incidence of Salmonella osteomyelitis is twice that of staphylococcal infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      22.1
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - After what time period should intravenous phenytoin be used as second-line treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • After what time period should intravenous phenytoin be used as second-line treatment of status epilepticus?

      Your Answer: 30 minutes

      Correct Answer: 25 minutes

      Explanation:

      If seizures recur or fail to respond after initial treatment with benzodiazepines within 25 minutes of onset, phenytoin sodium, fosphenytoin sodium, or phenobarbital sodium should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      16.5
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - Excessive gastric acid output is detected in a patient with a history of...

    Correct

    • Excessive gastric acid output is detected in a patient with a history of recurrent stomach ulcers. It's possible that the patient has Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.Which of the following statements about stomach acid is correct?

      Your Answer: The proton pump located in the canalicular membrane is vital to its secretion

      Explanation:

      The stomach produces gastric acid, which is a digesting fluid. The stomach secretes about 2-3 litres every day. It is involved in tissue breakdown, the conversion of pepsinogen to active pepsin, and the creation of soluble salts with calcium and iron, and has a pH range of 1.5-3.5. It also serves as an immune system by destroying microbes.The following substances are found in gastric acid:WaterAcid hydrochloridePepsinogenmucous Intrinsic factorThe parietal cells in the proximal 2/3 (body) of the stomach release gastric acid. The concentration of hydrogen ions in parietal cell secretions is 1-2 million times that of blood. Chloride is released against both a concentration and an electric gradient, and active transport is required for the parietal cell to produce acid.The following is how stomach acid is secreted:1. Gastric acid secretion is dependent on the H+/K+ ATPase (proton pump) situated in the canalicular membrane. The breakdown of water produces hydrogen ions within the parietal cell. The hydroxyl ions produced in this reaction mix quickly with carbon dioxide to generate bicarbonate ions. Carbonic anhydrase is the enzyme that catalyses this process.2. In return for chloride, bicarbonate is carried out of the basolateral membrane. The ‘alkaline tide’ occurs when bicarbonate is released into the bloodstream, resulting in a modest rise in blood pH. The parietal cell’s intracellular pH is maintained by this procedure. Conductance channels carry chloride and potassium ions into the lumen of canaliculi.3. Through the action of the proton pump, hydrogen ions are pushed out of the cell and into the lumen in exchange for potassium; potassium is thus efficiently recycled.4. The canaliculi accumulate osmotically active hydrogen ions, which creates an osmotic gradient across the membrane, allowing water to diffuse outward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      22.6
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - All of the following statement about the microcirculation are correct except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statement about the microcirculation are correct except:

      Your Answer: Plasma oncotic pressure tends to draw fluid intravascularly.

      Correct Answer: Over the capillary bed, there is a net absorption of fluid.

      Explanation:

      The hydrostatic pressure along the length of the capillary is usually greater than plasma oncotic pressure. As a result, there is a small net filtration of fluid from the capillary into the interstitial space. The regulation of blood flow into the microcirculation is via the vasoconstriction of small arterioles, which is activated by the sympathetic nervous system through numerous nerve endings in their walls. Unlike proteins, most ions and small molecules diffuse easily across capillary walls and thus the crystalloid osmotic pressure they exert is roughly the same on either side of the capillary wall. Because the plasma colloid osmotic pressure is higher than interstitial colloid osmotic, fluid is drawn intravascularly. A reduction of hydrostatic capillary pressure and transient increase in absorption of fluid is a result of arteriolar constriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      32.5
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is the first part of the renal tubule...

    Correct

    • The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is the first part of the renal tubule and lies in the renal cortex. The bulk of reabsorption of solute occurs is the PCT and 100% of glucose is reabsorbed here.Which of the following is the mechanism of glucose reabsorption in the PCT?

      Your Answer: Secondary active transport

      Explanation:

      Glucose reabsorption occurs exclusively in the proximal convoluted tubule by secondary active transport through the Na.Glu co-transporters, driven by the electrochemical gradient for sodium. The co-transporters transport two sodium ions and one glucose molecule across the apical membrane, and the glucose subsequently crosses the basolateral membrane by facilitated diffusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      18.5
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Which of the following occurs at the transverse thoracic plane: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following occurs at the transverse thoracic plane:

      Your Answer: Bifurcation of the trachea

      Explanation:

      A way to help remember the structures transected by the transverse thoracic plane is CLAPTRAP:C: cardiac plexusL: ligamentum arteriosumA: aortic arch (inner concavity)P: pulmonary trunkT: tracheal bifurcation (carina)R: right-to-left movement of the thoracic duct (posterior to the oesophagus)A: azygos vein drains into superior vena cavaP: pre-vertebral fascia and pre-tracheal fascia end

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      30.2
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Carbamazepine is indicated for all of the following EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Carbamazepine is indicated for all of the following EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Generalised tonic-clonic seizures

      Correct Answer: Myoclonic seizures

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine is a drug of choice for simple and complex focal seizures and is a first-line treatment option for generalised tonic-clonic seizures. It is also used in trigeminal neuralgia and diabetic neuropathy. Carbamazepine may exacerbate tonic, atonic, myoclonic and absence seizures and is therefore not recommended if these seizures are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      11.2
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A patient diagnosed with cranial nerve palsy exhibits asymmetrical movement of the palate,...

    Incorrect

    • A patient diagnosed with cranial nerve palsy exhibits asymmetrical movement of the palate, nasal regurgitation of food, and nasal quality to the voice. Which of the following cranial nerves is most likely responsible for the aforementioned features?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerve, ‘the wanderer’, contains motor fibres (to the palate and vocal cords), sensory components (posterior and floor of external acoustic meatus) and visceral afferent and efferent fibres. Palatal weakness can cause nasal speech and nasal regurgitation of food. The palate moves asymmetrically when the patient says ‘ahh’. Recurrent nerve palsy results in hoarseness, loss of volume and ‘bovine cough’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      19.7
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which of the following body location is the appropriate site to apply pressure...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following body location is the appropriate site to apply pressure when performing a carotid sinus massage?

      Your Answer: Hyoid Bone

      Correct Answer: Thyroid cartilage

      Explanation:

      The common carotid artery runs through the neck and divides into internal and external carotid arteries on both sides near the upper thyroid cartilage. In emergency situations, carotid sinus massage is also used to diagnose or treat paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. During the procedure, to maximize access to the carotid artery, the patient is put in a supine position with the neck extended (i.e. elevating the chin away from the chest). The carotid sinus is normally positioned inferior to the angle of the jaw, near the arterial impulse, at the level of the thyroid cartilage. For 5 to 10 seconds, pressure is administered to one carotid sinus. Although pulsatile pressure applied in a vigorous circular motion may be more effective, continuous pressure is preferred since it is more reproducible. If the predicted reaction is not obtained, the operation is repeated on the opposite side after a one- to two-minute wait.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      16.3
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Severe vomiting and diarrhoea were reported by a 25-year-old man. He's dehydrated and...

    Incorrect

    • Severe vomiting and diarrhoea were reported by a 25-year-old man. He's dehydrated and needs intravenous fluids to rehydrate. You give him cyclizine as part of his treatment.What is cyclizine's main mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: 5-HT 3 receptor antagonism

      Correct Answer: Antihistamine action

      Explanation:

      Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative that functions as an antihistamine (H1-receptor antagonist). To prevent nausea and vomiting, it is thought to act on the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) and the labyrinthine apparatus. It has a lower antimuscarinic effect as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      12.7
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - What is nimodipine used predominantly in the treatment of? ...

    Correct

    • What is nimodipine used predominantly in the treatment of?

      Your Answer: Prevention and treatment of vascular spasm following subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Nimodipine is a smooth muscle relaxant that is related to nifedipine, but the effects preferentially act on cerebral arteries. It is exclusively used for the prevention and treatment of vascular spasm after an aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      7.3
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - A patient is sent in to ED by her GP with hyponatraemia and...

    Correct

    • A patient is sent in to ED by her GP with hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. There is most likely to be a deficiency in which of the following hormones:

      Your Answer: Aldosterone

      Explanation:

      A deficiency of aldosterone, as seen in adrenal insufficiency, can result in hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      20
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Which of the following is the primary indication for loop diuretics? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the primary indication for loop diuretics?

      Your Answer: Acute pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics have long been the cornerstone of pulmonary oedema treatment, with furosemide being the most commonly used of these drugs. Premedication with drugs that decrease preload (e.g., nitro-glycerine [NTG]) and afterload (e.g., angiotensin-converting enzyme [ACE] inhibitors) before the administration of loop diuretics can prevent adverse hemodynamic changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      7.5
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old man, who was feeling unwell after his return from a business...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man, who was feeling unwell after his return from a business trip, was diagnosed with a disease that is known to be transmitted by a vector. Among the following microorganisms, which of the following has a mode of transmission of being vector-borne?

      Your Answer: Plasmodium falciparum

      Explanation:

      Plasmodium falciparum is a parasite that is vector-borne which is transmitted by the female Anopheles mosquito.Bordetella pertussis is transmitted through the respiratory tract, via respiratory droplets or direct contact with infectious secretions.Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted via inhalation of infected respiratory droplets.HIV may be transmitted via sexual contact, vertical transmission from mothers to infants, and among injection drug users sharing infected needles, as well as through transfusion of infected blood products.Treponema pallidum transmission normally occurs during direct sexual contact with an individual who has an active primary or secondary syphilitic lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      6.6
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - A patient presents with an adducted eye at rest which cannot abduct past...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with an adducted eye at rest which cannot abduct past the midline, which of the following cranial nerves is most likely to be affected:

      Your Answer: Abducens nerve

      Explanation:

      Abducens nerve palsies result in a convergent squint at rest (eye turned inwards) with inability to abduct the eye because of unopposed action of the rectus medialis. The patient complains of horizontal diplopia when looking towards the affected side. With complete paralysis, the eye cannot abduct past the midline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      14.4
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Which of the following nerves supply the superficial head of the flexor pollicis...

    Correct

    • Which of the following nerves supply the superficial head of the flexor pollicis brevis muscle?

      Your Answer: The recurrent branch of the median nerve

      Explanation:

      The two heads of the flexor pollicis brevis usually differ in their innervation. The superficial head of flexor pollicis muscle receives nervous supply from the recurrent branch of the median nerve, whereas the deep head receives innervation from the deep branch of the ulnar nerve, derived from spinal roots C8 and T1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      24.5
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Which of the following side effects would you least associated with ciprofloxacin: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following side effects would you least associated with ciprofloxacin:

      Your Answer: Photosensitivity

      Correct Answer: Folate deficiency

      Explanation:

      Common side effects include diarrhoea, dizziness, headache, nausea and vomiting.Other adverse effects include: Tendon damage (including rupture), Seizures (in patients with and without epilepsy), QT-interval prolongation, Photosensitivity and Antibiotic-associated colitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      16.9
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows a tombstone...

    Correct

    • Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows a tombstone pattern in leads V2, V3 and V4?

      Your Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      Tombstoning ST elevation myocardial infarction can be described as a STEMI characterized by tombstoning ST-segment elevation. This myocardial infarction is associated with extensive myocardial damage, reduced left ventricle function, serious hospital complications and poor prognosis. Tombstoning ECG pattern is a notion beyond morphological difference and is associated with more serious clinical results.Studies have shown that tombstoning is more commonly found in anterior than non-anterior STEMI, thus, higher rates of left anterior descending artery disease are observed in patients with tombstoning pattern.The following ECG leads determine the location and vessels involved in myocardial infarction:ECG Leads Location Vessel involvedV1-V2 Septal wall Left anterior descendingV3-V4 Anterior wall Left anterior descendingV5-V6 Lateral wall Left circumflex arteryII, III, aVF Inferior wall Right coronary artery (80%) or Left circumflex artery (20%)I, aVL High lateral wall Left circumflex arteryV1, V4R Right ventricle Right coronary arteryV7-V9 Posterior wall Right coronary artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      10.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (6/9) 67%
Upper Limb (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (3/7) 43%
Respiratory Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (2/2) 100%
Physiology (5/11) 45%
Endocrine Physiology (1/2) 50%
Basic Cellular (0/1) 0%
Renal Physiology (1/3) 33%
Endocrine (1/2) 50%
Abdomen And Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (2/3) 67%
Principles Of Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (0/1) 0%
Central Nervous System (0/3) 0%
Cardiovascular (2/3) 67%
Thorax (2/2) 100%
Head And Neck (0/1) 0%
CNS Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Cranial Nerve Lesions (1/1) 100%
Infections (0/1) 0%
Passmed
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