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  • Question 1 - A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for review. His lab results show hypocalcaemia and increased serum concentration of parathyroid hormone. On examination, there is subcutaneous calcification and a short fifth metacarpal in each hand. What is the treatment of choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation

      Explanation:

      This child has pseudo hypoparathyroidism. It is a heterogeneous group of rare endocrine disorders characterized by normal renal function and resistance to the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH), manifesting with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased serum concentration of PTH.
      Patients with pseudo hypoparathyroidism type 1a present with a characteristic phenotype collectively called Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (AHO). The constellation of findings includes the following:
      Short stature
      Stocky habitus
      Obesity
      Developmental delay
      Round face
      Dental hypoplasia
      Brachymetacarpals
      Brachymetatarsals
      Soft tissue calcification/ossification
      The goals of therapy are to maintain serum total and ionized calcium levels within the reference range to avoid hypercalcaemia and to suppress PTH levels to normal. This is important because elevated PTH levels in patients with PHP can cause increased bone remodelling and lead to hyper-parathyroid bone disease.
      The goals of pharmacotherapy are to correct calcium deficiency, to prevent complications, and to reduce morbidity. Intravenous calcium is the initial treatment for all patients with severe symptomatic hypocalcaemia. Administration of oral calcium and 1alpha-hydroxylated vitamin D metabolites, such as calcitriol, remains the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated in every patient with a diagnosis of pseudo hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      62.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old woman presents for her first cervical smear. What is the most...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman presents for her first cervical smear. What is the most important aetiological factor causing cervical cancer?

      Your Answer: Human papilloma virus 16 & 18

      Explanation:

      It has been determined that HPV infection is the most powerful epidemic factor. This virus is needed, but not sufficient for the development of cervical cancer.
      The WHO’s International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) classified HPV infection as carcinogenic to humans (HPV types 16 and 18), probably carcinogenic (HPV types 31 and 33) and possibly carcinogenic (other HPV types except 6 and 11).
      Tobacco smoking, the use of contraceptives, and the number of births are factors that showed no statistically significant deviations in the studied population compared to other countries in the region, as well as European countries. They have an equal statistical significance in all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a work-up for hypertension. It comes back as 6.5 mmol/l. The test is repeated and reported as 6.7 mmol/l. He says he feels constantly tired but denies any polyuria or polydipsia. How should these results be interpreted?

      Your Answer: Impaired fasting glycaemia

      Explanation:

      A fasting blood glucose level from 110 to 126 mg/dL (5.5 to 6.9 mmol/L) is considered prediabetes. This result is sometimes called impaired fasting glucose.
      Diabetes mellitus (type 2): diagnosis

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made by plasma glucose. If the patient is symptomatic:
      fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l
      random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l (or after 75g oral glucose tolerance test)
      If the patient is asymptomatic the above criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman, with a history of infertility, presented with post-operative bleeding from...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, with a history of infertility, presented with post-operative bleeding from her abdominal wound. Her full blood count (FBC) and blood film showed hyperleukocytosis and the presence of promyelocytes, along with the following: Hb: 9.2g/dL, Plts: 932 x 10^9/L, INR: 1.4 (Coagulation profile). What should be the next step of management?

      Your Answer: Give vincristine

      Correct Answer: Give fresh frozen plasma

      Explanation:

      The patient has acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APML) with associated disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Although
      the platelet count is high, platelet function is ineffective.

      Patients may present, as in this case, with severe bleeding, and the most appropriate emergency treatment would be administration of fresh frozen plasma (FFP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      48.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic....

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic. Which among the following is true regarding memantine, a drug which has been approved for the management of dementia in the UK?

      Your Answer: It is an NMDA-receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA (N-Methyl-D-Aspartate)-receptor subtype of glutamate receptor. It is used to slow the neurotoxicity thought to be involved in Alzheimer’s disease and other neurodegenerative diseases.

      Drug interactions:
      When given concomitantly with other NMDA-receptor antagonists (e.g., ketamine, amantadine) increase the risk of psychosis.
      Dopamine agonists, L-dopa, and anticholinergics enhance effects of memantine.
      Antispasmodics (e.g., baclofen)Ā  enhance effects, as memantine has some antispasmodic effects.
      Drugs excreted by cationic transporters in the kidney (e.g. quinine, cimetidine, ranitidine) reduce excretion.

      Common adverse effects include dizziness, headache, confusion, diarrhoea, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old lady, known with a history of Type 1 diabetes presents to...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old lady, known with a history of Type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with increasing tiredness, mild upper abdominal discomfort and itching. The GP has arranged some investigations prior to her clinic visit. Investigations; Hb 13.2 g/dL, WCC 5.0 x109/L, PLT 240 x109/L, Na+ 140 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 90 μmol/L, HbA1c 8.3%, Anti-Smooth muscle antibody: positive, Immunoglobulins increased. Which of the following would be the next appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Liver function testing

      Explanation:

      The key to this question is anti-smooth muscle antibodies. This is a finding of autoimmune hepatitis, which can be seen in type I diabetics. This also fits with her clinical picture. If you know these two facts, you should get every question correct regarding autoimmune hepatitis. Liver function testing is the best answer, then and should be elevated to indicate inflammation of the liver. Hepatic US, CK, thyroid function testing, short synacthen test are not helpful in the diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 61-year-old gentleman presents with heart failure and pedal oedema. The oedema occurs...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old gentleman presents with heart failure and pedal oedema. The oedema occurs due to:

      Your Answer: Increased proximal tubular sodium reabsorption

      Correct Answer: Increased release of renin

      Explanation:

      The oedema is an effect of the a decreased cardiac output that increases renin release which leads to vasoconstriction and sodium and water retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following gives the annual incidence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT)...

    Correct

    • Which of the following gives the annual incidence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the general population?

      Your Answer: about 2 per 1000

      Explanation:

      Annual incidence of DVT in the general population is about 1 per 1000 adults. So the most suitable answer is about 2 per 1000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following regarding malignant mesothelioma is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following regarding malignant mesothelioma is correct?

      Your Answer: is treated with radiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Malignant mesothelioma is a type of cancer that occurs in the thin layer of tissue that covers the majority of the internal organs (mesothelium).
      Malignant Mesothelioma (MM) is a rare but rapidly fatal and aggressive tumour of the pleura and peritoneum. Aetiology of all forms of mesothelioma is strongly associated with industrial pollutants, of which asbestos is the principal carcinogen.

      Thoracoscopically guided biopsy should be performed if mesothelioma is suggested; the results are diagnostic in 98% of cases. No specific treatment has been found to be of benefit, except radiotherapy, which reduces seeding and invasion through percutaneous biopsy sites.

      Median survival for patients with malignant mesothelioma is 11 months. It is almost always fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of Chlamydia trachomatis infection during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Tetracycline is not recommended in pregnancy because of the risk to fetal development (bones, teeth!). Metronidazole in pregnancy: currently not thought to be an increased risk in pregnancy; however this is not effective against chlamydia. Amoxicillin is shown to be an adequate treatment for chlamydia, so this is the correct answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 21 year-old software developer undergoes a planned lumbar puncture (LP) as part...

    Correct

    • A 21 year-old software developer undergoes a planned lumbar puncture (LP) as part of a neurological investigation for possible multiple sclerosis. During the consent process, she expresses concern about a post-LP headache. What is the mechanism of post-LP headaches?

      Your Answer: Leaking cerebrospinal fluid from the dura

      Explanation:

      Leaking of cerebrospinal fluid from the dura is the most likely explanation for post-lumbar puncture headaches. It is thought that ongoing leak of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) through the puncture site causes ongoing CSF loss, leading to low pressure. A post-LP headache is typically frontal or occipital and occurs within three days. It is normally associated with worsening on standing and improvement when lying down. Treatment in severe cases includes an epidural blood patch, but most resolve on their own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 22-year-old man presents with red and flaky patches at the corners of...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old man presents with red and flaky patches at the corners of his mouth. Upon examination, angular cheilitis is diagnosed. Anamnesis reveals a history of excessive drinking and malnutrition. What is the most probable deficiency responsible for his condition?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B2 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Riboflavin, vitamin B2, is a water-soluble and heat-stable vitamin that the body uses to metabolize fats, protein, and carbohydrates into glucose for energy. Riboflavin deficiency can cause fatigue, swollen throat, blurred vision, and depression. It can affect the skin by causing skin cracks, itching, and dermatitis around the mouth. Hyperaemia and oedema around throat, liver degeneration, and hair loss can also occur along with reproductive issues. Usually, people with riboflavin deficiency also have deficiencies of other nutrients. In most cases, riboflavin deficiency can be reversed unless it has caused anatomical changes such as cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia after presenting with lethargy...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia after presenting with lethargy and easy bruising. Which of the following is a marker of a bad prognosis in this disease?

      Your Answer: Philadelphia chromosome positive

      Explanation:

      Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22), is a marker of poor prognosis in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).

      ALL is the malignancy of lymphoid progenitor cells affecting B or T cell lineage. This results in the arrest of lymphoid cell maturation and proliferation of immature blast cells (lymphoblasts), leading to bone marrow and tissue infiltration.

      ALL is the most common type of childhood cancers. Its peak incidence is between two to three years of age.

      Acute B lymphoblastic leukaemia (B-ALL) is the most common type of ALL, involving overproduction of B-cell lymphoblasts. It is manifested by low initial WCC and is associated with a good prognosis.

      Poor prognostic factors for ALL include:
      1. Pre-B cell or T-cell ALL (T-ALL)
      2. Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22)
      3. Age <2 years or >10 years
      4. Male sex
      5. CNS involvement
      6. High initial WBC (e.g. >100 x 10^9/L)
      7. non-Caucasian

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment (leaving out the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment (leaving out the current NICE guidelines) for a 29 year old man with erythrodermic psoriasis and arthritis mutilans involving several digits of both hands?

      Your Answer: Etanercept

      Explanation:

      TNF-alpha inhibitors are known to ameliorate the symptoms and disease activity of Arthritis mutilans (a rare and severe form of psoriatic arthritis), by disabling the cytokines that are involved in inflammation and joint destruction. From the mentioned choices, this would be the most effective option. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, followed by sulfasalazine used in mild to moderate forms of psoriatic arthritis but has not shown much efficacy in arthritis mutilans. Phototherapy, narrowband UVB light therapy can be very effective in clearing skin lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      257.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 19-year-old female is admitted with a headache, photophobia, fever and confusion. She...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female is admitted with a headache, photophobia, fever and confusion. She is managed with antibiotics. What is the mechanism of action of the most commonly used first line antibiotic class?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      In adults, the most common symptom of meningitis is a severe headache, occurring in almost 90% of cases of bacterial meningitis, followed by nuchal rigidity (the inability to flex the neck forward passively due to increased neck muscle tone and stiffness). Other signs commonly associated with meningitis include photophobia (intolerance to bright light) and phonophobia (intolerance to loud noises).
      In the United Kingdom empirical treatment consists of a third-generation cefalosporin such as cefotaxime or ceftriaxone. In the USA, where resistance to cefalosporins is increasingly found in streptococci, addition of vancomycin to the initial treatment is recommended. Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems and monobactams all act via inhibition of cell wall synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is feeling more fatigued than...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is feeling more fatigued than usual. She has not attended the previous three annual check-ups and her blood glucose control has been poor. She has not been compliant with his medications. Blood pressure is 170/90 mmHg. Urinalysis shows microalbuminuria. A blood test reveals her glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 26mL/min. If a renal biopsy was to be performed in this patient, what would be the expected findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nodular glomerulosclerosis and hyaline arteriosclerosis

      Explanation:

      This patient has a poorly controlled T2DM with an underlying diabetic nephropathy. The histological findings are Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions (nodular glomerulosclerosis) and hyaline arteriosclerosis. This is due to nonenzymatic glycosylation.

      Diabetic nephropathy is the chronic loss of kidney function occurring in those with diabetes mellitus. Protein loss in the urine due to damage to the glomeruli may become massive, and cause a low serum albumin with resulting generalized body swelling (edema) and result in the nephrotic syndrome. Likewise, the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) may progressively fall from a normal of over 90 ml/min/1.73m2 to less than 15, at which point the patient is said to have end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). It usually is slowly progressive over years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old woman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes presents with vomiting and diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes presents with vomiting and diarrhoea after eating a meal of chicken and chips. She said her stool had small amounts of blood in. Campylobacter Jejuni was found on her stool culture exam. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV fluids

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter is the most likely cause of diarrheal illness often due to undercooked meat being ingested. It is also a major cause of traveller’s diarrhoea. Sufficient fluid replacement and anti-emetics are indicated first followed by the antibiotic, Erythromycin although antibiotic treatment in adults is still in question. Ciprofloxacin and Tetracycline may also be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
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  • Question 18 - A 33-year-old artist who recently arrived in the UK from New York presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old artist who recently arrived in the UK from New York presents in ED. He has a past history of insulin-dependant diabetes mellitus. He describes a few days of fever, headache and myalgia. Admission was prompted by worsening headache and back pain. While waiting in the medical receiving unit, he becomes progressively drowsier. Examination revealed flaccid paralysis and depressed tendon reflexes. He was reviewed by the intensive care team and arrangements were made for ventilation. A computerised tomography (CT) brain is performed that is normal. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals: Protein 0.9 g/l (<0.45 g/l) Glucose 4 mmol/L, White cell count (WCC) 28/mm3 (mostly lymphocytes) Blood testing reveals: Haemoglobin (Hb) 14 g/dl (13–18) Platelets 620 x 109/l (150–400 x 109) WCC 12 x 109/l (4–11 x 109) Sodium 135 mmol/l (137–144) Potassium 4.6 mmol/l (3.5–4.9) Urea 8 mmol/l (2.5–7.5) Creatinine 120 mmol/l (60–110) Glucose 6 mmol/L, Which of the following is the most likely infective process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: West Nile disease

      Explanation:

      West Nile virus (WNV) is a single-stranded RNA flavivirus transmitted via the culex mosquito. This previously ā€˜tropical’ disease has became topical in recent years following a large scale outbreak in the New York area. Incidence of neurological involvement is around 1%, although some suggest that the incidence of meningoencephalitis in America is higher than in other parts of the world. Risk factors for neurological involvement include increasing age, and immunosuppression. The usual picture is of sudden onset fever and myalgia with nausea and vomiting and a non-specific rash. Transient meningitis is occasionally seen. Frank meningoencephalitis is seen in two-thirds of cases with neurological involvement; 15% progress to coma. A flaccid paralysis similar to acute Guillain–BarrĆ© is increasingly recognised.
      Diagnosis is initially clinical with subsequent serological confirmation. Treatment is supportive; results from trials of antivirals have yielded disappointing results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old complains of fatigue, headache and blurred vision in the left eye....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old complains of fatigue, headache and blurred vision in the left eye. Moreover, she is unable to comb her hair. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal arteritis

      Explanation:

      The patient is in a suitable age for developing temporal arteritis and the fact that she’s unable to comb her hair indicates scalp tenderness or proximal muscle weakness. A high ESR together with increased CRP supports the diagnosis. Temporal artery biopsy is also useful to establish the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
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  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old woman presents to the oncology clinic with a general feeling of...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents to the oncology clinic with a general feeling of being unwell and temperature of 38.1°C. She is a known case of neuroendocrine cancer of the cervix, treated with carboplatin and etoposide. Her last treatment was eight days ago. Blood cultures are taken and she is started on neutropenic sepsis protocol. What will gram-staining of the blood cultures most likely show?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gram-positive cocci

      Explanation:

      Gram-staining of the blood cultures of this patient will show gram-positive cocci. Gram-negative bacilli used to be the most common pathogen isolated in neutropenic sepsis, but currently, the most common pathogens are gram-positive organisms. Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most frequent causative agent, and following this are other staphylococci and streptococci species.

      Neutropenic sepsis is a relatively common complication of cancer therapy—usually chemotherapy. It most commonly occurs 7-14 days after the treatment and is usually defined as a neutrophil count of <0.5 x 10^9/L in a patient undergoing anticancer treatment and who has either a temperature higher than 38°C or has other features consistent with clinically significant sepsis. Management approach includes starting empirical antibiotic therapy (piperacillin with tazobactam—Tazocin) immediately. Following this initial treatment, the patient is usually assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to see if outpatient treatment may be possible. However, if the patient remains febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem is often prescribed with or without vancomycin. If patient is still not responding after 4-6 days, then an antifungal, such as amphotericin B, is started after carrying out investigations (e.g. HRCT and Aspergillus PCR) to determine the likelihood of systemic fungal infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 21 - A 23-year-old student commences chemotherapy for B-type acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. She suffers from...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old student commences chemotherapy for B-type acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. She suffers from vomiting, but 36 hours later her condition worsens and her bloods reveal a corrected calcium of 2.0 mmol/l and serum potassium of 6.7 mmol/l. Which of the following options is the best way to avoid this problem from occurring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydration and allopurinol pre-chemotherapy

      Explanation:

      This case is most likely tumour lysis syndrome, often occurring immediately after starting chemotherapy because the tumour cells are killed and their contents are released into the bloodstream. After treating lymphomas or leukaemia, there is a sudden hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperkalaemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 22 - A 38-year-old woman returns from a summer holiday with a dry cough. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman returns from a summer holiday with a dry cough. Her CXR shows bilateral consolidated areas. Which antibiotic would you suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin is a well-established broad-spectrum fluoroquinolone antibiotic that penetrates well into the lung tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
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  • Question 23 - A 44-year-old physiotherapist with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a painful,...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old physiotherapist with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a painful, red left eye. Visual acuity is normal. Fundoscopy is also unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scleritis

      Explanation:

      Scleritis, or inflammation of the sclera, is usually painful whereas episcleritis is not painful.

      Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is usually bilateral and associated more with dryness, burning and itching.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
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  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old male has a 6-year history of hypertension. For two days, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male has a 6-year history of hypertension. For two days, he has been having extreme difficulty in seeing things clearly and now complains of cloudy vision. On fundoscopy, flame-shaped haemorrhages are found in the patient's right eye. Margins of the optic disc were also found to be blurred. Which of the following conditions is this patient most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CRV thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Fundoscopy reveals flame-shaped haemorrhages which are specific to central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO). In CRA thrombosis, fundoscopy would show a cherry-red spot. A patient with retinal detachment would give a characteristic history of seeing flashes of light and floaters. Background retinopathy is associated with diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
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  • Question 25 - A 32 year old male with a history of smoking half a pack...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old male with a history of smoking half a pack of cigarettes per day complains of worsening breathlessness on exertion. He was working as a salesman until a few months ago. His father passed away due to severe respiratory disease at a relatively young age. Routine blood examination reveals mild jaundice with bilirubin level of 90 µmol/l. AST and ALT are also raised. Chest X-ray reveals basal emphysema. Which of the following explanation is most likely the cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: α-1-Antitrypsin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is an inherited disorder that may cause lung and liver disease. The signs and symptoms of the condition and the age at which they appear vary among individuals. This would be the most likely option as it is the only disease that can affect both liver and lung functions.
      People with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency usually develop the first signs and symptoms of lung disease between ages 20 and 50. The earliest symptoms are shortness of breath following mild activity, reduced ability to exercise, and wheezing. Other signs and symptoms can include unintentional weight loss, recurring respiratory infections, fatigue, and rapid heartbeat upon standing. Affected individuals often develop emphysema. Characteristic features of emphysema include difficulty breathing, a hacking cough, and a barrel-shaped chest. Smoking or exposure to tobacco smoke accelerates the appearance of emphysema symptoms and damage to the lungs.
      About 10 percent of infants with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency develop liver disease, which often causes yellowing of the skin and sclera (jaundice). Approximately 15 percent of adults with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency develop liver damage (cirrhosis) due to the formation of scar tissue in the liver. Signs of cirrhosis include a swollen abdomen, swollen feet or legs, and jaundice. Individuals with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency are also at risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
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  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old lady has been admitted to the stroke ward following a sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old lady has been admitted to the stroke ward following a sudden onset of dizziness and visual disturbances, which started yesterday morning. She initially thought she was just dehydrated, however, later realised she was unable to read her own shopping list. On the ward rounds, the consultant examines her and finds she is indeed unable to read. She is, however, able to write. When she writes a sentence it makes perfect sense, although she is again unable to read it out. She has no problems with her speech and is able to converse normally. She has no motor focal neurological deficit. The consultant asks you where the lesion is likely to be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corpus callosum

      Explanation:

      The patient presents with sudden onset of alexia (the inability to read) WITHOUT agraphia (inability to write) which is consistent with lesions of the corpus callosum where there is a disconnect syndrome and the patient’s language and visual centres are actually in tact, but are unable to communicate between hemispheres. In this case, the damage due to the stroke is most likely in the left visual cortex, leaving visual processing to the intact right hemisphere which unfortunately cannot communicate the information to the language centres (Broca and Wernicke’s) in the left hemisphere, hence the alexia. Alternatively, the speech and writing are unaffected as the language centres can still communicate with the primary motor cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A 43 year old female presented with a 5 day history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old female presented with a 5 day history of a productive cough with rusty coloured sputum. Chest X-ray showed lobar consolidation on her left side. The most likely causative organism would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Streptococcus pneumonia is the chief causative organism for lobar pneumonia in this age group patients. Typically patients present with rusty coloured sputum and a cough. Pneumocystis jiroveci is responsible for causing pneumocystis pneumonia among immunocompromised patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results are obtained: TSH < 0.05 mu/l, Free T4 29 pmol/L. Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperthyroidism and its most common cause is Grave’s Disease.
      Grave’s Disease is an autoimmune disease due to circulating autoantibodies known as TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies or Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSIs) that bind to and activate thyrotropin receptors, causing the thyroid gland to grow and the thyroid follicles to increase the synthesis of thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature epiphyseal closure

      Explanation:

      Exposure to excessive androgens is usually accompanied by premature epiphyseal maturation and closure, resulting in a final adult height that is typically significantly below that expected from parental heights.

      congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is associated with precocious puberty caused by long term exposure to androgens, which activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Similarly, CAH is associated with hyperpigmentation and hyperreninemia due to sodium loss and hypovolaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - A woman is prescribed docetaxel as part of her chemotherapy for breast cancer....

    Incorrect

    • A woman is prescribed docetaxel as part of her chemotherapy for breast cancer. What is the mechanism of action of docetaxel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevents microtubule disassembly

      Explanation:

      The principal mechanism of action of taxanes (e.g. docetaxel) is the prevention of microtubule disassembly.

      Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:

      1. Doxorubicin: stabilizes DNA topoisomerase II complex and inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis.

      2. Vincristine, vinblastine: inhibits formation of microtubules.

      3. Cisplatin: causes cross-linking in DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 31 - A 28 year old woman presents with painful genital ulceration. She reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old woman presents with painful genital ulceration. She reports that these attacks have been recurrent over the past 4 years. She has been treated previously with oral acyclovir but this has had little effect on the duration of her symptoms. Over the past year, she has noticed almost weekly attacks of mouth ulcers that heal slowly. Past medical history is significant for treatment of thrombophlebitis two years ago. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behcet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      BehƧet disease is a rare vasculitic disorder that is characterized by a triple-symptom complex of recurrent oral aphthous ulcers, genital ulcers, and uveitis. The systemic manifestations can be variable. Ocular disease has the greatest morbidity, followed by vascular disease generally from active vasculitis. Cutaneous manifestations can occur in up 75% of patients with Behcet disease and can range from acneiform lesions, to nodules and erythema nodosum. GI manifestations can be severe. Differentiating BehƧet disease from active inflammatory bowel disease can be clinically difficult. Herpes would have ideally responded to acyclovir. Sarcoidosis does not have genital and oral ulcerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 32 - A previously well 33 yr. old female is admitted with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A previously well 33 yr. old female is admitted with a history of recurrent episodes of palpitations. She has not experience chest pain but rather a feeling of a rapidly beating heart. She frequently drinks coffee and alcohol. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg and pulse rate 200 bpm which is regular. There is no sign of heart failure. Her ECG reveals a narrow complex tachycardia. She is given 3mg of IV adenosine but there is no response. Which of the following is the most appropriate management if she doesn't respond to 6mg of IV adenosine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12mg IV adenosine

      Explanation:

      If 3mg of adenosine has no effect, then adenosine 6 mg can be given by rapid IV push. If patient does not convert to a normal rhythm, give another dose of adenosine 12 mg via rapid IV push. This can be repeated if there is no response. If no response, diltiazem or beta-blockers can be given as alternatives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 33 - A 30-year-old male with a history of premature cardiovascular disease in the family...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male with a history of premature cardiovascular disease in the family has come for review of his lab investigations. His fasting cholesterol is 8.4 mmol/l with high-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 1.6 mmol/l. You elect to commence him on atorvastatin 20 mg PO daily. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the statins?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They inhibit HMG CoA reductase

      Explanation:

      Statins are a selective, competitive inhibitor of hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate in the cholesterol synthesis pathway.
      Statins are usually well tolerated with myopathy, rhabdomyolysis, hepatotoxicity, and diabetes mellitus being the most common adverse reactions.
      This is the rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis, that leads to increased hepatic low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors and reduced hepatic VLDL synthesis coupled with increased very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) clearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 34 - A study is developed to compare two chemotherapy schemas for individuals with small...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to compare two chemotherapy schemas for individuals with small cell lung cancer. Which of the following would you choose to compare survival time with in this particular study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hazard ratio

      Explanation:

      The hazard ratio describes the relative risk of the complication based on comparison of event rates.

      Hazard ratios have also been used to describe the outcome of therapeutic trials where the question is to what extent treatment can shorten the duration of the illness. However, the hazard ratio, a type of relative risk, does not always accurately portray the degree of abbreviation of the illness that occurred. In these circumstances, time-based parameters available from the time-to-event curve, such as the ratio of the median times of the placebo and drug groups, should be used to describe the magnitude of the benefit to the patient. The difference between hazard-based and time-based measures is analogous to the odds of winning a race and the margin of victory. The hazard ratio is the odds of a patient’s healing faster under treatment but does not convey any information about how much faster this event may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 35 - Which of the following statements describe the mechanism of fibrates most accurately? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements describe the mechanism of fibrates most accurately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased lipoprotein lipase activity via PPAR-alpha

      Explanation:

      The main mechanism of fibrate drugs is activation of gene transcription factors known as PPARs, particularly PPAR-α, which regulate the expression of genes that control lipoprotein metabolism. There are several consequences of PPAR-α activation, which reduce circulating LDL cholesterol and triglycerides and increase HDL cholesterol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 36 - An 18-year-old woman has been diagnosed with human papillomavirus infection. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old woman has been diagnosed with human papillomavirus infection. What is the most significant long-term risk following this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      Human-papilloma virus (HPV) can lead to cervical cancer. There are many different types, but the types associated with cervical cancer most commonly are 16, 18, 31, 33, and 35. The vaccination against HPV protects against the most common types of HPV that are seen in cervical cancer and is recommended for children/young teens. Cervical cancer has a clear association with HPV, making this the best answer over all of the other answer choices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 37 - A 28 year old female presents to the rheumatology clinic for review. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old female presents to the rheumatology clinic for review. She has a history of adult onset Still's disease and complains of joint pains and persistent skin rash despite undergoing treatment with methotrexate and etanercept. On examination, an erythematous macular rash and active synovitis is noted. CRP is high (95 mg/dl). Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anakinra

      Explanation:

      Adult onset Still’s disease (AOSD) is an uncommon systemic inflammatory disease on the clinical spectrum of autoinflammatory disorders. Its presentation and clinical course may result in several well-differentiated phenotypes: from a systemic and highly symptomatic pattern to a chronic articular pattern. Overproduction of numerous pro-inflammatory cytokines is observed in AOSD. Anakinra, a human interleukin (IL)-1R antagonist, has recently been approved in the treatment of AOSD. Denosumab is a RANK ligand inhibitor used in the treatment of osteoporosis. Mepolizumab is used in the treatment of severe asthma with elevated eosinophils. There is some evidence to support the use of tocilizumab, an anti-IL6 monoclonal antibody in adult onset Still’s, but there is stronger data favouring the use of tocilizumab in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Rituximab is usually reserved for patients who are unresponsive to anakinra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 38 - What is correct statement regarding pulsus alternans? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is correct statement regarding pulsus alternans?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound

      Explanation:

      Pulsus alternans is the alternation of one strong and one weak beat without a change in the cycle length. It occurs most commonly in heart failure due to increased resistance to LV ejection, as occurs in hypertension, aortic stenosis, coronary atherosclerosis, and dilated cardiomyopathy. Pulsus alternans is usually associated with an S3 gallop, which is associated with a poor prognosis. It usually disappears with treatment of the heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 39 - A 40 year old farmer who is a non-smoker is experiencing increasing shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old farmer who is a non-smoker is experiencing increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He has been having chest tightness and a non-productive cough which becomes worse when he is at the dairy farm. He has no respiratory history of note. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis is the suspected diagnosis. Which factor would be responsible for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contaminated hay

      Explanation:

      Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) refers to a group of lung diseases that can develop after exposure to certain substances. The name describes the origin and the nature of these diseases:

      ‘extrinsic’ – caused by something originating outside the body
      ‘allergic’ – an abnormally increased (hypersensitive) body reaction to a common substance
      ‘alveolitis’ – inflammation in the small air sacs of the lungs (alveoli)

      Symptoms can include: fever, cough, worsening breathlessness and weight loss. The diagnosis of the disease is based on a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and a range of clinical tests which usually includes: X-rays or CT scans, lung function and blood tests.

      EAA is not a ‘new’ occupational respiratory disease and occupational causes include bacteria, fungi, animal proteins, plants and chemicals.

      Examples of EAA include:

      Farmer’s lung
      This is probably the most common occupational form of EAA and is the outcome of an allergic response to a group of microbes, which form mould on vegetable matter in storage. During the handling of mouldy straw, hay or grain, particularly in a confined space such as a poorly ventilated building, inhalation of spores and other antigenic material is very likely.

      There also appears to be a clear relationship between water content of crops, heating (through mould production) and microbial growth, and this would apply to various crops and vegetable matter, with the spores produced likely to cause EAA.

      Farmer’s lung can be prevented by drying crops adequately before storage and by ensuring good ventilation during storage. Respiratory protection should also be worn by farm workers when handling stored crops, particularly if they have been stored damp or are likely to be mouldy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 40 - A 62-year-old female with a history of COPD and hypertension presents with pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old female with a history of COPD and hypertension presents with pain on swallowing. Current medication includes a salbutamol and becotide inhaler, bendrofluazide and amlodipine. What is the most likely cause of the presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis

      Explanation:

      The history gives you a woman who is on inhaled steroid therapy. It is always a good idea for patients to rinse their mouths well after using inhaled steroids. Odynophagia (pain on swallowing) is a symptom of oesophageal candidiasis, which is the most likely answer given the steroids. Typically, you might see this in someone who is immunocompromised (classically, in HIV+ patients).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 41 - A 55-year-old man develops central abdominal pain a few hours after having an...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man develops central abdominal pain a few hours after having an Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) performed. Investigations reveal the following: Amylase: 545 u/dL, Erect chest x-ray: Normal heart and lungs and no free air noted. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous fluids + analgesia

      Explanation:

      A very common complication after ERCP is post-ERCP pancreatitis, which based on the clinical scenario , this man has. The treatment for this is pain control, lots of intravenous fluids, and traditionally bowel rest, although more recent evidence suggests early feeding is better.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 42 - A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an antihistamine tablet with grapefruit juice. Which of the following liver enzyme systems is affected by grapefruit juice causing the given side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytochrome p450 3A4

      Explanation:

      The cytochrome p450 3A4 enzyme system in the liver is affected by grapefruit juice.

      Patients taking antihistamines should be advised to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. This is because constituents of grapefruit juice such as naringin and bergamottin inhibit CYP3A4 in the liver, particularly at high doses, leading to decreased drug elimination via hepatic metabolism and can increase potential drug toxicities.

      Inhibition of this enzyme system leads to reduced metabolism of antihistamines leading to an increased incidence of side effects like excessive drowsiness and nausea as in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 43 - A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is 6 feet 2 inches tall, with delayed puberty and infertility. On examination, he has small testes with scanty pubic hair. Blood results are shown below: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 40 U/l (1–7), Testosterone 4 nmol/l(9–35). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome (KS), the most common human sex chromosome disorder 47,XXY. It is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia) and gynecomastia in late puberty. If Klinefelter syndrome is not diagnosed prenatally, a patient with 47,XXY karyotype may demonstrate various subtle, age-related clinical signs that would prompt diagnostic testing. These include the following:
      Infants: Hypospadias, small phallus, cryptorchidism.
      Toddlers: Developmental delay (especially expressive language skills), hypotonia.
      Older boys and adolescent males: Tall stature; delayed or incomplete pubertal development with eunuchoid body habitus; gynecomastia; small, firm testes; sparse body hair.

      From childhood with progression to early puberty, the pituitary-gonadal function observed is within normal limits for 47,XXY males.
      At mid puberty and later, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) concentrations rise to hyper-gonadotropic levels, inhibin B levels fall until they are undetectable, and testosterone levels are at low or low-normal levels after an initial increase.

      Fragile X syndrome, also termed Martin-Bell syndrome or marker X syndrome, is the most common cause of inherited mental retardation, intellectual disability, and autism.
      However, the patient here does not have any mental disabilities as he already works as a clerk, and that too would make Down’s Syndrome less likely.

      Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) and idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (IHH) are rare genetic conditions that encompass the spectrum of isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. Hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome, in contrast to patients with idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, whose sense of smell is normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 44 - A 65-year-old man having small cell lung cancer is admitted onto the ward...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man having small cell lung cancer is admitted onto the ward for chemotherapy. He has a history of severe nausea and vomiting secondary to chemotherapy, in the past. The consultant asks you to prescribe a neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor blocker. Which agent, out of the following, will you choose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aprepitant

      Explanation:

      Aprepitant is an anti-emetic which blocks the neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor and acts as a substance P antagonist. It is licensed for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) and for prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting.

      Nausea and vomiting are the common side effects of chemotherapy. Risk factors for the development of these symptoms include age<50 years, anxiety, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 45 - A 38-year-old female patient is brought into the emergency department with a 5...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female patient is brought into the emergency department with a 5 day history of altered personality, and visual and auditory hallucinations. On palpation of the abdomen, a mass is felt in the left iliac fossa. Ultrasound of the abdomen suggests a left ovarian tumour. Her basic observations are as follows: Oxygen saturation 99% on air Heart rate 98 beats/minute Respiratory rate 28 breaths/minute Temperature 37.9 °C What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis

      Explanation:

      The case presents with an underlying ovarian tumour, associated with psychiatric symptoms; thus, an organic illness must first be ruled out before considering the other conditions listed which often present with psychiatric features without an underlying organic disease. Among the listed conditions Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis is the only condition that presents with psychiatric features including agitation, hallucinations, delusions and disordered thinking that is associated with tumours 50% of the time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 46 - A 55-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of extreme fatigue. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of extreme fatigue. He has a history of Graves disease. On examination, his blood pressure is 103/58 mmHg, pulse 64/min and temperature 36.3ĀŗC. The following results are obtained: Na+ 135 mmol/L, K+ 5.4 mmol/L, Urea 5.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 42 umol/L, TSH 3.5 mu/l, Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/L. You arrange for a random cortisol test, however, whilst awaiting the result he becomes unresponsive. In addition to giving intravenous steroids and fluid, what test is urgent to check first given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucose

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Addison’s disease as he has a history of autoimmune disease, hyperkalaemia and hypotension.
      It is important to keep an Addisonian crisis on the differential in cases of shock, especially since adrenal crisis can be the patient’s first presentation of adrenal insufficiency.
      Patients with Addison’s disease are prone to developing hypoglycaemia due to loss of the glucogenic effect of glucocorticoids. Given the sudden deterioration, a glucose level must be checked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 47 - A 27 year old female from Zimbabwe is seen in December with depression....

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old female from Zimbabwe is seen in December with depression. She has no past medical history of interest but is known to smoke Cannabis. She had similar episodes in the past winter. Which condition does this signify?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seasonal affective disorder

      Explanation:

      Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that’s related to changes in seasons. SAD begins and ends at about the same time every year. For most people with SAD, the symptoms start in the fall and continue into the winter months, sapping the person’s energy and making him feel moody. Less often, SAD causes depression in the spring or early summer.

      Treatment for SAD may include light therapy (phototherapy), medications and psychotherapy.

      Signs and symptoms of SAD may include:
      Feeling depressed most of the day, nearly every day
      Losing interest in activities you once enjoyed
      Having low energy
      Having problems with sleeping
      Experiencing changes in your appetite or weight
      Feeling sluggish or agitated
      Having difficulty concentrating
      Feeling hopeless, worthless or guilty
      Having frequent thoughts of death or suicide.

      Seasonal affective disorder is diagnosed more often in women than in men. And SAD occurs more frequently in younger adults than in older adults.

      Factors that may increase your risk of seasonal affective disorder include:
      Family history. People with SAD may be more likely to have blood relatives with SAD or another form of depression.
      Having major depression or bipolar disorder. Symptoms of depression may worsen seasonally if you have one of these conditions.
      Living far from the equator. SAD appears to be more common among people who live far north or south of the equator. This may be due to decreased sunlight during the winter and longer days during the summer months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 48 - Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is rarely seen

      Explanation:

      The clinical manifestations of Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
      Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPO) is a rare paraneoplastic syndrome that is frequently associated with lung cancer; however, the incidence of clinically apparent HPO is not well known.
      SIADH is present in 15% of cases and most commonly seen.
      Although hypercalcaemia is frequently associated with malignancy, it is very rare in small cell lung cancer despite the high incidence of lytic bone metastases.
      Ectopic Cushing’s syndrome in SCLC does not usually exhibit the classic signs of Cushing’s syndrome and Cushing’s syndrome could also appear during effective chemotherapy.
      Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice in SCLC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 49 - A study is done on 1000 patients to assess the specificity of a...

    Incorrect

    • A study is done on 1000 patients to assess the specificity of a new rapid finger-prick blood test developed to help diagnose deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The new test was positive on 200 patients with DVT and on 100 patients without DVT. It was also negative on 20 patients with DVT and 680 without DVT. What is the specificity of the new test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 680/780

      Explanation:

      Specificity (negative in health)
      The ability of a test to correctly classify an individual as disease- free is called the test′s specificity. [Table 2]

      Specificity = d / b+d

      = d (true negative) / b+d (true negative + false positive)

      = Probability of being test negative when disease absent.

      Example: One hundred persons with normal angles (diagnosed by ′gold standard′: gonioscopy) are examined by peripheral angle chamber depth examination. Eighty-five persons had normal peripheral angle chamber depth [Table 3]. The specificity of the peripheral angle chamber depth examination to PACG is therefore –

      85 / 100 = 85%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 50 - A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces following a sore throat. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schƶnlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schƶnlein purpura (HSP) rashes are commonly found on the legs, feet, and buttocks while Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) rashes manifest predominantly on the lower legs. HSP happens following a sore throat while ITP usually happens following an URTI or Flu. HSP is an inflammation of a blood vessel (vasculitis) while ITP is immune mediated insufficiency of platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 51 - A 56-year-old man, on the acute oncology ward, is a known case of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man, on the acute oncology ward, is a known case of colorectal cancer. He was diagnosed one month ago after participating in a screening test—faecal occult blood test. Following the positive test result, colonoscopy was performed demonstrating a malignant lesion in the descending colon. CT staging showed lymph node involvement but no distant metastases. The patient has undergone a left hemicolectomy and is due to start adjuvant chemotherapy with a combination of fluorouracil (5-FU) and oxaliplatin. During his work-up, his consultant had explained that he would need to be monitored for disease recurrence. Which of the following is important in monitoring the disease activity in colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)

      Explanation:

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a known tumour marker for colorectal cancer. It is not used diagnostically, but in patients with a known diagnosis of colorectal cancer associated with raised CEA levels, it can be used to monitor disease activity and help with the early identification of disease recurrence.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 52 - A 23 year old female presents to the hospital with worsening shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old female presents to the hospital with worsening shortness of breath, increased volume of purulent sputum and left-sided chest pain. She has a history of cystic fibrosis. Medical notes state that she is under consideration for the transplant list and for some years has been colonised with pseudomonas. On examination she has a temperature of 38.4°C and FEV1 falling below 75% of the previous value that was recorded. She looks unwell and is tachycardic and hypotensive with a respiratory rate of 21/min. Burkholderia cepaciaĀ is confirmed as the pathogen in this case. What would be the most appropriate antibiotic regime?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ceftazidime and aminoglycoside

      Explanation:

      Burkholderia cepacia is an aerobic gram-negative bacillus found in various aquatic environments. B cepacia is an organism of low virulence and is a frequent colonizer of fluids used in the hospital (e.g., irrigation solutions, intravenous fluids).
      B cepacia, as a non-aeruginosa pseudomonad, is usually resistant to aminoglycosides, antipseudomonal penicillin, and antipseudomonal third-generation cephalosporins and polymyxin B.
      B cepacia is often susceptible to trimethoprim plus sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), cefepime, meropenem, minocycline, and tigecycline and has varying susceptibility to fluoroquinolones.
      Based on the options available, ceftazidime and aminoglycoside would be the best option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 53 - A baby is born with complications including microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly and elevated total bilirubin....

    Incorrect

    • A baby is born with complications including microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly and elevated total bilirubin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

      Explanation:

      CMV infection is usually asymptomatic in adults. However, if the mother is infected for the first time during pregnancy then there is high chances of this infection passing on to the foetus. CMV infection can cause blindness, deafness, learning difficulties, restricted growth etc. Hepatitis B, herpes simplex, syphilis and HIV do not present with these classical signs of CMV infection in new-borns. It is estimated that 10 stillbirths occur in England and Wales every year due to CMV infection. The foetus is most at risk in early pregnancy. There is no effective prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 54 - A 45-year-old man presents with haematemesis. His consumption of alcohol has been estimated...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with haematemesis. His consumption of alcohol has been estimated to be 120 units per week. Following alcohol withdrawal, when is the peak incidence of seizures expected in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 36 hours

      Explanation:

      The peak incidence of seizures is expected 36 hours following the onset of alcohol withdrawal.

      Pathophysiology:
      Chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA mediated inhibition in the CNS (similar to benzodiazepines) and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. Alcohol withdrawal is thought to lead to the opposite (decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission).

      Clinical course in alcohol withdrawal:
      Symptoms begin 6-12 hours following the onset of alcohol withdrawal
      Seizures occur 36 hours following the onset of withdrawal
      Delirium tremens (coarse tremor, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, tachycardia) occurs approximately 72 hours after the onset of alcohol withdrawal.

      Management
      First-line: benzodiazepines e.g. lorazepam, chlordiazepoxide.
      Carbamazepine is also effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.
      Phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 55 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon. She has undergone mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast. Out of the following, which factor is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Young age

      Explanation:

      Poor prognostic factors for breast cancer include:
      1. Young age (<40 years)
      2. Premenopausal at the time of diagnosis
      3. Increased tumour size
      4. High-grade tumour
      5. Oestrogen and progesterone receptor-negative tumour
      6. Positive lymph node status

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 56 - Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21 year...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21 year old student who has ankylosing spondylitis and complains of worsening back pain and morning stiffness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs are considered as the first line of treatment for managing pain and stiffness associated with ankylosing spondylitis. Other useful medications include TNF-alpha inhibitors. Other drugs like paracetamol, colchicine, and steroids are not routinely used. Bilateral total hip replacement might be indicated in advanced disease contrary to complicated spinal surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 57 - A 68 year old man is admitted with an infective exacerbation of chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old man is admitted with an infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Investigations: blood gas taken whilst breathing 28% oxygen on admission: pH 7.30 p(O2) 7.8 kPa p(CO2) 7.4 kPa Which condition best describes the blood gas picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decompensated type-2 respiratory failure

      Explanation:

      The normal partial pressure reference values are:
      – PaO2 more than 80 mmHg (11 kPa)
      – PaCO2 less than 45 mmHg (6.0 kPa).
      This patient has an elevated PaCO2 (7.4kPa)
      Hypoxemia (PaO2 <8kPa) with hypercapnia (PaCO2 >6.0kPa).
      The pH is also lower than 7.35 at 7.3

      Type 2 respiratory failure is caused by inadequate alveolar ventilation; both oxygen and carbon dioxide are affected. Defined as the build-up of carbon dioxide levels (PaCO2) that has been generated by the body but cannot be eliminated. The underlying causes include:
      – Increased airways resistance (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, suffocation)
      – Reduced breathing effort (drug effects, brain stem lesion, extreme obesity)
      – A decrease in the area of the lung available for gas exchange (such as in chronic bronchitis)
      – Neuromuscular problems (Guillain–BarrĆ© syndrome, motor neuron disease)
      – Deformed (kyphoscoliosis), rigid (ankylosing spondylitis), or flail chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 58 - Which of the following is suggestive of co-existence of mitral regurgitation and mitral...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is suggestive of co-existence of mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Displaced apex beat

      Explanation:

      Apex beat displacement is caused by mitral regurgitation and because it is not found in mitral stenosis, it is suggestive of mixed mitral disease. The other given responses occur in mitral stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 59 - A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state after an episode of seizure on the street. Her husband who accompanied her into the ER reported that they argued about 6-7 hours ago. On examination, she is found to be hypertonic with a GCS of 8, BP: 90/60 mmHg and a pulse of 105 bpm. Blood investigations revealed a lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L. She was intubated and ventilated. Which of the following are the TWO interventions which are most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric lavage should be considered

      Explanation:

      Among the above statements, gastric lavage and normal saline IV infusion are the two appropriate interventions for a patient of acute lithium toxicity.

      Activated charcoal is not effective after lithium overdose, although gastric lavage should be considered if patients present within 6–8 h.
      Where levels are above 3 mmol/l, the use of normal saline to induce diuresis should be considered, although careful monitoring of fluid balance is necessary.
      Where levels of lithium are above 4 mmol/l, dialysis is often required. Haemodialysis is preferred, but in a facility where haemodialysis is not possible, peritoneal dialysis may be considered.
      Patients should not be discharged until they are asymptomatic and have a serum lithium level less than 1.5 mEq/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 60 - A 63 year old man presents with painless jaundice and weight loss over...

    Incorrect

    • A 63 year old man presents with painless jaundice and weight loss over the last few months. He is a heavy smoker and has a past medical history of COPD. On examination his abdomen is soft and non tender and he is clearly icteric. His bloods reveal deranged LFTs with an alkaline phosphates of 240 and a bilirubin of 92, ALT and AST are both around 200. An ultrasound of his abdomen is performed and shows both intra and extrahepatic bowel duct dilatation within the liver. What`s the first line investigation of his case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRCP

      Explanation:

      When you hear painless jaundice and weight loss in the same sentence, the first thing you should think is cancer. Likely cholangiocarcinoma here or some other biliary tract obstructing cancer. The first line imaging for this would be MRCP because you’re looking for obstruction– the dilatation of the intra and extrahepatic ducts suggests this. This is less invasive than an ERCP or a liver biopsy. CT C/A/P will likely be needed for staging later but it is asking for the initial test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 61 - A 47-year-old man is seen in clinic with a 3 month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man is seen in clinic with a 3 month history of chronic epigastric discomfort. The pain comes and goes and radiates to his back and his right shoulder tip at times. It is worse after meals but there is no relieving factor. He feels nauseous most of the time and has foul-smelling stools. He has lost 2 stones in weight. He also complains of intermittent light-headedness. He drinks a bottle of wine on most nights and smokes 20 cigarettes /day. On examination, he is thin and looks neglected. His abdomen is soft, but tender on deep palpation in the epigastric area. He has a 2 cm non-tender liver edge. He also has decreased sensation to light touch on both feet. Bloods: sodium 131 mmol/L, potassium 4.2 mmol/L, creatine 64 μmol/L, amylase 35 U/l, alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 104 U/l, alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 121 U/l, bilirubin 24 μmol/L, calcium 2.01 mmol/L, whole cell count (WCC) 12.1 Ɨ 109/L, haemoglobin (Hb) 10.2 g/dL, platelets 462 Ɨ 109/L. Abdominal X-ray (AXR) was normal and oesophago-gastro duodenoscopy (OGD) showed mild gastritis. Campylobacter-like organism (CLO) test negative. Ultrasound abdomen showed a mildly enlarged liver with fatty change, spleen and kidneys normal, pancreas partially obscured by overlying bowel gas. 72-h stool fat was 22 g in 72 h. He is referred for a secretin test: volume collected 110 ml, bicarbonate 52 mEq/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      The question describes an alcohol abusing man with chronic epigastric discomfort, radiating into his back, worse with meals, and foul-smelling stools, weight loss, as well as chronic nausea. This is likely, thus chronic pancreatitis due to alcohol abuse. Hepatomegaly and peripheral neuropathy secondary to anaemia support the diagnosis of long term alcohol abuse. Bacterial overgrowth may present with diarrhoea and is a less likely diagnosis than pancreatitis. Celiac disease is a less likely diagnosis than pancreatitis, and you would also expect mention of diarrhoea. VIPoma would also likely present with diarrhoea. Cecal carcinoma would more than likely present with blood in the stool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 62 - Which of the following statements regarding restless leg syndrome is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding restless leg syndrome is not true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is three times as common in females

      Explanation:

      In restless leg syndrome (RLS), males and females are thought to be equally affected. RLS is a syndrome of spontaneous, continuous lower limb movements that may be associated with paraesthesia. It is extremely common, affecting between 2-10% of the general population and a family history may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 63 - A 35 year old female, known case of anti phospholipid syndrome, arrives at...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female, known case of anti phospholipid syndrome, arrives at the clinic due to a swollen and painful left leg. Doppler ultrasonography confirms the diagnosis of a deep vein thrombosis. She was previously diagnosed with DVT 4 months back and was on warfarin therapy (target INR 2-3) when it occurred. How should her anticoagulation be managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Life-long warfarin, increase target INR to 3 - 4

      Explanation:

      If the INR in the range of 2-3 has still resulted in thrombosis, the target INR is increased to 3-4. However, because the risk of bleeding increases as the INR rises, the INR is closely monitored and adjustments are made as needed to maintain the INR within the target range.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 64 - A 40 year old patient of yours requests to stop treatment using Citalopram...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old patient of yours requests to stop treatment using Citalopram after taking it for the past two years for his depression. You have agreed to this because he feels well for the past year. What is the most appropriate method of discontinuing Citalopram?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Withdraw gradually over the next 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Citalopram is an antidepressant medication that works in the brain. It is approved for the treatment of major depressive disorder (MDD). Stopping citalopram abruptly may result in one or more of the following withdrawal symptoms: irritability, nausea, feeling dizzy, vomiting, nightmares, headache, and/or paraesthesia (prickling, tingling sensation on the skin).

      When discontinuing antidepressant treatment that has lasted for >3 weeks, gradually taper the dose (e.g., over 2 to 4 weeks) to minimize withdrawal symptoms and detect re-emerging symptoms. Reasons for a slower titration (e.g., over 4 weeks) include use of a drug with a half-life <24 hours (e.g., paroxetine, venlafaxine), prior history of antidepressant withdrawal symptoms, or high doses of antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 65 - A 43-year-old woman is concerned about osteoporosis as she as a strong family...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman is concerned about osteoporosis as she as a strong family history of it. She is one year postmenopausal and aware of hot flushes at night. Which one of the following therapies would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclical oestrogen and progestogen

      Explanation:

      As the patient has early menopause, hormone replacement therapy (HT) is considered to be the first line of choice for prevention of bone loss and fracture in the early postmenopausal period for 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 66 - A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-Sm

      Explanation:

      Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 67 - A young man presents to the clinic with recurrent episodes of breathlessness. Past...

    Incorrect

    • A young man presents to the clinic with recurrent episodes of breathlessness. Past medical history reveals recurrent episodes of colicky abdominal pain for the past three years. On examination, he has a productive cough with foul smelling sputum. Investigations show: Sputum culture with Heavy growth of Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Haemophilus influenzae. Chest x-ray: Tramline and ring shadows. What is his diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a multisystemic, autosomal recessive disorder that predominantly affects infants, children, and young adults. CF is the most common life-limiting genetic disorder in whites, with an incidence of 1 case per 3200-3300 new-borns in the United States.

      People with CF can have a variety of symptoms, including:
      Very salty-tasting skin
      Persistent coughing, at times with phlegm
      Frequent lung infections including pneumonia or bronchitis
      Wheezing or shortness of breath
      Poor growth or weight gain in spite of a good appetite
      Frequent greasy, bulky stools or difficulty with bowel movements
      Male infertility

      Signs of bronchiectasis include the tubular shadows; tram tracks, or horizontally oriented bronchi; and the signet-ring sign, which is a vertically oriented bronchus with a luminal airway diameter that is 1.5 times the diameter of the adjacent pulmonary arterial branch.

      Bronchiectasis is characterized by parallel, thick, line markings radiating from hila (line tracks) in cylindrical bronchiectasis. Ring shadows represent dilated thick-wall bronchi seen in longitudinal section or on-end or dilated bronchi in varicose bronchiectasis.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the key bacterial agent of cystic fibrosis (CF) lung infections, and the most important pathogen in progressive and severe CF lung disease. This opportunistic pathogen can grow and proliferate in patients, and exposure can occur in hospitals and other healthcare settings.

      Haemophilus influenzae is regularly involved in chronic lung infections and acute exacerbations of CF patients

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 68 - A 40-year-old female is receiving a course of chemotherapy for breast cancer. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old female is receiving a course of chemotherapy for breast cancer. She is, however, experiencing troublesome vomiting which is not responding to domperidone. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add a 5-HT3 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Nausea and vomiting are the common side effects of chemotherapy. Risk factors for the development of these symptoms include age<50 years, anxiety, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy administered. For patients at low risk of these symptoms, drugs such as metoclopramide may be used. For high-risk patients, however, 5-HT3 receptor antagonists such as ondansetron are often effective, especially if combined with dexamethasone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 69 - A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow release tablet (MST) 60mg bd as an analgesic, is reviewed. Recently, he has been unable to take medications orally and, thus, a decision has been made to set up a syringe driver. Out of the following, what dose of diamorphine should be prescribed for the syringe driver?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40mg

      Explanation:

      The dose is calculated, using the conversion factor, as follows:

      (Conversion factor used to convert oral morphine to subcutaneous diamorphine = Divide the total daily dose of oral morphine by 3)
      Hence,
      60mg*2 = 120mg
      120mg/3 = 40mg

      The side effects of opioids can be transient or persistent, and these include constipation, nausea, and drowsiness. Therefore, all patients taking opioids should also be prescribed a laxative and an anti-emetic (if the nausea is persistent). Dose-adjustment may be necessary in cases of persistent drowsiness. Moreover, strong opioids can also provide quick relief from metastatic bone pain, as compared to NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 70 - A 23 year old girl presented with complaints of diplopia on looking towards...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old girl presented with complaints of diplopia on looking towards her right side. Which of the nerves will be effected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right abducens

      Explanation:

      This patient has complaints of diplopia in the right eye, when looking towards the right. Eyeball movements towards the right side are controlled by right lateral rectus muscle which is supplied by the abducent nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 71 - A 65-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic with progressively worsening lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic with progressively worsening lower back pain for the last three months and history of weight loss for the past eight months. MRI lumbar spine confirms the suspicion of bone metastasis. What is the most likely primary tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Prostate cancer is the most common primary tumour that metastasises to the bone.

      Most common tumours causing bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Prostate (32%)
      2. Breast (22%)
      3. Kidneys (16%)
      4. Lungs
      5. Thyroid

      Most common sites of bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Spine
      2. Pelvis
      3. Ribs
      4. Skull
      5. Long bones

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 72 - A 35 year old male who has smoked 20 cigarettes per day was...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male who has smoked 20 cigarettes per day was referred to the National Chest Hospital because he has had a nine month history of shortness of breath which is getting worse. Tests revealed that he had moderate emphysema. His family history showed that his father died from COPD at the age of 52. Genetic testing found the PiSZ genotype following the diagnosis of alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency. What levels of alpha-1 antitrypsin would be expected if they were to be measured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40% of normal

      Explanation:

      Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency, first described in 1963, is one of the most common inherited disorders amongst white Caucasians. Its primary manifestation is early-onset of pan acinar emphysema. In adults, alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency leads to chronic liver disease in the fifth decade. As a cause of emphysema, it is seen in non-smokers in the fifth decade of life and during the fourth decade of life in smokers.

      Symptoms of alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency emphysema are limited to the respiratory system. Dyspnoea is the symptom that eventually dominates alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency. Similar to other forms of emphysema, the dyspnoea of alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency is initially evident only with strenuous exertion. Over several years, it eventually limits even mild activities.
      The serum levels of some of the common genotypes are:
      •PiMM: 100% (normal)
      •PiMS: 80% of normal serum level of A1AT
      •PiSS: 60% of normal serum level of A1AT
      •PiMZ: 60% of normal serum level of A1AT, mild deficiency
      •PiSZ: 40% of normal serum level of A1AT, moderate deficiency
      •PiZZ: 10–15% (severe alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 73 - A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for the past four hours. He is a known alcoholic who has abstained from drinking for the past three days. On examination, he is sweating, agitated and disorientated. His temperature is 37.7°C, pulse 112 bpm regular and blood pressure is 150/76 mmHg. Blood investigations performed in the emergency department reveal: FBC: Normal U&E: Normal Plasma glucose: 4.6 mmol/l (3.6-6) Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate treatment for this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral lorazepam

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal, which should be treated as a medical emergency.Ā 
      Delirium tremens is a hyperadrenergic state and is often associated with tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnoea, tremor, and mydriasis.
      Treatment:
      – The most common and validated treatment for alcohol withdrawal is benzodiazepine: first-line treatment includes oral lorazepam.
      – If the symptoms persist, or the medication is refused, parenteral lorazepam, haloperidol or olanzapine should be given.
      – Central-acting, alpha-2 agonists such as clonidine and dexmedetomidine should not be used alone for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.
      – It is also recommended to avoid using alcohol, antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, beta-adrenergic receptor blockers, and baclofen for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal as there are not enough studies to support the safety of these.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 74 - Which statement is true regarding anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true regarding anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is the most common cause of admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an abnormally low body weight, an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted perception of weight. People with anorexia place a high value on controlling their weight and shape, using extreme efforts that tend to significantly interfere with their lives.

      The minimum level of severity is based, for adults, on current body mass index (BMI) (see below) or for
      children and adolescents, on BMI percentile. The ranges below are derived from World Health
      Organization categories for thinness in adults; for children and adolescents, corresponding BMI percentiles
      should be used. The level of severity may be increased to reflect clinical symptoms, the degree of
      functional disability, and the need for supervision.
      Mild: BMI > 17 kg/m2
      Moderate: BMI 16-16.99 kg/m2
      Severe: BMI 15-15.99 kg/m2
      Extreme: BMI < 15 kg/m2 Anorexia nervosa is more common in women than in men, with a female-to-male ratio of 10-20:1 in developed countries. The prognosis of anorexia nervosa is guarded. Morbidity rates range from 10-20%, with only 50% of patients making a complete recovery. Of the remaining 50%, 20% remain emaciated and 25% remain thin. The main change in the diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa was to remove the criterion of amenorrhea (loss of menstrual cycle). Removing this criterion means that boys and men with Anorexia will finally be able to receive an appropriate diagnosis.
      Similarly, girls and women who continue to have their period despite other symptoms associated with Anorexia, such as weight loss and food restriction, will now be eligible for a diagnosis of Anorexia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 75 - Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mean = mode = median

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean. The normal distribution has the following properties:
      – It is symmetric around the mode, the median and the mean of the distribution.
      – It is unimodal
      – The area under the curve and over the x-axis is unity (i.e. equal to one).
      – Its density has two inflection points.
      – Its density is log-concave.
      The standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean. SD = square root (variance)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 76 - A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a little hirsute and has evidence of facial acne. She is within her predicted adult height and has normal breast and external genitalia development, however, there is excess hair over her lower abdomen and around her nipple area. Investigations were as follows: Hb 13.1 g/dL, WCC 8.6 x109/L, PLT 201 x109/L, Na+ 139 mmol/L, K+ 4.5 mmol/L, Creatinine 110 µmol/L, 17-OH progesterone 1.4 times the upper limit of normal. Pelvic ultrasound: bilateral ovaries and uterus visualised. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Mild deficiencies of 21-hydroxylase or 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity may present in adolescence or adulthood with oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and/or infertility. This is termed nonclassical adrenal hyperplasia.
      Late-onset or nonclassical congenital adrenal hyperplasia (NCAH) due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency is one of the most common autosomal recessive disorders. Reported prevalence ranges from 1 in 30 to 1 in 1000. Affected individuals typically present due to signs and symptoms of androgen excess.
      Treatment needs to be directed toward the symptoms. Goals of treatment include normal linear growth velocity, a normal rate of skeletal maturation, ‘on-time’ puberty, regular menstrual cycles, prevention of or limited progression of hirsutism and acne, and fertility. Treatment needs to be individualized and should not be initiated merely to decrease abnormally elevated hormone concentrations.
      Normal Ultrasound rules out Turner’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 77 - A 51 year old smoker was recently diagnosed with non small cell lung...

    Incorrect

    • A 51 year old smoker was recently diagnosed with non small cell lung carcinoma. Investigations show presence of a 3 x 3 x 2 cm tumour on the left side of the lower lung lobe. the mass has invaded the parietal pleura. Ipsilateral hilar node is also involved but there is no metastatic spread. What is the stage of this cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T2 N1 M0

      Explanation:

      The tumour has only invaded the visceral pleura and measures 3cm in the greatest dimension. Hence it is designated at T2. Ipsilateral peribronchial and/or hilar lymph node involvement would make it N1. There is no distal metastasis so M would be 0.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 78 - A 58-year-old female patient is being investigated for breathlessness, cough, and severe weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old female patient is being investigated for breathlessness, cough, and severe weight loss. On the medical ward round, her CXR is reviewed showing hilar lymphadenopathy and multiple peripheral lung metastases. Which of the following tumours is least likely to be the underlying cause of this lung appearance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brain

      Explanation:

      All of the aforementioned listed tumours, except brain tumours, can metastasise to lungs and produce the typical CXR picture consisting of hilar lymphadenopathy with either diffuse multinodular shadows resembling miliary disease or multiple large well-defined masses (canon balls). Occasionally, cavitation or calcification may also be seen.

      Most brain tumours, however, do not metastasise. Some, derived form neural elements, do so but in these cases, intraparenchymal metastases generally precede distant haematogenous spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 79 - A 35-year-old man who has haemophilia B with associated arthropathy presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man who has haemophilia B with associated arthropathy presents with a large swollen right knee, after playing football with his son. He is unable to bear weight on the affected knee joint. What should be the most appropriate first step of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous factor IX concentrate

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia B (Christmas disease), is the deficiency of clotting factor IX and is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. The factor IX level dictates the disease severity and established arthropathy is usually seen in those with severe disease.

      The aforementioned patient’s history and presentation is consistent with the development of hemarthrosis. Joint aspiration is not recommended. The treatment, therefore, should be intravenous replacement of the deficient clotting factor with plasma-derived factor IX concentrate.

      The other listed options are ruled out because:
      1. Joint aspiration is not preferred over the administration of clotting factor as the first step of management.
      2. DDAVP (desmopressin) can increase factor VIII levels transiently in those with mild haemophilia A and is useful prior to minor surgical procedures in such patients.
      3. Cryoprecipitate is rich in fibrinogen, factor VIII, and von Willebrand factor and is used in the treatment of haemophilia A.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 80 - A 50-year-old male presents to the ER allegedly claiming that he consumed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents to the ER allegedly claiming that he consumed a bottle of antifreeze. Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be associated with this kind of poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of vision

      Explanation:

      Loss of vision after consumption of antifreeze is a characteristic presentation of methanol poisoning.

      Pathophysiology of methanol toxicity:
      When ingested, methanol is absorbed rapidly via the gastrointestinal tract in less than 10 minutes. Methanol is not protein-bound and is absorbed directly into the total body water compartment.
      Metabolism occurs mainly in the liver through serial oxidation via alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase but begins with alcohol dehydrogenase present in the gastric mucosa.
      Alcohol dehydrogenase oxidizes methanol to formaldehyde, and aldehyde dehydrogenase subsequently oxidizes formaldehyde to formic acid.
      Formic acid is the primary toxic metabolite that accounts for the associated anion gap metabolic acidosis and end-organ damage.

      Clinical presentation:
      Patients who present within the first 12 to 24 hours following ingestion may appear normal, and this is described as the latent period.
      Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain subsequently ensue, followed by CNS depression and hyperventilation due to metabolic acidosis.
      Ocular symptoms associated with retinal toxicity are often evident in the form of blurry vision, decreased visual acuity, photophobia, and ā€œhalo vision.ā€

      Treatment:
      Treatment options for methanol toxicity include supportive care, fomepizole (Antizole, 4-Methylpyrazole or 4MP), ethanol, dialysis, and folate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 81 - Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mumps: 14 - 18 days

      Explanation:

      The incubation periods of disorders is extremely important to diagnose, treat, prevent or attenuate a disease.

      • Chickenpox: 7-21 days.
      • Whooping cough: 10-14 days.
      • Hand, foot and mouth disease: 2-6 days.
      • German measles: 14-21 days.
      • Mumps: 14-18 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 82 - A 54 year old gentleman presented with a 3 month history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old gentleman presented with a 3 month history of a nodular growth over the dorsum of the his nose, about 0.6 cm in size. The base of nodule is slightly ulcerated and its margins are raised. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Basal cell carcinoma is usually located on sun exposed sites. It has got many variants and clinically it presents as a slow growing mass/nodule with rolled margins and an ulcerated base.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 83 - A 22-year-old, thin drama student presents with weakness and muscle cramps. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old, thin drama student presents with weakness and muscle cramps. She has a past medical history of reflux and bronchial asthma, for which she takes lansoprazole 30mg once daily, inhaled salbutamol PRN, and a once-daily inhaled corticosteroid. She reports feeling stressed lately as she has a leading role in a significant stage production due to open in one week. Her heart rate is 87 bpm, blood pressure 103/71mmHg, respiratory rate 13/min. Her blood results are: pH: 7.46 Na+: 138 mmol/L, K+: 2.8 mmol/L, Chloride: 93 mmol/L, Magnesium: 0.61 mmol/L, What is the most likely aetiology for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bulimia

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis considering hypochloraemia and the mild metabolic alkalosis as well as the history of GERD (requiring a high dose of PPI to control) would be bulimia.

      Other options:
      Diuretic abuse tends to give a hypochloraemic acidosis.
      Gitelman syndrome also fits the diagnosis but, it is very rare compared to bulimia.
      Inhaled steroid use and stress would not be responsible for such marked electrolyte derangement.

      Other potential signs of bulimia nervosa would be parotid gland swelling and dental enamel erosion induced by regular vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 84 - What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-HT1 agonist

      Explanation:

      Triptans are specific 5-HT1 agonists used in the acute treatment of migraine. They are generally used as first-line therapy in combination with an NSAID or paracetamol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 85 - A 70 yr. old man underwent temporary transvenous pacing. While in the coronary...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 yr. old man underwent temporary transvenous pacing. While in the coronary care unit he developed pre-syncope. His pulse rate was 30 bpm. His ECG showed pacing spikes which were not related to QRS complexes. What is the most appropriate action that can be taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase the pacing voltage to a maximum

      Explanation:

      Pacemaker spikes on the ECG indicate that pacemaker is functioning. The most probable cause for this presentation is the change of the position of the tip of the pacing wire. Increasing the voltage will solve the problem. If it works, repositioning of the pacing wire should be done.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 86 - A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family history of premature cardiovascular disease. Cholesterol testing reveals triglyceride levels of 4.2 mmol/l and a high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 0.8 mmol/l. You advise him to start fibrate therapy. Which of the following best describes the mode of action for fibrates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They are inhibitors of lipoprotein lipase activity and increase HDL synthesis

      Explanation:

      Treatment with fibrates, a widely used class of lipid-modifying agents, results in a substantial decrease in plasma triglycerides and is usually associated with a moderate decrease in LDL cholesterol and an increase in HDL cholesterol concentrations.
      Evidence from studies is available to implicate 5 major mechanisms underlying the above-mentioned modulation of lipoprotein phenotypes by fibrates:
      1. Induction of lipoprotein lipolysis.
      2. Induction of hepatic fatty acid (FA) uptake and reduction of hepatic triglyceride production.
      3. Increased removal of LDL particles. Fibrate treatment results in the formation of LDL with a higher affinity for the LDL receptor, which is thus catabolized more rapidly.
      4. Reduction in neutral lipid (cholesteryl ester and triglyceride) exchange between VLDL and HDL may result from decreased plasma levels of TRL.
      5. Increase in HDL production and stimulation of reverse cholesterol transport. Fibrates increase the production of apoA-I and apoA-II in the liver, which may contribute to the increase of plasma HDL concentrations and a more efficient reverse cholesterol transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 87 - Which of the following is most consistent with achondroplasia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with achondroplasia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May be diagnosed radiologically at birth

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia is the most common type of short-limb disproportionate dwarfism. A single gene mapped to the short arm of chromosome 4 (band 4p16.3) is responsible for achondroplasia and is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait. All people with achondroplasia have a short stature.
      Characteristic features of achondroplasia include an average-size trunk, short arms and legs with particularly short upper arms and thighs, limited range of motion at the elbows, and an enlarged head (macrocephaly) with a prominent forehead. Fingers are typically short and the ring finger and middle finger may diverge, giving the hand a three-pronged (trident) appearance. People with achondroplasia are generally of normal intelligence.
      Examination of the infant after birth shows increased front-to-back head size. There may be signs of hydrocephalus. It may be diagnosed radiographically at birth, or becomes obvious within the first year with disparity between a large skull, normal trunk length and short limbs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 88 - A 75-year-old retired tailor is examined for involuntary, jerking movements of his arms....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old retired tailor is examined for involuntary, jerking movements of his arms. His symptoms seem to resolve when he is asleep. Damage to which one of the following structures may lead to hemiballism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subthalamic nucleus

      Explanation:

      Hemiballismus or hemiballism in its unilateral form is a very rare movement disorder. It is a type of chorea caused in most cases by a decrease in activity of the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia, resulting in the appearance of flailing, ballistic, undesired movements of the limbs. Symptoms may decrease while the patient is asleep. Antidopaminergic agents (e.g. Haloperidol) are the mainstay of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 89 - Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists. Which...

    Incorrect

    • Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists. Which of the following statements is true concerning organophosphate poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atropine is useful in the management of organophosphate poisoning

      Explanation:

      The principal action of organophosphates is the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase’s, therefore leading to the accumulation of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors (miosis, hypersalivation, sweating, diarrhoea, excessive bronchial secretions), nicotinic receptors (muscle fasciculations and tremor) and in the central nervous system (anxiety, loss of memory, headache, coma).

      Removal from the source of the organophosphate, adequate decontamination, supplemental oxygen and atropine are the initial treatment measures. Pralidoxime, an activator of cholinesterase, should be given to all symptomatic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 90 - A girl suffered full thickness circumferential burn to her right arm. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A girl suffered full thickness circumferential burn to her right arm. What is best step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escharotomy

      Explanation:

      AnĀ escharotomyĀ is a surgical procedure used to treat full-thickness (third-degree) circumferential burns. In full-thickness burns, both the epidermis and the dermis are destroyed along with sensory nerves in the dermis. The tough leathery tissue remaining after a full-thickness burn has been termed eschar.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 91 - A 63-year-old gentleman is admitted to the Emergency Department, with a past history...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old gentleman is admitted to the Emergency Department, with a past history of chronic renal failure, who complains of increasing shortness of breath. Bloods reveal a creatinine of 570 μmol/l, urea of 48 mmol/l. He is also anaemic with a haemoglobin (Hb) of 8.9 g/dl. On examination he has a pericardial rub and there are bibasal crackles consistent with heart failure. Which of the following represents the best treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent haemodialysis

      Explanation:

      This case presents with symptoms and lab results suggestive of uremic pericarditis, which is an indication for immediate haemodialysis. Uremic pericarditis is caused by inflammation of the membranes of the pericardial sac, which usually resolves after a period of intensive dialysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 92 - A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a week ago. He now presents with altered mental status, tachycardia, high-grade fever, vomiting and cardiac failure. A diagnosis of thyroid storm (crisis) is made. What is the most important next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transfer the patient to ITU

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm, also referred to as thyrotoxic crisis, is an acute, life-threatening, hypermetabolic state induced by excessive release of thyroid hormones (THs) in individuals with thyrotoxicosis.
      Patients with thyroid storm should be treated in an ICU setting for close monitoring of vital signs and for access to invasive monitoring and inotropic support, if necessary.
      – Supportive measures
      If needed, immediately provide supplemental oxygen, ventilatory support, and intravenous fluids. Dextrose solutions are the preferred intravenous fluids to cope with continuously high metabolic demand.
      – Correct electrolyte abnormalities.
      – Treat cardiac arrhythmia, if necessary.
      – Aggressively control hyperthermia by applying ice packs and cooling blankets and by administering acetaminophen (15 mg/kg orally or rectally every 4 hours).
      – Antiadrenergic drugs.
      – Thionamides: Correct the hyperthyroid state. Administer antithyroid medications to block further synthesis of thyroid hormones (THs).
      High-dose propylthiouracil (PTU) or methimazole may be used for treatment of thyroid storm.
      – Administer glucocorticoids to decrease peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. This may also be useful in preventing relative adrenal insufficiency due to hyperthyroidism and improving vasomotor symptoms.
      – Bile acid sequestrants prevent reabsorption of free THs in the gut (released from conjugated TH metabolites secreted into bile through the enterohepatic circulation).
      – Treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 93 - A 22-year-old gentleman presents to A&E for the third time with recurrent urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old gentleman presents to A&E for the third time with recurrent urinary stones. There appear to be no predisposing factors, and he is otherwise well; urine culture is unremarkable. The urine stones turn out to be cystine stones. Ā  What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystinuria

      Explanation:

      Cystinuria is strongly suspected because of the recurrent passing of cystine stones and otherwise non-remarkable medical history of this young adult patient. Like Cystinuria, all the conditions listed are also inherited disorders, however, the other differentials usually present in the early years of childhood, usually with failure to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 94 - A 23 year old male medical student presents to the A&E department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old male medical student presents to the A&E department with pleuritic chest pain. He does not have productive cough nor is he experiencing shortness of breath. He has no past medical history. A chest x-ray which was done shows a right-sided pneumothorax with a 1 cm rim of air and no mediastinal shift. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discharge with outpatient chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Primary spontaneous pneumothorax is an abnormal accumulation of air in the space between the lungs and the chest cavity (called the pleural space) that can result in the partial or complete collapse of a lung. This type of pneumothorax is described as primary because it occurs in the absence of lung disease such as emphysema. Spontaneous means the pneumothorax was not caused by an injury such as a rib fracture. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax is likely due to the formation of small sacs of air (blebs) in lung tissue that rupture, causing air to leak into the pleural space. Air in the pleural space creates pressure on the lung and can lead to its collapse. A person with this condition may feel chest pain on the side of the collapsed lung and shortness of breath. Patients are typically aged 18-40 years, tall, thin, and, often, are smokers.

      In small pneumothoraxes with minimal symptoms, no active treatment is required. These patients can be safely discharged with early outpatient review and should be given written advice to return if breathlessness worsens. Patients who have been discharged without intervention should be advised that air travel should be avoided until a radiograph has confirmed resolution of the pneumothorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 95 - Which of the following is a feature of haemoglobin S? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a feature of haemoglobin S?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is the result of a point mutation

      Explanation:

      Hb S is the most common type of abnormal haemoglobin and the basis of sickle cell trait and sickle cell anaemia. It differs from normal adult haemoglobin (called haemoglobin A—Hb A) only by a single amino acid substitution due to point mutation—a valine replacing a glutamine in the sixth position of the beta chain of globin. Hb S molecules polymerize in hypoxic and acidic environments, imparting a sickle shape to the RBCs. Hb S molecules are less negatively charged than Hb A (due to the loss of glutamine) and have a lower affinity for oxygen (right shift of the oxygen-dissociation curve).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 96 - Which of the following types of motor neuron diseases carries the worst prognosis?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of motor neuron diseases carries the worst prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progressive bulbar palsy

      Explanation:

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition of unknown cause which can present with both upper and lower motor neuron signs. It rarely presents before 40 years and various patterns of disease are recognised including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, primary lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy and progressive bulbar palsy. In some patients however, there is a combination of clinical patterns. In progressive bulbar palsy there is palsy of the tongue and muscles of chewing/swallowing and facial muscles due to loss of function of brainstem motor nuclei. This carries the worst prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 97 - A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over the last 2 days. She also reports of weakness of her lower limbs and difficulty in walking. On examination, she has reduced power in both legs and increased tone associated with brisk knee and ankle reflexes. There is some sensory loss in the lower limbs and feet but perianal sensation is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinal cord compression at T10

      Explanation:

      The upper motor neurone signs in this patient point towards a diagnosis of spinal cord compression above the level of L1 and rules out cauda equina syndrome.

      Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.

      Clinical features include:
      1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
      2. Lower limb weakness
      3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
      4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
      Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

      Management options are:
      1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
      2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 98 - A 19-year-old male presented with a fever and fatigue. On examination, he had...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male presented with a fever and fatigue. On examination, he had multiple lesions on his back and abdomen in various forms. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicella zoster

      Explanation:

      Patients with varicella zoster infection present with general fatigue and fever along with multiple lesions which do not appear to be identical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 99 - A 58-year-old psychologist with small cell lung cancer complains of muscle weakness. Each...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old psychologist with small cell lung cancer complains of muscle weakness. Each one of the following are features of Lambert-Eaton syndrome, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeated muscle contractions lead to decreased muscle strength

      Explanation:

      In myasthenia gravis, repeated muscle contractions lead to reduced muscle strength. The opposite is however classically seen in the related disorder Lambert-Eaton syndrome. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is seen in association with small cell lung cancer, and to a lesser extent breast and ovarian cancer. It may also occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is caused by an antibody directed against pre-synaptic voltage gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 100 - A 72 yr. old male presented to the Emergency Department with a broad...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 yr. old male presented to the Emergency Department with a broad complex tachycardia. Which of the following features is more suggestive that this has resulted because of a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) rather than a ventricular tachycardia (VT)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence of QRS concordance in chest leads on ECG

      Explanation:

      To differentiate ventricular tachycardia (VT) from supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with aberrant conduction the following electrocardiographic features should be looked for:

      Evidence of preceding atrial activity for SVT. Oesophageal leads are helpful if P waves are hidden in the QRS complex.
      QRS duration more than 140 ms for VT.
      QRS morphology: Features of QRS morphology that favour SVT are RBBB or triphasic patterns like rSR in V1 and qRS in V6. Monophasic pattern like R or qR in V1 and rS or QS in V6 or multiple morphology QRS complexes favour VT.
      AV dissociation for VT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 101 - A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and low-grade temperature. Yesterday he developed extensive painful ulceration of his mouth and gums. On examination his temperature is 37.4ĀŗC, pulse 84 / min and there is submandibular lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection

      Explanation:

      This man has gingivostomatitis, a characteristic feature of primary herpes simplex virus infection. Herpetic gingivostomatitis is often the initial presentation during the first (primary) herpes simplex infection. It is of greater severity than herpes labialis (cold sores) which is often the subsequent presentations. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is the most common viral infection of the mouth.
      Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis (PHGS) is caused predominantly by HSV-1 and affects mainly children. Prodromal symptoms, such as fever, anorexia, irritability, malaise and headache, may occur in advance of disease. Sub-mandibular lymphadenitis, halitosis and refusal to drink are usual concomitant findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 102 - A 50-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a suicide attempt....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a suicide attempt. He was found at home with an empty bottle of paracetamol by his side. Still conscious, a history was obtained from him to assess his risk of further attempts. Which of the following is considered to be the strongest risk factor for successful suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addiction to opiates

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, an addiction to opiates is considered the strongest risk factor for committing suicide.

      Other options:
      Being a female – Being male is one of the most significant risk factors for suicide.
      Being married – Having family support is an important protective factor for suicide.
      Having five children – Having children at home is thought to be a protective factor.
      Having never seen a general practitioner – Having a chronic mental or physical condition is however a risk factor for suicide.

      Risk factors of suicide:
      There are several factors shown to be associated with an increased risk of suicide:
      Male sex
      History of deliberate self-harm
      Alcohol or drug misuse
      History of mental illness (depression, schizophrenia)
      History of chronic disease
      Advancing age
      Unemployment or social isolation/living alone
      Being unmarried, divorced or widowed
      Previous attempt to commit suicide.

      Signs pointing towards suicidal intension:
      Efforts to avoid discovery
      Planning
      Leaving a written note
      Final acts such as sorting out finances
      Violent method

      Protective factors against suicide:
      Family support
      Having children at home
      Religious belief

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 103 - A 26 year old man with a history of 'brittle' asthma is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old man with a history of 'brittle' asthma is admitted with an asthma attack. High-flow oxygen and nebulised salbutamol have already been administered by the Paramedics. The patient is unable to complete sentences and he has a bilateral expiratory wheeze. He is also unable to perform a peak flow reading. His respiratory rate is 31/minute, sats 93% (on high-flow oxygen) and pulse 119/minute. Intravenous hydrocortisone is immediately administered and nebulised salbutamol given continuously. Intravenous magnesium sulphate is administered after six minutes of no improvement. These are the results from the blood gas sample that was taken after another six minutes: pH 7.32 pCO2 6.8 kPa pO2 8.9 kPa What is the most appropriate therapy in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intubation

      Explanation:

      The normal partial pressure reference values are: oxygen PaO2 more than 80 mmHg (11 kPa), and carbon dioxide PaCO2 lesser than 45 mmHg (6.0 kPa).
      This patient has an elevated PaCO2 of 6.8kPa which exceeds the normal value of less than 6.0kPa.
      The pH is also lower than 7.35 at 7.32

      In any patient with asthma, an increasing PaCO2 indicates severe airway obstruction that is leading to respiratory muscle fatigue and patient exhaustion.

      According to the British Thoracic Society guidelines:
      Indications for admission to intensive care or high-dependency units include
      patients requiring ventilatory support and those with acute severe or life-threatening asthma who are failing to respond to therapy, as evidenced by:
      • deteriorating PEF
      • persisting or worsening hypoxia
      • hypercapnia
      • arterial blood gas analysis showing fall in pH or rising hydrogen concentration
      • exhaustion, feeble respiration
      • drowsiness, confusion, altered conscious state
      • respiratory arrest

      Transfer to ICU accompanied by a doctor prepared to intubate if:
      • Deteriorating PEF, worsening or persisting hypoxia, or hypercapnia
      • Exhaustion, altered consciousness
      • Poor respiratory effort or respiratory arrest

      A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate is safe and may improve lung function and reduce intubation rates in patients with acute severe asthma. Intravenous magnesium sulphate may also reduce hospital admissions in adults with acute asthma who have had little or no response to standard treatment.

      Consider giving a single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate to
      patients with acute severe asthma (PEF <50% best or predicted) who have not had a good initial response to inhaled bronchodilator therapy.
      Magnesium sulphate (1.2–2 g IV infusion over 20 minutes) should only be used following consultation with senior medical staff.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 104 - A 18 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM) as his...

    Incorrect

    • A 18 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM) as his brother had the same condition. What is the echocardiographic finding that is related to the highest risk of sudden cardiac death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Significant thickening of the interventricular septum

      Explanation:

      There are five prognostic factors which indicate poor prognosis in HOCM:
      -family history of HOCM-related sudden cardiac death
      -unexplained recent syncope
      -large left ventricular wall thickness (MLVWT ≄ 30 mm)
      -multiple bursts of nsVT on ambulatory electrocardiography
      -hypotensive or attenuated blood pressure response to exercise

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 105 - Out of the following, which condition is not associated with hyposplenism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which condition is not associated with hyposplenism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Liver cirrhosis is not associated with hyposplenism.

      Hyposplenism is caused by a variety of conditions. These are:
      1. Splenectomy
      2. Sickle cell anaemia
      3. Coeliac disease, dermatitis herpetiformis
      4. Graves’ disease
      5. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 106 - A 40-year-old man presents with a history of carpal tunnel syndrome and osteoarthritis...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with a history of carpal tunnel syndrome and osteoarthritis of his weight-bearing joints. He has recently begun to suffer from symptoms of sleep apnoea. On examination, he has a prominent jawline and macroglossia. His BP is elevated at 155/95 mmHg and there is peripheral visual field loss. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pegvisomant can be used where IGF-1 is not normalised post surgery

      Explanation:

      The patient has Acromegaly.
      Acromegaly is a chronic disorder characterised by growth hormone (GH) hypersecretion, predominantly caused by a pituitary adenoma.

      Random GH level testing is not recommended for diagnosis given the pulsatile nature of secretion. Stress, physical exercise, acute critical illness and fasting state can cause a physiological higher peak in GH secretion.

      Pegvisomant is a US Food and Drug Administration-approved treatment for use after surgery. In a global non-interventional safety surveillance study, pegvisomant normalised IGF-1 in 67.5% of patients after 5 years (most likely due to lack of dose-up titration), and also improved clinical symptoms. Pegvisomant improves insulin sensitivity, and long-term follow-up showed significantly decreased fasting glucose over time, while the first-generation SRL only have a marginal clinical impact on glucose homeostasis in acromegaly. Pegvisomant does not have any direct anti-proliferative effects on pituitary tumour cells, but tumour growth is rare overall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 107 - Out of the following, which malignant tumour has the highest predilection for dissemination...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which malignant tumour has the highest predilection for dissemination to the bones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate

      Explanation:

      Prostate cancer is the most common primary tumour that metastasises to the bone.

      Most common tumours causing bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Prostate (32%)
      2. Breast (22%)
      3. Kidneys (16%)
      4. Lungs
      5. Thyroid

      Most common sites of bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Spine
      2. Pelvis
      3. Ribs
      4. Skull
      5. Long bones

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 108 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe breathlessness and tinnitus....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe breathlessness and tinnitus. She is under treatment for asthma and depression with albuterol and amitriptyline respectively. On examination, she seems agitated with a BP of 100/44, a pulse rate of 112 bpm, a respiratory rate of 30 cycles/min, and a temperature of 37.8'C. An arterial blood gas performed reveals: pH: 7.48 (7.36 – 7.44) pO2: 11.2 kPa (11.3 – 12.6 kPa) pCO2: 1.9 kPa (4.7 – 6.0 kPa) Bicarbonate: 13 mmol/l (20 – 28 mmol/L) What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salicylate poisoning

      Explanation:

      The blood gas analysis provided above is suggestive of a mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis characteristic of salicylate overdose.

      Pathophysiology:
      The direct stimulation of the cerebral medulla causes hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis.
      As it is metabolized, it causes an uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria.
      Lactate levels then increase due to the increase in anaerobic metabolism. This, along with a slight contribution from the salicylate metabolites result in metabolic acidosis.

      Tinnitus is characteristic and salicylate ototoxicity may produce deafness. Other neurological sequelae include encephalopathy and agitation, seizures and CNS depression and coma. Cardiovascular complications include tachycardia, hypotension, and dysrhythmias (VT, VF, and asystole).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 109 - A 54-year-old man experienced a gradual decrease in vision of one eye after...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man experienced a gradual decrease in vision of one eye after being diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Macula oedema is noted on his fundoscopy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Macular disease can affect central vision at any stage of diabetic retinopathy and may be seen in type 2 diabetic patients. Diabetic retinopathy affects up to 80 percent of those who have had diabetes for 20 years or more. Macular oedema occurs when damaged blood vessels leak fluid and lipids onto the macula, the part of the retina that lets us see detail. The fluid makes the macula swell, which blurs vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 110 - Which among the following factors is not associated with a poor prognosis in...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following factors is not associated with a poor prognosis in patients with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute onset

      Explanation:

      A patient with a gradual onset of schizophrenia is to be associated with a poor prognosis.

      Schizophrenia is a functional psychotic disorder characterized by the presence of delusional beliefs, hallucinations, and disturbances in thought, perception, and behaviour.

      Clinical features:
      Schneider’s first-rank symptoms may be divided into auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions:

      Auditory hallucinations of a specific type:
      Two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person
      Thought echo
      Voices commenting on the patient’s behaviour

      Thought disorder:
      Thought insertion
      Thought withdrawal
      Thought broadcasting

      Passivity phenomena:
      Bodily sensations being controlled by external influence
      Actions/impulses/feelings – experiences which are imposed on the Individual or influenced by others

      Other features of schizophrenia include
      Impaired insight (a feature of all psychoses)
      Incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances)
      Decreased speech
      Neologisms: made-up words
      Catatonia
      Negative symptoms: incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), avolition (poor motivation).

      Treatment:
      For the initial treatment of acute psychosis, it is recommended to commence an oral second-generation antipsychotics such as aripiprazole, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, etc.
      Once the acute phase is controlled, switching to a depot preparation like aripiprazole, paliperidone, zuclopenthixol, fluphenazine, haloperidol, pipotiazine, or risperidone is recommended.
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) and the use of art and drama therapies help counteract the negative symptoms of the disease, improve insight, and assist relapse prevention.
      Clozapine is used in case of treatment resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 111 - A 54-year-old woman presents to the A&E department with a five-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to the A&E department with a five-day history of back pain which is located in the lower thoracic region and is worsened by coughing and sneezing. There has been no change in bowel habit or urinary symptoms. Her past medical history includes breast cancer and osteoarthritis. On examination, there is diffuse tenderness in the lower thoracic region. Perianal sensation is normal and lower limb reflexes are brisk. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone + urgent MRI

      Explanation:

      The patient has spinal cord compression until proven otherwise. Urgent assessment is required.

      Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.

      Clinical features include:
      1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
      2. Lower limb weakness
      3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
      4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
      Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

      Management options are:
      1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
      2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 112 - A 25-year-old woman was admitted to hospital with a 3 day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman was admitted to hospital with a 3 day history of feeling generally unwell, with fatigue, arthralgia and pruritis. She had recently finished a 5 day course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection but there was no other significant past medical history. She had no significant findings on clinical examination except for a widespread erythematous rash. Investigation results are below: Haemoglobin (Hb) 12.6 g/dL, White cell count (WCC) 13.0 Ɨ 109/l (eosinophilia) Platelets 390 Ɨ 109/L, Creatinine 720 μmol/L, Na+ 135 mmol/L, K+ 5.2 mmol/L, Urea 22.0 mmol/L, Urinalysis Protein ++ blood + What is the most important investigation to establish the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal biopsy

      Explanation:

      There is a strong suspicion of drug-induced acute tubulo-interstitial nephritis with the classic triad of symptoms of rash, joint pain and eosinophils in the blood, associated with non-specific symptoms of fever and fatigue. This can be confirmed with renal biopsy showing interstitial oedema with a heavy infiltrate of inflammatory cells and variable tubular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 113 - A 25-year-old athlete presented with a 7-month history of difficulty gripping things. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old athlete presented with a 7-month history of difficulty gripping things. He complained of finding it particularly difficult in cold weather. He remembered his father having similar problems. Upon examination, he had a bilateral ptosis with weakness of the facial muscles. He also had difficulty opening his eyes quickly. Limb examination revealed distal weakness in both hands with difficulty opening and closing both hands quickly. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Myotonic dystrophy is the most likely diagnosis here.
      It is a multisystem disorder causing cognitive impairment, cataracts, cardiac problems and testicular atrophy, as well as affecting the muscles. Patients have muscle weakness, normally worse distally, and/or myotonia (which is worse in cold weather).
      On examination, patients may also have frontal balding, a myopathic facies, bilateral ptosis, an ophthalmoplegia and wasting of facial muscles and other limb muscles. Myotonic dystrophy is associated with diabetes mellitus and pituitary dysfunction.
      Diagnosis is normally based on clinical features with a characteristic electromyogram (EMG) of myotonic discharges. Creatine kinase is generally normal and muscle biopsy is non-specific.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 114 - Through which foramen does the maxillary nerve pass through? ...

    Incorrect

    • Through which foramen does the maxillary nerve pass through?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen rotundum

      Explanation:

      The foramen rotundum is one of the several circular apertures (the foramina) located in the base of the skull, in the anterior and medial part of the sphenoid bone. The maxillary branch (V2) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through and exits the skull via the pterygopalatine fossa and the foramen rotundum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 115 - A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There is a known local outbreak of E coli 0157:H7, and his initial bloods show evidence of acute renal failure. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following investigation results would be expected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fragmented red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli. The laboratory results will usually include fragmented RBCs, decreased serum haptoglobin, reduced platelet count, nonspecific WBC changes, and normal coagulation tests (PTT included).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 116 - A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being reviewed six months after she had a mastectomy following the diagnosis. Which of the following tumour markers is the most useful in monitoring her disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CA 15-3

      Explanation:

      Tumour marker CA 15-3 is mostly associated with breast cancer.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 117 - A 34-year-old HIV positive man is referred to gastroenterology due to jaundiced sclera....

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old HIV positive man is referred to gastroenterology due to jaundiced sclera. Liver function tests are as follows: Albumin 34 g/l ALP 540 iu/l Bilirubin 67 µmol/L, ALT 45 iu/l What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      HIV can cause strictures in the biliary tract (see source for details of the disease). This makes the diagnosis of primary sclerosing cholangitis most likely given the clinical presentation and lab values. Due to its association with HIV this is more likely than all of the other answer choices. Know this association.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 118 - A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed as having acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed as having acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the single most important test in determining her prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytogenetics

      Explanation:

      All of the aforementioned options may be important however cytogenetics, for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, is the single most important test to determine her disease prognosis.

      Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.

      The disease has a poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 119 - Choose the correct definition regarding the standard error of the mean: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct definition regarding the standard error of the mean:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Standard deviation / square root (number of patients)

      Explanation:

      The SEM is an indicator of how close the sample mean is to the population mean. In reality, however, only one sample is extracted from the population. Therefore, the SEM is estimated using the standard deviation (SD) and a sample size (Estimated SEM). The SEM computed by a statistical program is an estimated value calculated via this process.

      Estimated Standard Error of the Mean (SEM)=SDn√

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 120 - A 50-year-old man is found incidentally to have hypercalcaemia during a routine health...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is found incidentally to have hypercalcaemia during a routine health screen. Which one of the following biochemical findings would be most suggestive of primary hyperparathyroidism rather than any other cause of hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum PTH concentration within the normal range

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) is diagnosed based upon levels of blood calcium and parathyroid hormone (PTH). In most people with PHPT, both levels are higher than normal. Occasionally, a person may have an elevated calcium level and a normal or minimally elevated PTH level. Since PTH should normally be low when calcium is elevated, a minimally elevated PTH is considered abnormal and indicates PHPT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 121 - A 41-year-old yoga instructor presents with a 2-month history of left-hand weakness. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old yoga instructor presents with a 2-month history of left-hand weakness. She has no significant past medical history. On examination, there is mild weakness of the left upper and lower limbs with a right sided facial weakness, which spares the forehead. Which of the following is the most likely location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right pons

      Explanation:

      The pons is above the level of decussation of the corticospinal tracts so a pontine lesion would cause a contralateral limb weakness.
      The facial motor nucleus is located in the pons and supplies the ipsilateral facial muscles.
      A right cerebral lesion would give left upper and lower limb weakness. It would also cause a left sided facial weakness.
      A left cerebral lesion would give right upper and lower limb weakness with right facial weakness.
      Finally, a cervical spinal cord lesion would not cause a facial weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 122 - Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is a long-term inflammatory disorder which affects muscles. Its symptoms are generally a skin rash and worsening muscle weakness in the proximal muscles (for example, the shoulders and thighs) over time. These may occur suddenly or develop over months. Other symptoms may include weight loss, fever, lung inflammation, or light sensitivity. Complications may include calcium deposits in muscles or skin.
      The skin rash may manifest as aheliotrope (a purplish color) or lilac, but may also be red. It can occur around the eyes along with swelling, as well as the upper chest or back ( shawl sign) or V-sign above the breasts and may also occur on the face, upper arms, thighs, or hands. Another form the rash takes is called Gottron’s sign which are red or violet, sometimes scaly, slightly raised papules that erupt on any of the finger joints (the metacarpophalangeal joints or the interphalangeal joints)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 123 - A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history of Sjogren Syndrome. The foetus would be at a risk for which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All correct

      Explanation:

      Women with Sjƶgren syndrome are likely to experience more complications during pregnancy than women without an autoimmune disease as the anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies cross the placenta and lead to various life threatening complications. Studies show a high incidence of poor fetal outcomes for these patients. Congenital heart block, neonatal lupus, congestive cardiac failure, hydrops fetalis can all be caused as a result of Sjogren syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 124 - A 28 year old woman is reviewed after giving birth one week ago....

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old woman is reviewed after giving birth one week ago. She complains about having difficulty sleeping and feeling anxious and tearful. She is also concerned about her mood because this is her first pregnancy and she is miserable. She is also not breast feeding. She has no history of any mental health disorder. What is the most appropriate approach to manage this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Explanation and reassurance

      Explanation:

      Most new moms experience postpartum baby blues after childbirth, which commonly include mood swings, crying spells, anxiety and difficulty sleeping. Baby blues typically begin within the first two to three days after delivery, and may last for up to two weeks.

      Signs and symptoms of baby blues may include:
      Mood swings
      Anxiety
      Sadness
      Irritability
      Feeling overwhelmed
      Crying
      Reduced concentration
      Appetite problems
      Trouble sleeping

      The exact cause of the ā€œbaby bluesā€ is unknown at this time. It is thought to be related to the hormone changes that occur during pregnancy and again after a baby is born. These hormonal changes may produce chemical changes in the brain that result in depression.
      Although the experience of baby blues is unpleasant, the condition usually subsides within two weeks without treatment. All the mom needs is reassurance and help with the baby and household chores.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 125 - A 30-year-old female is brought by her concerned mother. The patient reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female is brought by her concerned mother. The patient reports that the president is secretly in love with her, despite the fact that there has never been any contact between them. What is the probable psychiatric condition from which the patient is suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: De Clerambault's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is De Clerambault’s syndrome, also known as erotomania, which is a form of paranoid delusion with an amorous quality. The patient, often a single woman, believes that a famous person is in love with her.

      Other options:
      – BouffĆ©e dĆ©lirante is an acute psychotic disorder in which hallucinations, delusions or perceptual disturbances are obvious but markedly variable, changing from day to day or even from hour to hour.
      – Fregoli delusion is the mistaken belief that some people currently present in the deluded person’s environment (typically a stranger) is a familiar person in disguise.
      – Capgras delusion is the belief that significant others have been replaced by impostors, robots or aliens.
      – Couvade is the common but poorly understood phenomenon whereby the expectant father experiences somatic symptoms during the pregnancy for which there is no recognized physiological basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 126 - A 25 year old female presented with multiple small genital ulcers, which are...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female presented with multiple small genital ulcers, which are painful following a sexual intercourse with an unknown man. Which of the following can be used topically for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acyclovir

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis is Herpes Simplex infection. Topical Acyclovir can be used in early stages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 127 - Choose the karyotype associated with short stature: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the karyotype associated with short stature:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 45,XO

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome (TS) is one of the most common genetic disorders; occurs with an incidence of I: 2,500 female live births. It results from complete or partial chromosome X monosomy. TS is associated with abnormalities of the X chromosome and characteristic clinical features of short stature, gonadal dysgenesis, sexual developmental deficiencies, cardiac and/or renal defects, webbed neck, low-set ears, skeletal deformities including cubitus valgus, a propensity to ear infections and hearing deficits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 128 - A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for 2 weeks. On examination his blood pressure was 145/80 mmHg. On auscultation reversed splitting of the second heart sound and bibasal crepitations were detected. What would be the most likely finding on his ECG?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      When closure of the pulmonary valve occurs before the aortic valve, reversed splitting occurs. The causes of reversed splitting are aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, left bundle branch block (LBBB), and a ventricular pacemaker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 129 - A 66-year-old baker presents to the oncology clinic with six-month history of weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old baker presents to the oncology clinic with six-month history of weight loss and anorexia. Tumour marker profile shows an elevated level of bombesin. Out of the following, which is the most likely cancer to account for this result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small cell lung carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Bombesin is a tumour marker elevated in small cell lung carcinomas, as well as in gastric carcinomas and retinoblastomas.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 130 - A 42 year old male arrives at the clinic due to cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old male arrives at the clinic due to cough and haemoptysis. Examination shows nasal mucosal ulceration. The doctor suspects Wegener's granulomatosis. Which anatomical area would be most commonly involved in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lungs

      Explanation:

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis) is a systemic vasculitis that affects both small and medium-sized vessels. Patients typically initially suffer from a limited form that may consist of constitutional symptoms and localized manifestations such as chronic sinusitis, rhinitis, otitis media, ocular conditions. In later stages, more serious manifestations may arise, including pulmonary complications and glomerulonephritis, although the skin, eyes, and heart may also be involved but these lesions are less common.
      Diagnosis is based on laboratory testing (positive for PR3-ANCA/c-ANCA), imaging, and biopsy of affected organs, which demonstrate necrotizing granulomatous inflammation. GPA is treated with immunosuppressive drugs, typically consisting of glucocorticoids combined with methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, or rituximab. Relapses are common and the following systems are affected: Lower respiratory tract (95% of cases), renal involvement (80% of cases), skin lesions (45% of cases), ocular involvement (45% of cases) and cardiac involvement (33% of cases).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 131 - A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority of these episodes occurring when he is laughing. He states that he loses power in his legs and falls to the ground. He is alert throughout and recovers quickly. He also describes excessive daytime sleepiness with episodes in the morning of being awake but being unable to move his body. Examination is unremarkable. A diagnosis of narcolepsy is made. Which of the following is the first line treatment for excessive daytime sleepiness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Modafinil

      Explanation:

      Narcolepsy is a rare condition characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations, and cataplexy (sudden collapse triggered by emotion such as laughing or crying). There is no cure for narcolepsy. Treatment options include stimulants, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) or modafinil (Provigil), antidepressants, such as fluoxetine (Prozac), citalopram (Celexa), paroxetine (Paxil), sertraline (Zoloft) and sodium oxybate (Xyrem). Modafinil has replaced methylphenidate and amphetamine as the first-line treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 132 - A 66-year-old man with newly-diagnosed small cell carcinoma discusses his further treatment options...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old man with newly-diagnosed small cell carcinoma discusses his further treatment options with the team of doctors. Which statement is incorrect about small cell carcinoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients with small cell lung cancer always benefit from surgery

      Explanation:

      Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) is characterized by rapid growth and early dissemination. Prompt initiation of treatment is important.

      Patients with clinical stage Ia (T1N0) after standard staging evaluation may be considered for surgical resection, but combined treatment with chemotherapy and radiation therapy is the standard of care. Radiation therapy is often added at the second cycle of chemotherapy.

      Historically, patients undergoing surgery for small cell lung cancer (SCLC) had a dismal prognosis. However, more recent data suggest that patients with true stage I SCLC may benefit from surgical resection.

      Common sites of hematogenous metastases include the brain, bones, liver, adrenal glands, and bone marrow. The symptoms depend upon the site of spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 133 - A 25-year-old female is brought to the OPD by her husband. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female is brought to the OPD by her husband. She has been refusing to go outside for the past 3 months, telling her husband she is afraid of catching avian flu. On exploring this further, she is concerned because of the high number of migrating birds that she can see in her garden. She reports that the presence of her husband's socks on the washing line in the garden alerted her to this. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute paranoid schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Based on the given clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis in this patient is acute paranoid schizophrenia.

      Schizophrenia is a functional psychotic disorder characterized by the presence of delusional beliefs, hallucinations, and disturbances in thought, perception, and behaviour.

      Clinical features:
      Schneider’s first-rank symptoms may be divided into auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions:

      Auditory hallucinations of a specific type:
      Two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person
      Thought echo
      Voices commenting on the patient’s behaviour

      Thought disorder:
      Thought insertion
      Thought withdrawal
      Thought broadcasting

      Passivity phenomena:
      Bodily sensations being controlled by external influence
      Actions/impulses/feelings – experiences which are imposed on the Individual or influenced by others

      Other features of schizophrenia include
      Impaired insight (a feature of all psychoses)
      Incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances)
      Decreased speech
      Neologisms: made-up words
      Catatonia
      Negative symptoms: incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), avolition (poor motivation).

      Treatment:
      For the initial treatment of acute psychosis, it is recommended to commence an oral second-generation antipsychotics such as aripiprazole, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, etc.
      Once the acute phase is controlled, switching to a depot preparation like aripiprazole, paliperidone, zuclopenthixol, fluphenazine, haloperidol, pipotiazine, or risperidone is recommended.
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) and the use of art and drama therapies help counteract the negative symptoms of the disease, improve insight, and assist relapse prevention.
      Clozapine is used in case of treatment resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 134 - A patient with chronic renal failure, treated with regular haemodialysis, attends the renal...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with chronic renal failure, treated with regular haemodialysis, attends the renal clinic. He has been treated for six months with oral ferrous sulphate, 200 mg three times a day. His haemoglobin at this clinic attendance is 7.6. His previous result was 10.6 six months ago. Ā  Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV iron and subcutaneous erythropoietin

      Explanation:

      The patient should be prescribed IV iron and subcutaneous erythropoietin to enhance erythropoiesis to address the dropped haemoglobin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 135 - A 49-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. She also complains of loss of appetite for the past four months. Her admission CXR shows right-sided pleural effusion. An underlying malignancy is suspected and a series of tumour markers are requested, the results of which are: CA 19-9: 36 IU/mL (<40), CA 125: 654 IU/ml (<30), CA 15-3: 9 IU/ml (<40). What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian fibroma

      Explanation:

      The patient has Meigs syndrome. Meigs syndrome is defined as a triad of benign ovarian tumour with ascites and pleural effusion that resolves after resection of the tumour. Ovarian fibromas constitute the majority of the benign tumours seen in Meigs syndrome.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 136 - Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilation of systemic veins

      Explanation:

      Dilation of systemic veins is a beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine.

      Administration of nitro-glycerine results in the dilation of systemic veins and decrease of myocardial wall tension and oxygen demand. Dilatation of systemic veins can cause reduced systemic vascular resistance leading to reduced cardiac workload thus reducing anginal symptoms secondary to demand ischemia.

      This is accompanied by vasodilation of large and medium-sized coronary arteries with increased coronary blood flow to the sub endocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 137 - A patient complaining of nocturnal cough and wheeze is investigated for asthma.Ā Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complaining of nocturnal cough and wheeze is investigated for asthma.Ā Which of the following tests would be most useful in aiding the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ANCA

      Explanation:

      Churg-Strauss disease (CSD) is one of three important fibrinoid, necrotizing, inflammatory leukocytoclastic systemic small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with antineutrophil cytoplasm antibodies (ANCAs).
      The first (prodromal) phase of Churg-Strauss disease (CSD) consists of asthma usually in association with other typical allergic features, which may include eosinophilia. During the second phase, the eosinophilia is characteristic (see below) and ANCAs with perinuclear staining pattern (pANCAs) are detected. The treatment would therefore be different from asthma. For most patients, especially those patients with evidence of active vasculitis, treatment with corticosteroids and immunosuppressive agents (cyclophosphamide) is considered first-line therapy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 138 - A 28 year old female presents to her GP with joint pain ,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old female presents to her GP with joint pain , fever, a butterfly rash and fatigue. She has marked peripheral oedema. She is found to be hypertensive, in acute renal failure, low albumin levels and proteinuria. Ā  A renal biopsy is performed and reveals focal glomerulonephritis with subendothelial and mesangial immune deposits. Ā  What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lupus nephritis Class III

      Explanation:

      This case presents with characteristic symptoms of SLE and with her renal biopsy results of focal glomerulonephritis, this is clearly Class III SLE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 139 - A diagnosed case of scabies presented in OPD for some medical advice. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A diagnosed case of scabies presented in OPD for some medical advice. Which of the following statements best suits scabies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It causes itchiness in the skin even where there is no obvious lesion to be seen

      Explanation:

      Scabies is an infection caused by a microscopic mite known as Sarcoptes scabies. The chief presenting complaint is itching especially in skin folds and mostly during night. It spreads from one person to another through skin contact, and therefore it is more prevalent in crowded areas like hospitals, hostels and even at homes where people live in close contact with each other. Treatment options include benzyl benzoate, ivermectin, sulphur and permethrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 140 - A 65 yr. old male with a history of smoking and alcohol was...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old male with a history of smoking and alcohol was admitted with an ST elevation myocardial infarction. He was obese and lives a sedentary lifestyle. What is the non-pharmacological intervention which will be most helpful to reduce future ischaemic events?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stopping smoking

      Explanation:

      Stopping smoking is the single most effective non-pharmacological intervention which will reduce future ischaemic events. But the rest of the responses are also important interventions with regards to reducing future ischaemic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 141 - A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. Which is the most appropriate strategy for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age

      Explanation:

      Immunity against mumps develops over a long time. There is nothing to be done except to proceed with the usual vaccination schedule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 142 - A 30 year old male is reviewed following treatment using cognitive behaviour therapy...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old male is reviewed following treatment using cognitive behaviour therapy for bulimia. He thinks there has been no improvement in his condition and is interested in using pharmacological therapy. Which of the following is most suitable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High-dose fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is a serious, potentially life-threatening eating disorder characterized by a cycle of bingeing and compensatory behaviours such as self-induced vomiting designed to undo or compensate for the effects of binge eating.

      According to the DSM-5, the official diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa are:
      Recurrent episodes of binge eating. An episode of binge eating is characterized by both of the following:
      Eating, in a discrete period of time (e.g. within any 2-hour period), an amount of food that is definitely larger than most people would eat during a similar period of time and under similar circumstances.
      A sense of lack of control over eating during the episode (e.g. a feeling that one cannot stop eating or control what or how much one is eating).
      Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviour in order to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or other medications, fasting, or excessive exercise.
      The binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviours both occur, on average, at least once a week for three months.
      Self-evaluation is unduly influenced by body shape and weight.
      The disturbance does not occur exclusively during episodes of anorexia nervosa.

      Antidepressants as a group – particularly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) – are the mainstay of pharmacotherapy for bulimia nervosa. These may be helpful for patients with substantial concurrent symptoms of depression, anxiety, obsessions, or certain impulse disorder symptoms. They may be particularly good for patients who have not benefited from or had suboptimal response to suitable psychosocial therapy or who have a chronic, difficult course in combination with other treatments.

      Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved treatments
      Fluoxetine (Prozac): Initial dose 20 mg/d with advance over 1–2 weeks to 60 mg/d in the morning as tolerated. Some patients may need to begin at a lower dose if side effects are intolerable. A maximum dose of 80 mg/d may be used in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 143 - A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment...

    Incorrect

    • A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment of DNA. Which molecular technique is he using?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

      Explanation:

      PCR is a simple, yet elegant, enzymatic assay, which allows for the amplification of a specific DNA fragment from a complex pool of DNA. PCR can be performed using source DNA from a variety of tissues and organisms, including peripheral blood, skin, hair, saliva, and microbes. Only trace amounts of DNA are needed for PCR to generate enough copies to be analysed using conventional laboratory methods. For this reason, PCR is a sensitive assay. Each PCR assay requires the presence of template DNA, primers, nucleotides, and DNA polymerase. The DNA polymerase is the key enzyme that links individual nucleotides together to form the PCR product. The above mentioned components are mixed in a test tube or 96-well plate and then placed in a machine that allows repeated cycles of DNA amplification to occur in three basic steps. The machine is essentially a thermal cycler. It has a thermal block with holes, into which the test tubes or plates holding the PCR reaction mixture are inserted. The machine raises and lowers the temperature of the block in discrete, precise and pre-programmed steps. The reaction solution is first heated above the melting point of the two complementary DNA strands of the target DNA, which allows the strands to separate, a process called denaturation. The temperature is then lowered to allow the specific primers to bind to the target DNA segments, a process known as hybridization or annealing. Annealing between primers and the target DNA occurs only if they are complementary in sequence (e.g. A binding to G). The temperature is raised again, at which time the DNA polymerase is able to extend the primers by adding nucleotides to the developing DNA strand. With each repetition of these three steps, the number of copied DNA molecules doubles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 144 - A 24-year-old male is admitted with worsening shortness of breath with signs of...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male is admitted with worsening shortness of breath with signs of left ventricular failure. He has a known genetic condition. On examination, there is an ejection systolic murmur loudest over the aortic area radiating to the carotids, bibasal crepitations and pitting oedema to the knees bilaterally. On closer inspection of the patient, you note a wide vermillion border, small spaced teeth and a flat nasal bridge. The patient also has a disinhibited friendly demeanour. What is the likely precipitating valvular issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supravalvular aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Supravalvular aortic stenosis, is associated with a condition called William’s syndrome.
      William’s syndrome is an inherited neurodevelopmental disorder caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 7. The most common symptoms of Williams syndrome are heart defects and unusual facial features. Other symptoms include failure to gain weight appropriately in infancy (failure to thrive) and low muscle tone. Individuals with Williams syndrome tend to have widely spaced teeth, a long philtrum, and a flattened nasal bridge.
      Most individuals with Williams syndrome are highly verbal relative to their IQ, and are overly sociable, having what has been described as a cocktail party type personality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 145 - Supplementation of which one of the following might help a patient diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • Supplementation of which one of the following might help a patient diagnosed with homocystinuria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyridoxine

      Explanation:

      In general, the aim is to keep the homocysteine (Hcy) concentration as close to normal as possible. In patients who are fully-responsive to pyridoxine, standard doses can lead to tHcy levels below 50 μmol/L (and sometimes within the normal range). Some patients who are partially-responsive to pyridoxine may be able to achieve a tHcy level below 50 μmol/L if they are also on a low-Met diet; for others it is not a realistic goal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 146 - A 42-year-old male patient is admitted with recurrent pancreatitis. He also has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male patient is admitted with recurrent pancreatitis. He also has a history of parotitis. CT scan is carried out revealing no pancreatic mass, but evidence of widespread lymphadenopathy is seen. Dedicated liver imaging reveals a stricture in the common bile duct but no stones. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgG4 disease

      Explanation:

      IgG4-related disease (IgG4-RD) is a fibro-inflammatory condition that can affect nearly any organ system: the pancreas, biliary tree, salivary glands, periorbital tissues, kidneys, lungs, lymph nodes, meninges, aorta, breast, prostate, thyroid, pericardium, and skin. The histopathological features are similar across organs, regardless of the site. IgG4-RD is analogous to sarcoidosis, in which diverse organ manifestations are linked by similar histopathological characteristics. Raised concentrations of IgG4 in tissue and serum can be helpful in diagnosing IgG4 disease, but neither is a specific diagnostic marker.

      Some IgG4-RDs are:
      1. Autoimmune pancreatitis
      2. Riedel’s Thyroiditis
      3. Mediastinal and Retroperitoneal Fibrosis
      4. Periaortitis/periarteritis/Inflammatory aortic aneurysm
      5. Kuttner Tumour (submandibular glands)
      6. IgG4-related Mikulicz disease (lacrimal, parotid, and submandibular glands)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 147 - A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face and hands, after a beach holiday with friends. Tests reveal high levels of uroporphyrinogen in the urine. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) is the most common of the porphyries. It is characterised by fragility and blistering of exposed skin. Typically, patients who are ultimately diagnosed with PCT first seek treatment following the development photosensitivities in the form of blisters and erosions on commonly exposed areas of the skin. This is usually observed in the face, hands, forearms, and lower legs. It heals slowly and with scarring. Though blisters are the most common skin manifestations of PCT, other skin manifestations like hyperpigmentation (as if they are getting a tan) and hypertrichosis (mainly on top of the cheeks) also occur. Risk factors for the development of PCT include alcohol and sun.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 148 - A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness for 2 weeks. He reports that before the onset of these symptoms, he was fit and well and was not on any medication. He is a known smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has been smoking for over 25 years. On examination, the GP diagnosed a mild viral chest infection and reassured the patient that the symptoms would settle of their own accord. Two weeks later, the patient presented again to the GP, this time complaining of thirst, polyuria and generalised muscle weakness. The GP noticed the presence of ankle oedema. A prick test confirmed the presence of hyperglycaemia and the patient was referred to the hospital for investigations where the medical registrar ordered a variety of blood tests. Some of these results are shown: Na 144 mmol/L, K 2.2 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 34 mmol/L, Glucose 16 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ectopic ACTH production

      Explanation:

      The patient has small cell lung cancer presented by paraneoplastic syndrome; Ectopic ACTH secretion.

      Small cell lung cancer (SCLC), previously known as oat cell carcinoma is a neuroendocrine carcinoma that exhibits aggressive behaviour, rapid growth, early spread to distant sites, exquisite sensitivity to chemotherapy and radiation, and a frequent association with distinct paraneoplastic syndromes.
      Common presenting signs and symptoms of the disease, which very often occur in advanced-stage disease, include the following:
      – Shortness of breath
      – Cough
      – Bone pain
      – Weight loss
      – Fatigue
      – Neurologic dysfunction
      Most patients with this disease present with a short duration of symptoms, usually only 8-12 weeks before presentation. The clinical manifestations of SCLC can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
      SIADH is present in 15% of the patients and Ectopic secretion of ACTH is present in 2-5% of the patients leading to ectopic Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 149 - A 43-year-old police officer is admitted with a history of unsteadiness and slurring...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old police officer is admitted with a history of unsteadiness and slurring of speech. This has worsened over a period of three months. He complains of a tremor affecting his right hand and diplopia on right lateral gaze. He smokes 30 cigarettes a day and takes regular diclofenac for his arthritis. On examination, he is dysarthric and feels nauseated. Fundoscopy is normal, however there is marked horizontal nystagmus and evidence of a right VI nerve palsy. There also appears to be some mild facial weakness on the right side. Upon conducting Weber’s test, a louder tone is heard in the left ear. On conducting the Rinne test, both ears are normal. On examination of the upper limb, there is a right intention tremor and dysdiadochokinesis. Tone, power and reflexes are normal. On examination of the lower limb, tone, power and reflexes are normal, however he appears to walk with a broad-based gait and is leaning to the right. Lumbar puncture: Opening pressure 13 cm H20 (5–18) Protein 0.67 g/l (0.15–0.45) WCC 3 cells/ml (<5) Red cell count (RCC) 2 cells/ml (<5) Glucose 3.2 mmol/l (3.3–4.4) Blood glucose 5.8 mmol/l (3.0–6.0) Oligoclonal bands Present Serum oligoclonal bands Present Magnetic resonance scan shows a calcified lesion broadly attached to the petrous part of the temporal bone. In view of the above history and findings, what is the likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningioma of the cerebellar pontine angle

      Explanation:

      This patient has a combination of right cerebellar dysfunction with right-sided cranial nerve palsies (VI, VII, and VIII). The magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) shows a calcified meningioma within the right cerebellar pontine area, which would account for these findings. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis shows oligoclonal bands, however, these are matched in the serum, which reflects a systemic inflammatory response from his rheumatoid arthritis.

      The MRI scan and CSF analysis would not be consistent with progressive multiple sclerosis. The progressive nature of her symptoms would be against a diagnosis of brainstem infarct, and one would expect more pyramidal signs in the peripheral nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 150 - A 70-year-old female presented to her ophthalmologist with a complaint of weakening eyesight...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female presented to her ophthalmologist with a complaint of weakening eyesight despite continued use of her corrective glasses. She also had a history of mild headaches for a few weeks. On fundoscopy, the disc had blurred margins with mild cupping and a sickle shaped scotoma in both eyes. What is the most appropriate treatment in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pilocarpine eye drops

      Explanation:

      Frequent change of eye glasses, scotoma, and mild cupping are suggestive of primary open angle glaucoma. This means that the anterior angle of the eye is normal but there is a problem in the trabecular meshwork, where the Schlemm’s Canal is not allowing the drainage of the aqueous humor. Pilocarpine should be given to the patient because it is a parasympathomimetic agent. It causes the ciliary muscle of the eye to contract, causing the trabecular meshwork to open up, allowing the aqueous humor to drain again.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 151 - Which of the following is least likely to cause warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is least likely to cause warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma infection

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma infection causes cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA). The rest of the aforementioned options cause warm AIHA.

      AIHA may be divided into ‘warm’ and ‘cold’ types, according to the temperature at which the antibodies best cause haemolysis. It is most commonly idiopathic but may be secondary to a lymphoproliferative disorder, infection, or drugs.

      1. Warm AIHA:
      In warm AIHA, the antibody (usually IgG) causes haemolysis best at body temperature and tends to occur in extravascular sites, for example, spleen. Management options include steroids, immunosuppression, and splenectomy. It is caused by autoimmune diseases such as SLE (rarely causes mixed-type AIHA), cancers such as lymphomas and CLL, and drugs such as methyldopa.

      2. Cold AIHA:
      The antibody in cold AIHA is usually IgM and causes haemolysis best at 4°C and occurs more commonly intravascularly. Features may include symptoms of Raynaud’s disease and acrocyanosis. Patients do not respond well to steroids. Cold AIHA is caused by cancers such as lymphomas, and infections such as mycoplasma and EBV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 152 - A 27-year-old realtor presented with progressive weakness of both legs over the last...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old realtor presented with progressive weakness of both legs over the last 3 years. He complained of being unable to see well at night and having an impaired sense of smell. On examination he had a shortened fourth toe bilaterally with pes cavus. Neurological examination revealed a loss of pinprick sensation to bilateral knees, and weakness of both legs that was more prominent distally. Which of the following would be the best blood test to order to make a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phytanic acid

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis is Refsum’s disease. This is an autosomal recessive disorder that causes a sensorimotor peripheral neuropathy. It is caused by defective alpha oxidation of phytanic acid leading to its accumulation in tissues. Cardiac conduction abnormalities and cardiomyopathies may also occur.
      Epiphyseal dysplasia causes a characteristic shortening of the fourth toe. Serum phytanic acid levels are elevated. Treatment is by dietary restriction of foods containing phytanic acid (dairy products, fish, beef and lamb).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 153 - A 43-year-old man is reviewed in the gastroenterology clinic. He has had troublesome...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man is reviewed in the gastroenterology clinic. He has had troublesome dyspepsia for the past six months which has not settled with proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. During the review of his systems he also reports passing 6-7 watery stools per day. An OGD 3 weeks ago showed gastric erosions and ulcers. Which one of the following investigations is most likely to be diagnostic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fasting gastrin

      Explanation:

      This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from the hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. None of the other answer choices are a better answer than this. CT abdomen may potentially show a tumour, but this is not diagnostic for type.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 154 - A 54-year-old woman, with a long history of inflammatory bowel disease presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman, with a long history of inflammatory bowel disease presents to his GP with abnormal liver function tests. She has a raised alkaline phosphatase level but no symptoms of liver disease. Which of the following options is the best set of investigations to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRCP and liver biopsy

      Explanation:

      In a patient with abnormal LFTs and UC, think primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). MRCP and liver biopsy is the best answer. MRCP will show classically beads on a string – intra and extrahepatic stricturing and dilation. Remember this finding!! Liver biopsy is required for official diagnosis (need tissue!).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 155 - A 24 yr. old male with a history of a cardiac murmur which...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 yr. old male with a history of a cardiac murmur which was not properly followed up, presented with right sided hemiparesis. His blood pressure was 120/70 mmHg. His ECG revealed right bundle branch block with right axis deviation. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ostium secundum atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Ostium secundum atrial septal defects are known to cause stroke due to the passage of emboli from the right sided circulation to the left sided circulation. ECG shows tall, peaked P waves (usually best seen in leads II and V2) and prolongation of the PR interval, rSR pattern in leads V3 R and V1 as well as right axis deviation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 156 - A 50-year-old female patient is started on cyclophosphamide for vasculitis associated with Wegener's...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient is started on cyclophosphamide for vasculitis associated with Wegener's granulomatosis. Which of the following adverse effects is most characteristically associated with cyclophosphamide use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemorrhagic cystitis

      Explanation:

      Cyclophosphamide is a cytotoxic alkylating agent that acts by causing cross-linking of DNA strands. Its major adverse effects include haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma.

      Cardiomyopathy is caused by doxorubicin and ototoxicity is caused by cisplatin. Alopecia and weight gain are associated with a variety of chemotherapeutic agents especially those that treat breast cancers (e.g. paclitaxel).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 157 - Which of the following is MOST suggestive of a lesion of the sciatic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is MOST suggestive of a lesion of the sciatic nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foot drop

      Explanation:

      The sciatic neve originates in the sacral plexus, mainly from spinal segments L5-S2. It supplies muscles that cause extension of the thigh and flexion of the leg. It divides into two main branches, the tibial nerve and common peroneal nerve, which are responsible for all foot movements. Anterior thigh and medial leg sensory loss is typical of a femoral nerve lesion. The femoral nerve also mediates flexion of the hip.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 158 - A 28-year-old woman presents with intermittent episodes of diarrhoea, constipation, abdominal bloating and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with intermittent episodes of diarrhoea, constipation, abdominal bloating and flatulence. Clinical examination is unremarkable. Faecal occult bloods are negative and haematological and biochemical investigations are unremarkable. Which of the following is the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of dairy-free diet

      Explanation:

      The best next step is to try a dairy-free diet, many patients may develop this in their lifetime. IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion, and one would need to rule lactose intolerance out as a potential aetiology first. She is only 28, and without overt bleeding or signs/sxs/labs suggestive of obstruction or inflammation; colonoscopy, flex sig and a barium enema are not indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 159 - A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting 20g of paracetamol. N-acetyl cysteine was started immediately. What is the mechanism of action of N-acetyl cysteine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Replenishes glutathione

      Explanation:

      N-acetylcysteine depletes glutathione reserves by providing cysteine, which is an essential precursor in glutathione production.

      Glutathione within the liver can normally detoxify these minuscule quantities of NAPQI and prevent tissue damage.
      N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is the mainstay of therapy for acetaminophen toxicity.

      Paracetamol overdose:
      The liver normally conjugates paracetamol with glucuronic acid/sulphate. During an overdose, the conjugation system becomes saturated leading to oxidation by cytochrome P450 (predominately CYP2E1) mixed-function oxidases. This produces a toxic metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI).

      Normally glutathione acts as a defence mechanism by conjugating with the toxin forming the non-toxic mercapturic acid. If glutathione stores run-out, the toxin forms covalent bonds with cell proteins, denaturing them and leading to cell death.

      Other uses: In COPD, cystic fibrosis, and other lung conditions, nebulized NAC has mucolytic, anti-inflammatory, and antioxidant properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 160 - A 43-year-old right-handed migraineur is admitted to hospital having developed paraesthesia affecting her...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old right-handed migraineur is admitted to hospital having developed paraesthesia affecting her left arm. This came on suddenly during a migrainous attack while out shopping. The paraesthesia appeared to effect the entire left arm and in the last few hours, has spread to involve the left side of the face. She had had a similar episode several months ago whereby she developed some right-sided leg and arm weakness while at work. The weakness lasted several minutes and subsequently abated. At the time, she was also having one of her migraines. She has a long-standing history of migraines, which typically start with a prolonged aura and fortification spectra. Other then migraines, for which she has been taking pizotifen, she has no other past medical history. Her sister also suffers from migraines, and her mother has a history of dementia in her 50s. She is a non-smoker and drinks minimal alcohol. On examination she was orientated but apathetic. Her blood pressure was 130/65 mmHg, pulse 62/min, and temperature 36.2ĀŗC. There were no carotid bruits and heart sounds were entirely normal. There was reduced sensation to all modalities over the left side of the face extending to the vertex and the entire left arm. Tone and reflexes appeared intact; however, handgrip was reduced on the left due to numbness. The lower limb appeared entirely normal. Magnetic resonance (MR) scan showed bilateral, multifocal, T2/FLAIR (fluid attenuated inversion recovery ) hyperintensities in the deep white matter. MR Spinal cord was normal. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CADASIL (cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leucoencephalopathy)

      Explanation:

      CADASIL is the most common form of hereditary stroke disorder. This case has a strong history of migraine with aura with stroke-like episodes, characteristic of CADASIL. Additionally, there is positive family history of migraine and early dementia but no other vascular risk factors like hypertension, diabetes, or hypercholesterolaemia, which all confirm the suspicion of CADASIL, an arteriopathy where there is thickening of the smooth muscle cells in the blood vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 161 - A 38-year-old woman has a melanocytic naevi on her left forearm. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman has a melanocytic naevi on her left forearm. Which of the following features do not suggest malignant change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decrease in size

      Explanation:

      Melanocytic nevi are benign neoplasms or hamartomas composed of melanocytes. Melanocytes are derived from the neural crest and migrate during embryogenesis to selected ectodermal sites (primarily the skin and the CNS), but also to the eyes and the ears.
      They tend to appear during early childhood and during the first 30 years of life. They may change slowly, becoming raised, changing color or gradually fading.. Pregnancy can increase the number of naevi as well as the degree of hyperpigmentation.
      They may become malignant and this should be suspected if the naevus increases in size, develops an irregular surface or becomes darker, itches or bleeds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 162 - Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lupus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma, exposure to a causative agents including: molluscum contagiosum, warts and toxicodendron dermatitis or secondary to scratching rather than an infective or chemical cause include vitiligo, psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen nitidus, pityriasis rubra pilaris, and keratosis follicularis (Darier disease).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 163 - A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression. Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.

      Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).

      Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.

      Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes:
      Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertension
      Central nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.
      Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rash
      Endocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.
      Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
      Genitourinary: Urinary tract infection
      Hepatic: Abnormal hepatic function tests
      Neuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle cramps
      Ophthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbance
      Otic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitus
      Renal: Acute renal failure

      Other options:
      Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12–15 hours.
      Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 164 - Which of the following statements regarding macular degeneration is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding macular degeneration is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wet macular degeneration carries the worst prognosis

      Explanation:

      Traditionally two forms of macular degeneration are seen:
      – Dry (geographic atrophy) macular degeneration is characterized by drusen – yellow round spots in Bruch’s membrane.
      – Wet (exudative, neovascular) macular degeneration is characterized by choroidal neovascularization. Leakage of serous fluid and blood can subsequently result in a rapid loss of vision. This carries the worst prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 165 - A 40-year-old patient under treatment for gout gave a history of progressive weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old patient under treatment for gout gave a history of progressive weakness of his limbs over 2 months. He noticed that it was particularly difficult for him to get up from the toilet seat and to get out of his car. He also felt some tingling and numbness of his toes at night, which was distressing. He was taking several medications which included Ibuprofen, perindopril, colchicine, vitamin supplements, and indapamide. On examination his pulse was 85/min, blood pressure was 140/90 mmHg and fundi revealed arteriovenous nipping. He had proximal lower limb weakness of 4/5 and absent ankle reflexes. Plantar reflexes were upgoing on both sides. His serum creatinine phosphokinase level was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colchicine toxicity

      Explanation:

      The given clinical scenario is suggestive of myo-neuropathy and is most likely to be caused by colchicine toxicity.
      It gives rise to subacute proximal muscle weakness and on occasions can lead to an acute necrotizing myopathy. Creatine phosphokinase may be normal or may be elevated.
      Weakness resolves when the drug is discontinued but the neuropathic features remain.
      Death is usually a result of respiratory depression and cardiovascular collapse.
      Treatment is symptomatic and supportive, and the treatment for colchicine poisoning includes lavage and measures to prevent shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 166 - Which of the following is true concerning baclofen? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true concerning baclofen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Causes hallucinations when withdrawn

      Explanation:

      Baclofen is used to treat spastic movement symptoms such as those seen in cerebral palsy and multiple sclerosis. It is known to be associated with a withdrawal syndrome similar to alcohol withdrawal; thus, gradual withdrawal is necessary to avoid this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 167 - A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to the emergency department as he had become increasingly confused over the past two days. He had vomiting and diarrhoea. He was also consuming and passing a lot of water. On examination, he was disoriented. He had vertical nystagmus and was ataxic. What two investigations are likely to lead to the correct diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desmopressin test and serum lithium level

      Explanation:

      Desmopressin test (done to differentiate nephrogenic diabetes insipidus from central diabetes insipidus), and serum lithium levels can together confirm a diagnosis of lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

      Bipolar disease is most often managed with mood stabilizers like lithium. This patient develops gastrointestinal symptoms followed by an acute confusional state associated with polyuria and polydipsia. These symptoms are suggestive of diabetes insipidus.

      In a case where these symptoms occur in a bipolar patient under treatment, lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus should be considered as the most probable cause.

      Lithium intoxication can present with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, mental dullness, action tremor, weakness, ataxia, slurred speech, blurred vision, dizziness, especially vertical nystagmus and stupor or coma. Diffuse myoclonic twitching and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can also occur. Such a clinical syndrome occurs above the serum level of lithium of 1.5–2.0 mEq/L.

      Management:
      – Correcting electrolyte abnormalities in patients with acute disease is critical and often life-saving.
      – Treatment should be initiated with parenteral fluids to replete hypovolemia (normal saline at 200-250 mL/h), followed by administration of hypotonic fluid (0.5% normal saline).
      – On the restoration of the volume status of the patient forced diuresis should be initiated by the administration of parenteral furosemide or bumetanide accompanied by continued intravenous hypotonic fluid administration to maintain volume status.
      – Polyuria is managed with hydrochlorothiazide combined with amiloride, acetazolamide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 168 - A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents with chickenpox. How should she...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents with chickenpox. How should she be treated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Acyclovir is the correct answer. There has been no documented evidence of harm in pregnancy yet. Chickenpox can cause fetal abnormalities, and varicella zoster Immunoglobulin should be given to the infant immediately after birth (not the mother, won’t help). Steroids will actually make the chicken pox worse. Painkillers only, is obviously the wrong answer and pose severe risk to foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 169 - A 40-year-old woman presents with weight loss, palpitations, diarrhoea and cessation of periods....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with weight loss, palpitations, diarrhoea and cessation of periods. She has been treated by her GP for anxiety. Examination reveals a single nodule on the left of her thyroid, about 1.5 cm in diameter. Thyroid scan shows increased uptake within the nodule with reduced activity throughout the rest of the gland. Thyroid function tests showed a free thyroxine of 30 pmol/l (9–25 pmol/l), TSH < 0.05 mU/l (0.5–5). Based on these findings, what would be the definitive treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radioactive iodine therapy

      Explanation:

      Patients who have autonomously functioning nodules should be treated definitely with radioactive iodine or surgery.
      Na131 I treatment – In the United States and Europe, radioactive iodine is considered the treatment of choice for Toxic Nodular Goitre. Except for pregnancy, there are no absolute contraindications to radioiodine therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 170 - A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and is started...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and is started on chemotherapy. Two days following his first treatment session, he presents to the A&E with nausea, vomiting, and myalgia. On examination, he appears clinically dehydrated. A diagnosis of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is suspected. Which of the following would be consistent with the diagnosis of TLS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low corrected calcium

      Explanation:

      Out of the aforementioned markers, low corrected calcium is the only biochemistry result consistent with the diagnosis. All of the other markers are elevated in TLS.

      TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. As phosphate precipitates calcium, the serum concentration of calcium becomes low. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.

      Patients at high risk of TLS should be given IV rasburicase or IV allopurinol immediately prior to and during the first few days of chemotherapy. Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin. Allantoin is much more water soluble than uric acid and is therefore more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups
      should be given oral allopurinol during cycles of chemotherapy in an attempt to avoid the condition.

      TLS is graded according to the Cairo-Bishop scoring system as:
      1. Laboratory tumour lysis syndrome
      2. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 171 - A 20-year-old man presents with a history of sticky greenish discharge, accompanied by...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man presents with a history of sticky greenish discharge, accompanied by redness of the eyes, and difficulty opening his eyes in the morning. What is the single most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Redness of the eyes can present in all of the conditions. However, the green sticky discharge that causes the eyelids to stick together overnight is characteristic of bacterial conjunctivitis. Bacterial conjunctivitis is an inflammatory condition of the conjunctiva in which bacteria commonly Staphylococcus Aureus invade the conjunctiva. The person experiences a foreign body feeling in the eye and mucopurulent or purulent discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 172 - A health professional plans to visit Brazil but has recently come to know...

    Incorrect

    • A health professional plans to visit Brazil but has recently come to know that there is epidemic of West Nile virus there. Regarding the virus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment including with interferon, immunoglobulin and Ribavirin is effective

      Explanation:

      West Nile virus is an RNA virus transmitted by the Culex species of mosquitoes. It is mostly prevalent in South America, Africa and some parts of Europe. Clinically it presents with high grade fever, headache, abdominal pain, anorexia and a morbilliform rash over the body. It can also lead to meningitis, encephalitis and flaccid paralysis by affecting the anterior horn cells, a process suggesting similarity to poliomyelitis. It can be fatal if not treated abruptly. Studies suggest that it can be transferred from mother to offspring. New-borns may present with encephalitis, chorioretinitis and wide spread brain damage. Patients suffering from West Nile virus can be effectively treated with interferon, IV immunoglobulin and Ribavirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 173 - A 57 year old homeless man presents with fever and a productive cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 57 year old homeless man presents with fever and a productive cough which has green sputum with streaks of blood. A chest x-ray reveals consolidation in the right upper lobe with evidence of cavitation. He is a known alcoholic. What is the most likely causative agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klebsiella Pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Infection with Klebsiella organisms occurs in the lungs, where they cause destructive changes. Necrosis, inflammation, and haemorrhage occur within lung tissue, sometimes producing a thick, bloody, mucoid sputum described as currant jelly sputum.
      The illness typically affects middle-aged and older men with debilitating diseases such as alcoholism, diabetes, or chronic bronchopulmonary disease. An increased tendency exists toward abscess formation, cavitation, empyema, and pleural adhesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 174 - A 25-year-old woman noticed an episode of passing blood instead of urine in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman noticed an episode of passing blood instead of urine in the morning. She looks anaemic, but rest of the examination is normal. Her GP has arranged for a urological examination, which has come out to be normal as well. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

      Explanation:

      The patient has paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH). The classic sign of the disease is red discolouration of the urine due to the presence of haemoglobin and hemosiderin from the breakdown of red blood cells. As the urine is more concentrated in the morning, this is when the colour is most pronounced.

      PNH is an acquired clonal disorder of haematopoietic stem cells, characterised by variable combinations of intravascular haemolysis, thrombosis, and bone marrow failure. Diagnosis is made by flow cytometric evaluation of blood, which confirms the CD55 and CD59 deficiencies and deficiency of expression of other GPI-linked proteins. This test is replacing older complement-based assays such as the Ham test and sucrose lysis test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 175 - A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain. Which of the following is the pain most likely linked to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meconium ileus equivalent syndrome

      Explanation:

      Meconium ileus equivalent (MIE) can be defined as a clinical manifestation in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients caused by acute intestinal obstruction by putty-like faecal material in the cecum or terminal ileum. A broader definition includes a more chronic condition in CF patients with abdominal pain and a coecal mass which may eventually pass spontaneously. The condition occurs only in CF patients with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI). It has not been seen in other CF patients nor in non-CF patients with EPI. The frequency of these symptoms has been reported as 2.4%-25%.

      The treatment should primarily be non-operative. Specific treatment with N-acetylcysteine, administrated orally and/or as an enema is recommended. Enemas with the water soluble contrast medium, meglucamine diatrizoate (Gastrografin), provide an alternative form for treatment and can also serve diagnostic purposes. It is important that the physician is familiar with this disease entity and the appropriate treatment with the above mentioned drugs. Non-operative treatment is often effective, and dangerous complications following surgery can thus be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 176 - A 67 year-old attorney presents with a 2 month history of tremors affecting...

    Incorrect

    • A 67 year-old attorney presents with a 2 month history of tremors affecting his left arm. He suffers from depressive psychosis for the last 10 years, for which he has been receiving intermittent chlorpromazine and amitriptyline but has not been on any therapy for the last 4 months. He describes that his two brothers also had tremors. Upon examination, he has a resting tremor of his left hand with cogwheel rigidity of that arm and mild generalized bradykinesia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic Parkinson’s disease

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is idiopathic Parkinson’s disease because of the unilateral presentation. In addition, cogwheel rigidity is a classic presenting symptom. Neuroleptic-induced parkinsonism is usually bilateral and symmetrical. Essential tremors do not cause rest tremors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 177 - A 72-year-old man, following a fall at home, presents to his GP with...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man, following a fall at home, presents to his GP with acute localised chest pain, associated chronic postural lower back pain and chronic fatigue. On examination, he appears mildly anaemic and dehydrated, and has bruises over his arms and legs despite denying previous trauma. Furthermore, he has marked tenderness over his left lower rib cage, compatible with injured ribs, and tenderness over his lower lumbar spine. The rest of his clinical examination is normal. In order to establish a diagnosis of multiple myeloma, based on the patient's symptomology, which of the following combination of criteria is required?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy and radiographic survey demonstrating lytic lesions

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of multiple myeloma (MM) is based on the confirmation of (a) one major criterion and one minor criterion or (b) three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.

      Major criteria:
      1. >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Monoclonal band of paraprotein on electrophoresis: >35g/L for IgG, 20g/L for IgA, or >1g of light chains excreted in the urine per day

      Minor criteria:
      1. 10–30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Abnormal monoclonal band but levels less than listed above
      3. Lytic bone lesions observed radiographically
      4. Immunosuppression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 178 - Which of the following cancers is responsible in producing osteoblastic bone metastases instead...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cancers is responsible in producing osteoblastic bone metastases instead of osteolytic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bone metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 179 - Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol. ...

    Incorrect

    • Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta2 receptor agonist which increases cAMP levels and leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

      Explanation:

      Salbutamol stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which are the predominant receptors in bronchial smooth muscle (beta-2 receptors are also present in the heart in a concentration between 10% and 50%).

      Stimulation of beta-2 receptors leads to the activation of enzyme adenyl cyclase that forms cyclic AMP (adenosine-mono-phosphate) from ATP (adenosine-tri-phosphate). This increase of cyclic AMP relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and decrease airway resistance by lowering intracellular ionic calcium concentrations. Salbutamol relaxes the smooth muscles of airways, from trachea to terminal bronchioles.

      Increased cyclic AMP concentrations also inhibits the release of bronchoconstrictor mediators such as histamine and leukotriene from the mast cells in the airway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 180 - An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward in an unconscious state. She appears to have an acute lower respiratory tract infection. After consulting with an anaesthesiologist it was concluded that she was not a candidate for intensive care unit admission and thus, a decision was made to start the patient on doxapram therapy. Which of the following best fits the characteristics of doxapram?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      The two statements that fit the characteristics of doxapram are, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use and concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation.

      Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.

      Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
      The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.

      Drug interactions:
      Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 181 - A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate examination reveals a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus. Blood investigations show a PSA level of 1.3 ng/mL. Among the options provided below what is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Benign Prostatic Enlargement or Hyperplasia (BPE/BPH) is the most probable diagnosis of the patient in question. It is a histological diagnosis characterized by proliferation of the cellular elements of the prostate.
      The initial treatment modality of choice is selective alpha 1 antagonists (such as Prazosin, Alfuzosin and Indoramin, and long acting agents like, Terazosin, Doxazosin, etc.) as they provide immediate relief from the bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS).
      Other treatment modalities include:
      • Non-selective alpha blockers: no longer used due to severe adverse effects and the availability of selective alpha 1 blockers.
      • 5 alpha reductase inhibitors: Finasteride and Dutasteride, they target the underlying disease process and reduce the overall prostate volume. Thus, reduce the urinary retention and the lower urinary tract symptoms. (They do not provide immediate relief from LUTS and thus are not preferred as first line drugs over alpha 1 antagonists)
      • PDE-5 Inhibitors: The long-acting tadalafil has proven to be useful.
      • Surgical Treatment modalities: TURP, Prostatectomy, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 182 - A 60-year-old librarian presents for review. She has recently been diagnosed with dry...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old librarian presents for review. She has recently been diagnosed with dry age-related macular degeneration. Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for developing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration is the most common cause of blindness in the UK. Degeneration of the central retina (macula) is the key feature with changes usually bilateral. Smoking and genetic factors are risk factors for macular degeneration. The severity is divided into early, intermediate, and late types. The late type is additionally divided into dry and wet forms with the dry form making up 90% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 183 - A 72-year-old woman is admitted with general deterioration and ā€˜off-legs’. On examination in...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is admitted with general deterioration and ā€˜off-legs’. On examination in the emergency department, she looks dry and uremic. Ā  Investigations reveal:
      • K+ 7.2 mmol/L
      • Na+ 145 mmol/L
      • Creatinine 512 μmol/L
      • Urea 36.8 mmol/L
      Which TWO of the following measures are most appropriate in her immediate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ECG & IV Calcium gluconate bolus

      Explanation:

      First and foremost, the patient should be put on ECG monitoring to identify the cardiac state, and because of the markedly raised serum potassium, a calcium gluconate bolus will have the immediate effect of moderating the nerve and muscle performance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 184 - A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to be HIV positive and with oesophageal candidiasis. Which of the following regarding HIV virus is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV is an RNA virus

      Explanation:

      The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is grouped to the genus Lentivirus within the family of Retroviridae, subfamily Orthoretrovirinae. The HIV genome consists of two identical single-stranded RNA molecules that are enclosed within the core of the virus particle. The genome of the HIV provirus, also known as proviral DNA, is generated by the reverse transcription of the viral RNA genome into DNA, degradation of the RNA and integration of the double-stranded HIV DNA into the human genome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 185 - A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa pain, nausea and loss of appetite. You suspect that she has acute appendicitis. Which scoring system could you use to lend support to your diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alvarado score

      Explanation:

      The prompt is suggestive of acute appendicitis. The Alvarado score is a clinical scoring system used to determine the likelihood of appendicitis, so this is the correct answer. A score greater than 6 is generally considered at risk for having acute appendicitis. It has 8 different criteria included (symptoms, signs, and lab results) and divides patients into appendicitis unlikely, possible, probable, and definite. The Center Score is a score to access the likelihood that pharyngitis is due to Strep. The Child-Pugh score predicts prognosis in liver cirrhosis. The Glasgow score is two different scores– the Glasgow coma score in trauma, which estimates level of consciousness, essentially, and The Glasgow Imrie Criteria which determines the severity of acute pancreatitis based on 8 lab values. The MELD score predicts the severity of end-stage liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 186 - A 27-year-old man with a long history of heavy alcohol intake is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with a long history of heavy alcohol intake is admitted with nausea and frequent vomiting four hours after a meal in a restaurant. During review in the Emergency department he vomits a cupful of blood. What is the cause of his haematemesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear

      Explanation:

      This is a classic clinical presentation, with alcohol intake and nausea/vomiting that leads to hematemesis, of a Mallory-Weiss tear. Because of the history, that makes this more likely than haemorrhagic gastritis, duodenal ulceration, or oesophagitis (also oesophagitis would not bleed a cupful). Oesophageal varices would present with copious amounts of hematemesis and most likely hemodynamic instability as a result of the amount of blood loss. In Mallory-Weiss tear they are typically presented as a hemodynamically stable patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 187 - A 23 year old female is admitted with acute severe asthma. Treatment is...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old female is admitted with acute severe asthma. Treatment is initiated with 100% oxygen, nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers and IV hydrocortisone. There is no improvement despite initial treatment. What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate is safe and may improve lung function and reduce intubation rates in patients with acute severe asthma. Intravenous magnesium sulphate may also reduce hospital admissions in adults with acute asthma who have had little or no response to standard treatment.

      Consider giving a single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate to patients with acute severe asthma (PEF <50% best or predicted) who have not had a good initial response to inhaled bronchodilator therapy. Magnesium sulphate (1.2–2 g IV infusion over 20 minutes) should only be used following consultation with senior medical staff.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 188 - A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks postpartum and has been generally unwell for two weeks with malaise, sweating and anxiety. On examination, she is haemodynamically stable and clinically euthyroid. TFTs show the following: Free T4 33 pmol/L (9-23), Free T3 8 nmol/L (3.5-6), TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.5-5). What is the appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol 20 mg tds

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Postpartum thyroiditis which goes through 2 phases; hypothyroid and a hyperthyroid phase.
      The hyperthyroid phase of postpartum thyroiditis occurs between 2 and 10 months postpartum. Most commonly, it presents at 3 months. Symptoms more common in women with hyperthyroid postpartum thyroiditis include palpitations, fatigue, heat intolerance, and irritability/nervousness. The frequency of asymptomatic hyperthyroidism is 33%.
      Untreated, the hyperthyroidism resolves spontaneously within 2–3 months. This phase is diagnosed by the combination of a low serum TSH concentration in the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies, in women who are TSH receptor antibody-negative. Free T4 levels are typically elevated but may be normal.
      Treatment of hyperthyroidism, when necessary, is based on symptom severity and should be a joint decision of patient and physician. Beta-blockers such as propranolol are given to alleviate palpitations, irritability, and nervousness. The morbidity associated with treatment is the side effects of beta-blockade. The downside of withholding treatment is allowing the woman to remain symptomatic. Antithyroid medicines (thioureas) are not a potential treatment alternative, because the hyperthyroidism is caused by destructive thyroiditis resulting in the release of preformed thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 189 - Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome with right-sided accessory pathway

      Explanation:

      Causes for right axis deviation:
      -Right ventricular hypertrophy and Left posterior fascicular block
      -Lateral myocardial infarction.
      -Acute or chronic lung diseases: Pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), cor pulmonale.
      -Congenital heart disease (e.g., dextrocardia, secundum atrial septal defect).
      -Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
      -Ventricular ectopic rhythms (e.g., ventricular tachycardia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 190 - An 84-year-old retired police officer presents to the neurology clinic with double vision...

    Incorrect

    • An 84-year-old retired police officer presents to the neurology clinic with double vision and unsteadiness whilst walking. He has a past medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia and type 2 diabetes. On examination, you notice a right partial ptosis and miosis. The patient also has notable right facial loss of pain and temperature sensation with left sided truncal sensory loss contralateral to the face. In the clinic, apraclonidine eye drops are added to the affected eye, which causes a dilatation, whilst in the opposite eye, a pupil constriction occurs. After the eye drops have been eliminated from the body, 1% hydroxyamphetamine eye drops are then instilled. One hour after instillation, both pupils dilate. Which order of neurons is most likely affected in the sympathetic pathway?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: First order

      Explanation:

      Apraclonidine eye drops are initially used to confirm a Horner’s pupil. Apraclonidine stimulates both alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors. When added to the affected eye, it causes pupil dilation by >2mm because of the relative super sensitivity of this pupil to alpha-1 receptor activity. In a normal pupil, however, it causes constriction due to the more potent activity at the alpha-2 receptor which triggers re-uptake of noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft.

      Hydroxy amphetamine is then used to distinguish between first/second or third order neurones. In other words, it will distinguish either a lesion in the brainstem, cervical cord, chest or neck and one affecting above the superior cervical ganglion at the carotid bifurcation. In a normal pupil or a first/second order Horner’s, the pupil will dilate secondary to increased levels of noradrenaline released from the post-synaptic neurones. In a third order neurone, this will not occur. There is no fourth or fifth order neurone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 191 - A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood results show: fasting plasma glucose level: 6 mmol/l (3– 6), sodium 148 mmol/l (137–144), potassium 4.5 mmol/l (3.5–4.9), calcium 2.8 mmol/l (2.2–2.6). However, he still complains of polyuria, polydipsia and nocturia. What could be the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:
      Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])
      Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney.
      The boy most probably has nephrogenic diabetes insidious (DI) not central DI so he is not responding to the ADH treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 192 - A 72 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension for 15 years, presented with gradual onset difficulty in breathing on exertion and bilateral ankle swelling for the past 3 months. On examination he had mild ankle oedema. His JVP was not elevated. His heart sounds were normal but he had bibasal crepitations on auscultation. Which of the following clinical signs has the greatest sensitivity in detecting heart failure in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Third heart sound

      Explanation:

      The presence of a third heart sound is the most sensitive indicator of heart failure. AllĀ of the other signs can be found in heart failure with varying degrees.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 193 - A 19-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic with excessive hairiness and acne....

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic with excessive hairiness and acne. She tells you that she has a period only every few months and when she has one it tends to be very heavy. On examination, she has obvious facial acne. Her BP is 142/78 mmHg, her pulse is 72bpm and regular and her BMI is 30. There is facial hair and hair around her upper chest and breasts. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 11.9 g/dl (11.5-16.0), White cell count 6.0 x 10(9)/l (4-11), Platelets 202 x 10(9)/l (150-400), Sodium 137 mmol/l (135-146), Potassium 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5), Creatinine 90 µmol/l (79-118), Total testosterone normal, Free androgen index elevated, LH / FSH ratio 2.2. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      Rotterdam criteria for the diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome:
      Two of the following three criteria are required:
      1. Oligo/anovulation
      2. Hyperandrogenism
      – Clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or
      – Biochemical (raised FAI or free testosterone)
      3. Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
      Other aetiologies must be excluded such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia, androgen-secreting tumours, Cushing syndrome, thyroid dysfunction and hyperprolactinaemia.
      Cushing’s is excluded because there would have been marked obesity, hypertension and other related features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 194 - A 71 year-old dentist is seen in clinic with a history of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 71 year-old dentist is seen in clinic with a history of worsening memory problems and confusion. His wife had noted that his sleep was becoming more disturbed and he complains of vivid nightmares and visual hallucinations. Over the past few weeks, he has had increasing difficulty in dressing himself, and his mobility has deteriorated. On examination, he is bradykinesic with a resting tremor and rigidity affecting his arms and legs. His Mini-Mental-State Examination (MMSE) is 18/30. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lewy body disease

      Explanation:

      Lewy body dementia is the second most common cause of dementia in the elderly after Alzheimer’s disease. The core feature is a progressive dementia, but other characteristic features include Parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, fluctuating cognitive abilities and executive function, and an increased risk of falls or autonomic failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 195 - An elderly woman is admitted to the hospital with a community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)....

    Incorrect

    • An elderly woman is admitted to the hospital with a community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). Her medical notes state that she developed a skin rash after taking penicillin a few years ago. She has a CURB score of 4 and adverse prognostic features. Which of the following would be an appropriate empirical antibiotic choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefotaxime and erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is one of the most common infectious diseases and is an important cause of mortality and morbidity worldwide. Typical bacterial pathogens that cause CAP include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis.
      The CURB-65 is used as a means of deciding the action that is needed to be taken for that patient.
      Score 3-5: Requires hospitalization with consideration as to whether they need to be in the intensive care unit

      Recent studies have suggested that the use of a beta-lactam alone may be noninferior to a beta-lactam/macrolide combination or fluoroquinolone therapy in hospitalized patients.

      Therapy in ICU patients includes the following:
      – Beta-lactam (ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, or ampicillin/sulbactam) plus either a macrolide or respiratory fluoroquinolone
      – For patients with penicillin allergy, a respiratory fluoroquinolone and aztreonam

      Therefore the appropriate treatment would be Cefotaxime and erythromycin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 196 - A 32 year old male who has recently returned from a trip to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old male who has recently returned from a trip to Thailand presents with congestion of eyes and swelling of the knee joint. He completed a course of antibiotics for dysentery 4 weeks back. He experiences no dysuria and urine examination is normal. Which further information would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History and physical examination

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely has reactive arthritis which is usually diagnosed on history and clinical examination. The classic triad of symptoms include conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis. Arthritis and conjunctivitis may occur 4-6 weeks after a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection. Arthritis usually occurs acutely, mostly involving the lower limb and is asymmetrical. Blood culture, urine culture and arthrocentesis (joint aspiration) will not yield positive results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 197 - A 58-year-old lady was admitted to hospital with increasing thirst and generalised abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old lady was admitted to hospital with increasing thirst and generalised abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with breast carcinoma three years previously and treated with a radical mastectomy. Ā  Investigations showed: Serum corrected calcium 3.5 mmol/L (NR 2.2-2.6) Serum alkaline phosphatase 1100 IU/L Ā  Her serum calcium was still elevated following 4 litres of 0.9% saline intravenous infusion. Ā  Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pamidronate 60 mg intravenously

      Explanation:

      This case has hypercalcaemia most likely associated with the bony metastases from her pre-existing breast carcinoma. The most appropriate next step is to give Pamidronate 60mg intravenously, a bisphosphonate, to immediately inhibit bone resorption and formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 198 - A 57-year-old architect presents with weakness of the right hand. You note global...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old architect presents with weakness of the right hand. You note global wasting of the small hand muscles. There is also sensory loss over the medial border of the forearm around the elbow. Which of the following nerve roots is damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      This patient has Klumpke’s paralysis due to damage to the T1 nerve root. This root eventually supplies the median and ulnar nerves. The ulnar nerve supplies all of the intrinsic hand muscles except for those of the thenar eminence and the first and second lumbricals, which are innervated by the median nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 199 - A 39-year-old professor presents with visual problems. He has had very poor vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old professor presents with visual problems. He has had very poor vision in the dark for a long time but is now worried as he is developing 'tunnel vision'. He states his grandfather had a similar problem and went blind in his 50's. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa

      Explanation:

      Retinitis pigmentosa primarily affects the peripheral retina resulting in tunnel vision. Night blindness is often the initial sign. Tunnel vision occurs due to loss of the peripheral retina (occasionally referred to as funnel vision).
      Fundoscopy exam reveals black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in the peripheral retina, and mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 200 - A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is marked blanching of fingers especially in response to cold weather. Lab results are as follows: Anti Jo-1: positive, ANA: positive, CK: 2000 U/L, ESR: 60mm/hr, EMG: myopathic changes. Presence of which of the following signifies the worst prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interstitial lung disease

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is thought to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibres. It may be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. It may also be associated with malignancy for example small cell lung carcinoma.
      Dermatomyositis is a variant of the disease where skin manifestations are prominent, for example a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids.
      It typically affects middle-aged, female: male 3:1. Features include proximal muscle weakness +/- tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease: e.g. fibrosing alveolitis or organising pneumonia, dysphagia, dysphonia. Investigations: elevated creatine kinase, other muscle enzymes (lactate dehydrogenase (LD), aldolase, AST and ALT) are also elevated in 85-95% of patients, EMG, muscle biopsy. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s and fever. Interstitial lung disease plays a major role in morbidity and mortality in patients with polymyositis and is considered a major risk factor for premature death in patients with myositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (3/3) 100%
Haematology & Oncology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (2/2) 100%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
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