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  • Question 1 - Which one of the following occurs during reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following occurs during reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction?

      Your Answer: Used to amplify DNA

      Correct Answer: RNA is converted to DNA

      Explanation:

      Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique combining reverse transcription of RNA into DNA and amplification of specific DNA targets using polymerase chain reaction. It is primarily used to measure the amount of a specific RNA. The main advantage of PCR is its sensitivity: only one strand of sample DNA is needed to detect a particular DNA sequence. It now has many uses including prenatal diagnosis, detection of mutated oncogenes and diagnosis of infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which one of the following statements regarding mitochondrial inheritance is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding mitochondrial inheritance is true?

      Your Answer: Poor genotype:phenotype correlation

      Explanation:

      The human cell has two type of DNA: Nuclear DNA and Mitochondrial DNA (MtDNA). A MtDNA copy is passed down entirely unchanged, through the maternal line. Males cannot pass their MtDNA to their offspring although they inherit a copy of it from their mother. There is poor genotype:phenotype correlation. Within a tissue or cell there can be different mitochondrial populations (this is known as heteroplasmy).
      Examples of mitochondrial diseases include:
      – Leber’s optic atrophy
      – MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes)
      – MERRF syndrome (myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibres)
      – Kearns-Sayre syndrome (more severe syndromic variant of chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia, onset in patients < 20 years old)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 6-year-old boy is referred by his GP to the neurology clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is referred by his GP to the neurology clinic with abnormal movements. His mother noticed that for the last year, the boy has been falling over more and more frequently. He has also been having increasingly slurred speech. These have been getting progressively worse. He has had recurrent chest infections in his childhood. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Di-George syndrome

      Correct Answer: Ataxic telangiectasia

      Explanation:

      Ataxic telangiectasia is an inherited combined immunodeficiency disorder that is characterised by cerebellar ataxia and telangiectasia as seen in this child, as well as frequent infections as noted in this child’s history. The other differentials would not present with this clinical picture:

      Friedreich’s ataxia and Infantile-onset spinocerebellar ataxia do not present with immune problems, whereas Cerebral palsy and Di-George Syndrome do not present with ataxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      552.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and low-grade temperature. Yesterday he developed extensive painful ulceration of his mouth and gums. On examination his temperature is 37.4ºC, pulse 84 / min and there is submandibular lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection

      Explanation:

      This man has gingivostomatitis, a characteristic feature of primary herpes simplex virus infection. Herpetic gingivostomatitis is often the initial presentation during the first (primary) herpes simplex infection. It is of greater severity than herpes labialis (cold sores) which is often the subsequent presentations. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is the most common viral infection of the mouth.
      Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis (PHGS) is caused predominantly by HSV-1 and affects mainly children. Prodromal symptoms, such as fever, anorexia, irritability, malaise and headache, may occur in advance of disease. Sub-mandibular lymphadenitis, halitosis and refusal to drink are usual concomitant findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      49.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What do T-helper cells of the Th2 subset typically secrete? ...

    Correct

    • What do T-helper cells of the Th2 subset typically secrete?

      Your Answer: IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10, IL-13

      Explanation:

      Interleukin-4 (IL-4), IL-5 and IL-13, the signature cytokines that are produced during type 2 immune responses, are critical for protective immunity against infections of extracellular parasites and are responsible for asthma and many other allergic inflammatory diseases. Although many immune cell types within the myeloid lineage compartment including basophils, eosinophils and mast cells are capable of producing at least one of these cytokines, the production of these “type 2 immune response-related” cytokines by lymphoid lineages, CD4 T helper 2 (Th2) cells and type 2 innate lymphoid cells (ILC2s) in particular, are the central events during type 2 immune responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old alcoholic is admitted with portal hypertension. The wedged hepatic venous pressure...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old alcoholic is admitted with portal hypertension. The wedged hepatic venous pressure is recorded. This pressure is reflective of which part of the hepatic vascular system?

      Your Answer: Sinusoids

      Explanation:

      The wedged hepatic venous pressure is a reflection of the portal venous pressure in the hepatic sinusoids. This is a fact to remember. Here is a great but concise explanation as to why: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/18695309

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old man presents with a history of carpal tunnel syndrome and osteoarthritis...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents with a history of carpal tunnel syndrome and osteoarthritis of his weight-bearing joints. He has recently begun to suffer from symptoms of sleep apnoea. On examination, he has a prominent jawline and macroglossia. His BP is elevated at 155/95 mmHg and there is peripheral visual field loss. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Pegvisomant can be used where IGF-1 is not normalised post surgery

      Explanation:

      The patient has Acromegaly.
      Acromegaly is a chronic disorder characterised by growth hormone (GH) hypersecretion, predominantly caused by a pituitary adenoma.

      Random GH level testing is not recommended for diagnosis given the pulsatile nature of secretion. Stress, physical exercise, acute critical illness and fasting state can cause a physiological higher peak in GH secretion.

      Pegvisomant is a US Food and Drug Administration-approved treatment for use after surgery. In a global non-interventional safety surveillance study, pegvisomant normalised IGF-1 in 67.5% of patients after 5 years (most likely due to lack of dose-up titration), and also improved clinical symptoms. Pegvisomant improves insulin sensitivity, and long-term follow-up showed significantly decreased fasting glucose over time, while the first-generation SRL only have a marginal clinical impact on glucose homeostasis in acromegaly. Pegvisomant does not have any direct anti-proliferative effects on pituitary tumour cells, but tumour growth is rare overall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 70 year old female presented with a throbbing and continuous headache and...

    Correct

    • A 70 year old female presented with a throbbing and continuous headache and loss of vision. Her ESR was elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Giant Cell Arteritis (Temporal Arteritis) is the most probable diagnosis. GCA should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a new-onset headache in patients 50 years of age or older with an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Temporal artery biopsy remains the criterion standard for diagnosis of this granulomatous vasculitis. High-dose corticosteroid therapy is the universally accepted treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase...

    Correct

    • Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase II metabolism of a drug?

      Your Answer: Conjugation

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:
      Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.

      Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old male patient is admitted with recurrent pancreatitis. He also has a...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male patient is admitted with recurrent pancreatitis. He also has a history of parotitis. CT scan is carried out revealing no pancreatic mass, but evidence of widespread lymphadenopathy is seen. Dedicated liver imaging reveals a stricture in the common bile duct but no stones. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IgG4 disease

      Explanation:

      IgG4-related disease (IgG4-RD) is a fibro-inflammatory condition that can affect nearly any organ system: the pancreas, biliary tree, salivary glands, periorbital tissues, kidneys, lungs, lymph nodes, meninges, aorta, breast, prostate, thyroid, pericardium, and skin. The histopathological features are similar across organs, regardless of the site. IgG4-RD is analogous to sarcoidosis, in which diverse organ manifestations are linked by similar histopathological characteristics. Raised concentrations of IgG4 in tissue and serum can be helpful in diagnosing IgG4 disease, but neither is a specific diagnostic marker.

      Some IgG4-RDs are:
      1. Autoimmune pancreatitis
      2. Riedel’s Thyroiditis
      3. Mediastinal and Retroperitoneal Fibrosis
      4. Periaortitis/periarteritis/Inflammatory aortic aneurysm
      5. Kuttner Tumour (submandibular glands)
      6. IgG4-related Mikulicz disease (lacrimal, parotid, and submandibular glands)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      6.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (3/4) 75%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Haematology & Oncology (1/1) 100%
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