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  • Question 1 - An 81-year-old male presented to the emergency department following a fall at home....

    Correct

    • An 81-year-old male presented to the emergency department following a fall at home. He was diagnosed with osteoporosis about five years ago. He presently complains of significant low back pain. A lumbar spine X-ray was suggestive of a fractured lumbar vertebra. A subsequent MRI scan of the lumbosacral spine revealed a new L3 burst fracture with no evidence of cord compression. A neurosurgical consult was sought and conservative management was planned accordingly in the form of pain control, physiotherapy, and mobilization (as allowed by the pain). He also has been diagnosed with chronic renal disease (stage IV) with a creatinine clearance of 21ml/min, he was started on a Buprenorphine patch. Which of the following opioids would be safest to use for his breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: Oxycodone

      Explanation:

      Oxycodone is a safer opioid to use in patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure.
      Active metabolites of morphine accumulate in renal failure which means that long-term use is contraindicated in patients with moderate/severe renal failure.
      These toxic metabolites can accumulate causing toxicity and risk overdose.
      Oxycodone is mainly metabolised in the liver and thus safer to use in patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure with dose reductions.
      Adverse effects:
      Constipation is the most common overall side effect. Others include: asthenia, dizziness, dry mouth, headache, nausea, pruritus, etc.

      Medications in renal failure:
      Drugs to be avoided in patients with renal failure
      Antibiotics: tetracycline, nitrofurantoin
      NSAIDs
      Lithium
      Metformin
      Drugs that require dose adjustment:
      Most antibiotics including penicillin, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, streptomycin
      Digoxin, atenolol
      Methotrexate
      Sulphonylureas
      Furosemide
      Opioids
      Relatively safe drugs:
      Antibiotics: erythromycin, rifampicin
      Diazepam
      Warfarin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      340
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 29 year old male visits the clinic and complains of increased anxiety,...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old male visits the clinic and complains of increased anxiety, dizziness, and headache which started a week after he crashed his motorcycle. A CT scan of his brain showed no abnormality when it was done. His symptoms resolved four months after he had that episode. What did his original symptoms likely represent?

      Your Answer: Post-concussion syndrome

      Explanation:

      Post-concussion syndrome is a complex disorder in which various symptoms, such as headaches and dizziness, last for weeks and sometimes months after the injury that caused the concussion.

      Concussion is a mild traumatic brain injury that usually happens after a blow to the head. It can also occur with violent shaking and movement of the head or body. You don’t have to lose consciousness to get a concussion or post-concussion syndrome. In fact, the risk of post-concussion syndrome doesn’t appear to be associated with the severity of the initial injury.

      Post-concussion symptoms include:
      Headaches
      Dizziness
      Fatigue
      Irritability
      Anxiety
      Insomnia
      Loss of concentration and memory
      Ringing in the ears
      Blurry vision
      Noise and light sensitivity
      Rarely, decreases in taste and smell

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed as having acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed as having acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the single most important test in determining her prognosis?

      Your Answer: Immunophenotyping

      Correct Answer: Cytogenetics

      Explanation:

      All of the aforementioned options may be important however cytogenetics, for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, is the single most important test to determine her disease prognosis.

      Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.

      The disease has a poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 61 year old male is noted to be depressed following a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 61 year old male is noted to be depressed following a recent heart attack. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease. Which antidepressant would be appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Major depression (MD) often occurs after MI and has been shown to be an independent predictor of poor cardiovascular (CV) outcome.

      Results of a randomized trial confirm that the antidepressant sertraline can be used safely in patients with recent MI or unstable angina and is effective in relieving depression in these patients.

      Adverse effects to note:
      Sertraline – Diarrhoea (13-24%), Nausea (13-30%), Headache (20-25%),
      Insomnia (12-28%)
      Imipramine – ECG changes, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia
      Confusion, extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), dizziness, paraesthesia, tinnitus
      Flupentixol – seizures, irregular/fast heartbeat, increased sweating
      Paroxetine – Hypertension, Tachycardia, Emotional lability, Pruritus
      Venlafaxine – Abnormal vision (4-6%), Hypertension (2-5%), Paraesthesia (2-3%), Vasodilation (2-6%), Aneurism, Deep vein thrombophlebitis, Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32 yr. old previously well primigravida in her 16th week of pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 yr. old previously well primigravida in her 16th week of pregnancy came to the antenatal clinic for a routine review. Her blood pressure was 152/90 mmHg. On her last clinic visit 4 weeks ago her blood pressure was 148/86 mmHg. She was put on ambulatory blood pressure monitoring and her mean blood pressure was 148/88 mmHg. Her urine examination was negative for protein. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy-induced hypertension

      Correct Answer: Pre-existing hypertension

      Explanation:

      Pre-eclampsia is excluded from negative proteinuria. White coat hypertension is excluded with ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. Pregnancy induced hypertension develops after 20 weeks of gestation. So the most likely answer is pre-existing hypertension. She should be investigated for a secondary cause for hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      59.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 34-year-old Nigerian woman who is a known case of sickle cell anaemia...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old Nigerian woman who is a known case of sickle cell anaemia presents with fever and worsening of recurrent back pain. There is no history of weight loss or night sweats. The investigations done on her arrival show: Hb: 7.8 g/dL, WCC: 10.1 x10^9/L, Plts: 475 x10^9/L, Reticulocytes: 12%, Serum total bilirubin: 88 μmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic crisis

      Correct Answer: Vaso-occlusive event

      Explanation:

      This patient is having vaso-occlusive event/crisis (thrombotic crisis) which is a type of sickle cell crisis. It may be associated with ostealgia.

      There is no evidence of an aplastic crisis in this case as the haemoglobin level is reasonable with a good reticulocyte count. Conversely, the haemoglobin is not low enough and reticulocyte count and bilirubin are not high enough for a haemolytic crisis.

      Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by periods of good health with intervening crises. The four main types of sickle cell crises are thrombotic crisis (painful or vaso-occlusive crisis), sequestration crisis, aplastic crisis, and haemolytic crisis.

      Thrombotic crisis is precipitated by infection, dehydration, alcohol, change in temperature, and deoxygenation. Sequestration crisis is characterised by acute chest syndrome (i.e. fever, dyspnoea, chest/rib pain, low pO2, and pulmonary infiltrates). Aplastic crisis is characterised by a sudden fall in haemoglobin without marked reticulocytosis. It usually occurs secondary to parvovirus infection. In haemolytic crisis, a fall in haemoglobin occurs secondary to haemolysis. It is a rare type of sickle cell crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Choose the correct statement regarding interferon: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding interferon:

      Your Answer: Interferon-gamma has a role in chronic hepatitis C

      Correct Answer: Interferon-alpha and interferon-beta bind to the same type of receptor

      Explanation:

      Type I interferons (IFNs) form a network of homologous cytokines that bind to a shared, heterodimeric cell surface receptor and engage signalling pathways that activate innate and adaptive immune responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She comes from a family of Jehovah's Witnesses. Her haemoglobin on admission is 6.7 g/dl. She consents to a blood transfusion but her mother refuses. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Transfer the patient to a hospital run by Jehovah's Witnesses

      Correct Answer: Give the blood transfusion

      Explanation:

      People aged 16 or over are entitled to consent to their own treatment. This can only be overruled in exceptional circumstances. Children under the age of 16 can consent to their own treatment if they’re believed to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what’s involved in their treatment. This is known as being Gillick competent.

      Otherwise, someone with parental responsibility can consent for them.
      This could be:
      the child’s mother or father
      the child’s legally appointed guardian
      a person with a residence order concerning the child
      a local authority designated to care for the child
      a local authority or person with an emergency protection order for the child.
      Giving the blood transfusion is therefore both clinically and ethically the right course of action.
      Jehovah’s Witnesses frequently carry a signed and witnessed Advance Decision Document listing the blood products and autologous procedures that are, or are not, acceptable to them It is appropriate to have a frank, confidential discussion with the patient about the potential risks of their decision and the possible alternatives to transfusion, but the freely expressed wish of a competent adult must always be respected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 71-year old gentleman presents with a subacute history of intermittent difficulty in...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year old gentleman presents with a subacute history of intermittent difficulty in walking, dry mouth, and variable slurring of speech. When the latter is severe he also has difficulty in swallowing. He has lost 3 kg in weight in the last 2 months. On examination he has bilateral mild ptosis, dysarthria, and proximal weakness of the upper and lower limbs, and he is areflexic. The degree of weakness is variable. Nerve conduction studies confirm the clinical suspicion of a neuromuscular junction disorder. Which of the following autoantibodies is likely to be the underlying cause of his neurological symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anticholinesterase antibody

      Correct Answer: Anti-voltage-gated, calcium-channel antibody

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture points to Lambert– Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) which often presents with weakness of the arms and legs. In LEMS, antibodies against voltage-gated calcium channels (VGCC) decrease the amount of calcium that can enter the nerve ending, causing autonomic symptoms like dry mouth and slurring of speech, as seen in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is admitted to the acute medical unit for pneumonia. This is his fourth admission for pneumonia in the past six months. Which of the following factors is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Transformation to high-grade lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Hypogammaglobulinaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypogammaglobulinemia is a complication of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) that leads to recurrent infections.

      CLL is a type of cancer caused by monoclonal proliferation of well-differentiated lymphocytes, typically B cells (99%). Onset of the disease is usually asymptomatic and later constitutes anorexia, weight loss, bleeding, and recurrent infections. Lymphadenopathy is more marked in CLL than in chronic myelogenous leukaemia (CML).

      Investigations to diagnose CLL include blood film and immunophenotyping. Smudge cells (also known as smear cells) seen on the blood film point towards CLL. Complications of the disease include hypogammaglobulinemia leading to recurrent infections, autoimmune haemolytic anaemia in 10–15% of the patients, and transformation to high-grade lymphoma (Richter’s transformation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning?

      Your Answer: Can only result from lead ingestion

      Correct Answer: Causes a peripheral neuropathy due to demyelination

      Explanation:

      Lead can be absorbed through the skin and by inhalation. It is associated with iron deficiency and a microcytic anaemia. The most common gastrointestinal symptoms are abdominal colic and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the oncologist clinic for further investigations. She...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the oncologist clinic for further investigations. She has experienced fever, sometimes glandular and night sweats. Clinical examination reveals lymphadenopathy and a biopsy is performed. The biopsy reveals the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, confirming what was suspected to be a Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which cell surface marker is associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: CD15

      Explanation:

      The CD15 antigen, also known as Lewis (hapten)X, serves as an immuno-phenotypic marker for Reed-Sternberg cells and its expression has diagnostic, but also prognostic significance in Hodgkin Lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old woman with established metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the A&E...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with established metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the A&E with hypercalcemia. She has a clear medical history, doesn't smoke and works in an office based job. At the A&E she's given intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates. She's finally discharged after normalization of her calcium levels. However, before leaving the hospital she's sent to the endocrinology department for consultation regarding outpatient care and serum calcium monitoring. What is the most appropriate and useful advice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Avoid excess exercise until treated

      Correct Answer: Increase fluid intake

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines on hypercalcemia recommend that maintaining good hydration equals drinking 3-4 L of fluid/day, provided there are no contraindications. A low calcium diet is not necessary because intestinal absorption of calcium is reduced. The patient should avoid any other drugs or vitamins that could worsen the hypercalcemia. Mobilization is encouraged and any symptoms of hypercalcemia should be reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin acts?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen agonist

      Correct Answer: GnRH agonist

      Explanation:

      Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) for prostate cancer:

      Goserelin (Zoladex) is a synthetic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogue; chronic stimulation of goserelin results in suppression of LH, FSH serum levels thereby preventing a rise in testosterone.

      Dosage form: 3.6 mg/10.8mg implants.

      Adverse effects include flushing, sweating, diarrhoea, erectile dysfunction, less commonly, rash, depression, hypersensitivity, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following stimulates the secretion of gastrin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following stimulates the secretion of gastrin?

      Your Answer: High level gastric acid in the stomach

      Correct Answer: Amino acids

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is released from G cells in the antrum of the stomach after a meal. It stimulates parietal cells to release HCl. Gastrin is stimulated by a number of things: antrum distention, vagal stimulation, peptides (especially amino acids) in the stomach, hypercalcemia. Gastrin release is inhibited by acid, SST, GIP, VIP, secretin, glucagon, and calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      533.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?

      Your Answer: ANA

      Correct Answer: Anti-Sm

      Explanation:

      Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is least associated with lead poisoning? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is least associated with lead poisoning?

      Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Acute glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Lead poisoning is characterised by abdominal pain, fatigue, constipation, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), and blue lines on gum margin in 20% of the adult patients (very rare in children).

      For diagnosis, the level of lead in blood is usually considered with levels greater than 10 mcg/dL being significant. Furthermore, the blood film shows microcytic anaemia and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. Urinary coproporphyrin is increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased). Raised serum and urine levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid may also be seen, making it sometimes difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 21 year-old software developer undergoes a planned lumbar puncture (LP) as part...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year-old software developer undergoes a planned lumbar puncture (LP) as part of a neurological investigation for possible multiple sclerosis. During the consent process, she expresses concern about a post-LP headache. What is the mechanism of post-LP headaches?

      Your Answer: Nerve injury

      Correct Answer: Leaking cerebrospinal fluid from the dura

      Explanation:

      Leaking of cerebrospinal fluid from the dura is the most likely explanation for post-lumbar puncture headaches. It is thought that ongoing leak of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) through the puncture site causes ongoing CSF loss, leading to low pressure. A post-LP headache is typically frontal or occipital and occurs within three days. It is normally associated with worsening on standing and improvement when lying down. Treatment in severe cases includes an epidural blood patch, but most resolve on their own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 23-year-old designer is requesting the combined oral contraceptive pill. During the history...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old designer is requesting the combined oral contraceptive pill. During the history taking, she states that in the past she has had migraines with aura. She asks why the combined oral contraceptive pill is contraindicated. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?

      Your Answer: Theoretical risk of ischaemic stroke

      Correct Answer: Significantly increased risk of ischaemic stroke

      Explanation:

      SIGN produced guidelines in 2008 on the management of migraines. Key points include that if patients have migraines with aura then the combined oral contraceptive (COC) is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke (relative risk 8.72).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 20 yr. old male presented after an episode where he had collapsed....

    Incorrect

    • A 20 yr. old male presented after an episode where he had collapsed. This was the second time he has collapsed during the past 3 weeks. His father passed away at the age of 40 due to sudden cardiac death. Echocardiography showed evidence of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. His 24 hr ECG revealed several short runs of non sustained ventricular tachycardia (VT). Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone 200mg

      Correct Answer: Implantable cardiovertor defibrillator

      Explanation:

      This patient has a high risk of sudden cardiac death due to a strong family history and non sustained VT. So the most appropriate management is implantable cardiovertor defibrillator.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 60 yr. old male with no past medical history presented to Casualty...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old male with no past medical history presented to Casualty with acute chest pain. ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is diagnosed following an ECG on arrival. He was subsequently successfully thrombolysed. Which of the following combinations of drugs is the most suitable combination for him to be taking 4 weeks after his STEMI?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitor + statin + aspirin + clopidogrel

      Correct Answer: ACE inhibitor + beta-blocker + statin + aspirin + clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines (2013) all people who have had an acute MI, treatment should be offered with ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), beta-blocker and a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow up. He is on metformin 2 g per day and gliclazide 160 mg per day. His recent HbA1c was 8.4% and his blood pressure was 140/75 mmHg. Eye examination reveals dot and blot haemorrhages and microaneurysms. None are close to the macula. Which of the following defines his eye condition?

      Your Answer: Background diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Patients with diabetes often develop ophthalmic complications, the most common and potentially most blinding of these complications is diabetic retinopathy.
      The following are the 5 stages in the progression of diabetic retinopathy:
      1. Dilation of the retinal venules and formation of retinal capillary microaneurysms.
      2. Increased vascular permeability.
      3. Vascular occlusion and retinal ischemia.
      4. Proliferation of new blood vessels on the surface of the retina.
      5. Vitreous haemorrhage and contraction of the fibrovascular proliferation.
      The first 2 stages of diabetic retinopathy are known as background or nonproliferative retinopathy. Initially, the retinal venules dilate, then microaneurysms (tiny red dots on the retina that cause no visual impairment) appear. As the microaneurysms or retinal capillaries become more permeable, hard exudates appear, reflecting the leakage of plasma.

      Mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) or background diabetic retinopathy is indicated by the presence of at least 1 microaneurysm, while neovascularization is the hallmark of Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy (PDR).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: She should not take the combined pill if she has heavy periods

      Correct Answer: She will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill

      Explanation:

      The true statement among the given options is that she will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill.

      Other than enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin, antibiotics do not reduce the efficacy of the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      It was previously advised that barrier methods of contraception should be used if taking an antibiotic while using the contraceptive pill, due to concerns that antibiotics might reduce the absorption of the pill. This is now known to be untrue. However, if the absorptive ability of the gut is compromised for another reason, such as severe diarrhoea or vomiting, or bowel disease, this may affect the efficacy of the pill.

      The exception to the antibiotic rule is that hepatic enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin and rifaximin do reduce the efficacy of the pill. Other enzyme-inducing drugs, such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine or St John’s Wort can also reduce the effectiveness of the pill.

      Other options:
      The combined pill is often prescribed for women with heavy periods as it can make them lighter and less painful.
      There is no evidence that women on the combined pill put on any significant weight, although they may experience bloating at certain times in the course.
      Women on the pill require monitoring of their blood pressure.
      There are multiple different types of combined pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A defect in DNA gyrase can lead to which of the following cancerous...

    Incorrect

    • A defect in DNA gyrase can lead to which of the following cancerous conditions?

      Your Answer: von Hippel-Lindau

      Correct Answer: Xeroderma pigmentosum

      Explanation:

      Xeroderma pigmentosum is an X-linked recessive condition, which is caused by mutations in DNA gyrase which further encodes the XP gene. The defect may lead to skin cancer at an early stage of life, especially at photo exposed sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - In the event of an overdose, haemodialysis is ineffective as a treatment modality...

    Incorrect

    • In the event of an overdose, haemodialysis is ineffective as a treatment modality for which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer: Aminophylline

      Correct Answer: Tricyclics

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic compounds can’t be cleared by haemodialysis.

      Drugs that can be cleared with haemodialysis include: (BLAST)
      – Barbiturate
      – Lithium
      – Alcohol (inc methanol, ethylene glycol)
      – Salicylates
      – Theophyllines (charcoal hemoperfusion is preferable)

      Drugs which cannot be cleared with haemodialysis include:
      – Tricyclics
      – Benzodiazepines
      – Dextropropoxyphene (Co-proxamol)
      – Digoxin
      – Beta-blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Her GP decides to start her on etanercept injections. Which one among the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of etanercept?

      Your Answer: Tendonitis

      Correct Answer: Reactivation of tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Among the give options, reactivation of tuberculosis may occur in a patient under treatment with etanercept.
      Etanercept is a biological TNF inhibit commonly used to control ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, plaque psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis.
      Etanercept is a soluble receptor that binds both TNF-alpha and TNF-beta to inhibit the inflammatory response in joints and skin that is characteristic of these autoimmune disorders.
      The most common adverse effects include infections (viral, bacterial, and fungal – mostly upper respiratory tract infections) and injection site reaction (erythema, itching, pain, swelling, bleeding, bruising).
      Rarely it can also cause, reactivation of hepatitis B and TB, pneumocystis pneumonia, congestive cardiac failure, Steven-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      57.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old female diagnosed with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis complains of pain and redness...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female diagnosed with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis complains of pain and redness in the right eye. Which part of the eye is causing these symptoms in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sclera

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid Scleritis is a painful inflammatory condition of the sclera in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. It might be diffuse, nodular, or necrotizing in nature. This occurs mostly in the sixth decade of life and mostly when the rheumatoid disease is in remission. Sclera is the first ocular manifestation in a patient of rheumatoid arthritis. This inflammation might later spread to the adjacent ocular structures like the cornea, causing keratitis, the uveal tract causing uveitis and the lens causing cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Choose the part of the antibody to which immune cells bind: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the part of the antibody to which immune cells bind:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fc region

      Explanation:

      Fc Receptors include the IgG receptors (FcγR), high-affinity IgE receptor (FcεRI), IgA and IgA/IgM receptors, and neonatal Fc receptor for IgG (FcRn). In particular, the FcγRs have been well known to play an important role in many biologic processes including those associated with the response to infection and cancer as well as in the pathogenesis of immune-mediated diseases. Fc receptors, the receptors for the Fc region of immunoglobulins, play an essential role in antibody-dependent immune responses. Fc receptors are detected on many types of hematopoietic cells including macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic cells, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, and NK cells. Plasma cells produce five classes of antibodies, IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG and IgM. Fc receptors with an Ig superfamily related structure exist that correspond to each of these classes of immunoglobulins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following is MOST suggestive of a lesion of the sciatic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is MOST suggestive of a lesion of the sciatic nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foot drop

      Explanation:

      The sciatic neve originates in the sacral plexus, mainly from spinal segments L5-S2. It supplies muscles that cause extension of the thigh and flexion of the leg. It divides into two main branches, the tibial nerve and common peroneal nerve, which are responsible for all foot movements. Anterior thigh and medial leg sensory loss is typical of a femoral nerve lesion. The femoral nerve also mediates flexion of the hip.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 72 year old retired fisherman presents with weakness of shoulders and hips...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old retired fisherman presents with weakness of shoulders and hips over the last four months. Finger flexion is also weak but the extension is normal. There has been some difficulty swallowing liquids. Past medical history is not significant except for sexually transmitted disease that he caught some 40 years ago in South Pacific and got treated with antibiotics. He smokes and drinks one or two tots of rum at the weekend. Creatine kinase level is 125. Which of the following investigations is most significant in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Muscle biopsy with electron microscopy

      Explanation:

      Inclusion body myositis (IBM) is a progressive muscle disorder characterized by muscle inflammation, weakness, and atrophy (wasting). It is a type of inflammatory myopathy. IBM develops in adulthood, usually after age 50. The symptoms and rate of progression vary from person to person. The most common symptoms include progressive weakness of the legs, arms, fingers, and wrists. Some people also have weakness of the facial muscles (especially muscles controlling eye closure), or difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). Muscle cramping and pain are uncommon, but have been reported in some people. The underlying cause of IBM is poorly understood and likely involves the interaction of genetic, immune-related, and environmental factors. Some people may have a genetic predisposition to developing IBM, but the condition itself typically is not inherited. Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels in the blood (at most ,10 times normal) are typical in IBM. Muscle biopsy may display several common findings including; inflammatory cells invading muscle cells, vacuolar degeneration, inclusions or plaques of abnormal proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (6/6) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (3/3) 100%
Haematology & Oncology (3/3) 100%
Neurology (2/4) 50%
Clinical Sciences (2/3) 67%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (0/2) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
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