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Question 1
Correct
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A 25 year old male arrives at the Emergency Department after being struck in the back of the head with a baseball bat. He reports a headache and has a cut on his occiput. He is alert, responsive to commands, and able to provide a detailed description of the incident.
What is his Glasgow coma scale (GCS)?Your Answer: 15
Explanation:The GCS score for this patient is 654, which stands for Motor (6 points), Verbal (5 points), and Eye opening (4 points). This scoring system is used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness and is commonly used in cases of head injury to monitor for changes in neurology. The patient in question has a perfect score for eye opening, is fully oriented in time, place, and person, and is able to obey commands, resulting in a motor score of 6.
Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 68-year-old man who is a smoker presents with complaints about his left eye. Upon examination, it is found that he has a constricted left pupil with a ptosis and anhidrosis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Horner syndrome
Explanation:Horner syndrome is a rare condition caused by a disruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms including a constricted pupil, partial drooping of the eyelid, and loss of sweating on one side of the face. Possible causes of Horner syndrome include brain-stem stroke or tumor, brachial plexus trauma, lung infections or tumors, carotid artery issues, and migraines. Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease that attacks the central nervous system and can cause optic neuritis, but the symptoms described in the scenario do not match those of MS. Holmes-Adie syndrome is a neurological disorder characterized by a dilated pupil that reacts slowly to light, loss of deep tendon reflexes, and profuse sweating, which is not consistent with the scenario. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness, but it typically affects the facial muscles and extraocular muscles, not the pupil. Riley-Day syndrome is a disorder of the autonomic nervous system that affects infants and is characterized by the absence of overflow tears with emotional crying.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 13-year-old boy is presented to the emergency department following an episode of syncope. According to his friends, he was laughing at a joke and suddenly collapsed to the ground. The school teacher called for an ambulance, and he recovered within 15 minutes. His school reports indicate that he often dozes off during classes and was recently disciplined for this behavior. What could be the probable reason for his condition?
Your Answer: Cataplexy
Explanation:It is probable that the patient experienced cataplexy, as indicated by their laughter and history of excessive sleepiness during classes, which suggests a potential diagnosis of narcolepsy. While cardiac syncope is a possibility, further investigations such as an ECG and transthoracic echocardiogram would be necessary to rule it out. Absence seizures are unlikely due to the absence of blank staring, and generalized epilepsy is also improbable as it typically involves longer-lasting tonic-clonic seizures with a slower recovery time.
Understanding Cataplexy
Cataplexy is a condition characterized by a sudden and temporary loss of muscle control triggered by intense emotions such as laughter or fear. It is commonly associated with narcolepsy, with around two-thirds of patients experiencing cataplexy. The symptoms of cataplexy can vary from mild buckling of the knees to complete collapse.
This condition can be debilitating and can significantly impact a person’s quality of life. It can also be challenging to diagnose, as the symptoms can be mistaken for other conditions such as seizures or fainting spells. Treatment options for cataplexy include medication and lifestyle changes, such as avoiding triggers that can cause emotional responses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with burning pain on the lateral aspect of his left thigh for the past two weeks. His body mass index is 30 kg/m² and he has no other significant past medical history. He does not recall any trauma before the onset of the pain.
On examination, the pain is reproduced with extension of the hip but there is no weakness and the examination is otherwise normal. All lower limb reflexes are intact.
Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
Your Answer: L1/L2 disc herniation
Correct Answer: Meralgia paraesthetica
Explanation:Common Nerve Conditions: Symptoms and Causes
Meralgia paraesthetica, Sciatica, Common peroneal nerve palsy, Guillain–Barré syndrome, and L1/L2 disc herniation are all nerve conditions that can cause various symptoms. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by an impingement of the lateral cutaneous femoral nerve and is often seen in obese individuals, pregnant women, and those with diabetes. Sciatica is caused by a herniated disc or other spinal issues and presents with pain radiating down the leg. Common peroneal nerve palsy causes foot drop and sensory loss in the lower leg. Guillain–Barré syndrome is an acute, inflammatory, post-infectious polyneuropathy that causes progressive, bilateral, ascending weakness. L1/L2 disc herniation is rare and can cause non-specific symptoms such as weakness in the psoas muscle and pain in the lumbar spine. It is more likely to occur in individuals who have suffered trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis for a few years has been struggling with increased muscle stiffness and trouble with fluid movements. Despite taking baclofen for a year, there has been no improvement. What medication should be considered next to alleviate these symptoms?
Your Answer: Gabapentin
Explanation:Spasticity in multiple sclerosis is caused by demyelination along the nerves that control movement, resulting in stiffness that can sometimes be helpful but can also become painful. Physiotherapy exercises are the simplest and most effective treatment, but first-line medications such as baclofen and gabapentin are also recommended. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant that can be effective against muscle spasms, while diazepam is a muscle relaxant that may be more useful at night due to side effects at higher doses. Botulinum toxin and dantrolene sodium can be considered if conventional treatments prove ineffective, but are not used as first-line for spasticity. The NICE multiple sclerosis guideline recommends gabapentin as one of the first drugs to try in the treatment of spasms and spasticity.
Multiple sclerosis is a condition that cannot be cured, but its treatment aims to reduce the frequency and duration of relapses. In the case of an acute relapse, high-dose steroids may be administered for five days to shorten its length. However, it is important to note that steroids do not affect the degree of recovery. Disease-modifying drugs are used to reduce the risk of relapse in patients with MS. These drugs are typically indicated for patients with relapsing-remitting disease or secondary progressive disease who have had two relapses in the past two years and are able to walk a certain distance unaided. Natalizumab, ocrelizumab, fingolimod, beta-interferon, and glatiramer acetate are some of the drugs used to reduce the risk of relapse in MS.
Fatigue is a common problem in MS patients, and amantadine is recommended by NICE after excluding other potential causes such as anaemia, thyroid problems, or depression. Mindfulness training and CBT are other options for managing fatigue. Spasticity is another issue that can be addressed with first-line drugs such as baclofen and gabapentin, as well as physiotherapy. Cannabis and botox are currently being evaluated for their effectiveness in managing spasticity. Bladder dysfunction is also a common problem in MS patients, and anticholinergics may worsen symptoms in some patients. Ultrasound is recommended to assess bladder emptying, and intermittent self-catheterisation may be necessary if there is significant residual volume. Gabapentin is the first-line treatment for oscillopsia, which is a condition where visual fields appear to oscillate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 54-year-old man with a history of epilepsy presents with a complaint of numbness in his hands and feet after a recent change in medication. Upon examination, he exhibits reduced sensation in a glove-and-stocking distribution and a decreased ankle reflex. Additionally, he has lymphadenopathy in the cervical and inguinal region and bleeding gums. Which medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects
Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient complains of vision problems. Upon examination, a left inferior homonymous quadrantanopia is observed. What is the most probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer: Right parietal lobe
Explanation:A visual field defect known as left homonymous hemianopia indicates a loss of vision to the left side, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. Homonymous quadrantanopias, which affect the parietal-inferior and temporal-superior areas, are also a type of visual field defect. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by lesions in the optic radiation or occipital cortex.
Understanding Visual Field Defects
Visual field defects refer to the loss of vision in certain areas of the visual field. One common type of visual field defect is left homonymous hemianopia, which means that there is a visual field defect to the left due to a lesion of the right optic tract. Another type is homonymous quadrantanopias, which can be remembered using the acronym PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior). Incongruous defects indicate an optic tract lesion, while congruous defects suggest a lesion of the optic radiation or occipital cortex. A congruous defect means complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while an incongruous defect is incomplete or asymmetric.
Homonymous hemianopia can also be caused by a lesion of the optic tract, with macula sparing indicating a lesion of the occipital cortex. Homonymous quadrantanopias can be caused by a lesion of the inferior optic radiations in the temporal lobe (Meyer’s loop) for superior defects, and a lesion of the superior optic radiations in the parietal lobe for inferior defects.
Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion of the optic chiasm. An upper quadrant defect that is greater than the lower quadrant defect suggests inferior chiasmal compression, which is commonly caused by a pituitary tumor. Conversely, a lower quadrant defect that is greater than the upper quadrant defect suggests superior chiasmal compression, which is commonly caused by a craniopharyngioma. It is important to note that while this information is useful for exams, actual studies suggest that the majority of quadrantanopias are caused by occipital lobe lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents to the medical team with a 4-day history of fever, headache, and dysphasia. He reports feeling generally unwell. On examination, he has a GCS of 14 with no peripheral focal neurology and normal pupillary reactions. Bibasal crepitations and an ejection systolic murmur are heard on auscultation. His abdomen is soft and nontender. A chest radiograph is unremarkable, but a CT brain scan reveals an intracranial abscess. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to aid in further diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Distant abscesses can be caused by infective embolic plaques in patients with infective endocarditis, including brain abscesses. To aid in the diagnosis of infective endocarditis, an echocardiogram is the most appropriate next investigation for this patient, given their examination findings. While a CT of the chest and abdomen may be necessary if the underlying cause remains unknown, it is less important with a normal chest radiograph and abdominal examination. Bronchoscopy, lower limb imaging, and EEG are not currently necessary.
Understanding Brain Abscesses
Brain abscesses can occur due to various reasons such as sepsis from middle ear or sinuses, head injuries, and endocarditis. The symptoms of brain abscesses depend on the location of the abscess, with those in critical areas presenting earlier. Brain abscesses can cause a considerable mass effect in the brain, leading to raised intracranial pressure. Symptoms of brain abscesses include dull and persistent headaches, fever, focal neurology, nausea, papilloedema, and seizures.
To diagnose brain abscesses, doctors may perform imaging with CT scanning. Treatment for brain abscesses involves surgery, where a craniotomy is performed to remove the abscess cavity. However, the abscess may reform because the head is closed following abscess drainage. Intravenous antibiotics such as 3rd-generation cephalosporin and metronidazole are also administered. Additionally, intracranial pressure management with dexamethasone may be necessary.
Overall, brain abscesses are a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options can help individuals seek medical help early and improve their chances of recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old history teacher has contacted his doctor reporting a one-hour episode of weakness in his left arm and leg earlier today, which has since resolved. He denies any facial drooping, residual weakness, or slurred speech. He insists that he feels completely healthy and only called because his wife urged him to. The patient has a previous diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism and is currently taking apixaban. What is the initial approach to managing this patient?
Your Answer: TIA clinic within 24 hours
Correct Answer: Urgent admission to the emergency department for urgent CT head
Explanation:Immediate admission for imaging to rule out a hemorrhage is necessary if a patient with suspected TIA is on warfarin, a DOAC, or has a bleeding disorder.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, and sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax).
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy with aspirin 300 mg unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis, specialist review is necessary. Urgent assessment is required within 24 hours for patients who have had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment is necessary as soon as possible within 7 days for patients who have had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. Neuroimaging and carotid imaging are recommended, and antithrombotic therapy is necessary. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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A client is observed to have a missing triceps reflex. To which nerve root does this correspond?
Your Answer: C7-C8
Explanation:Understanding Common Reflexes
Reflexes are automatic responses of the body to certain stimuli. These responses are controlled by the nervous system and do not require conscious thought. Common reflexes include the ankle reflex, knee reflex, biceps reflex, and triceps reflex. Each reflex is associated with a specific root in the spinal cord.
The ankle reflex is associated with the S1-S2 root, which is located in the lower part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the Achilles tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the calf muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
The knee reflex is associated with the L3-L4 root, which is located in the middle part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the quadriceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
The biceps reflex is associated with the C5-C6 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the biceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the biceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
The triceps reflex is associated with the C7-C8 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the triceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the triceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
Understanding these common reflexes can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various neurological conditions. By testing these reflexes, they can determine if there is any damage or dysfunction in the nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient with a history of migraines presents to you after being discharged from the stroke unit following a posterior circulation stroke. She is distressed as she believes there was a considerable delay in her diagnosis. Initially diagnosed with a severe migraine, she was not referred to the hospital until her symptoms persisted for several days.
What is the primary symptom that typically presents in a posterior circulation stroke?Your Answer: Dizziness
Explanation:Dizziness is the most prevalent indication of a posterior circulation stroke, although other symptoms such as double vision, disorientation, visual disturbance, confusion, and memory loss are also significant. Roughly 33% of posterior circulation strokes are misdiagnosed as migraines, which can cause temporary neurological deficits even without a headache. Additionally, individuals who suffer from migraines are more likely to experience a headache as a result of brain ischemia, which can further complicate the diagnosis. Patients who experience new vertigo or headaches, dizziness, or a change in the nature of their migraines should be evaluated for a posterior circulation stroke.
Understanding Stroke: A Basic Overview
Stroke is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality, with over 150,000 cases reported annually in the UK alone. It is the fourth leading cause of death in the country, killing twice as many women as breast cancer each year. However, the prevention and treatment of strokes have undergone significant changes in the past decade. What was once considered an untreatable condition is now viewed as a brain attack that requires emergency assessment to determine if patients can benefit from new treatments such as thrombolysis.
A stroke, also known as a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), occurs when there is a sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain. This interruption can lead to irreversible damage as neural tissue is entirely dependent on aerobic metabolism. There are two main types of strokes: ischaemic and haemorrhagic. Ischaemic strokes occur when there is a blockage in the blood vessel that stops blood flow, while haemorrhagic strokes happen when a blood vessel bursts, leading to a reduction in blood flow.
Symptoms of a stroke include motor weakness, speech problems, swallowing difficulties, visual field defects, and balance problems. The Oxford Stroke Classification is a formal system used to classify strokes based on initial symptoms. Patients with suspected stroke require emergency neuroimaging to determine if they are suitable for thrombolytic therapy to treat early ischaemic strokes. If the stroke is haemorrhagic, neurosurgical consultation should be considered for advice on further management.
In conclusion, understanding the basics of stroke is crucial in identifying and managing the condition. Early intervention and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual loss of hearing and ringing in her right ear for the past 4 weeks. Upon examination, her ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal. Rinne's test shows air conduction is better than bone conduction on both sides, but Weber's test reveals that the sound is heard best in her left ear. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Presbyacusis
Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma
Explanation:Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)
Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.
Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.
The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents with lower back pain. He has a medical history of prostate cancer, asthma, diabetes, and hypertension. The pain is radiating down his right leg and he is experiencing reduced power in that leg. Additionally, he has a decreased anal tone. Although the lumbar spine x-ray shows no apparent fracture, what would be the most appropriate next investigation to perform?
Your Answer: MRI lumbosacral spine
Explanation:Lower back pain accompanied by lower limb pain, limb weakness, numbness or tingling, and decreased perianal tone are red flags that suggest spinal cord compression. In this case, the patient has a history of prostate cancer, which further raises suspicion. Urgent MRI is necessary to rule out spinal cord compression, and the results should be discussed with the on-call neurosurgical team. Additional x-rays or ultrasound would not be helpful, as MRI is the preferred diagnostic tool.
Neoplastic Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency
Neoplastic spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that affects around 5% of cancer patients. The majority of cases are due to vertebral body metastases, resulting in extradural compression. This condition is more common in patients with lung, breast, and prostate cancer.
The earliest and most common symptom of neoplastic spinal cord compression is back pain, which may worsen when lying down or coughing. Other symptoms include lower limb weakness and sensory changes such as numbness and sensory loss. The neurological signs depend on the level of the lesion, with lesions above L1 resulting in upper motor neuron signs in the legs and a sensory level. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neuron signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes tend to be increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.
An urgent MRI is recommended within 24 hours of presentation, according to the 2019 NICE guidelines. High-dose oral dexamethasone is used for management, and urgent oncological assessment is necessary for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery.
In summary, neoplastic spinal cord compression is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to prevent further neurological damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Correct
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You assess a 27-year-old female patient who experiences intense, one-sided, pulsating headaches. These occur approximately once a month and are not associated with her menstrual cycle. Prior to the onset of the headache, she occasionally experiences momentary 'zig-zags' in her vision. She has no specific preference for treatment and seeks your guidance on the most effective approach to managing acute episodes. Which of the following options would be the most suitable initial treatment?
Your Answer: Oral triptan + oral NSAID
Explanation:Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a two-day history of fever, headache, vomiting, and seizures. She has no significant medical history or allergies. Upon CT head examination, hypodensity of the left temporal lobe is identified, while a lumbar puncture reveals lymphocytes at 57 cells/µL (0-5 cells/µL), protein at 92 mg/100 mL (15-60 mg/100 mL), and glucose at 66 mg/100 mL (50-80 mg/100 mL). Serum blood glucose is normal. A brain MRI is subsequently performed, revealing prominent swelling and increased signal of the left temporal lobe and insular cortex. What is the urgent medication that must be initiated in this patient?
Your Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:In cases of encephalitis caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV), urgent administration of IV aciclovir (which is effective against HSV) is necessary. Amantadine, which is used to manage influenza, is not appropriate. Cefotaxime, which is often used for suspected meningococcal disease, is also not appropriate. Fluconazole, an anti-fungal medication, is not appropriate as encephalitis is unlikely to be caused by a fungal infection.
Encephalitis: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Encephalitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the brain. It presents with symptoms such as fever, headache, psychiatric symptoms, seizures, and vomiting. Focal features such as aphasia may also be present. Peripheral lesions like cold sores are not related to the presence of HSV encephalitis. HSV-1 is responsible for 95% of cases in adults, and it typically affects the temporal and inferior frontal lobes.
To diagnose encephalitis, cerebrospinal fluid analysis is done, which shows lymphocytosis and elevated protein. PCR for HSV, VZV, and enteroviruses is also performed. Neuroimaging may reveal medial temporal and inferior frontal changes, such as petechial hemorrhages, but it is normal in one-third of patients. MRI is a better diagnostic tool. EEG may show lateralized periodic discharges at 2 Hz.
The treatment for encephalitis involves intravenous aciclovir, which should be started in all cases of suspected encephalitis. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing complications and improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman with a history of high cholesterol, atrial fibrillation, and a current smoking habit of 10 cigarettes per day is looking for guidance on managing her recent diagnosis of vascular dementia. What is the recommended course of action?
Your Answer: Smoking cessation
Explanation:NICE recommends focusing on tight control of vascular risk factors instead of using antidementia medication for the treatment of vascular dementia. Therefore, it would be most beneficial for the patient to stop smoking, and starting a statin may also be helpful due to their history of high cholesterol. However, there is no evidence supporting the effectiveness of aspirin in treating vascular dementia.
Understanding Vascular Dementia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Vascular dementia is a type of cognitive impairment that is caused by different mechanisms resulting from cerebrovascular disease. It is the second most common form of dementia after Alzheimer’s disease. Vascular dementia is often recognized as the most severe form of the spectrum of deficits encompassed by the term vascular cognitive impairment. Early detection and an accurate diagnosis are crucial in preventing vascular dementia.
The prevalence of vascular dementia is estimated to be around 17% of dementia cases in the UK. The incidence of vascular dementia increases with age and is often associated with a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack, atrial fibrillation, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, smoking, obesity, coronary heart disease, and a family history of stroke or cardiovascular disease. Rarely, vascular dementia can be inherited as in the case of cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy.
Patients with vascular dementia typically present with a sudden or stepwise deterioration of cognitive function, focal neurological abnormalities, difficulty with attention and concentration, seizures, memory disturbance, gait disturbance, speech disturbance, and emotional disturbance. Diagnosis is made based on a comprehensive history and physical examination, formal screening for cognitive impairment, medical review to exclude medication cause of cognitive decline, and MRI scan.
Treatment for vascular dementia is mainly symptomatic with the aim to address individual problems and provide support to the patient and carers. It is important to detect and address cardiovascular risk factors to slow down the progression of the disease. Non-pharmacological management is tailored to the individual and may include cognitive stimulation programs, multisensory stimulation, music and art therapy, and animal-assisted therapy. Pharmacological management is limited, and there is no specific pharmacological treatment approved for cognitive symptoms. Only consider AChE inhibitors or memantine for people with vascular dementia if they have suspected comorbid Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease dementia, or dementia with Lewy bodies. There is no evidence that aspirin is effective in treating patients with a diagnosis of vascular dementia, and no randomized trials have evaluated statins for vascular dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought to the Accident and Emergency Department after having a blackout. He was walking down the street when he felt nauseated, dizzy and sweaty. He collapsed and lost consciousness for one minute. A friend says that he was pale and had some jerking of his limbs for 10 seconds, but he did not bite his tongue and there was no history of urinary incontinence. He recovered immediately, with no confusion or disorientation. Examination and the electrocardiogram (ECG) are normal. He is otherwise usually fit and well and on no regular medications.
What further investigation is required to make a diagnosis?Your Answer: Electroencephalogram (EEG)
Correct Answer: No investigation
Explanation:When to Investigate Transient Loss of Consciousness: A Guide for Clinicians
Transient loss of consciousness (LOC) can be a concerning symptom for patients and clinicians alike. However, not all cases require extensive investigation. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients presenting with a transient LOC should undergo a thorough history, examination, and electrocardiogram (ECG). If these are normal and the patient meets certain criteria, further work-up may not be necessary.
For example, uncomplicated vasovagal syncope can be diagnosed if there are no features suggesting an alternative diagnosis and if the patient experiences the 3 Ps of posture-prolonged standing, provoking factors, and prodromal symptoms. Doppler ultrasonography of the carotids would only be indicated if there was suspicion of carotid artery stenosis, while a single syncopal episode is not an indication for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain.
Electroencephalogram (EEG) may be considered if the history is suggestive of epilepsy, but it should not be routinely used in the work-up for transient LOC. Features strongly suggestive of epilepsy include a bitten tongue, head turning to one side during transient LOC, no memory of abnormal behavior witnessed by someone else, unusual posturing, prolonged limb jerking, confusion following the event, and prodromal déjà vu or jamais vu. If any of these are present, the patient should be reviewed by a specialist within 2 weeks, who would then make a decision regarding EEG.
In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary for all patients presenting with a transient LOC. However, if the patient meets certain criteria and there are no features suggesting an alternative diagnosis, further investigation may not be required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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In a patient with parkinsonian features, what is the single most appropriate feature that supports the diagnosis of progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP) over idiopathic Parkinson's disease (PD)?
Your Answer: Internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO)
Correct Answer: Early postural instability
Explanation:Differentiating Progressive Supranuclear Palsy from Other Movement Disorders
Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP) is a neurodegenerative condition that typically affects individuals over the age of 50, with a higher incidence in men. Early postural instability is a hallmark feature of PSP, often leading to falls within the first year of onset. The Clinical Criteria for the Diagnosis of Progressive Supranuclear Palsy developed by the National Institute for Neurological Disorders and Society for PSP (NINDS-SPSP) suggests that a poor or absent response to levodopa is indicative of PSP.
Unlike Parkinson’s disease (PD), PSP is not associated with Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia (INO) and does not typically present with marked tremors. Instead, PSP is characterized by supranuclear gaze dysfunction, rigidity, bradykinesia, dysarthria, and dysphagia. Symptoms are usually symmetrical, and unilateral onset is more suggestive of idiopathic PD.
In summary, early postural instability, poor response to levodopa, absence of INO, and lack of marked tremors are key features that can help differentiate PSP from other movement disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man who has recently had a stroke is here for a follow-up appointment. He explains that he was watching a game with his son when he suddenly lost feeling on the left side of his body. Emergency services were called and he was taken to the hospital where a CT scan confirmed a right-sided ischemic stroke. He has no other medical history. What antiplatelet medication should he be prescribed after the stroke?
Your Answer: Aspirin 300mg and then dipyridamole 200mg twice daily lifelong
Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg daily for 2 weeks then clopidogrel 75 mg daily lifelong
Explanation:After a stroke, all patients should receive an antiplatelet medication, unless they require an anticoagulant. As per NICE guidelines, individuals with confirmed ischaemic stroke through brain imaging should be given 300 mg of aspirin daily for two weeks. Afterward, long-term treatment with 75 mg of clopidogrel is recommended, provided it is well-tolerated and not contraindicated. If clopidogrel is not suitable, modified-release dipyridamole with low-dose aspirin should be administered.
Latest Guidance on Antiplatelets
Antiplatelets are medications that prevent blood clots from forming by inhibiting platelet aggregation. The most recent guidelines recommend different antiplatelet regimens depending on the diagnosis. For acute coronary syndrome, aspirin and ticagrelor are recommended for 12 months, followed by lifelong aspirin and clopidogrel if aspirin is contraindicated. For percutaneous coronary intervention, lifelong aspirin and prasugrel or ticagrelor for 12 months are recommended, with lifelong clopidogrel if aspirin is contraindicated. For TIA and ischaemic stroke, lifelong clopidogrel is recommended as first-line treatment, with lifelong aspirin and dipyridamole as second-line treatment. For peripheral arterial disease, lifelong clopidogrel is recommended as first-line treatment, with lifelong aspirin as second-line treatment. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman has a left hemisphere stroke due to thromboembolic occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery (MCA). She does not have a visual field deficit on confrontation testing and makes a good neurological recovery within seven days, being able to walk unaided. She is left with minor weakness of her right hand.
What advice is she most likely to be given by the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA)?Your Answer: Must not drive until neurological signs have fully resolved
Correct Answer: Must not drive for 1 month
Explanation:Driving Restrictions Following a Stroke or TIA
After experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) or stroke, patients must not drive for at least one month, regardless of the severity. If clinical recovery is satisfactory, non-HGV drivers may resume driving after one month. However, if residual neurological deficits persist after one month, including visual field defects, cognitive defects, and impaired limb function, patients must not drive until these signs have fully resolved. Minor limb weakness alone does not require notification to the DVLA unless restriction to certain types of vehicles is needed.
If a patient has only minor weakness to the hand, they can resume driving after one month. However, if they wish to drive a group 2 vehicle, such as a large goods vehicle (LGV), they must wait at least two years. The DVLA may refuse or revoke a license for one year following a stroke or TIA, but patients can be considered for licensing after this period if there is no residual impairment likely to affect safe driving and no other significant risk factors. Licensing may be subject to satisfactory medical reports, including exercise electrocardiographic (ECG) testing.
In cases of doubt, driving assessments may be carried out at specialist rehabilitation centers. It is essential to contact the DVLA for an overview of the main restrictions for drivers with neurological and other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department after falling off a ladder and hitting their head. The ambulance crew suspects an intracranial haemorrhage. Upon examination, the patient responds to verbal instruction by opening their eyes, but only makes incomprehensible groans. Painful stimulation causes abnormal flexing on the left side, while the right side has no motor response. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for this patient?
Your Answer: 8
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 45-year-old man with hypertension complains of recurring headaches accompanied by sensitivity to light, nausea, and occasional vomiting. The headaches usually affect the right side of his head and sometimes cause temporary vision problems. They last up to 10 hours and occur approximately once every 4-6 weeks. The neurological examination and blood pressure are normal.
What would be the most suitable initial medical treatment for acute attacks? Choose the ONE most appropriate first-line medical treatment from the options provided.Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Treatment Options for Migraines: A Comparison of Medications
Migraines are a recurring type of headache that can last for several hours to a few days. They are often accompanied by symptoms such as sensitivity to light and sound, nausea, and vomiting. There are several medications available for the treatment of migraines, each with its own benefits and drawbacks.
Ibuprofen is a simple analgesic that is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for the treatment of acute migraine attacks. It is safe for patients with ischaemic heart disease, but the daily dose should not exceed 1200 mg.
Sumatriptan is a serotonin-receptor agonist that causes intracerebral vasoconstriction. It is recommended by NICE for the treatment of acute migraines, but it is contraindicated in patients with a history of ischaemic heart disease.
Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that is used for long-term prophylaxis of migraines. It is recommended by NICE for this use but not for acute treatment.
Co-codamol, an opiate medication, is not recommended by NICE for the treatment of migraines due to the risk of medication-overuse headache and worsening of nausea and vomiting symptoms.
Ergotamine tartrate, another medication that was previously used to treat migraines, is now limited in use due to its unpleasant side effects such as nausea and vomiting. NICE advises against its use for the treatment of acute migraines.
In conclusion, the choice of medication for the treatment of migraines should be based on the patient’s medical history and the severity of their symptoms. Patients should consult with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department. He reports experiencing sudden blurred vision and difficulty speaking. He denies any history of head injury or trauma and does not have a headache. On examination, he exhibits exaggerated reflexes and upward plantars. Fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Neurological Conditions and Upper Motor Neurone Signs
Upper motor neurone signs, such as spasticity, hyperreflexia, clonus, and the Babinski reflex, are indicative of certain neurological conditions. Multiple sclerosis, a demyelinating disease, is one such condition that causes these signs. On the other hand, a stroke in a young person is relatively unlikely to cause upper motor neurone signs. Cerebral venous thrombosis could cause these signs, but it would be highly unlikely without a headache and normal fundoscopy. Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is a relatively symmetrical, ascending lower motor neurone disease that does not typically present with blurred vision and speech disturbances. Poliomyelitis, a lower motor neurone condition, is characterised by hypotonia and hyporeflexia and would not cause the Babinski reflex.
Understanding Upper Motor Neurone Signs in Neurological Conditions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old woman with hypercholesterolaemia, ischaemic heart disease and hypertension complains to her General Practitioner of tingling and numbness in both feet that has been worsening over a period of six months.
Examination reveals that she has an altered pinprick sensation over both feet and absent ankle reflexes. Her urea and electrolyte levels are normal. Her blood glucose is normal and there is no history of alcohol ingestion. She is, however, taking a number of medications for the secondary presentation of her vascular problems.
Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused her symptoms?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate medication from the list below.Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Correct Answer: Simvastatin
Explanation:Medication Analysis for Peripheral Neuropathy: Simvastatin, Bendroflumethiazide, Clopidogrel, Ramipril, and Spironolactone
Peripheral neuropathy is a condition characterized by numbness and tingling in the extremities, often accompanied by a loss of ankle reflexes. Statins, such as simvastatin, are a known risk factor for peripheral neuropathy, with onset ranging from the first dose to years of use. Bendroflumethiazide, on the other hand, is not associated with neuropathy but can cause electrolyte imbalances leading to central neurological disturbances. Clopidogrel, an anti-platelet medication, is unlikely to contribute to peripheral neuropathy. Ramipril, a blood-pressure-lowering medication, can cause cough and dizziness but would not lead to peripheral neuropathy. Spironolactone, a diuretic, can cause hyperkalemia but would not lead to peripheral neuropathy. It is important to consider medication use when evaluating patients with peripheral neuropathy symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Correct
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Sarah is a 30-year-old woman who has been admitted under Section 2 of the Mental Health Act. She has a history of depression and was recently referred for a Mental Health Act assessment because her family were concerned about her. She has been talking about her insides rotting and believes that she is going to die in her sleep. She cannot be convinced otherwise. She is not eating, barely drinking and lacks energy, concentration and motivation. Just prior to the Assessment she used a biro pen to cut into her forearm to 'prove that there is nothing inside that will bleed', and this required reconstructive surgery.
She is admitted to a psychiatric hospital and is commenced on an SSRI and an antipsychotic. One week into her admission the nurses call you because she is scoring highly on the Early Warning Score.
On examination you find Sarah to be confused. She has a temperature of 39ºC and is sweating. Her heart rate is 130 beats/min and her blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. She complains of muscle stiffness but is not sure when this began. Cogwheel rigidity is present.
Urgent blood tests reveal the following:
Hb 155 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 18 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Creatine Kinase 2032 9/L (32-294)
Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 3.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 118 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Explanation:Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a severe reaction that can occur in response to antipsychotic medication and can be life-threatening. The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with NMS, including muscle rigidity and elevated creatine kinase levels. Amphetamine intoxication is an unlikely cause as there is no history of drug use and the patient is under Section 2 of the MHA. Encephalitis and sepsis are important differential diagnoses to consider, but cogwheel rigidity would not be expected in encephalitis and sepsis would not typically cause muscle rigidity or elevated creatine kinase levels.
Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication. It can also happen with dopaminergic drugs used for Parkinson’s disease. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion.
A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases. Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. Intravenous fluids may be given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene or bromocriptine may be used in selected cases. It is important to differentiate neuroleptic malignant syndrome from serotonin syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by excessive serotonin activity.
In summary, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs. Early recognition and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Correct
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Neuropathic pain typically does not improve with opioids. Nevertheless, if conventional treatments have been ineffective, which opioid should be considered for initiation in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Understanding Neuropathic Pain and its Management
Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and does not respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.
To manage neuropathic pain, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance in 2013. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment does not work, patients may try one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, patients should switch to a different drug rather than adding another one.
Tramadol may be used as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that for some specific conditions, such as trigeminal neuralgia, the guidance may vary, and carbamazepine may be used as a first-line treatment. Overall, understanding neuropathic pain and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients suffering from this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after being hit on the side of his head by a cricket ball during a match. According to his teacher, he initially fell to the ground and complained of a sore head. However, he got up after two minutes, claimed to feel fine, and resumed playing. Unfortunately, after 30 minutes, he suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. What kind of injury is he likely to have suffered?
Your Answer: Subdural haematoma
Correct Answer: Extradural haematoma
Explanation:Extradural (epidural) hematoma – Head injury with a lucid interval
Types of Traumatic Brain Injury
Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. Intra-cranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.
Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department at 37 weeks gestation with blurred vision and severe headache. She reports upper abdominal pain for the last few hours. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg and urinalysis shows proteinuria. While taking her medical history, she experiences a tonic-clonic seizure. What is the appropriate pharmacological treatment to stop this seizure?
Your Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulfate
Explanation:When a seizure is suspected to be caused by eclampsia, the recommended first-line treatment is intravenous magnesium sulfate, given as a loading dose followed by an infusion. In the case of convulsive status epilepticus, intravenous lorazepam is the preferred in-hospital treatment, with phenytoin as an alternative if lorazepam is ineffective. Glucose may be administered if hypoglycemia is a contributing factor. It is not appropriate to administer oral medications to a patient with a decreased level of consciousness. (Adapted from BMJ Best Practice – Pre-eclampsia)
Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment
Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.
In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) four weeks after suffering from a vomiting illness. She complains of numbness and tingling in her lower limbs which has developed over the past three days. On examination, she has weakness of ankle and knee flexion and extension, diminished knee and ankle reflexes and sensory loss below the knee. The GP arranges urgent hospital admission and she is started on treatment as soon as she arrives at the hospital.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.Your Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Guillain-Barré Syndrome
Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is an autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nerves, resulting in symmetrical weakness, hyporeflexia, and paraesthesia. The condition often occurs after an infection, usually involving the respiratory or gastrointestinal tract. The most commonly used treatment for GBS is intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG), which helps to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms. Plasmapheresis (plasma exchange) is another option that filters antibodies from the patient’s plasma.
However, corticosteroids such as intravenous prednisolone have not been shown to improve GBS symptoms and may even prolong recovery. Haemodialysis is not necessary unless the patient has concurrent renal failure. Antivirals such as intravenous acyclovir have no role in managing GBS as it is not a viral illness. Although a bacterial infection may precede GBS, antibiotics such as intravenous ceftriaxone are not used to treat the autoimmune process causing the neurological symptoms. In some cases, patients with GBS may require invasive ventilation, which may cause pneumonia and require treatment with antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Correct
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after slipping on ice and falling backwards, hitting his head on the kerb and landing on his right arm. He did not lose consciousness and is currently feeling fine. The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and is taking bisoprolol and warfarin. His INR was 2.2 four days ago. There are no visible injuries to his arm or scalp. What is the best course of action for his head injury?
Your Answer: Arrange a CT head scan to be performed within 8 hours
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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