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  • Question 1 - What are the root values of the sciatic nerve? ...

    Correct

    • What are the root values of the sciatic nerve?

      Your Answer: L4 to S3

      Explanation:

      The origin of the sciatic nerve is typically from the fourth lumbar vertebrae to the third sacral vertebrae.

      Understanding the Sciatic Nerve

      The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body, formed from the sacral plexus and arising from spinal nerves L4 to S3. It passes through the greater sciatic foramen and emerges beneath the piriformis muscle, running under the cover of the gluteus maximus muscle. The nerve provides cutaneous sensation to the skin of the foot and leg, as well as innervating the posterior thigh muscles and lower leg and foot muscles. Approximately halfway down the posterior thigh, the nerve splits into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The tibial nerve supplies the flexor muscles, while the common peroneal nerve supplies the extensor and abductor muscles.

      The sciatic nerve also has articular branches for the hip joint and muscular branches in the upper leg, including the semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris, and part of the adductor magnus. Cutaneous sensation is provided to the posterior aspect of the thigh via cutaneous nerves, as well as the gluteal region and entire lower leg (except the medial aspect). The nerve terminates at the upper part of the popliteal fossa by dividing into the tibial and peroneal nerves. The nerve to the short head of the biceps femoris comes from the common peroneal part of the sciatic, while the other muscular branches arise from the tibial portion. The tibial nerve goes on to innervate all muscles of the foot except the extensor digitorum brevis, which is innervated by the common peroneal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      16.1
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  • Question 2 - A 87-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after her...

    Incorrect

    • A 87-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after her husband noticed a facial droop 1 hour ago. She has a medical history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia.

      Upon examination, there is a facial droop on the right side that spares the forehead. There is also a right-sided hemiparesis and loss of fine-touch sensation, with the right arm being more affected than the right leg. The examination of the visual fields reveals right homonymous hemianopia. Although the patient is conscious, she is unable to speak in full sentences.

      Which artery is likely to be occluded?

      Your Answer: Anterior cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Middle cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the middle cerebral artery, which is associated with contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, and aphasia. This type of stroke is also known as a ‘total anterior circulation stroke’ and is characterized by at least three of the following criteria: higher dysfunction, homonymous hemianopia, and motor and sensory deficits.

      The anterior cerebral artery is not the correct answer, as it is associated with contralateral hemiparesis and altered sensation, with the lower limb being more affected than the upper limb.

      The basilar artery is also not the correct answer, as it is associated with locked-in syndrome, which is characterized by paralysis of all voluntary muscles except for those used for vertical eye movements and blinking.

      The posterior cerebral artery is not the correct answer either, as it is associated with contralateral homonymous hemianopia that spares the macula and visual agnosia.

      Finally, the posterior inferior cerebellar artery is not the correct answer, as it is associated with lateral medullary syndrome, which is characterized by ipsilateral facial pain and contralateral limb pain and temperature loss, as well as vertigo, vomiting, ataxia, and dysphagia.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      169.7
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue. She reports feeling weak...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue. She reports feeling weak for the past few months, especially towards the end of the day. She denies any changes in her sleep patterns, mood, diet, or weight. Additionally, she mentions experiencing double vision at times.

      During the examination, the doctor observes partial ptosis in both eyes, with the left eye being more affected. The patient's other cranial nerves appear normal, and her limbs have a power of 4/5. Her sensation and reflexes are intact.

      What is the underlying pathophysiology of the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Demyelination of the peripheral nervous system

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine receptor antibodies

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of myasthenia gravis, which is characterized by the body producing antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor, leading to dysfunction at the neuromuscular junction.

      Cerebral infarction typically presents with sudden onset, unilateral neurological symptoms that do not fluctuate.

      While multiple sclerosis (MS) involves demyelination of the central nervous system, the patient’s symptoms are more consistent with myasthenia gravis. MS typically presents with optic neuritis, which causes painful vision loss.

      Guillain-Barré syndrome involves demyelination of the peripheral nervous system and typically presents with progressive weakness and diminished reflexes.

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      54.2
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  • Question 4 - Which of the following cranial venous sinuses is singular? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cranial venous sinuses is singular?

      Your Answer: Cavernous sinus

      Correct Answer: Superior sagittal sinus

      Explanation:

      The superior sagittal sinus is a single structure that starts at the crista galli and may connect with the veins of the frontal sinus and nasal cavity. It curves backwards within the falx cerebri and ends at the internal occipital protuberance, typically draining into the right transverse sinus. The parietal emissary veins provide a connection between the superior sagittal sinus and the veins on the outside of the skull.

      Overview of Cranial Venous Sinuses

      The cranial venous sinuses are a series of veins located within the dura mater, the outermost layer of the brain. Unlike other veins in the body, they do not have valves, which can increase the risk of sepsis spreading. These sinuses eventually drain into the internal jugular vein.

      There are several cranial venous sinuses, including the superior sagittal sinus, inferior sagittal sinus, straight sinus, transverse sinus, sigmoid sinus, confluence of sinuses, occipital sinus, and cavernous sinus. Each of these sinuses has a specific location and function within the brain.

      To better understand the topography of the cranial venous sinuses, it is helpful to visualize them as a map. The superior sagittal sinus runs along the top of the brain, while the inferior sagittal sinus runs along the bottom. The straight sinus connects the two, while the transverse sinus runs horizontally across the back of the brain. The sigmoid sinus then curves downward and connects to the internal jugular vein. The confluence of sinuses is where several of these sinuses meet, while the occipital sinus is located at the back of the head. Finally, the cavernous sinus is located on either side of the pituitary gland.

      Understanding the location and function of these cranial venous sinuses is important for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old man is stabbed outside a nightclub in the upper arm. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man is stabbed outside a nightclub in the upper arm. The median nerve is transected. Which one of the following muscles will demonstrate impaired function as a result?

      Your Answer: Abductor pollicis longus

      Correct Answer: Abductor pollicis brevis

      Explanation:

      Palmaris brevis is innervated by the ulnar nerve, as are the palmar interossei and adductor pollicis. The abductor pollicis longus, on the other hand, is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve.

      Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve

      The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.

      The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 6 - A 90-year-old man was brought to the clinic by his family due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 90-year-old man was brought to the clinic by his family due to a decline in his memory over the past 6 months, accompanied by occasional confusion. His personality and behavior remain unchanged. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities were found. Following further investigations, he was diagnosed with dementia. What is the probable molecular pathology underlying his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Presence of Lewy bodies

      Correct Answer: Presence of neurofibrillary tangles

      Explanation:

      Alzheimer’s disease is the most prevalent cause of dementia, followed by vascular dementia. It is characterized by the accumulation of type A-Beta-amyloid protein, leading to cortical plaques, and abnormal aggregation of the tau protein, resulting in intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles. Parkinson’s disease is indicated by the loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra, while Lewy body dementia is suggested by the presence of Lewy bodies. Vascular dementia is associated with atherosclerosis of cerebral arteries.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      48.4
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  • Question 7 - A 38-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of recurring episodes of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of recurring episodes of abdominal pain. He characterizes the pain as dull, affecting his entire abdomen, and accompanied by intermittent diarrhea and constipation. He has observed that his symptoms have intensified since his wife departed, and he has been under work-related stress. The physician suspects that he has irritable bowel syndrome.

      What are the nerve fibers that are stimulated to produce his pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C fibres

      Explanation:

      Neurons and Synaptic Signalling

      Neurons are the building blocks of the nervous system and are made up of dendrites, a cell body, and axons. They can be classified by their anatomical structure, axon width, and function. Neurons communicate with each other at synapses, which consist of a presynaptic membrane, synaptic gap, and postsynaptic membrane. Neurotransmitters are small chemical messengers that diffuse across the synaptic gap and activate receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. Different neurotransmitters have different effects, with some causing excitation and others causing inhibition. The deactivation of neurotransmitters varies, with some being degraded by enzymes and others being reuptaken by cells. Understanding the mechanisms of neuronal communication is crucial for understanding the functioning of the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old man visits his GP with his wife who is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man visits his GP with his wife who is worried about his behavior. Upon further inquiry, the wife reveals that her husband has been displaying erratic and impulsive behavior for the past 4 months. She also discloses that he inappropriately touched a family friend, which is out of character for him. When asked about his medical history, the patient mentions that he used to be an avid motorcyclist but had a severe accident 6 months ago, resulting in a month-long hospital stay. He denies experiencing flashbacks and reports generally good mood. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe injury

      Explanation:

      Disinhibition can be a result of frontal lobe lesions.

      Based on his recent accident, it is probable that the man has suffered from a frontal lobe injury. Such injuries can cause changes in behavior, including impulsiveness and a lack of inhibition.

      If the injury were to the occipital lobe, it would likely result in vision loss.

      The patient’s denial of flashbacks and positive mood make it unlikely that he has PTSD.

      Injuries to the parietal and temporal lobes can lead to communication difficulties and sensory perception problems.

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 9 - A 47-year-old motorcyclist suffers a tibial fracture and experiences numbness in the web...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old motorcyclist suffers a tibial fracture and experiences numbness in the web space between their first and second toes. Which nerve is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The lower leg’s anterior muscular compartment houses the deep peroneal nerve, which can be affected by compartment syndrome in that region. This nerve supplies sensory information to the first web space. On the other hand, the superficial peroneal nerve offers cutaneous innervation that is more lateral.

      The Deep Peroneal Nerve: Origin, Course, and Actions

      The deep peroneal nerve is a branch of the common peroneal nerve that originates at the lateral aspect of the fibula, deep to the peroneus longus muscle. It is composed of nerve root values L4, L5, S1, and S2. The nerve pierces the anterior intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the lower leg and passes anteriorly down to the ankle joint, midway between the two malleoli. It terminates in the dorsum of the foot.

      The deep peroneal nerve innervates several muscles, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor digitorum brevis. It also provides cutaneous innervation to the web space of the first and second toes. The nerve’s actions include dorsiflexion of the ankle joint, extension of all toes (extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus), and inversion of the foot.

      After its bifurcation past the ankle joint, the lateral branch of the deep peroneal nerve innervates the extensor digitorum brevis and the extensor hallucis brevis, while the medial branch supplies the web space between the first and second digits. Understanding the origin, course, and actions of the deep peroneal nerve is essential for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve, such as foot drop and nerve entrapment syndromes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old female patient is being evaluated by her GP a couple of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient is being evaluated by her GP a couple of weeks after recuperating from an incident. Although most of her injuries have healed, she still cannot utilize the muscles of mastication on the left side of her face. Which cranial nerve is likely to be accountable for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left trigeminal motor nerve (CN V)

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 11 - A 23-year-old man is in a physical altercation resulting in a skull fracture...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man is in a physical altercation resulting in a skull fracture and damage to the middle meningeal artery. After undergoing a craniotomy, the bleeding from the artery is successfully stopped through ligation near its origin. What sensory impairment is the patient most likely to experience after the operation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parasthesia of the ipsilateral external ear

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery is in close proximity to the auriculotemporal nerve, which could potentially be harmed in this situation. This nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the outer ear and the outer layer of the tympanic membrane. The C2,3 roots innervate the jaw angle and would not be impacted. The glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for supplying the tongue.

      The Middle Meningeal Artery: Anatomy and Clinical Significance

      The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the maxillary artery, which is one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. It is the largest of the three arteries that supply the meninges, the outermost layer of the brain. The artery runs through the foramen spinosum and supplies the dura mater. It is located beneath the pterion, where the skull is thin, making it vulnerable to injury. Rupture of the artery can lead to an Extradural hematoma.

      In the dry cranium, the middle meningeal artery creates a deep indentation in the calvarium. It is intimately associated with the auriculotemporal nerve, which wraps around the artery. This makes the two structures easily identifiable in the dissection of human cadavers and also easily damaged in surgery.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the middle meningeal artery is important for medical professionals, particularly those involved in neurosurgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 12 - A 49-year-old man is admitted to the neurology ward following a subarachnoid haemorrhage....

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man is admitted to the neurology ward following a subarachnoid haemorrhage. The neurologist inserts an intraventricular catheter to monitor the patient's intracranial pressure (ICP) as part of their ongoing monitoring.

      Which of the following values would be considered pathological in this setting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 21 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage often leads to increased intracranial pressure, which requires careful monitoring in a hospital setting. The normal range for intracranial pressure is between 7 and 15 mmHg, and any readings above 20 mmHg require immediate intervention.

      Since the brain is enclosed in a fixed space within the skull, there is little room for additional substances such as blood, tissue, or cerebrospinal fluid before intracranial pressure rises rapidly. In subarachnoid haemorrhage, the haematoma’s mass effect can cause increased intracranial pressure.

      Other causes of increased intracranial pressure include meningitis, trauma, and idiopathic presentations. Symptoms of increased intracranial pressure include headache, vomiting, altered consciousness, and Cushing’s triad (widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular breathing).

      Management of increased intracranial pressure should be tailored to the underlying cause. The first-line treatment involves elevating the head to 30º, and more severe cases may require intravenous mannitol to lower intracranial pressure.

      Understanding Raised Intracranial Pressure

      As the brain and ventricles are enclosed by a rigid skull, any additional volume such as haematoma, tumour, or excessive cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can lead to a rise in intracranial pressure (ICP). The normal ICP in adults in the supine position is 7-15 mmHg. Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is the net pressure gradient causing cerebral blood flow to the brain, and it is calculated by subtracting ICP from mean arterial pressure.

      Raised intracranial pressure can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic intracranial hypertension, traumatic head injuries, infection, meningitis, tumours, and hydrocephalus. Its features include headache, vomiting, reduced levels of consciousness, papilloedema, and Cushing’s triad, which is characterized by widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular breathing.

      To investigate raised intracranial pressure, neuroimaging such as CT or MRI is key to determine the underlying cause. Invasive ICP monitoring can also be done by placing a catheter into the lateral ventricles of the brain to monitor the pressure, collect CSF samples, and drain small amounts of CSF to reduce the pressure. A cut-off of > 20 mmHg is often used to determine if further treatment is needed to reduce the ICP.

      Management of raised intracranial pressure involves investigating and treating the underlying cause, head elevation to 30º, IV mannitol as an osmotic diuretic, controlled hyperventilation to reduce pCO2 and vasoconstriction of the cerebral arteries, and removal of CSF through techniques such as drain from intraventricular monitor, repeated lumbar puncture, or ventriculoperitoneal shunt for hydrocephalus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old female presents to the neurology clinic with diplopia and headache. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female presents to the neurology clinic with diplopia and headache. Upon examination, her visual acuity is 6/6, and there is pupillary dilatation. An MRI of her head reveals a post-communicating artery aneurysm. What cranial nerve palsy is probable in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Third nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      A third nerve palsy may be caused by an aneurysm in the posterior communicating artery.

      Understanding Third Nerve Palsy: Causes and Features

      Third nerve palsy is a neurological condition that affects the third cranial nerve, which controls the movement of the eye and eyelid. The condition is characterized by the eye being deviated ‘down and out’, ptosis, and a dilated pupil. In some cases, it may be referred to as a ‘surgical’ third nerve palsy due to the dilation of the pupil.

      There are several possible causes of third nerve palsy, including diabetes mellitus, vasculitis (such as temporal arteritis or SLE), uncal herniation through tentorium if raised ICP, posterior communicating artery aneurysm, and cavernous sinus thrombosis. In some cases, it may also be a false localizing sign. Weber’s syndrome, which is characterized by an ipsilateral third nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia, is caused by midbrain strokes. Other possible causes include amyloid and multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 14 - As a medical student, currently, based on the GP practice your tutor asks...

    Incorrect

    • As a medical student, currently, based on the GP practice your tutor asks you to perform an abbreviated mental test (AMT) examination on a 70-year-old patient with known Alzheimer's disease. They score 4/10. Besides beta-amyloid plaques, what other histological features would you anticipate observing in a patient with Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neurofibrillary tangles

      Explanation:

      Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by the presence of cortical plaques, which are caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein, and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles, which are caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein.

      Tau proteins are abundant in the CNS and play a role in stabilizing microtubules. When they become defective, they accumulate as hyperphosphorylated tau and form paired helical filaments that aggregate inside nerve cell bodies as neurofibrillary tangles.

      Amyloid precursor protein (APP) is an integral membrane protein that is expressed in many tissues and concentrated in the synapses of neurons. While its primary function is not known, it has been implicated as a regulator of synaptic formation, neural plasticity, and iron export. APP is best known as a precursor molecule, and proteolysis generates beta amyloid, which is the primary component of amyloid plaques found in the brains of Alzheimer’s disease.

      Although Ach receptors are reduced in Alzheimer’s disease, they are not visible on histology.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 4-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 4-hour history of headache, confusion, and neck stiffness. In the department, she appears to become increasingly lethargic and has a seizure.

      She has no past medical history and takes no regular medications. Her friend reports that no one else in their apartment complex has been unwell recently.

      Her observations show heart rate 112/min, blood pressure of 98/78 mmHg, 98% oxygen saturations in room air, a temperature of 39.1ºC, and respiratory rate of 20/min.

      She has bloods including cultures sent and is referred to the medical team for further management.

      What is the most likely organism causing this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Aetiology of Meningitis in Adults

      Meningitis is a condition that can be caused by various infectious agents such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. However, this article will focus on bacterial meningitis. The most common bacteria that cause meningitis in adults is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can develop after an episode of otitis media. Another bacterium that can cause meningitis is Neisseria meningitidis. Listeria monocytogenes is more common in immunocompromised patients and the elderly. Lastly, Haemophilus influenzae type b is also a known cause of meningitis in adults. It is important to identify the causative agent of meningitis to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 16 - Linda, a 68-year-old female, visits a shoulder clinic for a routine follow-up appointment...

    Incorrect

    • Linda, a 68-year-old female, visits a shoulder clinic for a routine follow-up appointment after undergoing a right shoulder replacement surgery for osteoarthritis. During the consultation, she reports limited movement in bending her elbow and shoulder.

      Upon examining her upper limb, the surgeon observes decreased flexion at the elbow and suspects nerve damage during the operation.

      Which nerve is most likely to have been affected based on the patient's symptoms and signs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      When the musculocutaneous nerve is injured, it can result in weakness when flexing the upper arm at the shoulder and elbow. This nerve is responsible for innervating the brachialis, biceps brachii, and coracobrachialis muscles. Other nerves, such as the axillary nerve, median nerve, and radial nerve, also play a role in muscle innervation and movement. The axillary nerve innervates the teres minor and deltoid muscles, while the median nerve innervates the majority of the flexor muscles in the forearm, the thenar muscles, and the two lateral lumbricals. The radial nerve innervates the triceps brachii and the muscles in the posterior compartment of the forearm, which generally cause extension of the wrist and fingers.

      The Musculocutaneous Nerve: Function and Pathway

      The musculocutaneous nerve is a nerve branch that originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Its pathway involves penetrating the coracobrachialis muscle and passing obliquely between the biceps brachii and the brachialis to the lateral side of the arm. Above the elbow, it pierces the deep fascia lateral to the tendon of the biceps brachii and continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.

      The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Injury to this nerve can cause weakness in flexion at the shoulder and elbow. Understanding the function and pathway of the musculocutaneous nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old man with Alzheimer's disease visits his doctor for a medication review,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with Alzheimer's disease visits his doctor for a medication review, accompanied by his son. The son reports that his father is struggling to perform daily tasks and requests an increase in his care package.

      During the examination, the patient appears disoriented to time and place. A mini-mental state examination is conducted, revealing a score of 14/30, indicating moderate dementia.

      Which histological finding would be the most specific for this patient's diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extraneuronal amyloid plaques, intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles

      Explanation:

      In Alzheimer’s disease, the pathology involves extraneuronal amyloid plaques and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles. Amyloid plaques are clumps of beta-amyloid that are found in the extracellular matrix, while neurofibrillary tangles are made up of hyperphosphorylated tau and are located within the neurons. The exact role of beta-amyloid and tau in the development of Alzheimer’s disease is still not fully understood.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 18 - A patient in their 50s presents to the doctor with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 50s presents to the doctor with a history of head trauma. During the neurological examination, the doctor performs a corneal reflex test and observes an absence of the reflex, but the patient is able to blink voluntarily. What area of the skull is likely to have a lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior orbital fissure

      Explanation:

      The ophthalmic nerve, which is responsible for the sensation of the eyeball and the corneal reflex, passes through the superior orbital fissure. This location makes anatomical sense as it is closer to the eyes. The foramen ovale, foramen rotundum, internal acoustic meatus, and jugular foramen are incorrect options as they do not innervate the eyes or are located further away from them.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 19 - A 67-year-old female presents to a medical facility with a chief complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female presents to a medical facility with a chief complaint of tremors. Upon examination, the physician observes that the tremors are most noticeable when the patient is at rest. The patient does not display any specific neurological deficits, but does exhibit arm rigidity throughout the full range of motion and takes some time to initiate movements. Given the probable diagnosis, what histological finding would be anticipated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lewy bodies

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia, Parkinson’s Disease should be considered as a possible diagnosis. The presence of Lewy Bodies, which are clumps of proteins within neurons, is a characteristic histological finding. These bodies are often found in the substantia nigra and have a cytoplasm that is rich in eosin.

      In males with Klinefelter syndrome, Barr bodies, which are inactivated X chromosomes, may be observed.

      Cholesterol clefts are a result of cholesterol emboli, which occur when material from an atherosclerotic plaque becomes dislodged and deposited elsewhere. This can happen during procedures such as angiography.

      Keratin pearls are a feature of squamous cell lung cancer, where squamous cells form concentric layers around keratin.

      The term kidney bean-shaped nuclei refers to the appearance of neutrophils.

      Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.

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  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old man visits an after-hours medical facility in the late evening with...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man visits an after-hours medical facility in the late evening with a complaint of a severe headache that is focused around his left eye. He mentions experiencing haloes in his vision and difficulty seeing clearly. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and diabetes. During the examination, the sclera appears red, and the cornea is hazy with a dilated pupil.

      What condition is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute closed-angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are consistent with acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is an urgent ophthalmological emergency. They are experiencing a headache with unilateral eye pain, reduced vision, visual haloes, a red and congested eye with a cloudy cornea, and a dilated, unresponsive pupil. These symptoms may be triggered by darkness or dilating eye drops. Treatment should involve laying the patient flat to relieve angle pressure, administering pilocarpine eye drops to constrict the pupil, acetazolamide orally to reduce aqueous humour production, and providing analgesia. Referral to secondary care is necessary.

      It is important to differentiate this condition from other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms. Central retinal vein occlusion, for example, would cause sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy. Migraines typically involve a visual or somatosensory aura followed by a unilateral throbbing headache, nausea, vomiting, and photophobia. Subarachnoid haemorrhages present with a sudden, severe headache, rather than a gradually worsening one accompanied by eye signs. Temporal arteritis may cause pain when chewing, difficulty brushing hair, and thickened temporal arteries visible on examination. However, the presence of a dilated, fixed pupil with conjunctival injection should steer the clinician away from a diagnosis of migraine.

      Acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in intraocular pressure (IOP) due to a blockage in the outflow of aqueous humor. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with aging. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, a hard and red eye, haloes around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reacting pupil. AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. The initial medical treatment involves a combination of eye drops, such as a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist, as well as intravenous acetazolamide to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a tiny hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humor to flow to the angle.

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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old man has recently undergone parotidectomy on his left side due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has recently undergone parotidectomy on his left side due to a malignant parotid gland tumor. He has been back on the surgical ward for a few hours when he reports feeling weakness on the left side of his mouth. Upon examination, you observe facial asymmetry and weakness on the left side. He is unable to hold air under pressure in his mouth and cannot raise his left lip to show his teeth. This complication is likely due to damage to which nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve is the seventh cranial nerve and innervates the muscles of facial expression. It runs through the parotid gland and can be injured during parotidectomy. The maxillary nerve is the second division of the trigeminal nerve and carries sensory fibres from the lower eyelid, cheeks, upper teeth, palate, nasal cavity, and paranasal sinuses. The glossopharyngeal nerve is the ninth cranial nerve and has various functions, including carrying taste and sensation from the posterior third of the tongue and supplying parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland. The mandibular nerve is the third division of the trigeminal nerve and carries sensory and motor fibres, supplying motor innervation to the muscles of mastication. The hypoglossal nerve is the twelfth cranial nerve and supplies the intrinsic muscles of the tongue.

      The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.

      The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.

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  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old woman is involved in a car accident and is admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is involved in a car accident and is admitted to a neuro-rehabilitation ward for her recovery. During her cranial nerve examination, it is found that she has left-sided homonymous inferior quadrantanopia and difficulty reading. Her family reports that she can no longer read the newspaper or do sudokus, which she used to enjoy before the accident. Based on these symptoms, which area of the brain is likely to be damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parietal lobe

      Explanation:

      Alexia may be caused by lesions in the parietal lobe.

      This is because damage to the parietal lobe can result in various symptoms, including alexia, agraphia, acalculia, hemi-spatial neglect, and homonymous inferior quadrantanopia. Other possible symptoms may include loss of sensation, apraxias, or astereognosis.

      The cerebellum is not the correct answer, as damage to this region can cause symptoms such as dysdiadochokinesia, ataxia, nystagmus, intention tremor, scanning dysarthria, and positive heel-shin test.

      Similarly, the frontal lobe is not the correct answer, as damage to this region can result in anosmia, Broca’s dysphasia, changes in personality, and motor deficits.

      The occipital lobe is also not the correct answer, as damage to this region can cause visual disturbances.

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old woman presents with an absent corneal reflex on cranial nerve examination....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with an absent corneal reflex on cranial nerve examination. The examining neurologist suspects a lesion affecting either the afferent or efferent limb of this reflex. Which two cranial nerves should be considered as potential culprits?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal and facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The trigeminal nerve’s ophthalmic branch serves as the input or arriving limb in the corneal reflex, while the facial nerve acts as the output or exiting limb.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman complains of faecal incontinence. She had a normal vaginal delivery...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman complains of faecal incontinence. She had a normal vaginal delivery 8 years ago. Which nerve injury is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal

      Explanation:

      The POOdendal nerve is responsible for keeping the poo up off the floor, and damage to this nerve is commonly linked to faecal incontinence. To address this issue, sacral neuromodulation is often used as a treatment. Additionally, constipation can be caused by injury to the hypogastric autonomic nerves.

      The Pudendal Nerve and its Functions

      The pudendal nerve is a nerve that originates from the S2, S3, and S4 nerve roots and exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen. It then re-enters the perineum through the lesser sciatic foramen. This nerve provides innervation to the anal sphincters and external urethral sphincter, as well as cutaneous innervation to the perineum surrounding the anus and posterior vulva.

      Late onset pudendal neuropathy may occur due to traction and compression of the pudendal nerve by the foetus during late pregnancy. This condition may contribute to the development of faecal incontinence. Understanding the functions of the pudendal nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions related to the perineum and surrounding areas.

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  • Question 25 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to you by her father who complains that...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to you by her father who complains that his daughter has been vomiting for the past few weeks, especially in the morning, and has complained of double vision for the past week. You suspect the child may have increased intracranial pressure, and order a CT brain to rule out an intracranial mass.

      If the underlying cause of her symptoms turned out to a medulloblastoma, what histological finding would be most characteristic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small, blue cells with rosette patterns

      Explanation:

      The histological appearance of a medulloblastoma is small, blue cells with rosette patterns, which is the most common malignant primary tumour in the paediatric population and frequently found in the infratentorial region.

      Brain tumours can be classified into different types based on their location, histology, and clinical features. Metastatic brain cancer is the most common form of brain tumours, which often cannot be treated with surgical intervention. Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common primary tumour in adults and is associated with a poor prognosis. Meningioma is the second most common primary brain tumour in adults, which is typically benign and arises from the arachnoid cap cells of the meninges. Vestibular schwannoma is a benign tumour arising from the eighth cranial nerve, while pilocytic astrocytoma is the most common primary brain tumour in children. Medulloblastoma is an aggressive paediatric brain tumour that arises within the infratentorial compartment, while ependymoma is commonly seen in the 4th ventricle and may cause hydrocephalus. Oligodendroma is a benign, slow-growing tumour common in the frontal lobes, while haemangioblastoma is a vascular tumour of the cerebellum. Pituitary adenoma is a benign tumour of the pituitary gland that can be either secretory or non-secretory, while craniopharyngioma is a solid/cystic tumour of the sellar region that is derived from the remnants of Rathke’s pouch.

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  • Question 26 - A 58-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of constipation and a decrease in...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of constipation and a decrease in his sex drive. The man cannot recall when the symptoms began, but he does recall falling off a ladder recently. Upon examination, the man appears to be in good health.

      What is the most probable site of injury or damage in this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sacral spine (S2,3,4)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Autonomic Nervous System

      The autonomic nervous system is responsible for regulating involuntary functions in the body, such as heart rate, digestion, and sexual arousal. It is composed of two main components, the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, as well as a sensory division. The sympathetic division arises from the T1-L2/3 region of the spinal cord and synapses onto postganglionic neurons at paravertebral or prevertebral ganglia. The parasympathetic division arises from cranial nerves and the sacral spinal cord and synapses with postganglionic neurons at parasympathetic ganglia. The sensory division includes baroreceptors and chemoreceptors that monitor blood levels of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and glucose, as well as arterial pressure and the contents of the stomach and intestines.

      The autonomic nervous system releases neurotransmitters such as noradrenaline and acetylcholine to achieve necessary functions and regulate homeostasis. The sympathetic nervous system causes fight or flight responses, while the parasympathetic nervous system causes rest and digest responses. Autonomic dysfunction refers to the abnormal functioning of any part of the autonomic nervous system, which can present in many forms and affect any of the autonomic systems. To assess a patient for autonomic dysfunction, a detailed history should be taken, and the patient should undergo a full neurological examination and further testing if necessary. Understanding the autonomic nervous system is crucial in diagnosing and treating autonomic dysfunction.

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  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by his wife after she found him complaining of a headache, drowsiness, and difficulty walking. He is currently on warfarin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The man states that he has had several falls in the past month or so, and has recently become more confused. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan is ordered for the man.

      Where would you suspect blood to collect in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Between the arachnoid mater and the dura mater

      Explanation:

      The arachnoid mater is the middle layer of the meninges. The described condition is a subdural haemorrhage or haematoma, which is a collection of blood between the arachnoid mater and the dura mater. It is often caused by chronic mild trauma and is common in the elderly and those on anticoagulant therapy. MRI scans show a concave pool of blood. There is no potential space between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater for blood to fill.

      The Three Layers of Meninges

      The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

      The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

      The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

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  • Question 28 - An 80-year-old man comes to the neurology clinic accompanied by his daughter. She...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the neurology clinic accompanied by his daughter. She reports that his speech has been progressively harder to comprehend for the last six months. During the examination, you observe that his eyes twitch repeatedly, particularly when he gazes upwards. Based on these findings, where in his brain is the lesion most likely located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebellar vermis

      Explanation:

      Upbeat nystagmus can be caused by a lesion in the cerebellar vermis, which can result in uncontrolled repetitive eye movements that worsen when looking upwards. Other symptoms of cerebellar lesions may include slurred speech. Downbeat nystagmus, on the other hand, can be caused by a lesion in the foramen magnum, which is often seen in Arnold Chiari malformation. Parkinson’s disease, which is characterized by bradykinesia, tremors, and rigidity, can be caused by a lesion in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia. Lesions in the temporal lobe can result in superior homonymous quadrantanopia, which is characterized by loss of vision in the same upper quadrant of each eye, as well as changes in speech such as word substitutions and neologisms. Finally, lesions in the hypothalamus can lead to Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome, which can cause ataxia, nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, confabulation, and amnesia.

      Understanding Nystagmus and its Causes

      Nystagmus is a condition characterized by involuntary eye movements that can occur in different directions. Upbeat nystagmus, for instance, is associated with lesions in the cerebellar vermis, while downbeat nystagmus is linked to foramen magnum lesions and Arnold-Chiari malformation.

      Upbeat nystagmus causes the eyes to move upwards and then jerk downwards, while downbeat nystagmus causes the eyes to move downwards and then jerk upwards. These movements can affect vision and balance, leading to symptoms such as dizziness, vertigo, and difficulty reading or focusing on objects.

      It is important to note that not all forms of nystagmus are pathological. Horizontal optokinetic nystagmus, for example, is a normal physiological response to visual stimuli. This type of nystagmus occurs when the eyes track a moving object, such as a passing car or a scrolling text on a screen.

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  • Question 29 - After undergoing a cervical lymph node biopsy, John, a 67-year-old man, visits his...

    Incorrect

    • After undergoing a cervical lymph node biopsy, John, a 67-year-old man, visits his doctor complaining of weakness in his left shoulder.

      What cranial nerve injury could explain John's decreased ability to lift his left shoulder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right spinal accessory nerve

      Explanation:

      A reduced ability to rotate the head and shrug the shoulders is indicative of an accessory nerve palsy.

      The accessory nerve is responsible for innervating the ipsilateral sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. The sternocleidomastoid muscle allows for head rotation, while the trapezius muscle allows for shoulder shrugging. Therefore, if there is a lesion in the accessory nerve, it can cause weakness in these movements. In Harry’s case, since he has weakness in his right shoulder, the lesion is likely in his right accessory nerve.

      It’s important to note that the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves do not innervate the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.

      The spinal part of the accessory nerve is responsible for innervating the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, while the cranial part of the accessory nerve combines with the vagus nerve.

      The Accessory Nerve and Its Functions

      The accessory nerve is the eleventh cranial nerve that provides motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. It is important to examine the function of this nerve by checking for any loss of muscle bulk in the shoulders, asking the patient to shrug their shoulders against resistance, and turning their head against resistance.

      Iatrogenic injury, which is caused by medical treatment or procedures, is a common cause of isolated accessory nerve lesions. This is especially true for surgeries in the posterior cervical triangle, such as lymph node biopsy. It is important to be aware of the potential for injury to the accessory nerve during these procedures to prevent any long-term complications.

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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old male presents to the GP with complaints of throbbing headaches on...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the GP with complaints of throbbing headaches on the right side of his head for the past month. The pain lasts for approximately 10 hours and is preceded by visual disturbances. He also experiences nausea without vomiting and reports taking paracetamol for relief. You decide to prescribe sumatriptan for acute attacks.

      What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serotonin receptor agonists

      Explanation:

      Triptans, including sumatriptan, are drugs that act as agonists for serotonin receptors 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D. These drugs are commonly used to manage acute migraines and cluster headaches. Based on the patient’s symptoms, it is likely that they are experiencing migraines, which are characterized by unilateral headaches, pre-aura symptoms, and a specific time frame. While the exact cause of migraines is not fully understood, it is believed to involve inflammation and dilation of cerebral arteries. Triptans work by binding to serotonin receptors, causing vasoconstriction and reducing blood flow, which can alleviate migraine symptoms. Other receptors are targeted by different drugs for various purposes.

      Understanding Triptans for Migraine Treatment

      Triptans are a type of medication used to treat migraines. They work by activating specific receptors in the brain called 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D. Triptans are usually the first choice for acute migraine treatment and are often used in combination with other pain relievers like NSAIDs or paracetamol.

      It is important to take triptans as soon as possible after the onset of a migraine headache, rather than waiting for the aura to begin. Triptans are available in different forms, including oral tablets, orodispersible tablets, nasal sprays, and subcutaneous injections.

      While triptans are generally safe and effective, they can cause some side effects. Some people may experience what is known as triptan sensations, which can include tingling, heat, tightness in the throat or chest, heaviness, or pressure.

      Triptans are not suitable for everyone. People with a history of or significant risk factors for ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease should not take triptans.

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