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Question 1
Incorrect
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A health-conscious 29-year-old woman attends a drop-in Genito-urinary Medicine Clinic for a routine sexual transmitted infection (STI) screen. Her results indicate that she has contracted Chlamydia.
Which of the following would be the most suitable antibiotic treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg 12-hourly for 3 days
Correct Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg 12 hourly for 7 days
Explanation:Common Antibiotics for Chlamydia Treatment: Dosage and Suitability
Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. Antibiotics are the primary treatment for chlamydial infection. However, not all antibiotics are suitable for treating this infection. Here are some common antibiotics used for chlamydia treatment, their recommended dosage, and their suitability for this infection.
Doxycycline 100 mg 12 hourly for 7 days
This is the recommended treatment for Chlamydia in adults/children over 13 years, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines and British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) guidance.Doxycycline 100 mg 12-hourly for 3 days
Even though doxycycline is used to treat infection with Chlamydia, a course of 100 mg 12-hourly over 3 days is not sufficient. Doxycycline 100 mg 12-hourly for 7 days is the recommended course.Amoxicillin 500 mg every 8 hours for 7 days
Amoxicillin targets Gram-positive bacteria and is hence an unsuitable antibiotic for chlamydial infection.Azithromycin 3 g orally single dose
A dose of 3 g per day is much too high. The recommended dose for azithromycin to treat chlamydial infection is 1 g orally per day.Clarithromycin 250 mg for 14 days
Clarithromycin is not typically used to treat infection with C. trachomatis. It is most commonly used to treat respiratory tract infections, soft tissue infections and as part of the treatment for H. pylori eradication. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is more severe in the morning and accompanied by an itchy feeling. She states that she has not experienced any changes in her vision. Upon examining her eyelids, the doctor observes crusting at the eyelid edges that are inflamed and red. The conjunctivae seem normal, and the pupils react equally to light. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Blepharitis: This condition presents with crusting of both eyelids, redness, swelling, and itching. It can be treated with eyelid hygiene and warm compress. If these measures are not effective, chloramphenicol ointment can be used.
Chalazion: A painless swelling or lump on the eyelid caused by a blocked gland. Patients report a red, swollen, and painful area on the eyelid, which settles within a few days but leaves behind a firm, painless swelling. Warm compresses and gentle massaging can encourage drainage.
Conjunctivitis: Patients with conjunctivitis present with conjunctival erythema, watery/discharging eye, and a gritty sensation. Most cases are self-limiting, but some patients will require topical antibiotics if symptoms have not resolved.
Entropion: This condition is when the margin of the eyelid turns inwards towards the surface of the eye, causing irritation. It is more common in elderly patients and requires surgical treatment.
Hordeolum: An acute-onset localised swelling of the eyelid margin that is painful. It is usually localised around an eyelash follicle, in which case plucking the affected eyelash can aid drainage. Styes are usually self-limiting, but eyelid hygiene and warm compress can help with resolution.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy is admitted to the paediatric ward due to recurrent episodes of arthralgia affecting multiple sites. During physical examination, swelling and tenderness are observed in the right ankle joint, while tenderness on motion and pain are present over the bilateral wrist and left sacroiliac joints. The patient had visited his GP two months ago with symptoms of vomiting, diarrhoea, and fever, for which he received supportive treatment. Synovial fluid analysis from the aspirated ankle joint reveals a high white cell count and no organisms present in the culture. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this case is reactive arthritis, which is a type of arthritis that occurs after a distant infection in the gastrointestinal or urogenital area. It is characterized by joint pain, urethritis, and uveitis, and is more common in individuals who have the HLA-B27 gene. The infections that commonly trigger reactive arthritis are caused by Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Campylobacter organisms.
Other possible diagnoses were ruled out based on the absence of certain symptoms. Behcet’s disease, which presents with oral and genital ulcers and uveitis, was unlikely due to the lack of ulcers or visual symptoms. Septic arthritis, which causes joint swelling and pain, was also considered but was less likely because it typically affects only one joint and is accompanied by fever and other signs. Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus were also considered but were ruled out due to the absence of their characteristic symptoms.
Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, further studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA). Reactive arthritis is defined as arthritis that occurs after an infection where the organism cannot be found in the joint. The post-STI form is more common in men, while the post-dysenteric form has an equal incidence in both sexes. The most common organisms associated with reactive arthritis are listed in the table below.
Management of reactive arthritis is mainly symptomatic, with analgesia, NSAIDs, and intra-articular steroids being used. Sulfasalazine and methotrexate may be used for persistent disease. Symptoms usually last for less than 12 months. It is worth noting that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that Reiter was a member of the Nazi party.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Correct
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A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of vomiting and dehydration. He reports a two-month history of weight loss and excessive thirst. Upon examination, the patient is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis, with a blood glucose level of 29.3 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), a pH of 7.12 (7.36-7.44) on blood gas analysis, and +++ ketones in the urine. What is the percentage of individuals with type 1 diabetes who are initially diagnosed after presenting with diabetic ketoacidosis?
Your Answer: 25%
Explanation:Diabetic Ketoacidosis: A Dangerous Complication of Type 1 Diabetes
Approximately one quarter of patients with type 1 diabetes will experience their first symptoms in the form of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). However, it is important to note that these individuals may have previously ignored symptoms such as thirst, frequent urination, and weight loss. DKA is a serious and potentially life-threatening complication of diabetes that is characterized by high blood sugar levels, lactic acidosis, vomiting, and dehydration. It is crucial for individuals with type 1 diabetes to be aware of the signs and symptoms of DKA and seek medical attention immediately if they suspect they may be experiencing this condition. Proper management and treatment of DKA can help prevent serious complications and improve overall health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man comes to see you, struggling to cope after his wife passed away suddenly 5 months ago. He appears sad and spends most of the appointment looking down, but answers your questions. He expresses concern that he may be losing his mind because he has started seeing his wife sitting in her old chair and sometimes talks to her when he is alone. He confirms that he can hear her voice responding to him. He says he mostly talks to her while cooking in the kitchen or when he is alone at night. Despite these experiences, he knows that what he sees and hears is not real. He reports occasional memory loss and some abdominal pain due to his irritable bowel syndrome, but is otherwise healthy. He has no history of psychiatric conditions in himself or his family. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Abnormal grief reaction
Correct Answer: Normal grief reaction
Explanation:Pseudohallucinations may be a normal part of the grieving process, and differ from true hallucinations in that the individual is aware that what they are experiencing is not real. While pseudohallucinations can be distressing, they are not considered pathological unless accompanied by urinary symptoms, which would require further investigation. The patient in question displays low mood and avoids eye contact, but responds well to questioning and is able to prepare food independently. While depression with psychotic features can involve true hallucinations, there are no other symptoms to suggest this diagnosis. Lewy-body dementia, which can cause visual hallucinations, Parkinsonian features, and cognitive impairment, is not a likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms. Abnormal grief reactions are typically defined as persisting for at least six months after the loss.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations
Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.
One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.
Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the out-of-hours clinic seeking emergency contraception. She is currently on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and reports having taken each pill regularly for the first 7 days of her cycle. However, she forgot to pack her contraception while on a weekend trip and missed 2 doses. She had unprotected sexual intercourse during this time. Upon returning home, she resumed taking her COCP on day 10 of her cycle. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Levonorgestrel and barrier contraception for next 7 days
Correct Answer: No emergency contraception required and barrier contraception for next 7 days
Explanation:If a woman misses two COCP doses between days 8-14 of her menstrual cycle, emergency contraception is not necessary as long as the previous seven doses were taken correctly. In this case, the woman missed doses on days 8 and 9 but resumed taking the medication on day 10, so emergency contraception is not needed. However, until seven consecutive days of the COCP are taken, using barrier contraception or abstaining from sex is recommended to prevent pregnancy. The intrauterine system is not a form of emergency contraception, and introducing it in this situation is unnecessary. Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraception option that must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sex, but it is not needed in this case. If the patient had missed more than two COCP doses, levonorgestrel and barrier contraception for seven days would be appropriate. Ulipristal acetate is another emergency contraception option that must be taken within five days of unprotected sex, but it is also not necessary in this situation. If it were indicated, barrier contraception would need to be used for the next seven days until the COCP takes effect.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old diabetic man is scheduled for an elective incision and drainage of a groin abscess in the day surgery unit. He is typically well-managed on metformin. How should his diabetic control be managed during this procedure?
Your Answer: Continue her normal regimen
Explanation:It is unlikely that this patient, who is a diabetic taking oral medication, will require a sliding scale regimen for an incision and drainage procedure, unless it is a major surgery. In the case of significant surgery, the patient would typically be admitted the night before and put on a variable rate infusion. It is generally not recommended to postpone surgery unless there are significant reasons to do so. As this is likely to be a day case surgery, the patient can continue taking their regular metformin medication.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.
There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.
When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man is brought to the Neurology clinic by his wife because he has had 4 months of progressively worsening dysarthria, gait instability, intention tremor and memory loss. Electroencephalography (EEG) is performed and is significant for triphasic spikes, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is obtained, which shows an elevated 14-3-3 protein. The patient’s clinical course continues to deteriorate, and he dies 7 months after his initial presentation. A researcher obtains permission to procure a brain biopsy specimen to confirm the diagnosis and contribute to a repository of similar diseases.
What secondary structure would the researcher expect to find in the abnormal brain tissue?Your Answer: Proteinaceous α sheets
Correct Answer: Proteinaceous β sheets
Explanation:Secondary Structures in Proteins and Nucleic Acids
Proteins and nucleic acids are essential biomolecules that perform various functions in living organisms. These molecules have unique structural features that enable them to carry out their functions. One such feature is the secondary structure, which refers to the local folding patterns of the molecule.
Proteinaceous β sheets are a type of secondary structure that is associated with prion disorders such as Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease. Prions are infectious protein molecules that can convert normal cellular prion protein into an abnormal form that exists as β sheets.
Nucleic acid hairpin loops are another type of secondary structure that has functional properties in DNA and RNA molecules. These structures are formed when a single strand of nucleic acid folds back on itself to form a loop.
Proteinaceous α helices are a common non-pathological secondary structure of proteins. These structures are formed when the polypeptide chain twists into a helical shape.
Nucleic acid pseudoknots are secondary structures that have functional properties in DNA and RNA molecules. These structures are formed when two regions of a single strand of nucleic acid fold back on each other and form a knot-like structure.
Proteinaceous α sheets are theoretical structures that could represent an intermediate between α helices and β sheets. These structures have not been observed in nature but are predicted based on computational models.
In summary, secondary structures play an important role in the function and stability of proteins and nucleic acids. Understanding these structures is essential for understanding the molecular mechanisms of biological processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by his friends. They report that for the past 6 days, he has not slept or eaten, and he believes that aliens are communicating with him through his phone.
During the examination, he speaks rapidly and loudly. When asked about his condition, he describes in detail what the aliens have been telling him, including the frequency and duration of the calls, as well as the tone and pitch of their voices. He also expresses feelings of anxiety and paranoia.
What type of thought disorder is present in this man?Your Answer: Tangentiality
Correct Answer: Circumstantiality
Explanation:Circumstantiality is when a person provides excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question. This can be a symptom of a manic episode, which is likely the case for this patient. The woman has been experiencing irrational thoughts for the past 5 days, which has resulted in a lack of sleep and eating. Her speech is loud and pressured, and she has a delusion that the government has given her a special mission to stop global warming. This delusion is a sign of a formal thought disorder, which is further demonstrated by her circumstantiality. She is unable to answer a question without providing excessive detail, such as describing the color of the television before finally expressing that she feels stressed. Echolalia, the repetition of someone else’s speech, is not observed in this woman. Flight of ideas, which involves accelerated speech and wandering ideas, is also not present. Knight’s move thinking, which involves poor associations to the previous topic, is also not observed.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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A 9-month-old baby is presented to the emergency department due to vomiting and diarrhoea that has been going on for 2 days. The vomit and stools are unremarkable, but the father reports that the baby has been lethargic and unsettled for the past 3 days. Additionally, the baby has had 6 episodes of uncontrollable crying where he draws his legs up to his chest for a few minutes at a time. The baby has no fever. During the examination, the baby appears pale and lethargic, and a small mass is palpated in the right upper quadrant. To investigate further, a plain abdominal x-ray is performed, which shows no signs of obstruction, and an ultrasound scan reveals a target sign. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:This question pertains to gastrointestinal disorders in children, specifically focusing on the symptoms of vomiting and diarrhea. While there can be various reasons for these symptoms, the child in this scenario displays indications of Intussusception. One of the classic signs is the child crying intermittently and pulling their legs towards their chest. Additionally, the presence of a small mass in the right upper quadrant and a target sign on ultrasound further support this diagnosis, along with the vomiting, diarrhea, and pain.
The vomit and stool do not show any significant abnormalities, and the absence of a fever suggests that it is not an infectious episode. Pyloric stenosis is unlikely to present in this manner. However, before an abdominal ultrasound x-ray is conducted, it is not possible to rule out a small bowel obstruction. Nevertheless, there are no indications of obstruction on the x-ray.
Understanding Intussusception
Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.
To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.
In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman who is 25 weeks pregnant with her second child is scheduled for a blood glucose check at the antenatal clinic due to her history of gestational diabetes during her first pregnancy. After undergoing the oral glucose tolerance test, her fasting glucose level is found to be 7.2mmol/L and her 2hr glucose level is 8 mmol/L. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Diet and exercise/lifestyle advice
Correct Answer: Insulin
Explanation:The correct answer for the management of gestational diabetes is insulin. If the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of diagnosis, insulin should be initiated. Diet and exercise/lifestyle advice alone is not sufficient for managing gestational diabetes and medication is necessary. Empagliflozin and glibenclamide are not appropriate treatments for gestational diabetes. Glibenclamide may only be considered if the patient has declined insulin.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl from Germany comes to the clinic complaining of chronic diarrhoea that has been ongoing for the past 10 months. She also reports having foul smelling stools. Her medical history includes recurrent chest infections since childhood and a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Regional research programs and voluntary early-detection programs test a significant number of neonates for cystic fibrosis. While coeliac disease and type 1 diabetes mellitus are often associated due to their auto-immune nature, the recurring chest infections are not indicative of coeliac disease.
Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Characteristics
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but there are some common features that are often present. In the neonatal period, around 20% of infants with cystic fibrosis may experience meconium ileus, which is a blockage in the intestine caused by thick, sticky mucous. Prolonged jaundice may also occur, but less commonly. Recurrent chest infections are a common symptom, affecting around 40% of patients. Malabsorption is another common feature, with around 30% of patients experiencing steatorrhoea (excessive fat in the stool) and failure to thrive. Liver disease may also occur in around 10% of patients.
It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed with cystic fibrosis during newborn screening or early childhood, around 5% of patients are not diagnosed until after the age of 18. Other features of cystic fibrosis may include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse (due to bulky stools), nasal polyps, male infertility, and female subfertility. Overall, the symptoms and characteristics of cystic fibrosis can vary widely, but early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the condition and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP with concerns about a lump in her right breast. The patient reports that she first noticed the lump about two months ago and it has remained persistent without any noticeable increase in size. Upon examination, the GP observes a smooth, mobile 2 cm lump in the Inferolateral quadrant without skin or nipple changes. The patient denies any family history of breast cancer and has no lumps in her axilla. What is the most suitable course of action for management?
Your Answer: Arrange breast ultrasound
Correct Answer: Routine breast clinic referral
Explanation:If a woman under 30 years old presents with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, she may not meet the 2-week-wait referral criteria but can still be referred for further evaluation. The most likely diagnosis is a fibroadenoma, which is a common benign breast lump that often occurs in younger women. These lumps are typically firm, smooth, and highly mobile. It is important to refer the patient to a breast clinic for evaluation, but routine referral is sufficient given the low likelihood of cancer. Mammograms or ultrasounds are not necessary at this stage. Reviewing the patient in one month is also unnecessary as the lump has already persisted for two months. Urgent referral is not needed due to the patient’s age and low risk of breast cancer. NICE CKS recommends a 2-week-wait referral for those over 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump, or over 50 years old with unilateral nipple changes. Referral should also be considered for those with skin changes suggestive of breast cancer or those over 30 years old with an unexplained lump in the axilla.
In 2015, NICE released guidelines for referring individuals suspected of having breast cancer. If a person is 30 years or older and has an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, or if they are 50 years or older and have discharge, retraction, or other concerning changes in one nipple only, they should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. If a person has skin changes that suggest breast cancer or is 30 years or older with an unexplained lump in the axilla, a suspected cancer pathway referral should also be considered. For individuals under 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, non-urgent referral should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 14
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department accompanied by her mother. She complains of a 3-day history of right iliac fossa and suprapubic pain. She does not complain of vomiting, although she does mention that she has lost her appetite. Her bowel habit is regular and she describes no urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was 4 weeks ago and she should be starting her period soon. On asking, she states that she has never been sexually active.
Examination reveals suprapubic tenderness and some right iliac fossa tenderness, inferior to McBurney’s point. Her vitals are normal otherwise. Her blood test results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 123 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 11.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 290 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 4.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 35 mmol/l 50–120 mmol/l
Amylase 35 U/l < 200 U/l
LFTs Normal
Her urine dipstick shows 1+ of leukocytes, 1+ of proteins and a trace of blood, but is otherwise normal.
Which of the following tests is the next step in investigating this girl?Your Answer: Beta human choriogonadotropin (β-hCG) test
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests and Imaging for Lower Abdominal Pain in Women
Lower abdominal pain in women can have various causes, including appendicitis, urinary tract infection, ovarian or tubal pathology, pelvic inflammatory disease, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, mesenteric adenitis, and other less common pathologies. To determine the cause of the pain, several diagnostic tests and imaging techniques can be used.
Beta human choriogonadotropin (β-hCG) test is essential for every woman of reproductive age admitted with lower abdominal pain. This test helps determine the pregnancy status, which can guide further investigations. An abdominal/pelvic ultrasound can detect acute ovarian and other gynecological pathology. It is also useful in assessing biliary pathology and involvement in pancreatitis. However, it is not very sensitive in detecting appendicitis.
If the diagnosis is uncertain, admitting the patient for observation and review in 12 hours can help determine if any other signs or symptoms develop or change. A CT scan would be inappropriate without checking the patient’s pregnancy status, as it could be harmful to the fetus. However, it can be useful in delineating acute intestinal pathology such as inflammatory bowel disease, bowel obstruction, and renal calculi.
Finally, an erect chest X-ray can help determine if there is bowel perforation by assessing for air under the diaphragm. This investigation is critical in the presence of a peritonitic abdomen.
In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic tests and imaging techniques can help determine the cause of lower abdominal pain in women and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 49-year-old carpet layer presents to the clinic for review. He has been complaining of severe anterior knee pain for a few days. On examination, you notice that the left knee is warm and there is swelling on the patella. There is local pain on patellar pressure and pain with knee flexion.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 185 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Knee aspirate: Gram stain negative for bacteria; fluid contains occasional white cells; culture is negative.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Pre–patellar bursitis
Explanation:Differentiating Knee Conditions: A Case-Based Approach
A patient presents with a red, tender, and inflamed knee. The differential diagnosis includes prepatellar bursitis, osteoarthritis, localised cellulitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout.
prepatellar bursitis, also known as housemaid’s knee, carpet layer’s knee, or nun’s knee, is often caused by repetitive knee trauma. Treatment involves non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents and local corticosteroid injection. Septic bursitis requires appropriate antibiotic cover and drainage.
Osteoarthritis is a diagnosis of exclusion and does not typically cause a red, tender, inflamed knee. Knee aspirate in this case would not show white cells.
Localised cellulitis may result in erythema but is unlikely to cause knee swelling. Knee aspirate in this case would not show white cells.
Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely to present in men of this age and typically affects small joints of the fingers, thumbs, wrists, feet, and ankles.
Gout can be diagnosed through the presence of negatively birefringent crystals seen on joint microscopy.
In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to differentiate between these knee conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 22-year-old law student, with a history of cyclical pelvic pain and dysmenorrhoea not responding to paracetamol is attending her follow-up appointment to receive the histology results of her diagnostic laparoscopy. She does not want to conceive at present and uses barrier methods of contraception. She has asthma, which is well controlled with inhalers but was made worse in the past when she took some painkillers.
The histology report concludes that: ‘The peritoneal deposits, submitted in their entirety, contain evidence of endometrial glands and stroma surrounded by red blood cells and a mixed chronic inflammatory cell infiltrate’. The operation notes say that all deposits seen were removed.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)
Explanation:Management Options for Endometriosis-Related Pain: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals
Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus, causing pain and discomfort. Hormonal contraception is an effective treatment option for women who do not wish to conceive. The combined oral contraceptive pill suppresses ovarian function and limits the effect of estrogen on endometrial tissue. progesterone-containing contraceptives cause atrophy of the endometrial tissue. A trial of three months is recommended before reassessment.
Hysterectomy is indicated for adenomyosis or heavy menstrual bleeding that has not resolved with other treatments. A hysteroscopy is not necessary for a newly diagnosed young patient. A trial of ibuprofen or combination therapy is the first step in pain management, but NSAIDs are contraindicated for asthmatic patients who have already tried paracetamol.
Further laparoscopy for excision and/or ablation of endometriotic deposits is indicated if there is further disease. However, if all visible deposits were removed during diagnostic laparoscopy, a further laparoscopy is not necessary at present.
Ovarian cystectomy is recommended for women with endometriotic cysts who are concerned about fertility. Laparoscopic removal of the cyst wall can improve the chances of spontaneous pregnancy and reduce the risk of recurrence of endometriomas. These guidelines are based on NICE recommendations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman suffered a severe crushing injury to her left upper leg in a motor vehicle accident. She sustained a severe contusion around the neck and head of the fibula.
Which nerve is susceptible to compression at the lateral head and neck of the fibula?Your Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:Nerve Anatomy of the Leg: Common Peroneal, Deep Peroneal, Superficial Peroneal, Saphenous, and Tibial Nerves
The leg is innervated by several nerves, each with its own specific functions. One of these nerves is the common peroneal nerve, which descends through the popliteal fossa and runs parallel to the biceps femoris insertion tendon. It then curves around the fibular head and neck before dividing into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves.
The deep peroneal nerve innervates the dorsiflexors of the foot, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor digitorum brevis. On the other hand, the superficial peroneal nerve supplies the peroneus longus and brevis before providing cutaneous innervation to the dorsal skin of the foot.
Another nerve that supplies cutaneous innervation to the leg is the saphenous nerve. It passes superficial to the femoral triangle and is not likely to be damaged in injuries involving the fibula.
Finally, the tibial nerve arises in the distal third of the thigh and passes deep through the popliteal fossa. It does not pass close to the fibula but instead leaves the fossa, passing through the two heads of the gastrocnemius.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A middle-aged Bangladeshi man presents to the emergency department with back pain and fever. An MRI is performed and a diagnosis of discitis is made. A CT guided biopsy is performed and cultures were taken. They come back showing Staphylococcus aureus as the causative organisms and antibiotic therapy was started based on sensitivity testing. 2 weeks later he returns to the emergency department as he has spiked another fever and the back pain is worsening.
What could be the reason for the deterioration of symptoms in this middle-aged Bangladeshi man with discitis despite antibiotic therapy?Your Answer: Pott's Disease of the spine
Correct Answer: Epidural abscess
Explanation:The patient’s worsening fever and pain, despite being given antibiotics that were effective against the organism causing the discitis, suggest the presence of an abscess that cannot be reached through the systemic circulation. One possible complication of discitis is an epidural abscess, which is characterized by fever and back pain. While acute pyelonephritis can also cause back pain, it typically radiates from the loin to the groin and may be accompanied by urinary symptoms. Vertebral metastasis is unlikely in this patient without a history of cancer and with the presence of spiking temperatures. Pott’s disease, caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, can present with similar symptoms but is not the cause of this patient’s infection, which is caused by Staphylococcus aureus. An epidural hematoma can cause severe back pain, but the absence of fever and no history of trauma make it an unlikely diagnosis.
Understanding Discitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Discitis is a condition characterized by an infection in the intervertebral disc space, which can lead to serious complications such as sepsis or an epidural abscess. The most common cause of discitis is bacterial, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most frequent culprit. However, it can also be caused by viral or aseptic factors. The symptoms of discitis include back pain, pyrexia, rigors, and sepsis. In some cases, neurological features such as changing lower limb neurology may occur if an epidural abscess develops.
To diagnose discitis, imaging tests such as MRI are used due to their high sensitivity. A CT-guided biopsy may also be required to guide antimicrobial treatment. The standard therapy for discitis involves six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The choice of antibiotic depends on various factors, with the most important being the identification of the organism through a positive culture, such as a blood culture or CT-guided biopsy.
Complications of discitis include sepsis and epidural abscess. Therefore, it is essential to assess the patient for endocarditis, which can be done through transthoracic echo or transesophageal echo. Discitis is usually due to haematogenous seeding of the vertebrae, which implies that the patient has had a bacteraemia, and seeding could have occurred elsewhere. Understanding the causes, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of discitis is crucial in managing this condition and preventing its complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents with a four-week history of increasing fatigue and palpitations on exertion. He has a medical history of myocardial infarction and biventricular heart failure and is currently taking ramipril 5mg, bisoprolol 5mg, aspirin 75 mg, and atorvastatin 80 mg. During examination, his heart rate is 98/min irregularly irregular, and his blood pressure is 172/85 mmHg. An ECG confirms the diagnosis of new atrial fibrillation. What medication should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Verapamil is more likely to worsen heart failure compared to dihydropyridines such as amlodipine.
Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers
Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A woman of 68 presents with four episodes of postmenopausal bleeding over the last 6 months. She is otherwise fit and well, although her body mass index is 38 kg/m2.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ovarian cancer
Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer
Explanation:postmenopausal Bleeding: Common Causes and Investigations
postmenopausal bleeding can be caused by various factors, including atrophic vaginitis, endometrial atrophy, cervical or endometrial polyps, and endometrial hyperplasia/cancer. Among these causes, endometrial cancer is the most likely. Therefore, investigation for patients with postmenopausal bleeding is typically done in a specialist clinic, with transvaginal ultrasound, hysteroscopy, and biopsy.
However, submucosal fibroids become quiescent following menopause and usually calcify, and there is no evidence of increased risk of endometrial cancer in women with fibroids. On the other hand, ovarian cancer rarely, if ever, presents with postmenopausal bleeding. Cervical ectropion is a condition of young women, and vaginal cancer is very rare and usually presents with vaginal discharge.
In summary, postmenopausal bleeding should be investigated thoroughly to rule out any underlying serious conditions, such as endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome secondary to focal segmental glomerulosclerosis after presenting with pedal oedema. She is being treated with furosemide 40 mg and prednisolone 60 mg. Her potassium level is 3.0 mEq/l (3.5–5.1).
Which of the following medications will not increase potassium levels?Your Answer: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Correct Answer: Corticosteroids
Explanation:Medications that can cause hyperkalaemia
Hyperkalaemia, or high levels of potassium in the blood, can be caused by certain medications. Here are some medications that can lead to hyperkalaemia:
1. Corticosteroids: Oral or IV steroids with glucocorticoid properties, such as prednisone and hydrocortisone, can be used to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and increase renal potassium excretion.
2. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs): Use of ARBs can be associated with hyperkalaemia, particularly in patients with chronic renal insufficiency. It is important to monitor serum potassium levels shortly after initiating therapy.
3. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors: Use of ACE inhibitors can also be associated with hyperkalaemia, particularly in patients with chronic renal insufficiency. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by suppressing angiotensin II, which leads to a decrease in aldosterone levels.
4. Spironolactone: Hyperkalaemia is an established adverse effect of both spironolactone and eplerenone. Potassium levels should be monitored regularly in patients taking spironolactone.
5. Digoxin: Hyperkalaemia is the most common electrolyte abnormality in acute digoxin toxicity. Chronic toxicity does not cause hyperkalaemia. Digoxin blocks the sodium-potassium ATPase pump.
It is important to be aware of these medications and their potential to cause hyperkalaemia, and to monitor serum potassium levels in patients taking them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Biochemistry
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Question 22
Correct
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A 50-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. During the consultation, the psychiatrist observes that the patient appears disinterested and unresponsive when discussing recent and upcoming events in his life, such as his upcoming trip to Hawaii and his recent separation from his spouse.
What is the most appropriate term to describe the abnormality exhibited by the patient?Your Answer: Blunting of affect
Explanation:Emotional and Cognitive Symptoms in Mental Health
Blunting of affect is a condition where an individual experiences a loss of normal emotional expression towards events. This can be observed in people with schizophrenia, depression, and post-traumatic stress disorder. Anhedonia, on the other hand, is the inability to derive pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. Depersonalisation is a feeling of detachment from oneself, where an individual may feel like they are not real. Labile affect is characterized by sudden and inappropriate changes in emotional expression. Lastly, thought blocking is a sudden interruption in the flow of thought.
These symptoms are commonly observed in individuals with mental health conditions and can significantly impact their daily lives. It is important to recognize and address these symptoms to provide appropriate treatment and support. By these symptoms, mental health professionals can better assess and diagnose their patients, leading to more effective treatment plans. Additionally, individuals experiencing these symptoms can seek help and support to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 23
Correct
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What is the primary role of the kidneys in eliminating waste in a person who is in good health?
Your Answer: Excretion of nitrogenous waste
Explanation:The Kidney’s Role in Excretion of Nitrogenous Waste and Urate
In healthy individuals, the kidney’s primary function is to eliminate toxic nitrogen-containing waste resulting from the breakdown of excess protein. Urea, the primary nitrogenous waste product, is formed through the deamination of excess amino acids. Additionally, the kidney plays a role in the excretion of urate, which comes from the breakdown of nucleic acids from both endogenous and exogenous sources.
However, in diabetic patients with hyperglycemia, glucose is often found in the urine. In normoglycemic individuals, the kidney does not play a role in regulating blood sugar levels. Similarly, the kidney has little involvement in the excretion of fat-soluble substances and lipids.
The liver, on the other hand, plays a significant role in rendering compounds water-soluble to facilitate renal excretion. Substances that remain relatively insoluble are excreted in the bile.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 24
Correct
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A toddler is brought to the emergency room with breathing difficulties. The medical team wants to evaluate the child's condition.
At what point should the APGAR score be evaluated?Your Answer: 1 and 5 minutes of age
Explanation:According to NICE, it is recommended that APGAR scores are regularly evaluated at both 1 and 5 minutes after a baby is born. The APGAR score is a measure of a newborn’s overall health, based on their pulse, breathing, color, muscle tone, and reflexes. A higher score indicates better health, with scores ranging from 0-3 (very low), 4-6 (moderately low), and 7-10 (good). If a baby’s score is less than 5 at 5 minutes, additional APGAR scores should be taken at 10, 15, and 30 minutes, and umbilical cord blood gas sampling may be necessary. It is important to note that the correct time for assessing APGAR scores is at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and none of the other options are accurate.
The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to A&E with sudden onset of severe epigastric pain and bright red blood in his vomit. He has a long history of heavy alcohol consumption. On examination, he has guarding over the epigastric region and cool extremities. He also has a distended abdomen with ascites and spider naevi on his neck and cheek. The patient is unstable hemodynamically, and fluid resuscitation is initiated. What is the most crucial medication to begin given the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Propranolol
Correct Answer: Terlipressin
Explanation:Medications for Oesophageal Variceal Bleeds
Oesophageal variceal bleeds are a serious medical emergency that require prompt treatment. The most important medication to administer in this situation is terlipressin, which reduces bleeding by constricting the mesenteric arterial circulation and decreasing portal venous inflow. Clopidogrel, an antiplatelet medication, should not be used as it may worsen bleeding. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, can be used prophylactically to prevent variceal bleeding but is not the most important medication to start in an acute setting. Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is not recommended before endoscopy in the latest guidelines but is often used in hospital protocols. Tranexamic acid can aid in the treatment of acute bleeding but is not indicated for oesophageal variceal bleeds. Following terlipressin administration, band ligation should be performed, and if bleeding persists, TIPS should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with symptoms of low mood. He discloses that he has been struggling with motivation, insomnia, and loss of interest in social activities since losing his job two years ago. He denies any suicidal ideation or intent. On the PHQ 9, he scores 9, indicating mild-moderate depression. What is the recommended initial treatment?
Your Answer: Self-help advice and review in two weeks
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) or low-intensity psychological therapy
Explanation:Appropriate Treatment Options for Patients with Low Mood: A Guide for General Practitioners
When a patient presents with low mood, it is important for general practitioners (GPs) to consider the most appropriate treatment options. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, self-help and talking to people should be tried before offering low-intensity psychological therapy or cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT). However, if symptoms have been present for two years, intervention is required and psychological therapies should be trialled first before considering antidepressant medication. Diazepam should be avoided due to the high risk of dependency. While self-help advice and a follow-up appointment in two weeks’ time are offered, it is important to note that psychological therapies are the best option for patients with long-standing symptoms. Urgent referral to the Crisis Team is not necessary if the patient denies suicidal or self-harm thoughts, but they should be provided with the team’s contact information in case of emergency. By following these guidelines, GPs can provide appropriate treatment options for patients with low mood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old man presents with wheezing and shortness of breath. He reports no history of smoking or drug use. An ultrasound reveals cirrhosis of the liver, and he is diagnosed with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency. He undergoes a liver transplant. What type of emphysema is he now at higher risk of developing?
Your Answer: Interstitial
Correct Answer: Panacinar
Explanation:Different Types of Emphysema and Their Characteristics
Emphysema is a lung condition that has various forms, each with its own distinct characteristics. The four main types of emphysema are panacinar, compensatory, interstitial, centriacinar, and paraseptal.
Panacinar emphysema affects the entire acinus, from the respiratory bronchiole to the distal alveoli. It is often associated with α-1-antitrypsin deficiency.
Compensatory emphysema occurs when the lung parenchyma is scarred, but it is usually asymptomatic.
Interstitial emphysema is not a true form of emphysema, but rather occurs when air penetrates the pulmonary interstitium. It can be caused by chest wounds or alveolar tears resulting from coughing and airway obstruction.
Centriacinar emphysema is characterized by enlargement of the central portions of the acinus, specifically the respiratory bronchiole. It is often caused by exposure to coal dust and tobacco products.
Paraseptal emphysema is associated with scarring and can lead to spontaneous pneumothorax in young patients. It is more severe when it occurs in areas adjacent to the pleura, where it can cause the development of large, cyst-like structures that can rupture into the pleural cavity.
In summary, understanding the different types of emphysema and their characteristics is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 28
Correct
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A 27-year-old female comes to the GP seeking advice on her contraceptive options. She has been relying on condoms but has recently entered a new relationship and wants to explore other methods. She expresses concern about the possibility of gaining weight from her chosen contraception.
What should this woman avoid?Your Answer: Injectable contraceptive
Explanation:Depo-provera is linked to an increase in weight.
If this woman is concerned about weight gain, it is best to avoid depo-provera, which is the primary injectable contraceptive in the UK. Depo-provera can cause various adverse effects, including weight gain, irregular bleeding, delayed return to fertility, and an increased risk of osteoporosis.
While some users of the combined oral contraceptive pill have reported weight gain, a Cochrane review does not support a causal relationship. There are no reasons for this woman to avoid the combined oral contraceptive pill.
The progesterone-only pill has not been associated with weight gain and is safe for use in this woman.
The intra-uterine system (IUS) does not cause weight gain in users and is a viable option for this woman.
The subdermal contraceptive implant can cause irregular or heavy bleeding, as well as progesterone-related side effects such as headaches, nausea, and breast pain. However, it is not typically associated with weight gain and is not contraindicated for use in this situation.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Correct
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You are requested to assess a 25-year-old man who has been urgently referred to the Community Mental Health Team. He has recently left his job to work on 'a groundbreaking project' which he believes will eradicate world poverty. He has also been neglecting his basic needs such as eating and sleeping as he 'cannot afford to waste time on such trivialities'. Upon examination, the patient appears restless and lacks awareness of their condition. The patient has a history of depression and is currently on an antidepressant medication.
What would be the most suitable course of action in managing this patient?Your Answer: Start antipsychotic and stop antidepressant
Explanation:The appropriate management for a patient experiencing mania/hypomania while taking antidepressants is to discontinue the antidepressant and initiate antipsychotic therapy. This is because the patient’s symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur and hyperactivity, suggest an episode of mania, which requires the use of a rapidly acting antipsychotic or benzodiazepine. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not typically used for the treatment of mania, and lithium is not the first-line treatment for acute episodes of mania. Therefore, starting antipsychotic therapy and discontinuing antidepressants is the most appropriate course of action.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.
Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A six-year-old boy is brought to the doctor by his mother due to some unusual nighttime activity. For the past year, he has been making grunting and gurgling sounds while asleep. Upon entering the room, the doctor notices that the boy's eyes are wide open, and his mouth is pulled to one side with excessive drooling onto the pillow. The mother is concerned because the boy was found shaking on the floor last night, which lasted for about 30 seconds. After the episode, he was weak and confused for hours. The boy's older brother has been diagnosed with epilepsy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
Correct Answer: Benign rolandic epilepsy
Explanation:Benign rolandic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy that usually affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. This condition is characterized by seizures that typically occur at night and are often partial, causing sensations in the face. However, these seizures may also progress to involve the entire body. Despite these symptoms, children with benign rolandic epilepsy are otherwise healthy and normal.
Diagnosis of benign rolandic epilepsy is typically confirmed through an electroencephalogram (EEG), which shows characteristic centrotemporal spikes. Fortunately, the prognosis for this condition is excellent, with seizures typically ceasing by adolescence. While the symptoms of benign rolandic epilepsy can be concerning for parents and caregivers, it is important to remember that this condition is generally not associated with any long-term complications or developmental delays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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