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Question 1
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is presenting to the cardiology clinic for evaluation. She is currently in her 36th week of pregnancy and has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and severe exercise limitation. She is finding it difficult to perform daily activities, including caring for her 3-year-old child. Recently, she has woken up gasping for breath on two occasions, causing her to become increasingly worried.
During the examination, her blood pressure is 105/70 mmHg, pulse is 85 and regular. Bilateral basal crackles are heard on chest auscultation, her JVP is raised, and there is peripheral pitting edema. A soft short systolic murmur is also heard on auscultation.
Investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 120 g/L (115-160), white cell count of 6.9 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 199 ×109/L (150-400), sodium of 137 mmol/L (135-146), potassium of 3.9 mmol/L (3.5-5), and creatinine of 113 µmol/L (79-118). A chest x-ray shows patchy pulmonary infiltrates consistent with heart failure.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Peripartum cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Peripartum Cardiomyopathy: Signs, Symptoms, and Treatment
Peripartum cardiomyopathy is the most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with signs and symptoms of heart failure and evidence of pulmonary oedema on a chest x-ray. However, an ECHO is required to confirm the diagnosis. The cause of this condition is unknown, but increased inflammatory markers, changes in viral serology, and low levels of selenium have been observed in patients with peripartum cardiomyopathy. Treatment options include vasodilators, nitrates, and cardioselective beta blockers, all of which have shown evidence of benefit.
Neurogenic pulmonary oedema, which is associated with a neurological insult, is not present in this case. Although there is a systolic murmur, it is more likely to be a pulmonary flow murmur related to the stage of pregnancy rather than aortic stenosis. The absence of hypertension makes pre-eclampsia unlikely, and the presence of pulmonary oedema makes thromboembolic disease less likely. In conclusion, peripartum cardiomyopathy should be considered in pregnant patients presenting with signs and symptoms of heart failure, and an ECHO should be performed to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. She reports no cough or sputum and the pain is constant. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant with her second child. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication except for her pregnancy supplements. On examination, she has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and her oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. Her blood pressure is 112/76 mmHg and her heart rate is 90 beats per minute. There are no abnormal findings on chest auscultation and her heart sounds are normal. However, there is swelling in her left leg from above the knee down to the ankle, with pitting edema and collateral superficial veins.
The emergency department registrar has ordered several blood tests, which reveal:
Hemoglobin: 120 g/L
Platelets: 450 x 10^9/L
White blood cells: 10.2 x 10^9/L
Troponin T: 5 ng/L (<14 ng/L excludes cardiac damage)
D-dimer: 1.2 mg/L (<0.5)
C-reactive protein: 15 mg/L (<10)
A chest x-ray is unremarkable.
During the post-take ward round, the consultant suspects a pulmonary embolism and wants to order the most appropriate first investigation for this patient.
What is the recommended first investigation for this patient?Your Answer: Half dose CTPA
Correct Answer: USS Doppler of legs
Explanation:This woman displays symptoms that suggest she may have both a pulmonary embolism (PE) and a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in her right leg.
According to current guidelines, the recommended course of action in this scenario is to conduct a chest X-ray followed by an ultrasound Doppler of the legs. If a DVT is detected, the patient should be treated with anticoagulants without exposing the baby to radiation. If the ultrasound is negative and the chest X-ray is normal, the patient should be given the option to choose between a V/Q scan or a CTPA. While a V/Q scan carries a slightly higher risk of childhood cancers for the baby, a CTPA carries a slightly increased risk of breast cancer for the mother over her lifetime.
Investigation of DVT/PE during Pregnancy
Guidelines updated in 2015 by the Royal College of Obstetricians recommend different investigations for suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE) during pregnancy. For suspected DVT, compression duplex ultrasound should be performed if there is clinical suspicion. On the other hand, for suspected PE, an ECG and chest x-ray should be performed in all patients. If women also have symptoms and signs of DVT, compression duplex ultrasound should be performed. If DVT is confirmed, no further investigation is necessary, and treatment for VTE should continue. The decision to perform a V/Q or CTPA should be taken at a local level after discussion with the patient and radiologist.
When comparing CTPA to V/Q scanning in pregnancy, CTPA slightly increases the lifetime risk of maternal breast cancer (increased by up to 13.6%, background risk of 1/200 for the study population). Pregnancy makes breast tissue particularly sensitive to the effects of radiation. On the other hand, V/Q scanning carries a slightly increased risk of childhood cancer compared with CTPA (1/50,000 versus less than 1/1,000,000). D-dimer is of limited use in the investigation of thromboembolism as it is often raised in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the cardiology outpatient department with complaints of shortness of breath on exertion. He experiences breathlessness while climbing stairs but denies any chest pain. His medical history includes ischaemic heart disease and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (30%). He is currently taking aspirin, bisoprolol, ramipril, spironolactone, atorvastatin, and lansoprazole. He is a non-smoker and does not consume alcohol.
During examination, the patient appears euvolemic with normal heart sounds and no peripheral oedema. Chest auscultation is unremarkable, and his pulse is regular. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 83 beats per minute, blood pressure 110/85 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/minute, oxygen saturations 97% on room air, and temperature 37.1ºC.
Which medication would be the most appropriate choice to alleviate his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ivabradine
Explanation:Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that has been ongoing for 2 days. The pain is moderate and worsens with inhalation. He has been generally healthy, but had to take a few days off work last week due to the flu.
During the examination, the patient is sitting forward and groaning in pain when asked to lie flat. His heart sounds are normal and his chest is clear. He experiences tenderness in his trapezius and scapular muscles, but is able to flex his neck.
The following are the patient's laboratory results:
- Na+ 135 mmol/l
- K+ 4.9 mmol/l
- Urea 4.2 mmol/l
- Creatinine 86 µmol/l
- Hb 130 g/l
- Platelets 354 * 109/l
- WBC 4.5 * 109/l
- Lymphocytes 0.1* 109/l
A chest X-ray reveals clear lung fields and a normal heart contour. What ECG finding would be the most specific in the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PR depression
Explanation:Acute Pericarditis: Causes, Features, Investigations, and Management
Acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards. Other symptoms include non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Tachypnoea and tachycardia may also be present, along with a pericardial rub.
The causes of acute pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, trauma, post-myocardial infarction, Dressler’s syndrome, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, and malignancy.
Investigations for acute pericarditis include ECG changes, which are often global/widespread, as opposed to the ‘territories’ seen in ischaemic events. The ECG may show ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation and PR depression, which is the most specific ECG marker for pericarditis. All patients with suspected acute pericarditis should have transthoracic echocardiography.
Management of acute pericarditis involves treating the underlying cause. A combination of NSAIDs and colchicine is now generally used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis.
In summary, acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards, along with other symptoms. The causes of acute pericarditis are varied, and investigations include ECG changes and transthoracic echocardiography. Management involves treating the underlying cause and using a combination of NSAIDs and colchicine as first-line treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the Cardiology Clinic seeking advice. She works as a teacher, maintains a healthy weight, and does not smoke. She is concerned because her mother and aunt both had heart attacks in their early thirties.
During the examination, her weight is normal with a BMI of 22 kg/m2, and her blood pressure is 130/75 mmHg.
Her fasting blood test results are as follows:
LDL cholesterol 5.5 mmol/l < 3.5 mmol/l
Triglycerides 2.8 mmol/l < 1.5 mmol/l
HDL cholesterol 1.2 mmol/l > 1.0 mmol/l
Glucose 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
TSH 1.2 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start atorvastatin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Familial Combined Hyperlipidaemia
Familial combined hyperlipidaemia is a common genetic disorder that increases the risk of premature cardiovascular disease. The first-line treatment for this condition is a statin, which can reduce LDL cholesterol levels and lower the risk of cardiovascular events. However, if triglyceride levels remain high, fenofibrate may be added to the treatment regimen. Dietary modifications may not have a significant impact on lipid parameters in individuals who already lead a healthy lifestyle. Ezetimibe is an option for individuals who cannot tolerate statin therapy or require additional lipid-lowering therapy. It is recommended to use ezetimibe in combination with a statin when serum cholesterol levels are not adequately controlled with the maximum tolerated dose of statin. It is important to identify and treat familial combined hyperlipidaemia early to prevent cardiovascular events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of heart failure is currently taking ramipril 10 mg, furosemide 80 mg, spironolactone 25 mg and bisoprolol 10 mg. He visits the clinic for a review as he is experiencing significant shortness of breath and can only walk a few meters before having to stop. During the examination, bilateral crackles are heard in his chest and he has bilateral swollen ankles with pitting edema. His blood pressure is 145/72 mmHg, pulse is 80 and regular. The following investigations are conducted: haemoglobin 94 g/L (135-177), white cell count 7.3 ×109/L (4-11), platelets 200 ×109/L (150-400), sodium 139 mmol/L (135-146), potassium 4.4 mmol/L (3.5-5), creatinine 153 µmol/L (79-118), and ferritin 10 mcg/L (20-60). Based on his condition, which of the following treatments is most likely to benefit him in the long term?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron replacement
Explanation:IV Iron Beneficial for Heart Failure Patients with Iron Deficiency
A study conducted by Anker et al. has shown that using IV iron in patients with heart failure and iron deficiency can provide significant benefits. The study utilized a ferric carboxymaltose regimen and found that self-reported symptoms of heart failure improved significantly at 24 weeks compared to those given a placebo. The improvement was observed in 50% of patients who received IV iron, while only 30% of those given a placebo reported similar improvements.
On the other hand, spironolactone at doses greater than 25 mg od has no proven impact on mortality in patients with heart failure. Similarly, while digoxin, valsartan, or furosemide may improve symptoms of heart failure, correcting iron deficiency should be the first step. Therefore, the study suggests that IV iron can be a beneficial treatment option for heart failure patients with iron deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is brought to the resuscitation area of the Emergency Department following an out of hospital cardiac arrest. The paramedics are performing CPR and have inserted a laryngeal mask airway for ventilation. They report that the patient is in asystole and have already given IV adrenaline. During the next rhythm check, you observe some P-waves on the monitor.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External pacing
Explanation:In the case of P-wave systole, which is a unique situation that deviates from the standard cardiac arrest algorithm, external pacing may lead to the restoration of spontaneous circulation. Atropine is no longer administered for any rhythm associated with cardiac arrest, while amiodarone and defibrillation are included in the protocol for shockable rhythms. If hypovolemia is suspected as the underlying cause of cardiac arrest, an IV fluid bolus is recommended. However, in this particular scenario, external pacing is more likely to result in the return of spontaneous circulation.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest. Patients are divided into those with ‘shockable’ rhythms (ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia) and ‘non-shockable’ rhythms (asystole/pulseless-electrical activity). Key points include the ratio of chest compressions to ventilation (30:2), continuing chest compressions while a defibrillator is charged, and delivering drugs via IV access or the intraosseous route. Adrenaline and amiodarone are recommended for non-shockable rhythms and VF/pulseless VT, respectively. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Following successful resuscitation, oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98%. The ‘Hs’ and ‘Ts’ outline reversible causes of cardiac arrest, including hypoxia, hypovolaemia, and thrombosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of leg pain. He has been experiencing a crampy uncomfortable feeling in the back of both of his calves when he walks to the shops over the last few months. The discomfort is so severe that he has to stop and rest for a few minutes, after which he notices an improvement in his symptoms. He also experiences these symptoms when he is shopping in the supermarket. He attributes this to overexertion and tries to rest on his shopping trolley while walking, but it does not seem to help. He has a 35-pack year smoking history and takes amlodipine for his blood pressure, and paracetamol and ibuprofen for lower back pain that has troubled him for years.
During the physical examination, the doctor observes mild atrophy of his thigh and calf muscles bilaterally, in addition to shiny pale skin with significant hair loss throughout his lower limbs. His pedal pulses are bilaterally impalpable, and popliteal pulses are faint. Power in both lower limbs is normal throughout all movements, and he has normal patellar reflexes bilaterally and absent ankle reflexes. His Babinski reflex is downgoing on the left side and equivocal on the right side. A recently obtained ankle brachial pressure index test yielded a result of 0.70 on the right side and 0.95 on the left side. X-rays of his lumbar spine show evidence of joint space narrowing and osteophytes.
What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to vascular surgery for consideration of peripheral arterial stenting or bypass surgery
Explanation:For patients who exhibit symptoms of claudication and have cardiovascular risk factors, an ankle brachial pressure index study may yield equivocal or borderline results. In such cases, the recommended next step is to conduct an ankle brachial pressure index after exercise.
In the case of the gentleman in question, his symptoms suggest vascular claudication rather than neurogenic claudication, which is characterized by symptoms that improve with certain maneuvers. His physical exam reveals signs of peripheral arterial disease, including muscle atrophy, hair loss, and impalpable pedal pulses. While his lumbar spine x-ray shows evidence of degenerative joint disease, an MRI scan is not necessary as his clinical presentation is not consistent with neurogenic claudication.
The patient’s symptoms require treatment, and referral to vascular surgery is the next best step. Treatment strategies may include percutaneous interventions with stenting and/or surgical bypass. While it is important to manage cardiovascular risk factors, this alone will not address the patient’s symptoms or disease course.
The patient’s pain is most likely vascular claudication rather than neuropathic pain, and therefore, duloxetine is not an appropriate treatment. While individuals with peripheral arterial disease are at risk for concomitant coronary disease, screening for this is not necessary in the absence of symptoms. The focus should be on addressing and treating the patient’s symptoms related to peripheral arterial disease.
Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index for Evaluating Peripheral Arterial Disease
The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate peripheral arterial disease (PAD). It measures the ratio of systolic blood pressure in the lower leg to that in the arms. A lower blood pressure in the legs, resulting in an ABPI of less than 1, is an indicator of PAD. This test is particularly useful in evaluating patients with suspected PAD, such as a male smoker who presents with intermittent claudication.
In addition, it is important to determine the ABPI in patients with leg ulcers. Compression bandaging is often used to treat venous ulcers, but it can be harmful in patients with PAD as it further restricts blood supply to the foot. Therefore, ABPIs should always be measured in patients with leg ulcers to determine if compression bandaging is appropriate.
The interpretation of ABPI values is as follows: a value greater than 1.2 may indicate calcified, stiff arteries, which can be seen in advanced age or PAD. A value between 1.0 and 1.2 is considered normal, while a value between 0.9 and 1.0 is acceptable. A value less than 0.9 is likely indicative of PAD, and values less than 0.5 indicate severe disease that requires urgent referral. The ABPI is a reliable test, with values less than 0.90 having a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 98% for PAD. Compression bandaging is generally considered acceptable if the ABPI is greater than or equal to 0.8.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a 38-year-old woman who is in her 38th week of pregnancy. She is scheduled to have a Caesarean section due to fetal distress caused by placental abruption.
During the examination, you observe that she is of average build with a body mass index of 27 kg/m2 and a heart rate of 95 beats per minute. Her blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg, and her respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute. There is no jugular venous distension, and her apex beat is in the fifth intercostal space. She has a mid-systolic click and a late systolic murmur at the apex that radiates towards the axilla. Apart from the gravid uterus, the rest of her physical examination is unremarkable.
The patient has no significant medical history except for a previous episode of skin wheals and pruritis following the ingestion of amoxicillin. The symptoms resolved after treatment with chlorpheniramine maleate.
What is the most appropriate prophylactic regimen for endocarditis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No prophylaxis required
Explanation:Antibiotic Prophylaxis for Infective Endocarditis: Current Guidelines and Recommendations
Antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis (IE) has been a topic of debate for many years. However, current guidelines and recommendations from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) and the European Society of Cardiology (ESC) have limited the use of prophylactic antibiotics for dental, respiratory, and other procedures.
In this case, a patient with a cardiac murmur is not at high risk for IE based on their clinical history. Therefore, no prophylaxis is required. Vancomycin, ampicillin, clindamycin, and erythromycin are not appropriate choices for prophylaxis in this patient, and their use is not recommended by current guidelines.
If there is suspicion of IE, a minimum of three blood culture sets are required before starting antibiotic therapy. Early cardiology involvement and an infectious disease specialist are recommended. It is important for healthcare providers to stay up-to-date with current guidelines and recommendations to ensure appropriate management of patients at risk for IE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman with biventricular failure, left atrial dilatation on ECG, COPD, and PVD presents to the ED with fast AF and a ventricular rate of 154 bpm. She is acutely short of breath. Given the low chances of successful chemical cardioversion, the decision is made to initiate digoxin treatment. The patient is loaded with 500 µgrams IV and then given a further 250 µgrams over six hours. On examination, her BP is 132/72 mmHg, pulse is 128 bpm, and she feels well. Crackles are heard on chest auscultation. Lab results show Hb of 128 g/l, WCC of 4.9 × 109/l, PLT of 206 × 109/l, Na+ of 141 mmol/l, K+ of 4.9 mmol/l, and Cr of 132 μmol/l. What is the most appropriate digoxin dosing option for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give a further loading dose of digoxin 250 micrograms IV
Explanation:The patient’s atrial fibrillation is being managed with digoxin, which slows conduction through the AV node. Due to its high volume of distribution and long half-life, loading doses are required to reach a steady-state concentration more quickly. Although the patient has improved, her heart rate remains elevated, indicating the need for a further loading dose of digoxin. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, could be used for rate control, but given the patient’s COPD and heart failure, digoxin is a better choice. The dose should be optimized before considering changing therapy. Amiodarone is unlikely to be effective in this patient with left atrial dilatation and could increase digoxin levels. Given the patient’s renal impairment, a further loading dose of 250 micrograms of digoxin is the more appropriate option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of chest tightness during physical activity. The symptoms occur consistently after walking around 150 meters and subside when he rests. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and asthma and is currently taking aspirin, atorvastatin, amlodipine, and a regular inhaler. On examination, there are no notable findings except for a blood pressure reading of 156/44 mmHg. What medication would be the most appropriate choice to manage his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ranolazine
Explanation:If a patient has symptomatic stable angina and cannot take beta-blockers due to a contraindication, the recommended next line treatment options are long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine while continuing on a calcium channel blocker.
Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with chest discomfort and palpitations. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg and she appears unwell. A rhythm strip reveals a narrow complex tachycardia with a rate of 200 bpm.
What is the optimal course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Synchronised DC synchronised cardioversion
Explanation:Urgent Treatment for Hypotension and Arrhythmia
The patient is experiencing hypotension and is showing symptoms of being unwell. In this situation, the best course of action is to cardiovert the patient immediately. This is considered a medical emergency and cannot be delayed. Other treatment strategies may not be effective in addressing the immediate needs of a patient in shock due to arrhythmia. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize cardioversion as the primary treatment option. Prompt action can help stabilize the patient’s condition and prevent further complications. It is important to recognize the urgency of this situation and act quickly to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is admitted to the cardiology ward after experiencing his third episode of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation in the past year. He has previously declined anti-arrhythmic medication, but is now willing to try it. He does not want to undergo an ablation procedure.
During examination, his blood pressure is 122/82, pulse is 67 and regular. Heart sounds are normal and his chest is clear. Laboratory investigations reveal normal levels of hemoglobin, white blood cells, platelets, sodium, potassium, bicarbonate, and creatinine. Transthoracic echocardiography shows a structurally normal heart, while the electrocardiogram reveals sinus rhythm with an obvious delta wave.
What is the most appropriate anti-arrhythmic medication for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flecainide
Explanation:Treatment for AV Nodal Re-entrant Tachycardia Leading to AF
AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia leading to AF can be treated with class 1C anti-arrhythmics such as flecainide. It is not necessary to determine whether the condition is orthodromic or antidromic. Although amiodarone is an option, it is usually reserved for cases with structural heart disease. Beta blockers, digoxin, and calcium channel antagonists should be avoided as they may increase the risk of VT. In such cases, ablation may be a more appropriate option. The use of flecainide has been confirmed in various reviews and is a viable treatment option for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old primigravida at 37 weeks presents to the antenatal unit with complaints of right-sided abdominal pain and vomiting. She denies any abnormal discharge and reports normal fetal movements. Her blood pressure is 148/97 mmHg. Laboratory results reveal a hemoglobin level of 93 g/l, platelet count of 89 * 109/l, white blood cell count of 9.0 * 109/l, urate level of 0.49 mmol/l, bilirubin level of 32 µmol/l, alkaline phosphatase level of 203 u/l, alanine transaminase level of 190 u/l, and aspartate transaminase level of 233 u/l. You receive a phone call for advice on the results. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HELLP syndrome
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is HELLP syndrome, which is a severe form of pre-eclampsia characterized by haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. While hypertension, vomiting, and abdominal pain can support the diagnosis, they are not mandatory. The abdominal pain may indicate liver inflammation and stretching of the liver capsule.
Intense pruritus is the primary symptom of obstetric cholestasis, and a rise in serum bile acids is the most sensitive marker. Acute fatty liver is another serious condition associated with pre-eclampsia, causing higher elevations in liver enzymes and deep jaundice. Hyperuricaemia can be a useful marker of pre-eclampsia and does not necessarily indicate gout. Urate levels increase due to reduced kidney function and clearance. Hyperemesis gravidarum is unlikely to present for the first time this late in pregnancy and should be a diagnosis of exclusion.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with mitral regurgitation presents to a cardiology clinic for routine follow-up. Despite being asymptomatic and able to perform daily tasks, she has a NYHA functional classification of I. During examination, a loud rumbling pan-systolic murmur is heard at the apex, and it is discovered that she is in atrial fibrillation, which was previously unknown. An echocardiogram taken recently shows mild left atrial dilatation and an ejection fraction of 62%.
What aspect of her medical history would provide the strongest indication for referral for valve replacement?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Explanation:Understanding Mitral Regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation, also known as mitral insufficiency, is a condition where blood leaks back through the mitral valve on systole. This valve is located between the left atrium and ventricle, and when it doesn’t function properly, it can lead to a less efficient heart. While MR is common in healthy patients to a trivial degree and does not need treatment, severe cases can lead to irreversible heart failure. Risk factors for MR include age, renal dysfunction, and collagen disorders like Marfan’s Syndrome and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
There are several causes of MR, including coronary artery disease, mitral valve prolapse, infective endocarditis, rheumatic fever, and congenital defects. Symptoms tend to be due to failure of the left ventricle, arrhythmias, or pulmonary hypertension, and may include fatigue, shortness of breath, and edema. A pansystolic murmur described as blowing is typically heard on auscultation of the chest.
Diagnosis of MR is done through ECG, chest x-ray, and echocardiography. Treatment options include medical management with nitrates, diuretics, positive inotropes, and ACE inhibitors, as well as surgery in acute, severe cases. Repair is preferred over replacement in degenerative regurgitation, as it has been shown to have lower mortality and higher survival rates. When repair is not possible, valve replacement with an artificial or pig valve may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old Afro-Caribbean man has been diagnosed with hypertension and is currently asymptomatic. He has no significant medical history. His 24-hour blood pressure monitoring reveals an average of 165/97mm Hg. What is the initial drug that should be prescribed to lower his blood pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:If a patient of black African or African-Caribbean descent is diagnosed with hypertension, it is recommended to add a calcium channel blocker as the first line drug for stage two hypertension. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors should not be the first choice for this population. Diuretics and beta-blockers are not the preferred initial treatment options for hypertension.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with a history of chronic asthma managed with high-dose seretide presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of palpitations. He has felt very faint, with shortness of breath for the past 30 minutes. Two further episodes occur during his time in the ED, documented as fast atrial fibrillation (AF).
During examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 135/80 mmHg. His pulse is 80 beats per minute (bpm) and regular. An electrocardiogram (ECG) at that time reveals sinus rhythm with evidence of lateral ST depression.
What is the most appropriate treatment for controlling his ventricular rate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Anti-Arrhythmic Agents: Comparison and Appropriate Use
When it comes to managing arrhythmias, choosing the right anti-arrhythmic agent is crucial. Verapamil is a non-dihydropridine calcium antagonist that is effective for long-term ventricular rate control. Adenosine, on the other hand, is a short-acting agent that can terminate transient tachy-arrhythmias and aid in the diagnosis of underlying rhythm in cases of uncertain aetiology. Bisoprolol, a beta blocker, should be used with caution in patients with asthma. Amiodarone is highly effective but limited by long-term systemic side effects, and current guidelines recommend other anti-arrhythmic agents as first-line treatment. Ivabradine, a ‘funny channel’ blocker, has been used off-licence in the treatment of atrial fibrillation but is not recommended under current guidelines due to increased rates of the condition. Choosing the appropriate agent requires careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and current condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to his GP for a routine check-up of his hypertension treatment. He has a history of hypercholesterolemia and was diagnosed with hypertension 3 years ago. Despite being on ramipril and amlodipine, his blood pressure readings have been consistently high over the past 4 months. He has already made lifestyle modifications by reducing salt intake and increasing physical activity. He denies smoking or drinking alcohol.
During the examination, his blood pressure is recorded as 160/98 mmHg, and his pulse rate is 82/min. He has a BMI of 33 kg/m² and an elevated waist-to-hip ratio.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's hypertension?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add chlortalidone
Explanation:If a black individual with primary hypertension is already taking a calcium channel blocker and ACE-inhibitor but still has uncontrolled blood pressure, the next appropriate step is to add a thiazide-like diuretic such as chlortalidone or indapamide. In this case, the patient is taking ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, so adding another ACE inhibitor like benazepril is not recommended. Bariatric surgery is only an option for individuals with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 or more, or a BMI between 35 kg/m2 and 40 kg/m2 with another significant disease that could be improved with weight loss. As this patient’s BMI is 32 kg/m2, bariatric surgery is not a suitable option. While continuing lifestyle changes, the patient requires a change in their drug regimen.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presented with a 4-day history of severe diarrhea. He passed watery stool with blood up to 12 times per day. He also complained of cramping abdominal pain, a low-grade fever, and increased fatigue. He had recently finished a course of amoxicillin for a sinus infection.
During examination, his temperature was 38.2 °C. His abdomen was tender, especially in the lower portion.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin 130 g/l 120–160 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 20.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Urea 14.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 170 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Rigid sigmoidoscopy Raised, yellowish white plaques throughout sigmoid
What is the most appropriate treatment for the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV sodium nitroprusside
Explanation:When a patient presents with markedly elevated blood pressure and evidence of decompensation with LVF, immediate intervention is necessary. The ideal choice for intervention is IV sodium nitroprusside, which can be titrated for gradual BP reduction. This medication leads to significant vasodilatation and not only reduces blood pressure but also has a positive impact on the mild LVF seen in the patient.Oral atenolol is not the preferred option as it has a long half-life and may exacerbate cardiac failure. Sublingual nifedipine can reduce BP rapidly, but its short half-life can lead to rapid rebound in blood pressure. Similarly, oral captopril has a relatively short half-life, making nitroprusside as a titratable infusion the better option.Reassurance alone is inappropriate as the patient is at risk of worsening left ventricular failure and/or an acute stroke due to hypertension. Therefore, close monitoring and appropriate treatment are necessary to manage the hypertensive emergency with LVF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 101-year-old man with a history of heart failure, amyloid disease, and a permanent pacemaker presents to the emergency department after experiencing a syncopal episode while watching TV. This is the third episode he has had in the past week. Upon examination, he has an irregular heart rate of 32 beats per minute, crepitations in his chest, and a raised JVP. His Na+, K+, urea, and creatinine levels are within normal range. An ECG shows p-waves present with no preceding QRS, and widened QRS complexes are seen. A chest x-ray reveals chronic lower zone changes, and the pacemaker leads have a necked appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lead fracture
Explanation:A possible indication of pacemaker lead failure is the appearance of a necked area on imaging. In the case of a patient with complete heart block and a pacemaker, the worsening of congestive heart failure with increased pulmonary or peripheral edema may indicate the progression of cardiomyopathy or a silent myocardial infarction. The presence of complete heart block also suggests that the pacemaker may not be functioning properly. In this particular case, the leads have a necked appearance, which can occur when the leads are repeatedly bent, causing them to weaken and eventually break. Although the chest x-ray may show the leads as intact, the necking indicates that the wires are starting to fray and may lose function before a complete fracture occurs. Chest x-ray may also reveal twiddling of the wires or lead displacement. This is a rare complication.
A permanent pacemaker (PPM) is a device that is implanted in the body to regulate the heartbeat. It is used in cases where the patient is experiencing persistent symptomatic bradycardia, such as in sick sinus syndrome, complete heart block, Mobitz type II AV block, or persistent AV block after a myocardial infarction. These conditions can cause the heart to beat too slowly or irregularly, which can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, and shortness of breath. A PPM helps to regulate the heartbeat and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old overweight man with a medical history of angina and high blood pressure arrives at the hospital complaining of severe chest pain that has been ongoing for two hours. The medical team administers high flow oxygen, sublingual GTN, and aspirin, and obtains venous access. While being monitored on an ECG, the patient suddenly collapses in the presence of a doctor, and the initial rhythm shows pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT). Unfortunately, the external defibrillator is located on another ward, two minutes away. What is the most appropriate immediate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should be given a precordial thump followed by chest compressions
Explanation:Guidelines for Resuscitation of Patients with VF/VT Arrest in Hospital
According to the Resuscitation Council (UK), if a patient experiences a monitored and witnessed VF/VT arrest in a hospital setting, it is recommended to administer three quick successive (stacked) shocks. Following the third shock, chest compressions should be initiated immediately with a compression to ventilation ratio of 30:2 for a duration of 2 minutes.
In the event that a shockable rhythm occurs, a precordial thump may be effective if delivered within seconds of onset. However, it is important to note that this should not delay calling for help or accessing a defibrillator. Chest compressions should be initiated immediately if the precordial thump is unsuccessful.
Once chest compressions have begun, intravenous adrenaline should be administered every 3-5 minutes. These guidelines are crucial in ensuring the best possible outcome for patients experiencing VF/VT arrest in a hospital setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with palpitations. His ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 80 beats per minute and his blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. An echocardiogram shows well-preserved left ventricular function and moderate to severe mitral stenosis. The pulmonary artery pressure is 30 mmHg. What is the optimal approach for preventing stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warfarin only
Explanation:The patient has moderate to severe mitral stenosis and requires long term anticoagulation. The CHADS2-VASc scoring tool is used to assess the need for anticoagulation in patients with AF, but certain conditions such as valvular heart disease, prior peripheral embolism, and intracardiac thrombus may override the decision to anticoagulate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 56 year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and Crohn's disease presents with colonic enterocutaneous fistulae. He undergoes surgery and a temporary ileostomy is created for bowel dysfunction and healing promotion. However, two days after the operation, he experiences palpitations and the surgical team seeks your assistance.
Upon examination, his pulse rate is 220 bpm and blood pressure is 135/90 mmHg. Oxygen saturation is 96% on 2L nasal oxygen. A clear chest is observed during auscultation. A 12-lead ECG shows a wide-complex tachycardia with a polymorphic waveform.
The morning blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 129 g/l, platelets 643 * 109/l, WBC 13.8 * 109/l, Na+ 129 mmol/l, K+ 3.3 mmol/l, phosphate 0.63 mmol/l, Mg++ 0.59 mmol/l, urea 8.1 mmol/l, creatinine 97 µmol/l, bilirubin 15 µmol/l, ALP 143 u/l, ALT 53 u/l, and albumin 31 g/l.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Magnesium sulphate 2g
Explanation:The patient is experiencing polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, which is likely caused by an electrolyte imbalance. As a first step, all medications that may prolong the QT interval should be discontinued. The priority is to correct any electrolyte abnormalities, particularly hypokalemia. Administer 2 g of magnesium sulfate intravenously over 10 minutes (equivalent to 8 mmol).
If the patient exhibits adverse symptoms such as shock, syncope, myocardial ischemia, or heart failure, immediate synchronized cardioversion should be arranged.
Managing Ventricular Tachycardia
Ventricular tachycardia is a type of rapid heartbeat that originates in the ventricles of the heart. In a peri-arrest situation, it is assumed to be ventricular in origin. If the patient shows adverse signs such as low blood pressure, chest pain, heart failure, or syncope, immediate cardioversion is necessary. However, in the absence of such signs, antiarrhythmic drugs may be used. Amiodarone is the preferred drug and should be administered through a central line. Lidocaine should be used with caution in severe left ventricular impairment, and verapamil should not be used in VT. If drug therapy fails, an electrophysiological study (EPS) or implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) may be needed, especially in patients with significantly impaired LV function. It is important to note that a broad complex tachycardia may result from a supraventricular rhythm with aberrant conduction, so proper diagnosis is crucial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with hypertension and headaches. She denies any history of fever, neck stiffness, limb weakness, seizures, or vision changes. On examination, her pulse rate is 70 beats per minute and blood pressure is 200/110 mmHg. All other physical exam findings are unremarkable, including normal fundoscopy.
Lab results show Hb 138g/l, platelets 238 * 109/l, WBC 6.2 * 109/l, Na+ 135 mmol/l, K+ 3.8 mmol/l, urea 6.4 mmol/l, and creatinine 75 µmol/l. ECG and chest x-ray are normal, and CT head and urinalysis are unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral amlodipine
Explanation:When a person experiences hypertensive urgency, their blood pressure rises to a severe level (systolic >180 mmHg or diastolic >110 mmHg) without causing damage to their organs. Symptoms may include nosebleeds, shortness of breath, or headaches. The goal of treatment is to lower blood pressure within 24-48 hours using oral antihypertensive medication, such as a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Hospitalization is typically not necessary. In contrast, hypertensive emergencies require immediate blood pressure reduction, often within minutes to hours, and may involve intravenous antihypertensives like labetalol or glyceryltrinitrate. These emergencies can include conditions like hypertensive encephalopathy or aortic dissection.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain and 3 mm ST segment elevation in leads II, III and aVF. She undergoes primary PCI in the cardiac catheter laboratory with a satisfactory angiographic outcome. After six hours on CCU, she develops complete heart block. Despite being asymptomatic, her haemodynamic parameters are as follows:
Pulse 44 bpm, regular
Blood pressure - 123/75 mmHg
What is the best course of action in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue close monitoring and observation of the patient
Explanation:The patient’s ECG revealed ST elevation in leads II, III and aVf, indicating an inferior STEMI. It is common for complete heart block to occur after an inferior MI, but it usually resolves without intervention. As the patient is asymptomatic and stable, close monitoring is the best course of action. It is expected that she will return to sinus rhythm given enough time post-reperfusion. However, if she becomes haemodynamically unstable, temporary pacing wire should be used initially, with a permanent system upgrade if she does not recover to sinus rhythm in due course.
Understanding Heart Blocks: Types and Features
Heart blocks are a type of cardiac conduction disorder that can lead to serious complications such as syncope and heart failure. There are three types of heart blocks: first degree, second degree, and third degree (complete) heart block.
First degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval of more than 0.2 seconds. Second degree heart block can be further divided into two types: type 1 (Mobitz I, Wenckebach) and type 2 (Mobitz II). Type 1 is characterized by a progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs, while type 2 has a constant PR interval but the P wave is often not followed by a QRS complex.
Third degree (complete) heart block is the most severe type of heart block, where there is no association between the P waves and QRS complexes. This can lead to a regular bradycardia with a heart rate of 30-50 bpm, wide pulse pressure, and cannon waves in the neck JVP. Additionally, variable intensity of S1 can be observed.
It is important to recognize the features of heart blocks and differentiate between the types in order to provide appropriate management and prevent complications. Regular monitoring and follow-up with a healthcare provider is recommended for individuals with heart blocks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male presents with confusion and an unsteady gait. He has a history of heart failure and atrial fibrillation and is currently taking dabigatran, bisoprolol, and ramipril.
Upon investigation, his Hb is 110 g/l, platelets are 140 * 109/l, WBC is 10.2 * 109/l, and CRP is 12 mg/l. His Na+ is 139 mmol/l, K+ is 3.8 mmol/l, urea is 6.5 mmol/l, and creatinine is 42 µmol/l. His PT ratio is 1.6 * 109/l and aPTT is 50 seconds.
A CT scan reveals a large acute right-sided subdural hematoma with ventricular effacement and midline shift.
What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idarucizumab
Explanation:When experiencing bleeding while taking dabigatran, idarucizumab can be used to reverse its effects. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor taken orally as an anticoagulant. However, relying on the PT ratio and INR to monitor the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran is not recommended. Instead, the aPTT and TT should be used. If idarucizumab is not available, and there is evidence of acquired coagulopathy, red cell concentrate, fresh frozen plasma, and/or platelet transfusion may be considered.
Dabigatran: An Oral Anticoagulant with Two Main Indications
Dabigatran is an oral anticoagulant that directly inhibits thrombin, making it an alternative to warfarin. Unlike warfarin, dabigatran does not require regular monitoring. It is currently used for two main indications. Firstly, it is an option for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism following hip or knee replacement surgery. Secondly, it is licensed for prevention of stroke in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation who have one or more risk factors present. The major adverse effect of dabigatran is haemorrhage, and doses should be reduced in chronic kidney disease. Dabigatran should not be prescribed if the creatinine clearance is less than 30 ml/min. In cases where rapid reversal of the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran is necessary, idarucizumab can be used. However, the RE-ALIGN study showed significantly higher bleeding and thrombotic events in patients with recent mechanical heart valve replacement using dabigatran compared with warfarin. As a result, dabigatran is now contraindicated in patients with prosthetic heart valves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old male patient arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of chest discomfort and shortness of breath. The symptoms began after he climbed several flights of stairs. Although the shortness of breath subsided when he rested, it returned later in the day with further physical exertion. The patient had no significant medical history and did not smoke or use recreational drugs.
Upon examination, the patient appeared slim and in good health. His vital signs were within normal limits, and his heart sounds were normal. However, his breath sounds were slightly reduced on the left side, and a clicking sound was audible on the left lower chest anteriorly, occurring with each heartbeat.
What is the most probable cause of the patient's chest pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spontaneous pneumothorax
Explanation:Spontaneous Pneumothorax in Young Adult Males
Young adult males who are often tall and slim are commonly affected by spontaneous pneumothorax. This condition is characterized by sudden onset of chest pain, which may radiate to the shoulder. Dyspnoea, although not always a dominant feature, is also present, along with a dry cough. In some cases, left-sided pneumothoraces may produce a clicking sound known as Hamman’s sign, which is synchronous with the heartbeat and may occasionally be audible to the patient.
Overall, spontaneous pneumothorax is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. If you experience any of the symptoms mentioned above, seek medical help immediately. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve your chances of a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old construction worker is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) by ambulance. He was found unconscious at a construction site. Upon admission to the ED, he has a Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) of 3, with unresponsive pupils. His core temperature is measured at 30 ºC, and re-warming is initiated. About 15 minutes after admission to the department, he develops ventricular fibrillation.
Which of the following fits best with the treatment of pulseless ventricular arrhythmia in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Managing Cardiac Arrest in Hypothermia: Considerations for Defibrillation, Drug Therapy, and Prolonged CPR
Hypothermia can significantly impact the effectiveness of traditional cardiac arrest management techniques. When dealing with a patient in hypothermic cardiac arrest, it is important to consider the limitations of defibrillation, drug therapy, and CPR.
Defibrillation should be limited to three shocks, and higher voltages are recommended. However, defibrillation is less effective in hypothermia, and prolonged CPR may be necessary until the core temperature is above 30°C.
Drug therapy, including amiodarone and lignocaine, may still be effective, but metabolism is slowed, and accumulation to toxic levels is possible. Therefore, prolonged resuscitation with re-warming is the preferred management approach.
In summary, managing cardiac arrest in hypothermia requires a different approach than in normothermic patients. Careful consideration of defibrillation, drug therapy, and prolonged CPR is necessary to increase the chances of a successful outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male patient presents to the medical assessment unit with worsening shortness of breath. His GP's letter states that he has a medical history of deteriorating renal function due to polycystic kidney disease. On examination, there is no evidence of fluid overload, but a late systolic murmur is heard at the cardiac apex, preceded by a 'click'.
Observations:
- Heart rate: 82 bpm
- Blood pressure: 106/86 mmHg
- Respiratory rate: 16 per minute
- Temperature: 36.5°C
- Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral valve prolapse
Explanation:Mitral valve prolapse is a common condition among ADPKD patients, with the majority of them experiencing it. Although most patients with mitral valve prolapse do not exhibit any symptoms, an echocardiogram should be conducted if symptoms are present. In this patient, the ‘click’ sound, combined with their underlying ADPKD, indicates a mitral valve prolapse. If left untreated, the prolapse can worsen and lead to secondary mitral regurgitation, resulting in symptoms like shortness of breath. Additionally, the narrow pulse pressure observed suggests the presence of left ventricular dysfunction.
Understanding Mitral Valve Prolapse
Mitral valve prolapse is a common condition that affects around 5-10% of the population. While it is often idiopathic, meaning it has no known cause, it can also be associated with a variety of cardiovascular diseases and other conditions. Some of these include congenital heart disease, cardiomyopathy, Turner’s syndrome, Marfan’s syndrome, Fragile X, osteogenesis imperfecta, pseudoxanthoma elasticum, Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome, long-QT syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, and polycystic kidney disease.
Patients with mitral valve prolapse may experience atypical chest pain or palpitations. A mid-systolic click may also be present, which occurs later if the patient is squatting. Additionally, a late systolic murmur may be heard, which is longer if the patient is standing. Complications of mitral valve prolapse can include mitral regurgitation, arrhythmias (including long QT), emboli, and sudden death.
Overall, understanding mitral valve prolapse and its potential associations and complications is important for proper diagnosis and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are the Senior House Officer (SHO) in the Cardiology Clinic and wish to start an elderly male patient, who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension, on an agent in addition to his angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. He is a type II diabetic who is currently diet-controlled. His blood pressure is 155/90 mmHg.
Which of the following is the most suitable next medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:Second-line agents for hypertension in diabetics: A review of options
When it comes to treating hypertension in diabetics, certain medications are not recommended as first- or second-line agents due to their adverse impact on blood glucose control. Beta-blockers and thiazides fall into this category, leaving calcium channel blockers (CCBs) and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) as the preferred options. Amlodipine, a CCB, is recommended as the next logical choice if hypertension is inadequately controlled on ACEi monotherapy. Diltiazem, another CCB, is not recommended due to its potential to precipitate bradycardia. Valsartan, an ARB, can be used in combination with ACE inhibition in the treatment of heart failure, but may cause hyperkalaemia when used as a second-line agent for hypertension in diabetics. Atenolol and bendroflumethiazide, both not recommended as first- or second-line agents, are beta-blockers and thiazide diuretics, respectively. Understanding the options for second-line agents in hypertension management for diabetics is crucial for optimal patient care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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