-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy with Marfan syndrome is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He has been researching possible complications of his condition online and is worried about potential cardiac issues.
Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most probable in this patient?Your Answer: Atrial septal defect (ASD)
Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Cardiac Abnormalities Associated with Marfan Syndrome
Marfan syndrome is commonly associated with cardiac abnormalities, with aortic root dilatation being the most prevalent, found in approximately 80% of cases. This can lead to aortic regurgitation and even dissection. While there is some evidence of a slight increase in atrial septal defects in Marfan syndrome patients, it is not as common as aortic regurgitation or mitral valve prolapse. Dilated cardiomyopathy can also present in Marfan syndrome patients, although it is not as prevalent as aortic root dilatation or regurgitation. Pulmonary regurgitation is also increased in incidence in Marfan syndrome, but it is still less common than aortic regurgitation. Finally, while persistent ductus arteriosus is more commonly found in Marfan syndrome patients than in the general population, the association is relatively weak. Overall, Marfan syndrome patients should be monitored closely for these cardiac abnormalities to ensure proper management and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 72-year-old man is being evaluated after being diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during his recent hospitalization. He has a history of mitral stenosis and takes ramipril for hypertension. He was started on warfarin during his admission and was discharged with plans for follow-up in the cardiology clinic. However, he is now found to be in sinus rhythm during his current review. What is the appropriate course of action regarding anticoagulation?
Your Answer: Continue lifelong warfarin
Explanation:Warfarin should be continued indefinitely due to the patient’s risk factors for stroke and history of atrial fibrillation. It is preferred over direct oral anticoagulants due to his valvular heart disease.
NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 45-year-old man attends for a truck driver medical assessment. His blood pressure (BP) is noted to be 190/100 mmHg. He is a heavy drinker. He is feeling generally well in himself. You request blood tests:
Result Normal
Sodium (mmol/l) 138 135-145
Potassium (mmol/l) 4.0 3.5-5.0
Urea (mmol/l) 4.8 1.7-8.3
Creatinine (µmol/l) 152 59-104
You decide to perform a work-up to exclude a secondary cause for his hypertension. An ultrasound scan of the renal tract reveals a small atrophic left kidney.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hypertension: Differential Diagnosis
Hypertension in a young patient may indicate a secondary cause, such as renovascular disease. In this case, a small kidney on ultrasound and elevated creatinine levels suggest renal artery stenosis as a possible cause. Other potential diagnoses, such as Cushing’s syndrome, acromegaly, and phaeochromocytoma, are less likely based on the absence of corresponding symptoms and signs. Polycystic kidney disease, which can also cause hypertension, would typically present with bilateral renal enlargement rather than atrophy. A thorough differential diagnosis is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertension and guide appropriate management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 72-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for his annual medication review. He has hypertension and gout and is currently taking allopurinol 300 mg, amlodipine 10 mg and atorvastatin 20 mg. His home blood pressure readings average at 150/88 mmHg. His recent blood tests of glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c), renal profile and lipids are normal. Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate to add to his current regime?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:The patient’s hypertension is not well controlled despite being on the maximum dose of a calcium-channel blocker. According to NICE guidance, the next step in treatment should be a thiazide-like diuretic or an ACE inhibitor. However, as the patient has a history of recurrent gout, a diuretic is not advisable, and an ACE inhibitor such as ramipril is the most appropriate choice.
Aspirin 75 mg was previously recommended for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease in patients with multiple risk factors. However, current advice is to only consider prescribing aspirin after a careful risk assessment in patients with a high risk of stroke or myocardial infarction. Routine prescribing of antiplatelets for primary prevention is no longer recommended due to the risk of gastrointestinal bleed outweighing the benefits.
NICE no longer recommends initiating thiazide diuretics for hypertension treatment. Patients already established on this medication and whose BP is well controlled should continue. However, thiazide-like diuretics or ACE inhibitors are preferred as second-line treatment for hypertension in patients already on a calcium-channel blocker.
Diltiazem and amlodipine are both calcium-channel blockers, and medication from a different class of antihypertensives should be added.
Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic recommended as a second-line treatment for hypertension not controlled on the maximum dose of a calcium-channel blocker. However, as the patient has a history of recurrent gout, which can be exacerbated by thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics, an ACE inhibitor would be a more suitable choice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
An emergency buzzer sounds on the coronary care unit and you are the first doctor to respond. A healthcare assistant on an observation round has found a 72-year-old man unresponsive. You perform a head tilt and chin lift and check for a carotid pulse for 10 seconds while listening for breath sounds, but you detect neither.
Telemetry attached to the patient shows sinus rhythm at a rate of 110 bpm. The crash team is being summoned, and the crash trolley is being brought to the bedside. You are unaware of any DNACPR orders.
What is the most appropriate initial step?Your Answer: Deliver three quick successive stacked unsynchronised DC shocks followed by 2 minutes of 30:2 compressions
Correct Answer: Start chest compressions at a rate of 30:2
Explanation:For a patient in cardiac arrest with a non-shockable rhythm (pulseless-electrical activity), the recommended ratio of chest compressions to ventilation is 30:2. Therefore, the initial action should be to start chest compressions at this rate. Administering 1 mg adrenaline or 300 mg amiodarone is inappropriate as the first step. Adrenaline may be given once chest compressions have started. Amiodarone is only indicated for patients in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Delivering a single synchronised DC shock or three quick successive stacked unsynchronised DC shocks followed by 2 minutes of 30:2 compressions is incorrect for a patient in PEA, as these are only appropriate for a shockable rhythm while on telemetry.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
Left bundle branch block is associated with which one of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:ECG Findings in Various Cardiovascular Conditions
New-onset left bundle branch block may indicate ischaemic heart disease and could be a sign of STEMI if the patient’s symptoms match the diagnosis. Pericarditis typically causes widespread ST elevation on an ECG. Mitral stenosis can lead to left atrial enlargement and potentially atrial fibrillation. Pulmonary embolism often results in a right bundle branch block or a right ventricular strain pattern of S1Q3T3. Tricuspid stenosis can also cause right ventricular strain. It’s worth noting that mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis, and secondary pulmonary hypertension due to PE are associated with right ventricular strain and hypertrophy with partial or complete right bundle branch block, while pericarditis is not typically associated with bundle branch block.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 62-year-old man visits his GP complaining of recurring central chest pain during physical activity. He reports no chest pain while at rest. The patient was diagnosed with angina six months ago and has been taking verapamil and GTN spray. His medical history includes hypertension, asthma, and osteoarthritis of the right knee. What medication should the doctor prescribe?
Your Answer: Atenolol
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:If a patient with symptomatic stable angina is already on a calcium channel blocker but cannot take a beta-blocker due to a contraindication, the next step in treatment should involve long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine. This scenario involves a 64-year-old man who experiences recurring chest pain during physical activity, which is likely due to poorly controlled stable angina. Although calcium channel blockers and beta-blockers are typically the first-line treatment for stable angina, the patient’s history of asthma makes beta-blockers unsuitable. As the initial treatment has not been effective, the patient should try the next line of therapy. Atenolol, bisoprolol, and diltiazem are not appropriate options for this patient due to their potential risks and lack of effectiveness in this case.
Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man with known permanent AF (atrial fibrillation) on warfarin has a fast, irregularly irregular pulse. He has no other past medical history. The ECG confirms AF with a rate of 132 beats/min. He is haemodynamically stable and well. He denies any history of palpitations, shortness of breath or syncope.
Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?Your Answer: Digoxin
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation: A Comprehensive Guide
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt and appropriate management to prevent complications. Here are some treatment options for AF:
Rate Control: This is recommended for patients who have had AF for more than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are the first-line treatment unless there is a contraindication such as asthma. Calcium channel blockers can also be used.
Digoxin: This drug can be used as rate control if the patient cannot have beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers. However, it should only be used as a third-line treatment or as an adjunct because it has been shown to increase mortality. It is also only effective in sedentary patients.
DC Cardioversion: This can be used to treat new-onset AF if the patient has had it for less than 48 hours. It can also be considered in patients who have had it for longer than that, once they have been on stable anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.
Flecainide: This is a class Ic antiarrhythmic drug that can be used as chemical cardioversion in new AF (<48 hours) or if a patient has been anticoagulated for >3 weeks.
Rhythm Control: Nice guidelines advise that rhythm control can be used if AF onset was <48 hours ago, but should be avoided if longer ago because it can increase the risk of stroke from an atrial thrombus. In longer cases, rate control should be used, which is with beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. Digoxin can be used third line or as an adjunct. In conclusion, the appropriate treatment for AF depends on the duration of the arrhythmia, the patient’s comorbidities, and other factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 64-year-old male with a history of mitral regurgitation is scheduled for dental polishing. He has a documented penicillin allergy. What is the recommended prophylaxis for preventing infective endocarditis?
Your Answer: Oral erythromycin
Correct Answer: No antibiotic prophylaxis needed
Explanation:In the UK, it is no longer standard practice to use antibiotics as a preventative measure against infective endocarditis during dental or other procedures, as per the 2008 NICE guidelines which have brought about a significant shift in approach.
Infective endocarditis is a serious infection of the heart lining and valves. The 2008 guidelines from NICE have changed the list of procedures for which antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended. According to NICE, dental procedures, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tract procedures do not require prophylaxis. However, if a person at risk of infective endocarditis is receiving antimicrobial therapy because they are undergoing a gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedure at a site where there is a suspected infection, they should be given an antibiotic that covers organisms that cause infective endocarditis. It is important to note that these recommendations differ from the American Heart Association/European Society of Cardiology guidelines, which still advocate antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients undergoing dental procedures.
The guidelines suggest that any episodes of infection in people at risk of infective endocarditis should be investigated and treated promptly to reduce the risk of endocarditis developing. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to prevent the development of infective endocarditis, which can lead to severe complications and even death. It is also important to note that these guidelines may change over time as new research and evidence become available. Therefore, healthcare professionals should stay up-to-date with the latest recommendations to provide the best possible care for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A woman with a history of asthma who is 25 weeks pregnant is found to have consistent blood pressure readings >170/95 mmHg. She is admitted under Gynaecology.
Which of the following antihypertensives would you initiate for this patient?Your Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Safe and Effective Treatment Options for Gestational Hypertension
Gestational hypertension is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. According to NICE guidelines, labetalol is the first-line treatment for gestational hypertension. However, if the patient has asthma, labetalol is contraindicated. In such cases, nifedipine is listed as the second-line treatment, followed by methyldopa if necessary.
Diltiazem is not usually used in gestational hypertension, and the role of this medication in pregnancy is unclear. Bendroflumethiazide is relatively contraindicated in pregnancy, while ACE inhibitors and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated due to their potential adverse effects on fetal blood pressure and renal function.
In cases of gestational hypertension, it is crucial to rule out pre-eclampsia. If the patient’s blood pressure is above 160/110, NICE guidelines recommend admission until the blood pressure is below this level.
Calcium channel blockers, such as nifedipine, are safe and effective in pregnancy, while the role of diltiazem is uncertain. Bendroflumethiazide is relatively contraindicated, while ACE inhibitors and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated. It is essential to choose the appropriate medication based on the patient’s medical history and individual circumstances.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman is recuperating in the hospital after a coronary angiogram for unstable angina. Two days after the procedure, she reports experiencing intense pain in her left foot. Upon examination, her left lower limb peripheral pulses are normal. There is tissue loss on the medial three toes on the left foot and an area of livedo reticularis on the same foot.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Arterial thromboembolism
Correct Answer: Cholesterol embolisation
Explanation:Differentiating Vascular Conditions: Causes and Symptoms
Cholesterol embolisation occurs when cholesterol crystals from a ruptured atherosclerotic plaque block small or medium arteries, often following an intervention like coronary angiography. This results in microvascular ischemia, which typically does not affect blood pressure or larger vessels, explaining the normal peripheral pulses in affected patients. Livedo reticularis, a purplish discoloration, may also occur due to microvascular ischemia.
Arterial thromboembolism is a common condition, especially in patients with established cardiovascular disease or risk factors like hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and smoking. It tends to affect larger vessels than cholesterol embolism, leading to the absence of peripheral pulses and gangrenous toes.
Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a vasculitis that mainly affects young men who smoke. It presents with claudication of the arms or legs, with or without ulcers or gangrene. However, the acute onset of symptoms following an intervention makes cholesterol embolism a more likely diagnosis.
Deep vein thrombosis typically presents with a swollen, painful calf and does not display signs of arterial insufficiency like gangrene and livedo reticularis.
Takayasu’s arteritis is a rare form of large vessel vasculitis that mainly affects the aorta. It is more common in women and tends to present below the age of 30 years old with pulseless arms. However, this patient’s history is not typical for Takayasu’s arteritis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 24-year-old male is undergoing a medical review at a professional football club when an ejection systolic murmur is found. He is sent for echocardiogram and subsequently diagnosed with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).
Despite a normal electrocardiogram (ECG) and regular pulse, which complication of this condition is most likely to result in sudden death for this athlete?Your Answer: Complete heart block
Correct Answer: Ventricular arrhythmia
Explanation:Young athletes with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy are at risk of sudden death due to ventricular arrhythmia. This is believed to be caused by ventricular tachycardia resulting from ischaemia, which typically occurs during extreme exertion. Unlike myocardial infarction, which is commonly associated with atherosclerosis in the coronary arteries, it is unlikely for a young person to develop this condition. However, cocaine use may increase the risk of MI in young people. Although HOCM may cause a regurgitant mitral valve, valve rupture is not a known complication. While heart block may occur in some cases of HOCM, it is rare and is unlikely to cause sudden death.
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is caused by mutations in genes encoding contractile proteins. It is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, diastolic dysfunction, and myofibrillar hypertrophy with disarray and fibrosis on biopsy. HOCM can be asymptomatic or present with exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, sudden death, arrhythmias, heart failure, jerky pulse, and systolic murmurs. It is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard that worsens with the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Syncope: A Guide
Syncope, or fainting, can be caused by a variety of underlying conditions. One such condition is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM), which often presents with syncope following exercise. Patients with HCM may also have a mid-systolic murmur and a jerky pulse, which worsens with Valsalva but improves with squatting.
Atrial fibrillation, on the other hand, typically presents with palpitations, fatigue, or shortness of breath, but not syncope. It does not cause a murmur and results in an irregularly irregular pulse.
Epilepsy is not a common cause of syncope, as typical seizures involve loss of consciousness, tensing, shaking, and postictal fatigue.
Aortic stenosis can cause dizziness and syncope, and is usually associated with angina. The murmur associated with aortic stenosis is a crescendo-decrescendo murmur that radiates to the carotids.
A vasovagal attack, while it can cause syncope, would not cause a murmur. If syncope is recurrent, other causes should be sought.
Dyspnea is a common complaint in patients with HCM, but they may also experience angina or syncope. A left ventricular apical impulse, a prominent S4 gallop, and a harsh systolic ejection murmur are typical findings. The Valsalva maneuver can increase the murmur. An echocardiogram is the diagnostic procedure of choice.
Most patients with aortic stenosis have gradually increasing obstruction for years but do not become symptomatic until their sixth to eighth decades.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 55 year old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of a cough with green sputum and palpitations. She reports feeling very sick, feverish, and tired. Upon examination, she exhibits bronchial breathing at her right base, with a respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation of 95% on room air. Her heart sounds are normal, but her heartbeat is irregularly irregular, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute and blood pressure of 90/40 mmHg. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a fast ventricular rate. The patient has no prior history of atrial fibrillation. What is the initial treatment that should be administered?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Correct Answer: Intravenous fluids
Explanation:Patient is septic from pneumonia and has developed atrial fibrillation. Treatment should focus on resolving the sepsis with IV fluids and antibiotics, which may also resolve the AF. If AF persists, other treatment options may be considered.
Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. Instead, the Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognize sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, and septic shock as a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favor.
To manage sepsis, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the infection and support the patient regardless of the cause or severity. However, if any red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started immediately. This includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.
NICE released its own guidelines in 2016, which focus on the risk stratification and management of patients with suspected sepsis. For risk stratification, NICE recommends using red flag and amber flag criteria. If any red flags are present, the sepsis six should be started immediately. If any amber flags are present, the patient should be closely monitored and managed accordingly.
To help identify and categorize patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasizing the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 65-year-old man is being discharged after undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention for an acute coronary syndrome. He has no significant medical history prior to this event. What type of lipid modification therapy should have been initiated during his hospitalization?
Your Answer: Atorvastatin 80mg on
Explanation:Atorvastatin 80 mg should be taken by patients who have already been diagnosed with CVD.
The 2014 NICE guidelines recommend using the QRISK2 tool to identify patients over 40 years old who are at high risk of CVD, with a 10-year risk of 10% or greater. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and atorvastatin 20mg should be offered first-line. Lifestyle modifications include a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, limiting alcohol intake, and smoking cessation. Follow-up should occur at 3 months, with consideration of increasing the dose of atorvastatin up to 80 mg if necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 63-year-old man with angina and breathlessness at rest is found to have severe aortic stenosis. Since he has no prior medical history, he undergoes an open aortic valve replacement and a mechanical valve is implanted. What is the most suitable medication for long-term anticoagulation after the surgery?
Your Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options for Replacement
Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged aortic and mitral valves. There are two main options for replacement: biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical. Biological valves are usually sourced from bovine or porcine origins and are commonly used in older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve type. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old man of Indian descent presents for a hypertension follow-up. He presents a log of blood pressure readings he has taken at home, consistently showing values above 150/90 mmHg. He is currently taking amlodipine and atorvastatin, with optimal dosing for the past year. What would be the best course of action at this point?
Your Answer: Stop amlodipine and trial ramipril instead
Correct Answer: Add indapamide
Explanation:The appropriate next step in the treatment of poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking a calcium channel blocker is to add a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide. This is in accordance with the NICE treatment algorithm, which recommends adding an ACE inhibitor, angiotensin-receptor-blocker, or thiazide-like diuretic in such cases. Adding a thiazide diuretic like bendroflumethiazide would be incorrect. Continuing blood pressure monitoring and reviewing in one month would not be appropriate, as the patient’s hypertension needs to be escalated. Similarly, stopping amlodipine and trialling ramipril with indapamide instead, or stopping amlodipine and trialling ramipril alone, would also be incorrect. The recommended approach is to add an ACE inhibitor or thiazide-like diuretic in combination with the calcium channel blocker.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 59-year-old woman comes in for a routine check-up with her primary care physician. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is currently taking metformin and sitagliptin. During her last visit, her blood pressure was measured at 161/88 mmHg and she was advised to undergo 7 days of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring.
During this visit, her average ambulatory blood pressure is recorded as 158/74 mmHg. All other observations are stable and her cardiorespiratory examination is unremarkable. Her blood sugar level is 6.2 mmol/L.
What medication would be recommended to manage this patient's blood pressure?Your Answer: Lisinopril
Explanation:Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetics.
Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus
Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that there was little difference in outcomes between patients who had tight blood pressure control (targets < 130/85 mmHg) and those with more relaxed control (< 140-160/90-100 mmHg), except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke in the former group. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. Further management then follows that of non-diabetic patients. It is important to note that autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. Therefore, the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, particularly when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
You have just received a 70-year-old man into the resuscitation room who had a witnessed collapse after complaining of chest pain. There was no pulse, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) was performed at the scene. CPR is ongoing upon patient arrival in the Emergency Department. Pulse check demonstrates no palpable central pulse, and there is no respiratory effort. A 3-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates no coordinated electrical activity or recognisable complexes, looking very much like a wandering flat line.
What is the most appropriate management of this patient?Your Answer: 1 mg of adrenaline 1 : 10 000 intravenously (IV), and continue CPR
Explanation:Managing Cardiac Arrest: Correct and Incorrect Approaches
When dealing with a patient in cardiac arrest, it is crucial to follow the correct management protocol. In the case of a patient in asystole, CPR 30:2 (compressions: ventilations) should be initiated, along with 1 mg of adrenaline 10 ml of 1:10 000 IV every other cycle of CPR. Direct current (DC) shock is not indicated for asystole. Adrenaline 1:1000 IM is not appropriate for cardiac arrest situations, as it is used in anaphylaxis. External pacing is unlikely to be successful in the absence of P-wave asystole. Atropine is indicated in severe bradycardia, not asystole. It is essential to follow the correct approach to manage cardiac arrest effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of central chest pain that started 8 hours ago. The pain is spreading to his left jaw. He has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia.
Upon conducting an ECG, it shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Troponin levels are significantly elevated. The patient is given 300mg of aspirin and sublingual glyceryl trinitrate.
Unfortunately, the nearest hospital that can provide primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is 4 hours away. What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Administer fibrinolysis
Explanation:For the management of STEMI, guidelines recommend primary PCI within 120 minutes of presentation or within 12 hours of symptom onset. As this patient presented with 10 hours of pain and transfer to the nearest hospital for PCI would take 3 hours, fibrinolysis should be offered instead. Giving unfractionated heparin and a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor is inappropriate in this case. The patient should not be immediately transferred for PCI, but if the ST elevation is not resolved on a repeat ECG taken 90 minutes after fibrinolysis, then transfer for PCI should be considered. Rechecking troponin in 120 minutes is not necessary, and repeating an ECG in 120 minutes is not the next most important step. Administering fibrinolysis and taking a repeat ECG at the 90-minute mark are the appropriate next steps.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
An 82-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a blackout while shopping. Upon examination, she appears alert and oriented, and her vital signs are stable. Her CBG level is 5.8 mmol/l, and her pulse is irregular with a low volume at 89 beats per minute. Her blood pressure is 145/120 mmHg while lying and standing. There is no raised jugular venous pressure, and her apex beat is forceful but undisplaced. Heart sounds reveal a soft S2 and a soft ejection systolic murmur loudest in the right second intercostal space, with a possible fourth heart sound heard. Chest examination reveals occasional bibasal crackles that clear with coughing, and there is no peripheral edema. Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of her collapse?
Your Answer: Mixed mitral and aortic valve disease
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Understanding Aortic Stenosis and Differential Diagnosis
Aortic stenosis is a condition that presents with symptoms of left ventricular failure, angina, and potential collapse or blackout if the stenosis is critical. A low-volume pulse, narrow pulse pressure, slow-rising carotid pulse, undisplaced, sustained/forceful apex beat, soft or absent A2, ejection systolic murmur + fourth heart sound, and pulmonary edema are significant signs of aortic stenosis.
It is important to differentiate aortic stenosis from other conditions such as mitral regurgitation, aortic regurgitation, mitral stenosis, and mixed mitral and aortic valve disease. Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur radiating to the axilla, while aortic regurgitation causes an early diastolic murmur and a collapsing pulse. Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur with a characteristic opening snap. There is no definitive evidence of mitral valve disease in this clinical scenario.
Understanding the signs and symptoms of aortic stenosis and differentiating it from other conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 82-year-old man is admitted to the stroke unit with a left sided infarct. After receiving thrombolysis, he is now stable on the ward. The medical team wants to initiate regular antiplatelet therapy, but the patient has allergies to both aspirin and clopidogrel. What alternative medication can be prescribed for him?
Your Answer: Rivaroxaban
Correct Answer: Dipyridamole
Explanation:If aspirin and clopidogrel cannot be used after an ischaemic stroke, MR dipyridamole may be administered as the sole antiplatelet option. Warfarin and rivaroxaban may be considered, but are more suitable for patients with AF. Bisoprolol and enoxaparin are not antiplatelet medications.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to worsening shortness of breath and palpitations. Upon examination, bilateral crepitations are heard in her lungs and she has bilateral ankle edema. An ECG shows atrial fibrillation with a fast ventricular response, with a heart rate of 157 bpm. A chest x-ray reveals pulmonary edema. Blood tests show normal levels of Hb, platelets, WBC, Na+, K+, urea, creatinine, CRP, magnesium, troponin, and TSH. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Synchronised DC cardioversion
Explanation:Patients who exhibit tachycardia along with symptoms of shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure should be administered up to three synchronised DC shocks. Synchronised DC cardioversion is recommended for tachycardia with haemodynamic instability, signs of myocardial ischaemia, heart failure, or syncope. In this case, the patient is displaying signs of heart failure, and the elevated troponin levels are likely due to tachycardia rather than acute myocardial infarction (MI). Adenosine is not suitable for this situation as it is used to manage supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) that is not associated with shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure. Amiodarone may be considered in atrial fibrillation with a fast ventricular response if synchronised DC cardioversion is ineffective, but it would not be the most appropriate management option at this time. IV metoprolol (or oral bisoprolol) is used in fast atrial fibrillation not associated with shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure. However, since this patient is exhibiting signs of heart failure, this is not the correct course of action.
Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias
The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines for the management of peri-arrest tachycardias have been simplified in the 2015 update. The previous separate algorithms for broad-complex tachycardia, narrow complex tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation have been replaced by a unified treatment algorithm. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, pallor, sweating, confusion, or impaired consciousness. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given, up to a maximum of three shocks.
The treatment following this is based on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is given if the rhythm is regular. If the rhythm is irregular, expert help should be sought as it could be due to atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.
For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are given if the rhythm is regular. If unsuccessful, atrial flutter is considered, and rate control is achieved with beta-blockers. If the rhythm is irregular, it is likely due to atrial fibrillation, and electrical or chemical cardioversion is considered if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control unless contraindicated. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old woman comes in for her routine medical check-up before starting her new job as a soccer player. She reports feeling healthy and has no notable medical history in her family.
During the physical examination, her lungs sound clear and her heart has a normal rhythm. Her pulse rate is 62 beats per minute. However, her ECG reveals sinus rhythm with a prolonged PR interval of 215ms.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing her ECG results?Your Answer: Urgent referral to cardiology
Correct Answer: No intervention needed
Explanation:First-degree heart block is a common occurrence in athletes and does not require any intervention. This patient’s ECG shows a prolonged PR interval, which is the defining characteristic of first-degree heart block. As it is a normal variant, there is no need for any referral or further investigations. The patient can continue to play football without any concerns.
Normal Variants in Athlete ECGs
Athletes may exhibit certain ECG changes that are considered normal variants. These include sinus bradycardia, junctional rhythm, first degree heart block, and Mobitz type 1 (Wenckebach phenomenon). Sinus bradycardia refers to a slower than normal heart rate originating from the sinus node, which is the natural pacemaker of the heart. Junctional rhythm occurs when the heart’s electrical impulses originate from the junction between the atria and ventricles, rather than the sinus node. First degree heart block is a delay in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles, resulting in a prolonged PR interval on the ECG. Mobitz type 1, also known as Wenckebach phenomenon, is a type of heart block where there is a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped. These ECG changes are considered normal in athletes and do not necessarily indicate any underlying cardiac pathology.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
Which one of the following patients should not be prescribed a statin without any contraindication?
Your Answer: A 57-year-old man with well controlled diabetes mellitus type 2 with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 8%
Explanation:Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man comes to you with complaints of nocturnal dyspnea, intermittent palpitations, and chest tightness. During your examination, you observe a collapsing pulse and a displaced apex beat towards the left. Additionally, you notice his head nodding in sync with his pulse. What do you anticipate hearing upon auscultation of the precordium?
Your Answer: An ejection systolic murmur
Correct Answer: An early diastolic murmur
Explanation:Aortic regurgitation is usually accompanied by an early diastolic murmur, along with Corrigan’s pulse and De Musset’s sign. Mitral regurgitation is characterized by a pansystolic murmur, while aortic stenosis is associated with an ejection systolic murmur. A patent ductus arteriosus is indicated by a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, and mitral stenosis is associated with a late diastolic murmur.
Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve of the heart leaks, causing blood to flow in the opposite direction during ventricular diastole. This can be caused by disease of the aortic valve or by distortion or dilation of the aortic root and ascending aorta. In the developing world, rheumatic fever is the most common cause of AR, while in developed countries, calcific valve disease and connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and SLE are more common causes. Symptoms of AR include an early diastolic murmur, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, Quincke’s sign, and De Musset’s sign. Echocardiography is used to investigate suspected AR. Management includes medical management of any associated heart failure and surgery for symptomatic patients with severe AR or asymptomatic patients with severe AR who have LV systolic dysfunction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman has a significant anterior non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (MI) but recovers well in hospital. Her predischarge echocardiogram shows her to have an ejection fraction of 40%. She is otherwise asymptomatic.
Which of the following should her medications on discharge include?
Your Answer: Aspirin, bisoprolol, ramipril, and a statin
Correct Answer: Aspirin, ticagrelor, bisoprolol, ramipril and a statin
Explanation:Medication Options for Post-Myocardial Infarction Patients
After a myocardial infarction (MI), it is important for patients to receive appropriate medication to prevent further cardiovascular events. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend the use of aspirin, ticagrelor, bisoprolol, ramipril, and a statin for dual antiplatelet therapy, β-blocker, ACE inhibitor, and cholesterol-lowering medication. The β-blocker and ACE inhibitor should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose.
While isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN) is a useful anti-anginal medication, it is not indicated for post-MI patients. Instead, aspirin, bisoprolol, ramipril, losartan, and a statin may be prescribed. However, the use of an ACE inhibitor alongside an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) is not recommended due to their similar mechanism of action. Nitrates, such as ISMN, are also used as anti-anginals, but ACE inhibitors are preferred over ARBs.
For patients on aspirin, bisoprolol, ramipril, and a statin, a second antiplatelet medication, such as clopidogrel, may be added for the first 12 months following an MI, unless there is a contraindication such as concomitant use of warfarin. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the appropriate medication regimen for each post-MI patient to optimize their cardiovascular health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old female comes to the cardiology clinic complaining of persistent shortness of breath that is hindering her daily activities. She has a medical history of dilated cardiomyopathy and is currently taking candesartan, bisoprolol, and furosemide. An echocardiogram reveals a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%. What would be the most suitable long-term treatment to enhance this patient's prognosis?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:The initial management for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction involves prescribing an ACE inhibitor (or ARB, as in this patient’s case) and a beta-blocker. However, since the patient’s symptoms are not under control despite taking these medications, it is recommended to add spironolactone (a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist) to their treatment plan.
Bendroflumethiazide is not a suitable long-term management option for heart failure, as thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics are not recommended.
Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, is contraindicated for chronic heart failure.
Dobutamine, an inotrope, may be used in acute decompensated heart failure but is not appropriate for stable management of chronic heart failure.
Ramipril is not a suitable option for this patient as they are already taking candesartan, another angiotensin II receptor blocker.Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A 38-year-old male presents with left-sided dull chest pain that has been present for five days. He reports no associated shortness of breath, cough, collapse, or pleuritic nature of the chest pain. The patient had a recent sore throat and headache last week, which has since resolved. There is no family history of sudden cardiac death in a first-degree relative, and the patient has never smoked.
Upon examination, the patient's blood pressure is 125/89 mmHg, heart rate is 95/min, temperature is 37.3ºC, and oxygen saturations are 97% on room air. Pulsus paradoxus is not present. Blood results reveal Hb of 154 g/L, platelets of 425 * 109/L, WBC of 11.5 * 109/L, Na+ of 137 mmol/L, K+ of 4.6 mmol/L, urea of 6.4 mmol/L, creatinine of 100 µmol/L, CRP of 40 mg/L, and Troponin T of 13 ng/L. The ECG shows ST-segment elevation in lead I, II, III, aVL, V5, and V6, and PR segment elevation in aVR.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:The ECG changes in this patient suggest pericarditis, given their young age, widespread ST-segment elevation, and normal troponin levels. While PR segment depression is typically seen in pericarditis, note that the PR segment may be elevated in aVR. Myocarditis would be a possible diagnosis if the troponin levels were elevated. Infective endocarditis is less likely due to the absence of fever and ECG changes consistent with pericarditis. Although cardiac tamponade is a potential complication of pericarditis, it is unlikely in this case as the patient’s blood pressure is normal and pulsus paradoxus is not present.
Understanding Acute Pericarditis
Acute pericarditis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardial sac that lasts for less than 4-6 weeks. The condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, post-myocardial infarction, autoimmune pericarditis, radiotherapy, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, malignancy, and trauma. Symptoms of acute pericarditis include chest pain, non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Patients may also experience pericardial rub.
To diagnose acute pericarditis, doctors may perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) to check for changes in the heart’s electrical activity. Blood tests may also be conducted to check for inflammatory markers and troponin levels. Patients suspected of having acute pericarditis should undergo transthoracic echocardiography.
Treatment for acute pericarditis depends on the underlying cause. Patients with high-risk features such as fever or elevated troponin levels may need to be hospitalized. However, most patients with pericarditis secondary to viral infection can be managed as outpatients. Strenuous physical activity should be avoided until symptoms resolve and inflammatory markers normalize. A combination of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and colchicine is typically used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis. The medication is usually tapered off over 1-2 weeks.
Overall, understanding acute pericarditis is important for prompt diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of malaise, fever and night sweats. He also complains that he has recently developed increased sensitivity in his fingertips and states that every time he touches something his fingers hurt.
His past medical history includes diabetes and end-stage chronic kidney disease, for which he receives regular haemodialysis. His parameters include a blood pressure of 130/95 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 98%, heart rate 120 bpm and a temperature of 38.2°C.
Which of the following investigations would be needed to make a diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE best investigation from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Suspected Infective Endocarditis
Suspected infective endocarditis (IE) requires a thorough diagnostic workup to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other potential conditions. One of the major symptoms of IE is the development of Osler nodes, which are tender lumps found on the fingers and toes. Here are some diagnostic tests that may be used to evaluate a patient with suspected IE:
Echocardiogram
An echocardiogram is a crucial diagnostic test for IE. It is used to detect any abnormalities in the heart valves or chambers that may indicate the presence of IE. The modified Duke’s criteria, which are used to diagnose IE, include echocardiography as one of the major criteria.
Nerve Conduction Studies
Nerve conduction studies are used to detect any damage to the peripheral nerves. While this test may be used to evaluate conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome or sciatica, it is not typically used to diagnose IE. In this case, the painful sensation in the fingertips is more likely due to Osler nodes than an underlying neurological disorder.
Chest X-ray
A chest X-ray is not typically indicated in a patient with suspected IE. While pneumonia may present with symptoms similar to those of IE, such as fever and malaise, other symptoms such as coughing and sputum production are more indicative of pneumonia.
Mantoux Test
The Mantoux test is used to detect latent tuberculosis (TB). While TB may present with symptoms similar to those of IE, such as night sweats and fever, a Mantoux test is not typically used to diagnose IE. In this case, the lack of risk factors for TB and the presence of Osler nodes suggest a diagnosis of IE.
Sputum Culture
A sputum culture may be used to diagnose respiratory conditions such as pneumonia. However, in a patient without a cough, a sputum culture is less likely to confirm a diagnosis. Other symptoms such as coughing and sputum production are more indicative of pneumonia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with symptomatic aortic stenosis. Despite his overall good health, he is eager for intervention. What intervention is most likely to be recommended for him?
Your Answer: Balloon valvuloplasty
Correct Answer: Bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement
Explanation:Mechanical valves are typically preferred for younger patients as they have a longer lifespan compared to other types of prosthetic heart valves.
Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options for Replacement
Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged aortic and mitral valves. There are two main options for replacement: biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical. Biological valves are usually sourced from bovine or porcine origins and are commonly used in older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve type. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man who was previously healthy comes to the clinic complaining of increasing shortness of breath over the past four to five months. His father passed away a few years ago due to a lung disease. During the examination, the doctor notices an elevated jugular venous pressure and a palpable heave at the left sternal edge.
What is the most probable provisional diagnosis?Your Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Correct Answer: Familial primary pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Familial Primary Pulmonary Hypertension
Familial primary pulmonary hypertension is a rare condition that presents with breathlessness, fatigue, angina, or syncope. It has an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance with incomplete penetrance and physical signs such as elevated JVP, left parasternal heave, pansystolic murmur, right ventricular S4, and peripheral edema. Without treatment, average survival is less than three years. While tricuspid regurgitation may be present, it is best explained in the context of a diagnosis of familial primary pulmonary hypertension. Chronic pulmonary thromboembolism is a more common differential diagnosis that should be considered. Constrictive pericarditis and pulmonary venous hypertension are unlikely diagnoses as they do not run in families. Clinical management requires a specialist with considerable expertise in the field.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old woman with peripheral arterial disease is prescribed simvastatin. What blood test monitoring is most suitable?
Your Answer: LFTs + creatinine kinase at baseline, 1-3 months and at intervals of 6 months for 1 year
Correct Answer: LFTs at baseline, 3 months and 12 months
Explanation:To evaluate the effectiveness of treatment, a fasting lipid profile may be examined as part of the monitoring process.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman had an anterior myocardial infarction. She has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2, smokes 10 cigarettes per day and admits to a high-sugar diet and minimal exercise.
Which of the following non-pharmacological interventions will be most helpful in reducing her risk for a future ischaemic event?
Your Answer: Diet control
Correct Answer: Stopping smoking
Explanation:Reducing the Risk of Vascular Events: Lifestyle Interventions
Smoking, high salt intake, poor diet, lack of exercise, and obesity are all risk factors for vascular events such as heart attacks and strokes. However, making lifestyle changes can significantly reduce the risk of these events.
Stopping smoking is the most effective non-pharmacological intervention, as it reduces the risk of heart disease by 2-3 times compared to those who continue to smoke.
Reducing salt intake to 3-6 g/day can also help, as both high and low salt intake can increase the risk of vascular events.
Improving diet by controlling calorie intake can lead to weight loss, improved blood sugar control, and better lipid profiles.
Regular exercise, such as 30 minutes of activity five times a week, can lower the risk of vascular events by 30%.
Finally, weight reduction is important, as obesity increases the risk of heart attacks and strokes at a younger age and can lead to higher mortality rates.
Overall, making these lifestyle changes can significantly reduce the risk of vascular events and improve overall health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 35
Correct
-
A 48-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of feeling dizzy and experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. He has a bicuspid aortic valve and is waiting for valve replacement surgery.
Which of the following murmurs would be the most likely to occur in this patient?Your Answer: Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs Based on Location and Type
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate various cardiac conditions. The location and type of murmur can help differentiate between different conditions.
Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge: This is typical for aortic stenosis, which is more likely to occur in a bicuspid aortic valve. The murmur may radiate to the carotids. Pulmonary stenosis, hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, and atrial septal defect can also cause this type of murmur, but the location would be different.
Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal edge: This location is typical for pulmonary stenosis, not aortic stenosis. The patient’s history indicates symptomatic aortic stenosis, making this finding inconsistent.
Early diastolic murmur loudest over the 3rd intercostal space, left sternal edge: This type and location of murmur is typical for aortic regurgitation, not aortic stenosis. The location is Erb’s point, where S1 and S2 should both be heard.
Mid-diastolic murmur loudest over the apex: This type and location of murmur is typical for mitral stenosis, not aortic stenosis. The apex is the mitral area, located at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.
Pansystolic murmur loudest over the apex: This type and location of murmur is typical for mitral regurgitation, not aortic stenosis. The apex is the mitral area, located at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old individual is rushed to the Emergency Department via ambulance, experiencing intense chest pain, difficulty breathing, and excessive sweating. The paramedics conducted an ECG on the scene, revealing ST depression in V1-V3 with tall, wide R waves and upward T waves. What should be the next appropriate step to take?
Your Answer: Give calcium gluconate IV
Correct Answer: Record a posterior ECG
Explanation:To confirm posterior infarction, a posterior ECG should be recorded when ST elevation and Q waves are present in posterior leads (V7-9). In this case, the patient presented with symptoms suggestive of myocardial infarction and the ECG showed changes that indicated the need for a posterior ECG. This involves placing leads V4-V6 on the patient’s back to make leads V7-V9. ST-elevation and Q waves in these leads confirm posterior infarction, and the patient should be transferred for primary percutaneous coronary intervention as soon as possible. It is important to have a high index of suspicion for posterior MIs and a low threshold for getting a posterior ECG.
Giving IV potassium replacement or calcium gluconate IV would be incorrect in this case. These treatments are used for hypokalaemia and severe hyperkalaemia, respectively, and are not the most likely diagnoses. Ibuprofen and colchicine would be appropriate for pericarditis, which presents with chest pain that is worse on lying flat and has characteristic ECG changes. However, the clinical picture and ECG changes in this case are more consistent with ACS.
A CT aortogram is used to investigate for aortic dissection, which can present with severe chest pain, breathlessness, and sweating. However, it would be best to record a posterior ECG to investigate for posterior MI prior to investigating for an aortic dissection due to the classic features of ACS in the history.
Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery. Inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V1-6, I, and aVL indicate the proximal left anterior descending artery is involved. Lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9). This type of infarction is usually caused by the left circumflex artery, but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are typically seen as horizontal ST depression, tall and broad R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may indicate acute coronary syndrome.
Overall, understanding the correlation between ECG changes and coronary artery territories is crucial in diagnosing acute coronary syndrome. By identifying the specific changes in the ECG, medical professionals can determine which artery is affected and provide appropriate treatment. Additionally, recognizing the reciprocal changes of STEMI and the significance of a new LBBB can aid in making an accurate diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 37
Correct
-
Which of the following tests would be most beneficial in diagnosing heart failure?
Your Answer: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
Explanation:Understanding Cardiac Biomarkers: Importance of BNP in Heart Failure Diagnosis
When it comes to diagnosing heart failure, healthcare professionals rely on various cardiac biomarkers to aid in their assessment. Among these biomarkers, B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is considered the primary investigation according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.
Unlike other biomarkers such as C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), BNP is specific to heart failure and is not affected by inflammation. On the other hand, troponin T is useful in diagnosing acute coronary syndromes, while creatine phosphokinase is primarily used to detect muscle breakdown and rhabdomyolysis.
It is important to note that certain factors such as obesity and medications like angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) can falsely lower BNP levels. Therefore, if BNP levels are elevated, patients should be referred for an echocardiogram to confirm the diagnosis of heart failure.
In summary, understanding the role of cardiac biomarkers such as BNP in heart failure diagnosis is crucial in providing accurate and timely treatment for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman with a history of angina and a recent episode of dizziness is prescribed clopidogrel.
What is the primary mechanism of action of this medication?Your Answer: Blocks thromboxane production
Correct Answer: Blocks platelet adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptors
Explanation:Clopidogrel inhibits platelet activation by blocking the binding of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to the platelet P2Y12 receptor. This is achieved by preventing the activation of the glycoprotein GPIIa/IIIb. It is recommended by NICE for secondary prevention following a cerebrovascular accident or in peripheral arterial disease. It can also be used in combination with aspirin for the management of ischaemic heart disease or for patients undergoing percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention.
Tirofiban and abciximab are drugs that block glycoprotein IIIb/IIIa receptors, preventing platelet aggregation by blocking fibrinogen from binding to platelet receptors. These drugs are used under specialist supervision only for the treatment of acute ST elevation myocardial infarction or during percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention.
Hirudin, produced by leeches, blocks thrombin receptors. Bivalirudin, a hirudin analogue, is used for the acute management of acute coronary syndrome or during PCI.
Aspirin inhibits thromboxane production by blocking the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX).
Heparin binds to antithrombin III, activating it, which reduces the activity of thrombin and factor Xa. Heparin is an anticoagulant and plays a role in the treatment of venous thromboembolism, while clopidogrel is an anti-platelet agent.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-hour history of dizziness and palpitations. He denies any chest pain or shortness of breath. His medical history includes hypertension and stable angina.
Vital signs:
- Temperature: 36.7ºC
- Heart rate: 44 bpm
- Blood pressure: 90/51 mmHg
- Respiratory rate: 18 breaths/min
- Oxygen saturations: 94% on air
On examination, his pulse is regular bilaterally, and his calves are soft and nontender. Auscultation reveals vesicular breath sounds and normal heart sounds. An ECG shows sinus rhythm with a PR interval of 210ms (120-200ms).
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Transcutaneous pacing
Correct Answer: Intravenous atropine
Explanation:In cases where patients exhibit bradycardia and signs of shock, the recommended initial treatment is administering 500 micrograms of atropine, which can be repeated up to a maximum dose of 3mg. This patient’s ECG findings indicate first-degree heart block, which is consistent with their bradycardia and hypotension. If atropine fails to control the patient’s bradyarrhythmia, other options such as isoprenaline infusions or transcutaneous pacing may be considered. However, intravenous adenosine is not appropriate for this patient as it is used to treat supraventricular tachycardias, which is not the diagnosis in this case. While isoprenaline infusion and transcutaneous pacing are alternative treatments for bradyarrhythmias, they are not the first-line option and should only be considered if atropine is ineffective. Therefore, atropine is the correct answer for this patient’s management.
Management of Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms
The 2015 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines highlight the importance of identifying adverse signs and potential risk of asystole in the management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms. Adverse signs indicating haemodynamic compromise include shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. Atropine (500 mcg IV) is the first line treatment in this situation. If there is an unsatisfactory response, interventions such as atropine (up to a maximum of 3mg), transcutaneous pacing, and isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.
Furthermore, the presence of risk factors for asystole such as complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, and ventricular pause > 3 seconds should be considered. Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing. Effective management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms is crucial in preventing further deterioration and improving patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man presents to the GP for a blood pressure review after a clinic reading of 154/100 mmHg. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and COPD, which are managed with inhalers. His home blood pressure readings over the past week have averaged at 140/96 mmHg. What is the initial intervention that should be considered?
Your Answer: No drug treatment required
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetics.
Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus
Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that there was little difference in outcomes between patients who had tight blood pressure control (targets < 130/85 mmHg) and those with more relaxed control (< 140-160/90-100 mmHg), except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke in the former group. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. Further management then follows that of non-diabetic patients. It is important to note that autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. Therefore, the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, particularly when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that started about 30 minutes ago. He mentions having a stressful day at work, but there doesn't seem to be any other obvious trigger. He denies experiencing any chest pain or difficulty breathing. Upon conducting an ECG, a regular tachycardia of 180 bpm with a QRS duration of 0.10s is observed. His blood pressure is 106/70 mmHg, and his oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Despite performing the Valsalva manoeuvre, there is no effect on the rhythm. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Electrical cardioversion
Correct Answer: Intravenous adenosine
Explanation:In cases of haemodynamically stable patients with SVT who do not respond to vagal manoeuvres, the recommended course of action is to administer adenosine.
Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia
Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that originates above the ventricles. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.
When it comes to acute management, vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is another option.
To prevent episodes of SVT, beta-blockers can be used. Radio-frequency ablation is also an option. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.
Overall, understanding SVT and its management options can help individuals with this condition better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review. His blood pressure is measured at 184/72 and this is verified twice. What would be the most suitable initial treatment?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Correct Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:According to the 2011 NICE guidelines, the treatment for isolated systolic hypertension should be the same as that for standard hypertension, with calcium channel blockers being the preferred first-line medication for this age group.
Understanding Isolated Systolic Hypertension
Isolated systolic hypertension (ISH) is a common condition among the elderly, affecting approximately 50% of individuals over the age of 70. The Systolic Hypertension in the Elderly Program (SHEP) conducted in 1991 found that treating ISH can reduce the risk of strokes and ischaemic heart disease. The first line of treatment for ISH was thiazides. However, the 2011 NICE guidelines recommend treating ISH in the same stepwise manner as standard hypertension, which contradicts the previous approach.
It is important to understand ISH as it is a prevalent condition among the elderly population. The SHEP study showed that treating ISH can significantly reduce the risk of serious health complications. However, the recommended approach to treating ISH has changed over time, with the 2011 NICE guidelines suggesting a different method than the previous recommendation of using thiazides as the first line of treatment. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to stay up-to-date with the latest guidelines to provide the best possible care for patients with ISH.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 43
Correct
-
A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of feeling tired and having palpitations for the last few days. Upon examination, his pulse is irregularly irregular and beats at a rate of 123 bpm. His blood pressure is 128/78 mmHg and his chest is clear. An ECG confirms that he has atrial fibrillation. What medication should be prescribed to manage his heart rate?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:When considering a rate control strategy for atrial fibrillation, factors such as age and symptoms should be taken into account. According to NICE guidelines, beta-blockers or rate limiting calcium channel blockers (excluding amlodipine) are preferable options.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend that patients presenting with AF should be assessed for haemodynamic instability, and if present, electrically cardioverted. For haemodynamically stable patients, the management depends on how acute the AF is. If the AF has been present for less than 48 hours, rate or rhythm control may be considered. However, if it has been present for 48 hours or more, or the onset is uncertain, rate control is recommended. If long-term rhythm control is being considered, cardioversion should be delayed until the patient has been maintained on therapeutic anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.
Rate control is the first-line treatment strategy for AF, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin can be used to control the heart rate. However, digoxin is no longer considered first-line as it is less effective at controlling the heart rate during exercise. Rhythm control agents such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone can be used to maintain sinus rhythm in patients with a history of AF. Catheter ablation is recommended for those who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication.
The aim of catheter ablation is to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that are causing AF. The procedure is performed percutaneously, typically via the groin, and can use radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the tissue. Anticoagulation should be used 4 weeks before and during the procedure. It is important to note that catheter ablation controls the rhythm but does not reduce the stroke risk, so patients still require anticoagulation as per their CHA2DS2-VASc score. Complications of catheter ablation can include cardiac tamponade, stroke, and pulmonary vein stenosis. The success rate of the procedure is around 50% for early recurrence within 3 months, and around 55% of patients who’ve had a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm after 3 years. Of patients who’ve undergone multiple procedures, around 80% are in sinus rhythm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 44
Correct
-
A 48-year-old man comes back to the clinic for a blood pressure check following an increase in his ramipril dosage. During the check, his blood pressure is recorded as 152/96 mmHg, and he reports getting similar readings on his home monitor. Which medication would be the most suitable to initiate for this patient?
Your Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:If a patient in this age group has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor (or angiotensin II receptor blocker), the next step is to consider adding a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, adding a calcium channel blocker would be the appropriate choice. Beta blockers are not recommended in the NICE guidelines for hypertension management. While a thiazide-like diuretic could also be an option, furosemide, a loop diuretic, is not suitable. It is important to note that adding another ACE inhibitor is not recommended since the patient is already taking one.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man presents with central chest pain that has been ongoing for 2 hours. The pain is radiating to his left arm. He has a medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia.
Upon examination, the patient appears uncomfortable and sweaty. His vital signs are as follows:
- Heart rate: 90 bpm
- Respiratory rate: 20 breaths/min
- Peripheral oxygen saturation: 95% on room air
- Blood pressure: 136/78 mmHg
- Temperature: 37.0ºC
An ECG performed by the paramedics shows ST depression in leads II, III, and aVF, as well as T-wave inversion.
What is the immediate treatment that should be given?Your Answer: Aspirin, nitrate, morphine, oxygen
Correct Answer: Aspirin, nitrate, morphine
Explanation:The appropriate combination in this scenario is aspirin, nitrate, and morphine. The addition of oxygen is not necessary and may even be inappropriate. Ramipril and bisoprolol are not recommended for acute treatment but may be used for long-term management of ACS. Therefore, aspirin, nitrate, and oxygen is an incorrect combination, and morphine should also be included due to the patient’s significant pain. Oxygen should not be administered as the patient’s oxygen saturation levels are already adequate.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 46
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man presents to you after experiencing a heart attack 4 weeks ago. He has been prescribed ramipril, bisoprolol, aspirin, and clopidogrel following the event. Although he was offered a statin, he declined it at the time, feeling that he was being asked to take too many medications simultaneously. He has since read about the advantages of being on a statin and wishes to begin statin therapy. What is the appropriate statin for this patient to start on?
Your Answer: Atorvastatin 80mg
Explanation:For primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, a dosage of 20mg of atorvastatin is recommended. However, for secondary prevention, a higher dosage of 80 mg is recommended.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of a dry cough that has been going on for 3 weeks. He reports no chest pain or shortness of breath, and has not experienced any unexplained weight loss. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus that is managed through lifestyle and diet, and was recently diagnosed with hypertension and started on lisinopril. He is a non-smoker and drinks 6 units of alcohol per week. What is the best course of action for his treatment?
Your Answer: Stop lisinopril and start amlodipine
Correct Answer: Stop lisinopril and start irbesartan
Explanation:When a patient cannot tolerate taking ACE inhibitors, such as lisinopril, an angiotensin-receptor blocker (ARB) should be offered as an alternative, according to NICE guidelines. This is particularly relevant for patients with a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, as an ACE inhibitor is preferred due to its renal protective and antihypertensive properties. In this case, the patient is likely experiencing a dry cough as a side effect of lisinopril use, which is a common issue with ACE inhibitors. To address this, stopping lisinopril and starting irbesartan is the correct course of action. Unlike ACE inhibitors, ARBs do not cause a buildup of bradykinin in the lungs, which is responsible for the dry cough. It is important to note that reassurance alone is not sufficient, as the dry cough will not settle with time. Additionally, arranging a skin prick allergy test is unnecessary, as the patient is not allergic to lisinopril. While amlodipine may be considered as a second-line treatment option, NICE recommends switching to an ARB first.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
You are on-call and reviewing a potassium result. The patient's details are as follows:
Na+ 141 mmol/l
K+ 6.4 mmol/l
Bicarbonate 16 mmol/l
Urea 13.1 mmol/l
Creatinine 195 µmol/l
You are uncertain about administering calcium gluconate and decide to seek advice from your senior. She advises you to only give calcium gluconate if there are ECG changes. What ECG changes are most indicative of hyperkalaemia in a patient who is 60 years old?Your Answer: U waves
Correct Answer: Widening of the QRS complex
Explanation:ECG characteristics of hypokalaemia include a prolonged QT interval, prolonged PR interval, and the presence of U waves.
Understanding Hyperkalaemia: Causes and Symptoms
Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. The regulation of plasma potassium levels is influenced by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When metabolic acidosis occurs, hyperkalaemia may develop as hydrogen and potassium ions compete for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. ECG changes that may be observed in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.
There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Certain drugs such as potassium-sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin can also cause hyperkalaemia. It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. On the other hand, beta-agonists like Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment.
Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes. It is essential to monitor potassium levels in the blood to prevent complications associated with hyperkalaemia. If left untreated, hyperkalaemia can lead to serious health problems such as cardiac arrhythmias and even death.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 49
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (on echo) has a blood pressure (BP) of 160/95 mmHg. She is currently on lisinopril (maximum doses).
Which of the following new agents would you add in?Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Medications for Heart Failure: Benefits and Guidelines
Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management through medications. Among the drugs commonly used are bisoprolol, bendroflumethiazide, clopidogrel, spironolactone, and diltiazem.
Bisoprolol and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor are recommended for all heart failure patients as they have been shown to reduce mortality. Bendroflumethiazide and loop diuretics like furosemide can help alleviate symptoms but do not have a mortality benefit. Clopidogrel, on the other hand, is not indicated for heart failure but is used for vascular diseases like NSTEMI and stroke.
Spironolactone is recommended for patients who remain symptomatic despite treatment with an ACE inhibitor and a b blocker. It is also beneficial for those with left ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD) after a myocardial infarction (MI). However, diltiazem should be avoided in heart failure patients.
According to NICE guidelines, b blockers and ACE inhibitors should be given to all LVSD patients unless contraindicated. Spironolactone can be added if symptoms persist. Proper medication management is crucial in improving outcomes for heart failure patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 50
Correct
-
A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic heart failure due to ischaemic cardiomyopathy is being evaluated. He was discharged from the hospital two weeks ago after experiencing a heart attack. An echocardiogram conducted during his hospitalization revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%, but no valve issues were identified.
Despite his current regimen of furosemide, ramipril, carvedilol, aspirin, and simvastatin, he continues to experience shortness of breath with minimal exertion, such as walking 30 meters. On examination, his chest is clear, and there is only slight peripheral edema. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?Your Answer: Add an aldosterone antagonist
Explanation:The 2010 NICE guidelines have been revised to recommend the use of both angiotensin-2 receptor blockers and hydralazine in combination with a nitrate as second-line treatments for heart failure, in addition to aldosterone antagonists. However, considering the patient’s recent myocardial infarction, the most appropriate option would be an aldosterone antagonist, as per the NICE guidelines. For further information, please refer to the guidelines.
Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)