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Question 1
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue that has lasted for 2 months. She has been consuming approximately 20 units of alcohol per week for the past decade. Her blood test reveals the following results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 98 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 126 fl 82–100 fl
What is the most probable cause of her anaemia based on these blood results?Your Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Causes of Macrocytic and Microcytic Anaemia
Anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or haemoglobin in the blood. Macrocytic anaemia is a type of anaemia where the red blood cells are larger than normal, while microcytic anaemia is a type where the red blood cells are smaller than normal. Here are some of the causes of macrocytic and microcytic anaemia:
Alcohol Excess: Alcohol toxicity can directly affect the bone marrow, leading to macrocytic anaemia. Additionally, alcoholism can cause poor nutrition and vitamin B12 deficiency, which can also lead to macrocytosis.
Congenital Sideroblastic Anaemia: This is a rare genetic disorder that produces ringed sideroblasts instead of normal erythrocytes, leading to microcytic anaemia.
Iron Deficiency: Iron deficiency is a common cause of anaemia, especially in women. However, it causes microcytic anaemia, not macrocytic anaemia.
Blood Loss from Menses: Chronic blood loss due to menorrhagia can result in microcytic iron deficiency anaemia. However, this is a physiological process and would not cause macrocytic anaemia.
Thalassemia: Thalassaemia is a genetic disorder that leads to abnormal or low haemoglobin, resulting in microcytic anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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The risk of contracting a viral infection through a blood transfusion can vary greatly. What is the estimated risk of hepatitis B transmission in the United Kingdom, for instance?
Your Answer: 1 per 10 million donations
Correct Answer: 1 per 1 million donations
Explanation:Infective Risks of Blood Transfusion
Blood transfusions carry the risk of transmitting viral infections such as hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV. The likelihood of infection varies depending on the source of the donation and the type of testing used. In the UK, the risk of contracting hepatitis B from a blood transfusion is approximately 1 in 1.3 million donations. The risks for HIV and hepatitis C are even lower, at 1 in 6.5 million and 1 in 28 million donations, respectively. It is important for healthcare professionals to have a comprehensive of these risks when obtaining consent from patients for blood transfusions. Adequate knowledge and communication can help patients make informed decisions about their healthcare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male patient complained of frequent nosebleeds and was diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. During a chest x-ray, a shadow was detected over the right lung base, and a bruit was heard upon auscultation in the same area. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Correct Answer: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
Explanation:Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia
Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia is a genetic disorder that causes bleeding from small blood vessels called telangiectasia on mucous membranes such as the nose, mouth, and gastrointestinal tract. This condition is characterised by the presence of telangiectasia on the skin, which can be seen during clinical examination. In some cases, arteriovenous malformations may also be present in the lung or brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents with a history of easy bruising and excessive bleeding after a dental procedure. She is diagnosed with von Willebrand's disease and is scheduled for additional dental extractions. The physician prescribes DDAVP. What is the mechanism of action of DDAVP in treating von Willebrand's disease?
Your Answer: Inhibits breakdown of von Willebrand's factor
Correct Answer: Stimulates release of von Willebrand's factor from endothelial cells
Explanation:DDAVP for Increasing von Willebrand Factor
DDAVP is a medication that can be administered to increase the amount of von Willebrand factor in the body, which is necessary for surgical or dental procedures. This medication can increase plasma von Willebrand factor and factor VIII concentrations by two to five times. The mechanism of action involves the induction of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)-mediated vWF secretion through a direct effect on endothelial cells. Overall, DDAVP is a useful tool for increasing von Willebrand factor levels in the body, allowing for safer and more successful surgical and dental procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He also notes he has been bruising more easily of late. He is noted to be in sinus tachycardia but otherwise is haemodynamically stable. Examination reveals conjunctival pallor and hepatosplenomegaly. No definite lymphadenopathy is palpable. A full blood count is performed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 69 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 0.7 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets 14 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Blood film is reported as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped erythrocytes. A bone marrow aspirate is attempted, but this is unsuccessful.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
Correct Answer: Myelofibrosis
Explanation:Understanding Myelofibrosis: A Comparison with Other Bone Marrow Disorders
Myelofibrosis is a rare disorder that primarily affects older patients. It is characterized by bone marrow failure, which can also be found in other diseases such as advanced prostate cancer, acute lymphoblastic leukemia, acute myelocytic leukemia, and chronic myeloid leukemia. However, myelofibrosis can be distinguished from these other disorders by specific diagnostic clues.
One of the key diagnostic features of myelofibrosis is the presence of a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells, which is also seen in advanced prostate cancer. However, in myelofibrosis, a failed bone marrow aspirate, or dry tap, is frequent and a bone marrow trephine biopsy is needed for diagnosis. This is not the case in other bone marrow disorders.
Myelofibrosis is caused by the proliferation of megakaryocytes, which leads to intense bone marrow fibrosis, marrow failure, and secondary hepatosplenomegaly due to extramedullary hematopoiesis. Patients may present with systemic upset, symptoms of marrow failure, or abdominal discomfort from hepatosplenomegaly. Treatment is supportive, with bone marrow transplant reserved for younger patients. The median survival is 4-5 years, and transformation to acute myeloid leukemia is relatively common.
In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukemia is a disease of childhood that presents with elevated white cell count and blasts on peripheral blood film. Acute myelocytic leukemia and chronic myeloid leukemia both present with raised white cell counts and blasts on blood film, but are more common in younger patients. Advanced prostate cancer may cause bone marrow failure if there is replacement of enough bone marrow by metastases, but patients would also complain of bone pain.
In summary, while bone marrow failure may be found in various diseases, specific diagnostic clues such as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells and a failed bone marrow aspirate can help distinguish myelofibrosis from other bone marrow disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Correct
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In a 71-year-old man who is asymptomatic and attending clinic for an annual review, a full blood count result shows a mild lymphocytosis of 15 × 109/l with a few smear cells. What is the most crucial investigation to determine a diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)?
Your Answer: Peripheral blood flow cytometry
Explanation:Diagnosis and Staging of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) can be diagnosed through flow cytometry, which shows a specific pattern of monoclonal B cell proliferation. This pattern includes CD19/5 coexpressing, CD23 positive, and light chain restricted B cell population. However, smear cells, which are fragile lymphocytes that are smeared on the glass slide, can also be present in other lymphoproliferative disorders and benign lymphocytosis. Therefore, they do not necessarily indicate CLL.
While CT scan and LDH are not essential for diagnosis, they are necessary for staging CLL. These investigations help determine the extent of the disease and the organs affected. Additionally, cervical lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes in the neck, may be present in CLL. However, it can also be seen in other causes of lymphadenopathy, such as viral infections or adenopathy secondary to local dental infection.
In summary, flow cytometry is a crucial tool in diagnosing CLL, while CT scan and LDH are necessary for staging. Smear cells may be present but do not necessarily indicate CLL, and cervical lymphadenopathy can be seen in various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 45-year-old patient presents with the following full blood count (FBC) result: Hb 105 g/L (130-180), RBC 4.5 ×1012/L, Hct 0.353 (0.4-0.52), MCV 75 fL (80-96), MCH 32.5 pg (28-32), Platelets 325 ×109/L (150-400), WBC 7.91 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 6.15 ×109/L (1.5-7.0), Lymphocytes 1.54 ×109/L (1.5-4.0), Monocytes 0.33 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.16 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), Basophils 0.08 ×109/L (0-0.1), Others 0.14 ×109/L. What would be the most appropriate initial investigation for this FBC result?
Your Answer: Ferritin concentration
Explanation:Interpretation of FBC Results
When analyzing a full blood count (FBC), a microcytosis with low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and anaemia (low Hb) is indicative of iron deficiency anaemia. To confirm this, a ferritin test should be requested, followed by an investigation into the source of blood loss if iron deficiency is confirmed. If faecal occult blood is positive, an endoscopy may be necessary. On the other hand, macrocytic anaemia with elevated MCV is caused by folate and B12 deficiency, while hypothyroidism is associated with elevated MCV. While a bone marrow biopsy can also show iron deficiency, it is an invasive procedure and is not necessary in a primary care setting. Therefore, interpreting FBC results requires a thorough of the different types of anaemia and their associated causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner after suffering from several miscarriages and is afraid her husband will leave her. The patient gave the history of bruising even with minor injuries and several spontaneous miscarriages. On examination, the patient is noted to have a rash in a butterfly distribution on the nose and cheeks. Tests reveal 1+ proteinuria only.
What is the most likely cause of her main concern?Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS)
Explanation:Understanding Antiphospholipid Syndrome (APLS) and its Link to Recurrent Spontaneous Abortions
When a young woman experiences multiple spontaneous abortions, it may indicate an underlying disorder. One possible cause is antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS), a hypercoagulable state with autoantibodies against phospholipid components. This disorder can lead to recurrent spontaneous abortions during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, and approximately 9% of APLS patients also have renal abnormalities.
Other potential causes of recurrent spontaneous abortions include poorly controlled diabetes, nephritic syndrome, dermatomyositis, and anatomic defects like a bicornuate uterus. However, the examination and test results in this case suggest a systemic etiology, making APLS a strong possibility.
Diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which can also cause nephritic or nephrotic syndrome, requires meeting at least 4 out of 11 criteria established by the American Rheumatism Association (ARA).
Understanding these potential causes and their links to recurrent spontaneous abortions can help healthcare providers identify and treat underlying disorders in women of reproductive age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with melaena and an INR of 8. He is currently taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, as well as antihypertensive medication and cholesterol-lowering agents. He recently received antibiotics from his GP for a cough. Which medication is the likely culprit for his elevated INR?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Medications that Interfere with Warfarin and Increase INR
Certain medications can affect the duration of warfarin’s effects in the body by interfering with the cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver. This can cause the INR to increase or decrease rapidly, making patients who are on a stable warfarin regimen vulnerable. To remember the drugs that inhibit cytochrome P450 and increase the effects of warfarin, the mnemonic O-DEVICES can be helpful.
Omeprazole, disulfiram, erythromycin, valproate, isoniazide, cimetidine and ciprofloxacin, ethanol (acutely), and sulphonamides are the drugs that can interfere with warfarin’s effects. These drugs can increase the INR, which can lead to bleeding complications. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients who are taking warfarin and any of these medications closely to ensure that their INR remains within the therapeutic range. Patients should also inform their healthcare providers of any new medications they are taking to avoid potential interactions with warfarin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Correct
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A middle-aged patient is newly diagnosed with a bleeding disorder after complaining of heavy periods. She presents with a prolonged APTT and bleeding time, but normal indices. The patient reports a family history of bleeding disorders on her mother's side. She denies any prior history of bleeding or bruising after minor surgical procedures. What is the most likely bleeding disorder in this patient?
Your Answer: von Willebrand’s disease
Explanation:The diagnosis in this scenario is von Willebrand’s disease, which is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder caused by a defective von Willebrand factor. This protein plays a crucial role in haemostasis by assisting in platelet adhesion and stabilising coagulation factor VIII. A deficiency in von Willebrand factor prolongs bleeding time and APTT, but does not affect platelet counts or PT. It is more pronounced in women and may present with menorrhagia. Treatment involves administration of recombinant von Willebrand factor. Haemophilia A, Bernard-Soulier syndrome, Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia, and vitamin K deficiency are other bleeding disorders with different causes and blood test results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman who is in hospital for pneumonia begins to deteriorate on her third day of intravenous antibiotics. She develops purple bruises on her skin and on the inside of her mouth, and tells you that she feels short of breath and fatigued. Her platelet count has dropped from 165 × 109/l to 43 × 109/l over the last two days. She also complains of blurred vision in the last few hours.
Which of the following will form part of her initial management?Your Answer: Platelet transfusions
Correct Answer: Plasma exchange
Explanation:Treatment Options for Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment. The most common initial management for TTP is plasma exchange, which aims to remove the antibodies that block the ADAMTS13 enzyme and replace the ADAMTS13 enzymes in the blood. Intravenous methylprednisone and rituximab may also be used in conjunction with plasma exchange.
Aspirin should only be considered when the platelet count is above 50 × 109/l, and even then, it is not an essential part of initial management and will depend on the patient’s comorbidities. Cryoprecipitate is not recommended for TTP treatment, as it is indicated for disseminated intravascular coagulation or fibrinogen deficiency.
Factor VIII infusion is used for haemophilia A, a C-linked-recessive disorder that presents with excessive bleeding and anaemia, and is less likely to be associated with thrombocytopenia and TTP. Platelet transfusions are relatively contraindicated in TTP and should only be considered in cases of catastrophic bleeding or urgent surgery that cannot wait until after plasma exchange. Platelet transfusions increase the risk of arterial thrombosis, which can lead to myocardial infarction and stroke.
In summary, plasma exchange is the most common initial management for TTP, and other treatment options should be carefully considered based on the patient’s individual circumstances. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for a successful outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents with fatigue following his retirement 6 months ago:
Hb 130 g/L (120-160)
RBC 4.5 ×1012/L -
Haematocrit 0.39 (0.36-0.46)
MCV 86.5 fL (80-100)
MCH 28.1 pg (27-32)
Platelets 180 ×109/L (150-400)
WBC 6.5 ×109/L (4-11)
Neutrophils 3.8 ×109/L (2-7)
Lymphocytes 1.9 ×109/L (1-4)
Monocytes 0.5 ×109/L (0.2-1)
Eosinophils 0.2 ×109/L (0-0.5)
Basophils 0.1 ×109/L (0-0.1)
He is brought into the clinic by his wife who is concerned that her husband is constantly tired, has lost interest in his hobbies and has trouble sleeping.
Examination is pretty much normal except that he appears fatigued. There are no abnormalities on chest, abdominal or respiratory examination. Neurological examination is normal.
What is the most likely cause of this blood picture?Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Delayed Grief Reaction and Elevated MCV in a Patient
Explanation:
The patient in question is displaying a delayed grief reaction following the recent death of her husband. Her FBC shows a normal picture except for an elevated MCV, which suggests alcohol excess. If the cause of macrocytosis were folate or B12 deficiency, it would be expected to cause anemia in association with the macrocytosis. Hypothyroidism may also cause macrocytosis, but the patient’s weight loss argues against this diagnosis. For further information on macrocytosis, refer to the BMJ Practice article Macrocytosis: pitfalls in testing and summary of guidance, the BMJ Endgames case report A woman with macrocytic anemia and confusion, and the BMJ Best Practice article Assessment of anemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 13
Correct
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A worried mother brings her 7-year-old son to the Emergency Department as she is concerned about his left knee. The child injured his knee while playing outside, and the knee is now significantly swollen and he is experiencing a lot of pain. The mother mentions that the child bruises easily. The mother herself does not have any such issues, but her sister had similar problems when she was young.
What is the most probable pathophysiologic mechanism responsible for this boy's symptoms?Your Answer: Deficiency of a clotting factor in the intrinsic pathway of coagulation
Explanation:Pathophysiological Mechanisms of Various Medical Conditions
Haemophilia: Deficiency of a Clotting Factor in the Intrinsic Pathway of Coagulation
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive condition that affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. It is caused by a mutation in factor VIII or IX, leading to deficient coagulation. Patients present with excessive bleeding, such as spontaneous bruising, prolonged bleeding following a dental procedure or minor injury, bleeding into the joints (haemarthrosis), and epistaxis. Treatment involves correcting the deficiency with concentrated factor VIII or IX.Von Willebrand’s Disease: Deficiency of a Protein Found in Endothelial Cells and Released by Endothelial Damage
Von Willebrand’s disease is an autosomal dominant, inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of the von Willebrand factor. This protein is found in the endothelial cells lining the vessels and is released following endothelial damage. It promotes adhesion of platelets to the area of damage and stabilizes factor VIII, both actions promoting haemostasis. Symptoms include easy bruising and prolonged bleeding following minimal trauma.Ewing’s Sarcoma: Translocation Between Chromosomes 11 and 22
Ewing’s sarcoma is a malignant bone tumour seen in children and young adults. It is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 11 and 22.Leukaemia: Invasion of Bone Marrow by Leukaemic Cells
Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is caused by the invasion of bone marrow by leukaemic cells, leading to pancytopenia, a condition in which there is a deficiency of all three types of blood cells: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Symptoms include fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, and increased susceptibility to infections. Treatment involves chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and bone marrow transplantation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 14
Correct
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As a part of a haematology rotation, a final-year medical student is asked to give a PowerPoint presentation to the team about a 20-year-old patient who presented with sickle-cell crisis.
With regard to sickle-cell disease, which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer: Aplastic crisis can be precipitated by parvovirus B19
Explanation:Understanding Aplastic Crisis and Sickle-Cell Disease
Aplastic crisis is a condition of transient bone marrow failure that can be precipitated by parvovirus B19, Epstein–Barr virus (EBV), or Streptococcus. In sickle-cell disease, aplastic crisis is usually caused by parvovirus B19 and is characterized by reticulocytopenia, symptomatic anemia, and the presence of parvovirus immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies. It is managed by monitoring and symptomatic relief with blood transfusion until normal erythrocyte function returns. Aplastic crisis is most common in individuals of Mediterranean descent.
Sickle-cell disease is most common in individuals of Black Afro-Caribbean descent and, to a lesser extent, in individuals of Mediterranean or Middle Eastern descent. It occurs as a result of the production of an abnormal beta (β) chain in haemoglobin, caused by a mutation that changes adenine to thymine in the sixth codon of the β chain gene. This results in the formation of HbS, which circulates in the blood and forms polymers in the deoxygenated state, causing sickling of red blood cells. The resulting blood film shows elongated, thin, sickled red blood cells, target cells, and Howell–Jolly bodies.
Splenomegaly is most usually seen in childhood, as most children with sickle-cell disease have a splenic infarction event in late childhood and develop hyposplenism. Spherocytes, on the other hand, are abnormal red blood cells with a spherical shape, seen on the blood film of spherocytosis, a form of haemolytic anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 45-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to the Emergency Department with acute severe chest pain, fever and a cough, which he has had for five days. Examination revealed signs of jaundice and the spleen was not big enough to be palpable.
You take some basic observations:
Temperature: 38 °C
Respiratory rate: 26 breaths/min
O2 saturation: 86%
Heart rate: 134 bpm (regular)
Blood pressure (lying): 134/86 mmHg
Blood pressure (standing): 132/90 mmHg
His initial investigation findings are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal
White cell count (WCC) 13.8 × 109/l 4–11.0 × 109/l
Neutrophils 7000 × 106/l 3000–5800 × 106/l
Lymphocytes 2000 × 106/l 1500–3000 × 106/l
Haemoglobin (Hb) 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 110 fl 76–98 fl
Platelets 300 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Troponin l 0.01 ng/ml < 0.1 ng/ml
D-dimer 0.03 μg/ml < 0.05 μg/ml
Arterial blood gas (ABG) showed type 1 respiratory failure with a normal pH. Chest X-ray showed left lower lobe consolidation.
The patient was treated successfully and is due for discharge tomorrow.
Upon speaking to the patient, he reveals that he has suffered two similar episodes this year.
Given the likely diagnosis, what medication should the patient be started on to reduce the risk of further episodes?Your Answer: Hydroxycarbamide (hydroxyurea)
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Sickle Cell Disease and Acute Chest Pain Crisis
A patient with sickle cell disease is experiencing an acute chest pain crisis, likely due to a lower respiratory tract infection. Hydroxycarbamide is recommended as a preventative therapy to reduce the risk of future crises by increasing the amount of fetal hemoglobin and reducing the percentage of red cells with hemoglobin S. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is not necessary as the patient has a raised white blood cell count. Inhaled beclomethasone is not appropriate as asthma or COPD are not likely diagnoses in this case. Oral prednisolone may be used as a preventative therapy for severe asthma, but is not recommended for COPD and is not appropriate for this patient’s symptoms. A tuberculosis (TB) vaccination may be considered for primary prevention, but would not be useful for someone who has already been infected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 16
Correct
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A patient on the ward receiving a blood transfusion after knee replacement surgery is noted to have rigors.
On examination, their temperature is 39°C (baseline 36.5°C). They also complain of abdominal pain and their blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg (baseline 126/84 mmHg).
What is the next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Stop the transfusion immediately and commence IV fluids
Explanation:Management of Acute Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction
When a patient experiences a temperature rise of more than 2°C, abdominal pain, and hypotension after a blood transfusion, an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction should be suspected. In such cases, the transfusion must be stopped immediately, and the set should be taken down. Saline infusion should be initiated to maintain the patient’s blood pressure.
The blood bank should be notified of the suspected reaction, and a sample may need to be collected for further investigation. However, the priority is to manage the patient’s symptoms and prevent further complications. If the reaction is severe, the transfusion should not be continued.
In summary, prompt recognition and management of acute haemolytic transfusion reactions are crucial to prevent serious complications. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in monitoring patients who receive blood transfusions and act quickly if any adverse reactions occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl presents with purpura following a recent upper respiratory infection. Upon examination, her platelet count is found to be 20 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400) and a bone marrow examination reveals megakaryocyte hyperplasia. What is the correct statement regarding her condition?
Your Answer: A spontaneous remission is likely
Explanation:Treatment and Prognosis of Acute Temporary Thrombocytopenic Purpura
Acute temporary thrombocytopenic purpura is a condition that often occurs after a viral infection. Fortunately, 85% of children with this condition will recover within a year. Platelet transfusions are not helpful unless there is active bleeding or surgery is necessary. Instead, treatment typically involves immune suppression with medications like prednisolone or intravenous immune globulin infusions. The clotting time remains normal because the coagulation factors are not affected. However, detecting antiplatelet antibodies can be challenging with many assays. While splenectomy may be an option in some cases, it is not recommended early in the disease as it may resolve on its own within a year. Overall, with proper treatment and monitoring, most children with acute temporary thrombocytopenic purpura can expect a positive outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic with a four-month history of abdominal swelling and discomfort along with breathlessness. Upon examination, he appears unwell and pale. The liver is palpable 12 cm below the right costal margin, and the spleen is palpable 15 cm below the left costal margin. No lymphadenopathy is detected. The following investigations were conducted:
Hb 59 g/L (130-180)
RBC 2.1 ×1012/L -
PCV 0.17 l/l -
MCH 30 pg (28-32)
MCV 82 fL (80-96)
Reticulocytes 1.4% (0.5-2.4)
Total WBC 23 ×109/L (4-11)
Normoblasts 8% -
Platelets 280 ×109/L (150-400)
Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7)
Lymphocytes 5.2 ×109/L (1.5-4)
Monocytes 1.3 ×109/L (0-0.8)
Eosinophils 0.2 ×109/L (0.04-0.4)
Basophils 0.2 ×109/L (0-0.1)
Metamyelocytes 5.1 ×109/L -
Myelocytes 1.6 ×109/L -
Blast cells 0.4 ×109/L -
The blood film shows anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, and occasional erythrocyte tear drop cells. What is the correct term for this blood picture?Your Answer: Myeloid leukaemia
Correct Answer: Leukoerythroblastic anaemia
Explanation:Leukoerythroblastic Reactions and Myelofibrosis
Leukoerythroblastic reactions refer to a condition where the peripheral blood contains immature white cells and nucleated red cells, regardless of the total white cell count. This means that even if the overall white cell count is normal, the presence of immature white cells and nucleated red cells can indicate a leukoerythroblastic reaction. Additionally, circulating blasts may also be seen in this condition.
On the other hand, myelofibrosis is characterized by the presence of tear drop cells. These cells are not typically seen in other conditions and are therefore considered a hallmark of myelofibrosis. Tear drop cells are red blood cells that have been distorted due to the presence of fibrous tissue in the bone marrow. This condition can lead to anemia, fatigue, and other symptoms.
Overall, both leukoerythroblastic reactions and myelofibrosis are conditions that can be identified through specific characteristics in the peripheral blood. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these findings in order to properly diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male presents with macrocytic anaemia and a megaloblastic bone marrow. What is the most probable cause of his macrocytosis?
Your Answer: Alcohol
Correct Answer: Folate deficiency
Explanation:Megaloblastic Bone Marrow and Its Causes
A megaloblastic bone marrow is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, as well as some cytotoxic drugs. This condition is characterized by the presence of large, immature red blood cells in the bone marrow. However, other causes of macrocytosis, which is the presence of abnormally large red blood cells in the bloodstream, do not result in a megaloblastic bone marrow appearance. It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytosis to determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 20
Correct
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A plasma donor on a continuous flow separator machine experiences light headedness, muscle cramps, and circumoral paraesthesia. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Investigate and treat citrate toxicity
Explanation:Citrate Toxicity and Hypocalcaemia in Apheresis Patients
This patient is experiencing symptoms of citrate toxicity, which has led to hypocalcaemia. While it is possible for haemorrhage to occur at the site of venepuncture or venous access, this is typically easy to identify through clinical examination. Sepsis is an uncommon occurrence if proper aseptic precautions have been taken, and the symptoms described here are not indicative of an infection. Immediate treatment is necessary, and this can be achieved by slowing or stopping the apheresis process. Treatment options include the administration of oral or intravenous calcium replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 21
Correct
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These results were obtained on a 65-year-old male:
Hb 110 g/L (120-170)
RBC 4.8 ×1012/L (4.2-5.8)
Hct 0.365 (0.37-0.49)
MCV 75 fL (82-98)
MCH 33.2 pg (28-33)
Platelets 310 ×109/L (140-450)
WBC 8.21 ×109/L (4.5-11)
Neutrophils 6.45 ×109/L (1.8-7.5)
Lymphocytes 1.23 ×109/L (1.0-4.5)
Monocytes 0.28 ×109/L (0-0.8)
Eosinophils 0.18 ×109/L (0.02-0.5)
Basophils 0.09 ×109/L (0-0.1)
Others 0.18 ×109/L -
What could be the possible reason for these FBC results in a 65-year-old male?Your Answer: Gastrointestinal blood loss
Explanation:Microcytic Anaemia in a 63-Year-Old Female
A Full Blood Count (FBC) analysis has revealed that a 63-year-old female is suffering from microcytic anaemia, which is characterized by low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and low haemoglobin (Hb) levels. This type of anaemia is typically caused by iron deficiency, which is often the result of blood loss. However, in this case, menorrhagia can be ruled out as the patient is postmenopausal. Therefore, the most likely cause of the microcytic anaemia is peptic ulceration. It is important to note that pernicious anaemia or folate deficiency can cause macrocytosis, which is characterized by elevated MCV levels. Proper diagnosis and treatment are necessary to address the underlying cause of the microcytic anaemia and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 68-year-old man who has been diagnosed with severe Gram-positive sepsis is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU). However, he is starting to deteriorate despite being on the Sepsis Six Bundle. He is pyrexial and appears very unwell. On examination:
Investigation Results Normal value
Respiratory rate (RR) 30 breaths/minute 12–18 breaths/minute
Heart rate (HR) 120 bpm 60–100 bpm
Blood pressure (BP) 88/40 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
You noted some bleeding along the cannulation site and on his gums. The coagulation profile showed prolonged prothrombin time, a decrease in fibrinogen level and marked elevation of D-dimer. He has some purpuric rash on his extremities.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the above condition?Your Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
Explanation:Comparison of DIC, von Willebrand’s Disease, Liver Failure, Haemophilia, and Heparin Administration
Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) is a serious complication of severe sepsis that can lead to multiorgan failure and widespread bleeding. It is characterized by high prothrombin time and the use of fibrinogen for widespread clot formation, resulting in high levels of D-dimer due to intense fibrinolytic activity. DIC is a paradoxical state in which the patient is prone to clotting but also to bleeding.
Von Willebrand’s disease is an inherited disorder of coagulation that is usually autosomal dominant. There is insufficient information to suggest that the patient in this case has von Willebrand’s disease.
Liver failure could result in excessive bleeding due to disruption of liver synthetic function, but there is no other information to support liver failure in this case. Signs of hepatic encephalopathy or jaundice would also be expected.
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation that is characterized by prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and normal prothrombin time.
There is no information to suggest that heparin has been administered, and the bleeding time and platelet count would be normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her parents. She is worried about not having started her periods yet, while many of her peers have. Her medical history includes a lack of sense of smell, which she has had since childhood. On examination, she has normal height, early breast development, and minimal secondary sexual hair. Her BMI is 22. What blood test would be most helpful in determining the underlying cause of her amenorrhea?
Your Answer: FSH
Explanation:Kallmann’s Syndrome and its Differential Diagnosis
Anosmia and primary amenorrhoea are two symptoms that may indicate the presence of Kallmann’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by the underdevelopment of the olfactory bulb, which leads to a loss of the sense of smell, and the failure to produce gonadotrophin releasing hormone. As a result, low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinising hormone may cause a partial or complete failure to enter puberty in women.
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, on the other hand, may cause electrolyte imbalances, but it is typically associated with abnormal female virilization. Prolactinoma, a type of pituitary tumor, is usually linked to secondary amenorrhoea. Meanwhile, thyrotoxicosis, a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, may cause menstrual cessation, but it is less likely to be the cause of primary amenorrhoea, especially in the absence of hyperthyroidism symptoms.
In summary, Kallmann’s syndrome should be considered as a possible diagnosis in patients presenting with anosmia and primary amenorrhoea. However, other conditions such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia, prolactinoma, and thyrotoxicosis should also be ruled out through proper evaluation and testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 24
Correct
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A middle-aged woman presents with increasing fatigue and daytime exhaustion that is starting to affect her work as a receptionist. She has been referred to the gynaecology clinic for evaluation of menorrhagia. What results would you anticipate on her complete blood count (CBC)?
Your Answer: Haemoglobin - low, MCV - reduced
Explanation:Interpreting Blood Results for Anaemia: Understanding the Relationship between Haemoglobin and MCV
When interpreting blood results for anaemia, it is important to understand the relationship between haemoglobin and mean corpuscular volume (MCV). A low haemoglobin and reduced MCV may indicate iron deficiency anaemia secondary to menorrhagia, which is a common cause of microcytosis. Treatment for this would involve managing the underlying menorrhagia and supplementing with iron. On the other hand, a low haemoglobin and raised MCV may indicate macrocytic anaemia, commonly associated with vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. It is important to note that a normal haemoglobin with a reduced MCV or a normal haemoglobin and MCV is unlikely in cases of significant symptoms and abnormal bleeding. Understanding these relationships can aid in the diagnosis and management of anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic with complaints of abdominal discomfort and bloating that have been progressively worsening over the past few months. Upon examination, her GP discovered a complex left ovarian cyst. Which blood test would be the most useful in determining if the cyst is cancerous?
Your Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein
Correct Answer: CA125
Explanation:Tumor Markers and Their Association with Different Cancers
Tumor markers are substances that are produced by cancer cells or by normal cells in response to cancer. These markers can be used to detect the presence of cancer, monitor the progress of treatment, and detect the recurrence of cancer. One such tumor marker is CA125, which is associated with ovarian carcinoma. However, elevations in CA125 can also be seen in uterine cancer, pancreas, stomach, and colonic tumors. In some cases, benign ovarian tumors can also cause a rise in CA125 levels. If a patient has a CA125 level of over 200U/ml and an abnormal ultrasound scan, it is highly likely that they have ovarian carcinoma.
Other tumor markers include CA19-9, which is primarily associated with pancreatic tumors, beta-HCG, which is associated with germ cell tumors, alpha-fetoprotein, which is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, and carcinoembryonic antigen, which is associated with colonic carcinoma. While AFP and beta-HCG can rarely be secreted by ovarian tumors, it is important to check CA125 levels first, as they are much more frequently elevated. By monitoring tumor markers, doctors can detect cancer early and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman and her partner visit the clinic due to difficulty conceiving despite having regular sexual intercourse. The woman reports having a 28-day menstrual cycle, maintaining a normal diet, and not engaging in strenuous physical activity. During examination, her blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg, pulse is 68 and regular, and BMI is 24 without abnormalities found in her abdomen. What blood test would be most effective in determining if she is ovulating?
Your Answer: FSH
Correct Answer: Progesterone
Explanation:Hormonal Tests for Ovulation and Pregnancy
In order to determine whether ovulation is occurring in a woman with a regular 28 day cycle, the most useful test is the measurement of day 21 progesterone levels. On the other hand, if a woman suspects she may be pregnant, a urinary pregnancy test can detect the presence of beta HCG hormone.
If a woman is experiencing absent periods and a pregnancy test is negative, measuring prolactin levels may be useful. This is especially true if there are other signs of hyperprolactinaemia, such as milk leakage on nipple stimulation.
It is important to note that oestrogen levels are not helpful in determining whether ovulation is occurring. However, if polycystic ovarian syndrome is suspected, measuring the LH/FSH ratio may be useful. By the different hormonal tests available, women can better monitor their reproductive health and seek appropriate medical attention when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after consuming 30 tablets of warfarin which belonged to her mother. She has diarrhoea but has no mucosal bleeding. She admits to previously attending a psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviour. She has no remarkable medical history. Her mother has a history of recurrent venous thrombosis for which she is taking warfarin.
What will the patient’s coagulation screen likely be?Your Answer: Elevated activated partial thromboplastin time and normal prothrombin time, international normalised ratio, platelet counts
Correct Answer: Elevated prothrombin time, international normalised ratio, activated partial thromboplastin time and normal platelet counts
Explanation:Warfarin poisoning is characterized by elevated prothrombin time (PT), international normalized ratio (INR), and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), along with normal platelet counts. This is due to the drug’s ability to block the function of vitamin K epoxide reductase, leading to a depletion of the reduced form of vitamin K that serves as a cofactor for gamma carboxylation of vitamin-K-dependent coagulation factors. As a result, the vitamin-K-dependent factors cannot function properly, leading to elevated PT and INR, normal or elevated APTT, and normal platelet counts. Thrombocytopenia with normal PT, INR, and APTT can be caused by drugs like methotrexate and carboplatin isotretinoin, which induce direct myelosuppression. Decreased factor VIII levels are seen in haemophilia A, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and von Willebrand disease, but not in warfarin overdose. Isolated APTT elevation is seen in heparin overdose, while elevated fibrinogen levels can be seen in inflammation, acute coronary syndrome, and stroke, but not in warfarin overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Correct
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A young man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, tiredness, and pallor. Upon conducting a full blood count, it is revealed that he has acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Among the following options, which is linked to the poorest prognosis in ALL?
Your Answer: Philadelphia chromosome present
Explanation:Prognostic Factors in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several factors that can affect the prognosis of a patient with ALL. Good prognostic factors include having the FAB L1 type, common ALL, a pre-B phenotype, and a low initial white blood cell count. On the other hand, poor prognostic factors include having the FAB L3 type, B or T cell type, the Philadelphia translocation (t(9;22)), increasing age at diagnosis, male sex, CNS involvement, and a high initial white blood cell count (e.g. > 100).
It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these prognostic factors when diagnosing and treating patients with ALL. By identifying these factors, they can better predict the outcome of the disease and tailor treatment plans accordingly. Patients with good prognostic factors may have a better chance of survival and may require less aggressive treatment, while those with poor prognostic factors may need more intensive therapy. Overall, the prognostic factors in ALL can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with fatigue, pallor and shortness of breath. He has been battling with an indolent colon carcinoma for the past 5 years. He also suffers from insulin-dependent diabetes, hypertension, coronary artery disease and rheumatoid arthritis. He has been feeling unwell for the past few weeks. He denies any history of melaena or haematochezia and has been amenorrhoeic for decades. A bedside stool guaiac test is negative for any blood in the stool. He is well nourished, reports taking daily supplements and is not a vegetarian. He reports that his haematocrit is 0.28 (0.35–0.55) and haemoglobin level 100 g/l (115–155 g/l).
What additional findings would you expect to observe in his full blood count?Your Answer: Increased TIBC
Correct Answer: Increased ferritin
Explanation:Understanding Anaemia of Chronic Disease: Increased Ferritin and Decreased TIBC
Anaemia of chronic disease is a type of anaemia that is commonly seen in patients with chronic inflammatory conditions. It is characterised by a low haemoglobin level and low haematocrit, but unlike iron deficiency anaemia, it is associated with increased ferritin levels and decreased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). This is because ferritin is a serum reactive protein that is elevated in response to the underlying inflammatory process.
Diagnosis of anaemia of chronic disease requires the presence of a chronic inflammatory condition and anaemia, which can be either normocytic or microcytic. It is important to note that a haemoglobin level of <80 g/l is very rarely associated with this type of anaemia. Treatment involves addressing the underlying disorder causing the anaemia and monitoring the haemoglobin level. Blood transfusion is only used in severe cases. It is important to differentiate anaemia of chronic disease from other types of anaemia. For example, it is characterised by a low reticulocyte count, and not reticulocytosis. Serum transferrin receptor is not affected in anaemia of chronic disease and would therefore be normal. Additionally, TIBC is reduced in anaemia of chronic disease, whereas it is increased in iron deficiency anaemia. Finally, anaemia of chronic disease is associated with either microcytosis or normocytosis, whereas macrocytosis is associated with other types of anaemia such as folate deficiency, vitamin B12 deficiency, alcohol excess, and myelodysplastic disease. In summary, understanding the unique features of anaemia of chronic disease, such as increased ferritin and decreased TIBC, can aid in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura presents with a leg ulcer which needs debridement. His platelet counts are 15 ×109/l. His blood sugars are poorly controlled and he has been started on a sliding scale insulin. He has previously responded to steroids and immunoglobulin infusions.
What is the recommended product to increase platelet counts to a safe level for debridement surgery in a diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura who has previously responded to steroids and immunoglobulin infusions and has poorly controlled blood sugars, and is slightly older?Your Answer: Prothrombin concentrates
Correct Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin
Explanation:Treatment options for ITP patients
Intravenous immunoglobulin is the preferred treatment for patients with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) who also have diabetes. Steroids may be used as a trial treatment if the patient does not have any contraindications for steroid-related complications. Platelets are not typically effective in raising platelet counts in ITP patients because they are destroyed by the antibodies. However, they may be used in emergency situations to treat major bleeding. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the individual patient’s medical history and current condition when selecting a treatment plan for ITP. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of haematuria. He has a history of chronic atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin. His blood tests reveal a Hb level of 112g/L and an INR of 9, but he is stable hemodynamically. The consulting physician recommends reversing the effects of warfarin. What blood product/s would be the most appropriate choice for this patient?
Your Answer: Prothrombin concentrate ('Octaplex')
Explanation:Treatment Options for Warfarin Reversal
Prothrombin concentrates are the preferred treatment for reversing the effects of warfarin in cases of active bleeding and a significantly elevated INR. While packed cells are important for managing severe bleeding, they are not the recommended treatment for warfarin reversal. Cryoprecipitate, recombinant factor VII, and platelets are also not indicated for reversing the effects of warfarin. It is important to choose the appropriate treatment option based on the patient’s individual needs and medical history. Proper management of warfarin reversal can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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What is true regarding the production of pooled plasma derivatives?
Your Answer: These products have a short half life, typically days
Correct Answer: The end product is a freeze dried product
Explanation:Preparation of Plasma Derivatives
The preparation of plasma derivatives, such as factor VIII, involves pooling several thousand plasma donations, typically 20,000 or 5,000 kg of plasma at a time. To avoid the risk of vCJD, pooled plasma has been sourced from outside the UK since 1999. The process includes several chemical steps, including ethanol extraction, chromatography, and viral inactivation, resulting in a freeze-dried product. These products have a long shelf life of several months to years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl with known sickle-cell disease presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain.
On examination, she is found to have a tachycardia of 130 bpm, with generalised abdominal tenderness and 3 cm splenomegaly. Blood tests reveal marked anaemia, and a diagnosis of splenic sequestration crisis is considered.
Which blood vessel in the spleen is most responsible for monitoring the quality of red blood cells and removing aged ones from circulation?Your Answer: Trabecular artery
Correct Answer: Splenic sinusoid
Explanation:The Anatomy of the Spleen: Splenic Sinusoids, Trabecular Veins, Arteries, and Sheathed Capillaries
The spleen is an important organ in the immune system, responsible for filtering blood and removing old or damaged red blood cells. Its unique anatomy allows it to perform this function effectively.
One key component of the spleen is the splenic sinusoid. These sinusoids are lined with elongated, cuboidal endothelial cells that are closely associated with macrophages. The gaps between the endothelial cells and incomplete basement membrane allow for the passage of red blood cells, with younger and more deformable cells passing through easily while older or abnormal cells are more readily destroyed by the macrophages.
The trabecular veins receive blood from the splenic sinusoids, while the trabecular arteries are branches of the afferent splenic artery. These arteries pass deep into the spleen along connective tissue trabeculae and branch into central arteries that pass through the white pulp of the spleen.
The central arteries then lead to sheathed capillaries, which are branches of the central arteries. These capillaries open directly into the red pulp of the spleen, allowing for further filtration and removal of old or damaged red blood cells.
Overall, the anatomy of the spleen is complex and specialized, allowing it to perform its important functions in the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 34
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 5-month history of night sweats and weight loss. He has no history of cough, shortness of breath or foreign travel. He denies any back or joint pain. He is normally fit and well, except for high blood pressure for which he takes enalapril. He continues to drink ten units of alcohol per week.
On examination, he is noted to have cervical and groin lymphadenopathy, with an enlarged spleen. The remainder of the examination and observations are normal.
Which of the following is most likely to be used in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Rituximab
Explanation:The patient in question is displaying symptoms of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, including night sweats, weight loss, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. While other symptoms may include pruritus, fever, and shortness of breath, the most common treatment for progressive non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a combination chemotherapy called R-CHOP, which includes rituximab. Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody used for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis. The other options, including infliximab, lenalidomide, radiotherapy, and rifampicin, are used for different conditions such as Crohn’s disease, multiple myeloma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and tuberculosis, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with progressive weakness in his right upper limb and both lower limbs over the past four months. He has also developed digital infarcts affecting the second and third fingers on the right hand and the fifth finger on the left. On examination, his blood pressure is 160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral pulses are palpable, and there is an asymmetrical neuropathy. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 120 g/L (130-170), a white cell count of 12.5 ×109/L (4-10), a platelet count of 430 ×109/L (150-450), and an ESR of 50 mm/hr (0-15). Urine examination shows proteinuria and 10-15 red blood cells per high power field without casts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Correct Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa
Explanation:Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a systemic disease that affects small or medium-sized arteries in various organs, leading to a wide range of symptoms such as nerve damage, skin issues, joint and muscle pain, kidney problems, and heart issues. Laboratory findings include anemia, increased white blood cells and platelets, and elevated inflammatory markers. ANCA testing can help differentiate PAN from other vasculitis diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man presented with weakness and fatigue. On examination, he was emaciated with a body weight of 40 kg. Blood tests revealed abnormalities including low haemoglobin, low MCV, low MCH, high platelet count, low albumin, and low calcium. His peripheral blood showed Howell-Jolly bodies. To which department should this patient be referred?
Your Answer: Haematology Department
Correct Answer: Gastroenterology Department
Explanation:Specialty Departments and Diagnosis of Coeliac Disease
The patient presents with microcytic, hypochromic anaemia, Howell-Jolly bodies, and splenic dysfunction, along with low albumin and calcium suggestive of malabsorption and emaciation. The most likely diagnosis is coeliac disease, which can be confirmed by antibody tests and a duodenal biopsy in the Gastroenterology department. Haematology can investigate the abnormal blood count, but treatment is not within their scope. Chronic kidney or liver disease is less likely, and there are no neurological symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man was admitted with pain in the left groin. He had fallen from his chair, after which the pain started. He was unable to walk and his left leg was externally rotated. X-rays revealed a neck of femur fracture. He lives alone in a flat and is a vegetarian. His past medical history includes shortness of breath, body itching and occasional swelling of legs. His blood tests revealed:
Investigation Result Normal range
Haemoglobin 120 g/l 135–175 g/l
Calcium 3.5 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Phosphate 1.52 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 184 mm/h 0–15 mm/h
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Malignancy with metastasis
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Diagnosis of Multiple Myeloma in a Patient with Pathological Fracture
A man has sustained a pathological fracture after a minor trauma, which is likely due to lytic bone lesions. He also presents with anemia, raised calcium, and ESR, all of which are consistent with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. This is further supported by his age group for presentation.
Other possible diagnoses, such as osteoporosis, vitamin D deficiency, acute leukemia, and malignancy with metastasis, are less likely based on the absence of specific symptoms and laboratory findings. For example, in osteoporosis, vitamin D and phosphate levels are normal, and ESR and hemoglobin levels are not affected. In vitamin D deficiency, calcium and phosphate levels are usually normal or low-normal, and ESR is not raised. Acute leukemia typically presents with systemic symptoms and normal serum calcium levels. Malignancy with metastasis is possible but less likely without preceding symptoms suggestive of an underlying solid tumor malignancy.
In summary, the patient’s clinical presentation and laboratory findings suggest a diagnosis of multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents to the Emergency Department with a swollen, erythematosus right leg with a 4-cm difference in circumference between the right and left leg. Routine blood tests show:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 10.1 mmol 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 120 μmol 50–120 µmol/l
eGFR 60ml/min/1.73m2
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.25 mmol 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Bilirubin 7 μmol 2–17 µmol/l
Albumin 32 g/l 35–55 g/l
Alkaline phosphatase 32 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Aspartate transaminase (AST) 15 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 32 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 15 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Haemoglobin 78 g/l
Males: 135–175 g/l
Females: 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 92 fl 76–98 fl
Platelets 302 x 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.5 x 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Which of the following should be commenced after confirmation of the diagnosis?Your Answer: Warfarin and unfractionated heparin
Correct Answer: Apixaban
Explanation:According to NICE guidance, the first-line treatment for a confirmed proximal deep vein thrombosis is a direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban or rivaroxaban. When warfarin is used, an initial pro-coagulant state occurs, so heparin is needed for cover until the INR reaches the target therapeutic range and until day 5. Low-molecular-weight heparin is typically used with warfarin in the initial anticoagulation phase, but it can accumulate in patients with renal dysfunction. Unfractionated heparin infusion is used in these cases. For patients with normal or slightly deranged renal function, low-molecular-weight heparin can be given once per day as a subcutaneous preparation. However, warfarin is not the first-line treatment according to NICE guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman is being evaluated in the pre-operative clinic for an elective cholecystectomy. She has no other medical conditions except for two episodes of cholecystitis within the past year. Additionally, she has never undergone a blood transfusion before. What information should be included in the request to the blood bank?
Your Answer: Group and save, direct Combs' test (DAT) and a cross match for 2 units
Correct Answer: Group and save only
Explanation:Blood Testing for Elective Surgeries
When it comes to elective surgeries, a group and save blood testing procedure is typically sufficient. This is a common practice in modern blood banks and involves determining the patient’s blood group and confirming it, as well as conducting an antibody screen. If the antibody screen test comes back positive, additional tests such as a cross match or direct Coombs’ test (also known as the direct antiglobulin test or DAT) may be necessary. However, these tests are not typically performed unless the patient has a recent history of blood transfusions or known red cell antibodies. Overall, the group and save method is a standard and effective way to ensure that patients have the appropriate blood type available in case of a transfusion during elective surgeries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 40
Correct
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A frequent contributor complains of yellowing of the eyes and fever after donating blood for five days.
What should be the subsequent suitable step for the medical officer in charge of the blood bank?Your Answer: Recall blood products from this donor and arrange for retesting of this donor
Explanation:Managing Donor Complications and Blood Products
When a donor develops complications, it is important to assess how to manage both the donor and the blood products from the donation. In such cases, the blood products should be recalled until further testing and clarification of the donor’s illness. It is crucial to prevent the release of any of the blood products. However, the donor should not be immediately struck off the register until further testing results are available. It is important to take these precautions to ensure the safety of the blood supply and prevent any potential harm to recipients. Proper management of donor complications and blood products is essential to maintain the integrity of the blood donation system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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