00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 12-year-old boy presents acutely with petechiae on his legs, severe abdominal pain,...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy presents acutely with petechiae on his legs, severe abdominal pain, bloody faeces, haematuria and painful joint swelling. The haematology laboratory results are normal.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Common Pediatric Diseases: Symptoms and Management

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), Acute lymphocytic leukaemia, Alport’s syndrome, and Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) are some of the common pediatric diseases that require prompt diagnosis and management. HSP is an autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that often affects children and is associated with IgA dominant immune complexes. ALL is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow, causing symptoms such as fatigue, fever, and joint pain. Alport’s syndrome is a hereditary nephritis that can lead to chronic kidney disease, hearing loss, and ocular abnormalities. JRA is characterized by swollen joints, fever, and joint pain. Prompt diagnosis and management are crucial in these diseases, which may require supportive treatment, pain relief, and monitoring for potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 49-year-old woman receives a red blood cell transfusion in the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman receives a red blood cell transfusion in the emergency department after a car accident. She develops a fever and becomes anxious after 30 minutes. The transfusion is stopped and the following observations are made: respiratory rate 21 breaths per minute, heart rate 74 bpm, saturations 98% (room air), blood pressure 125/85 mmHg, temperature 39ºC. The patient is comfortable at rest and chest auscultation reveals no wheezing. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's reaction?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Complications of Blood Product Transfusion: Understanding the Risks

      Blood product transfusion can lead to various complications that can be classified into different categories. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may also arise, including the transmission of vCJD. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.

      Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. On the other hand, allergic reactions to blood transfusions are caused by hypersensitivity reactions to components within the transfusion. TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion, while TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema.

      It is important to understand the risks associated with blood product transfusion and to be aware of the different types of complications that may arise. Proper management and prompt treatment are crucial in preventing further harm to the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      65.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - As a junior GP in a bustling surgery, you are approached by the...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior GP in a bustling surgery, you are approached by the son (next-of-kin) of one of your middle-aged patients who brings her in for evaluation. The patient appears to be in a state of agitation and is expressing bizarre delusions and paranoid beliefs, causing a disturbance in the surgery by shouting. She is uncooperative during the consultation and frequently pleads to be allowed to leave. Both you and the son agree that urgent psychiatric assessment is necessary.

      Which section of the Mental Health Act (1983) would allow a GP to detain a patient for emergency psychiatric evaluation?

      Your Answer: Section 2

      Correct Answer: Section 4

      Explanation:

      In cases where there is a need for urgent psychiatric assessment, GPs may utilize Section 4 of the Mental Health Act. This can be done with the assistance of an AMHP or NR, and allows for the emergency transfer of the patient. Unlike Section 2, which requires the agreement of two psychiatrists, Section 4 is used when there is a risk of unacceptable delay in the patient’s care. It provides a 72-hour window for assessment, after which it is typically converted to a Section 2. Additionally, the police have the authority under Section 135 and 136 to take a patient to a safe location for psychiatric evaluation.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 6-month-old infant is brought to his General Practitioner by his concerned mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant is brought to his General Practitioner by his concerned mother. He has been crying after every feed for several weeks and regurgitating milk. He has also been failing to gain weight.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)

      Explanation:

      The child’s symptoms suggest that they may have gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which is characterized by regurgitation of milk after feeds and crying due to abdominal pain. This can lead to failure to gain weight or even weight loss. Infantile colic is less likely as it would not cause these symptoms. Intussusception, a condition where part of the bowel invaginates into another, causing colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, and passing of redcurrant stools, requires immediate hospitalization. Pyloric stenosis, which presents with projectile vomiting, dehydration, and faltering growth, is less likely as the child does not have projectile vomiting. Volvulus, a complete twisting of an intestinal loop, could present with bilious vomiting, signs of shock, peritonitis, and blood per rectum, and typically occurs in the first year of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      50.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old woman complains of abdominal bloating and is found to have shifting...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of abdominal bloating and is found to have shifting dullness on examination. What is a risk factor for ovarian cancer?

      Your Answer: BRCA2 gene

      Explanation:

      The risk factors for ovarian cancer are associated with a higher frequency of ovulations.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old man complains of worsening pain and swelling in both knees with...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man complains of worsening pain and swelling in both knees with stiffness and decreased mobility over the past eight months. He also has painful wrist joints with nodules at the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints which have developed slowly over the past two years.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis (OA)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between types of arthritis: A case study

      In this case study, a patient presents with bony swelling at the DIP and PIP joints of the hands. It is important to differentiate between various types of arthritis to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is characterized by loss of articular cartilage and overgrowth of underlying bone, commonly affecting the hips, knees, and small hand joints. Pain and swelling are common presenting features, along with crepitus on examination. Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes may also be present.

      Osteoporosis, on the other hand, is a condition of reduced bone density and increased fragility, often diagnosed following a low-impact fracture or screening of high-risk patients. Pain and bony swelling are not typical features of osteoporosis.

      Psoriatic arthritis is an inflammatory seronegative spondyloarthropathy associated with psoriasis, commonly affecting the hands but not causing the changes described in this case. Dactylitis is a usual examination finding with psoriatic arthritis.

      Reactive arthritis is characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following an infection. It typically presents as an acute, asymmetrical lower-limb arthritis, occurring a few days to weeks after the initial infection.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) presents most often in women between the ages of 35 and 55 with symmetrical polyarticular arthritis, most often in the small joints of the hands or feet. Swelling is present at the metacarpophalangeal and PIP joints of the hands, along with other signs such as swan neck and Boutonnière deformities of the fingers, ulnar deviation of fingers, and Z deformity of the thumb.

      In conclusion, careful examination and consideration of various types of arthritis are necessary for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman in her third trimester of pregnancy reports an itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman in her third trimester of pregnancy reports an itchy rash around her belly button during an antenatal check-up. She had no such issues during her previous pregnancy. Upon examination, blistering lesions are observed in the peri-umbilical area and on her arms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Pemphigoid gestationis

      Explanation:

      Blistering is not a characteristic of polymorphic eruption of pregnancy.

      Skin Disorders Associated with Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, women may experience various skin disorders. The most common one is atopic eruption of pregnancy, which is characterized by an itchy red rash. This condition does not require any specific treatment. Another skin disorder is polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, which is a pruritic condition that usually appears during the last trimester. The lesions often first appear in abdominal striae, and management depends on the severity of the condition. Emollients, mild potency topical steroids, and oral steroids may be used. Pemphigoid gestationis is another skin disorder that causes pruritic blistering lesions. It usually develops in the peri-umbilical region and later spreads to the trunk, back, buttocks, and arms. This condition is rarely seen in the first pregnancy and usually presents in the second or third trimester. Oral corticosteroids are usually required for treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 9-year-old girl comes to the GP with her father. Her father explains...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old girl comes to the GP with her father. Her father explains that she is still experiencing bed-wetting almost every night. She has undergone thorough investigations in the past year for this issue and has no physical abnormalities to explain her enuresis. She is otherwise healthy and active.

      Her father has attempted to limit her fluid intake before bedtime, encourage regular and timely toileting, and wake her up during the night, but none of these methods have been successful.

      What is the most appropriate course of action to manage her enuresis?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      Withholding fluids for 2 hours before bedtime is not recommended as part of enuresis management. While limiting fluid intake throughout the day and before bedtime, especially caffeinated drinks, is advised, completely withholding fluids is not recommended. Referring the patient for sleep studies is not the most appropriate management at this stage, although other conditions that can worsen enuresis, such as sleep-disordered breathing, should be considered. Desmopressin, an analogue of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH), is not indicated at this stage and is only used when general advice and enuresis alarm have failed. The primary goal of management is to achieve dry nights at follow-up.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 75 year old woman comes to the Emergency Department with gradual onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year old woman comes to the Emergency Department with gradual onset of difficulty breathing. During the examination, the patient displays an S3 gallop rhythm, bibasal crepitations, and pitting edema up to both knees. An ECG reveals indications of left ventricular hypertrophy, and a chest X-ray shows small bilateral pleural effusions, cardiomegaly, and upper lobe diversion.
      Considering the probable diagnosis, which of the following medications has been proven to enhance long-term survival?

      Your Answer: Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits symptoms of congestive heart failure, which can be managed with loop diuretics and nitrates in acute or decompensated cases. However, these medications do not improve long-term survival. To reduce mortality in patients with left ventricular failure, ACE-inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin receptor blockers, aldosterone antagonists, and hydralazine with nitrates have all been proven effective. Digoxin can reduce hospital admissions but not mortality, and is typically reserved for patients who do not respond to initial treatments or have co-existing atrial fibrillation.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      433.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history presents to the hospital with...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history presents to the hospital with severe chest pain. Upon arrival, an ECG reveals anterior ST elevation, and he is promptly treated with thrombolysis, resulting in the resolution of symptoms and ECG changes. What combination of medications should he be prescribed four weeks after the event?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitor + statin + aspirin + clopidogrel

      Correct Answer: ACE inhibitor + beta-blocker + statin + aspirin + clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.

      Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old male has been diagnosed with nasal polyps. Which medication sensitivity is...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male has been diagnosed with nasal polyps. Which medication sensitivity is commonly linked to this condition?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.

      The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.

      The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman has a Nexplanon implanted on day 20 of her 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has a Nexplanon implanted on day 20 of her 30 day cycle. When can she trust the Nexplanon to prevent pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Correct Answer: After 7 days

      Explanation:

      Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
      Immediate: IUD
      2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
      7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the Dermatology Clinic for regular follow-up of her...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the Dermatology Clinic for regular follow-up of her psoriasis. This had previously been well controlled after phototherapy six months ago; however, she has recently deteriorated.
      Her current treatment regime includes topical calcipotriol (Dovonex), topical coal tar ointment and topical hydromol ointment, in addition to amoxicillin for a recent respiratory infection. She is otherwise fit and well.
      On examination, she has an erythematous rash covering much of her back, with widespread patches on her arms and legs. The rash is tender and warm, though she appears to be shivering. There are no oral lesions. Her pulse is 98 beats per minute, while her blood pressure (BP) is 95/50 mmHg and her temperature is 38.2 °C.
      What is the most important next step in this woman's treatment?

      Your Answer: Arrange hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Urgent Hospital Admission Required for Erythrodermic Psoriasis

      Erythrodermic psoriasis is a severe dermatological emergency that requires urgent hospital admission. This is evident in a patient who presents with a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, borderline pyrexia, and rigors. While the patient’s psoriasis needs more intensive management, it is not appropriate to manage erythroderma in the community.

      The treatment for erythrodermic psoriasis includes supportive care, such as intravenous fluids, cool, wet dressings, and a systemic agent. The choice of a systemic agent depends on the patient and may involve rapid-acting therapies like ciclosporin or slower agents like methotrexate. However, it is important to note that starting any systemic agent requires investigations, including baseline blood tests and a viral screen, to ensure it is not contraindicated.

      It is crucial to differentiate erythrodermic psoriasis from other dermatological emergencies like Stevens-Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), which is a severe drug reaction associated with amoxicillin and anti-epileptic therapies. However, in this case, the patient’s history features a slow deterioration of pre-existing psoriasis, and the rash is not desquamating, and there are no oral lesions. Therefore, hospital admission is required for erythrodermic psoriasis.

      It is essential to avoid repeating phototherapy in a patient with erythrodermic psoriasis as it can worsen the condition. In a well patient, phototherapy would not be reattempted six months after a poor response, and an alternate approach would most likely be sought.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      51.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department via ambulance after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department via ambulance after experiencing a sudden onset of facial droop and speech impairment. Upon examination, she is conscious but displays both expressive and receptive aphasia. The patient's GP summary record indicates that she is only taking tamoxifen. Based on this information, what is the most probable medical condition in her past medical history?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen receptor-positive endometrial cancer

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Pre-menopausal women with oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer are managed using Tamoxifen.
      Tamoxifen is ineffective in treating oestrogen receptor-negative breast cancer or ovarian cancer.
      However, Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer.
      Colorectal cancer is not treated with Tamoxifen.

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever, cough,...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever, cough, coryza and conjunctivitis. He has a rash that looks like tight clusters of small red spots. He also has some grey-white spots inside his mouth. Prior to the last five days, he is normally a fit and well child who does not take any regular medications. He has not had any vaccinations. His temperature is 38 °C and his other observations are within normal limits.
      What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital for observation

      Correct Answer: Discharge home with advice regarding supportive care

      Explanation:

      Supportive Care for Children with Measles: Discharge Advice

      Measles is a highly contagious viral illness that can be prevented through vaccination. If a child is diagnosed with measles, they will present with symptoms such as fever, cough, and a rash. The period of contagiousness is estimated to be from five days before the appearance of the rash to four days afterwards. There is no specific treatment for uncomplicated measles, but supportive care can be provided to manage symptoms.

      Discharge advice for parents of a child with measles should include information on potential complications and when to seek medical attention. It is important to monitor the child’s symptoms and provide antipyretics and fluids as needed. If a secondary bacterial infection arises, antibiotics may be required. Immunoglobulins are not given as a treatment for acute measles, but vaccination is recommended as a preventative measure. Aspirin should not be given to children with measles due to the risk of Reye syndrome. Paracetamol and ibuprofen can be given for symptomatic relief. With proper supportive care, most children with measles will recover without complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old female patient comes in seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient comes in seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex with her ex-partner four days ago. She is determined to prevent a pregnancy. The patient has a history of ectopic pregnancy four years ago, which led to a salpingectomy. She is currently on day 14 of a 28-day cycle. What is the best course of action among the available options?

      Your Answer: Do a pregnancy test

      Correct Answer: Insert an intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 29-year-old man who has recently arrived in the UK from Uganda visits...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man who has recently arrived in the UK from Uganda visits the clinic with complaints of exhaustion and purple skin lesions all over his body. During the examination, you observe multiple raised purple lesions on his trunk and arms. Additionally, you notice some smaller purple lesions in his mouth. He has recently initiated acyclovir treatment for herpes zoster infection. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma

      Explanation:

      The presence of raised purple lesions is a typical indication of Kaposi’s sarcoma, which may suggest that the patient has an underlying HIV infection. Given the high prevalence of HIV in Uganda and the recent occurrence of herpes zoster, it is possible that the patient’s immune system is compromised. Dermatofibromas, which are typically small and firm, would not be found in the mouth, while psoriasis is characterized by red, scaly lesions that do not appear on mucosal surfaces. A drug reaction is an unlikely explanation for the patient’s symptoms. Although a haemangioma can present as a purple raised lesion, it is uncommon to find them in the mouth, and Kaposi’s sarcoma is a more likely diagnosis in this case.

      Kaposi’s Sarcoma in HIV Patients

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is commonly seen in patients with HIV. It is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8) and is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa. These lesions may later ulcerate, causing discomfort and pain. In some cases, respiratory involvement may occur, leading to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion.

      Treatment for Kaposi’s sarcoma typically involves a combination of radiotherapy and resection. This can help to reduce the size of the lesions and prevent further spread of the cancer. However, it is important to note that Kaposi’s sarcoma can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, particularly in patients with HIV. As such, it is important for individuals with HIV to be regularly screened for this condition and to seek prompt medical attention if any symptoms are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      398.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An anxious, 30-year-old saleswoman presents with mild shortness of breath on exertion, which...

    Correct

    • An anxious, 30-year-old saleswoman presents with mild shortness of breath on exertion, which had come on gradually over several months. The symptom was intermittent and seemed to get worse in the evening. She has also been on treatment for depression over the last two months. On examination, she has minimal weakness of shoulder abductors and slight weakness of eye closure bilaterally. Deep tendon reflexes are present and symmetrical throughout and plantar responses are flexor. You now have the results of the investigations: FBC, U&E, LFT, TFT - normal; chest radiograph and lung function tests - normal; ECG - normal.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Myasthenia Gravis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a neuromuscular disorder that occurs when the body produces autoantibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction. This results in muscular weakness that is characterized by fatigability, meaning that the muscles become increasingly weaker during their use. MG primarily affects the muscles of the face, the extrinsic ocular muscles (causing diplopia), and the muscles involved in deglutition. Respiratory and proximal lower limb muscles may also be involved early in the disease, which can cause breathlessness and even sudden death.

      Diagnosing MG can be challenging, as weakness may not be apparent on a single examination. However, electrodiagnostic tests and detecting the autoantibodies can confirm the diagnosis. The Tensilon test, which involves injecting edrophonium chloride to reverse the symptoms of MG, is now used only when other tests are negative and clinical suspicion of MG is still high.

      Treatment of MG involves anticholinesterase medications, but many patients also benefit from thymectomy. It is important to note that a thymoma may be present in up to 15% of patients with MG.

      Other conditions, such as transient ischaemic attacks, angina, multiple sclerosis, and somatisation disorder, may cause weakness, but they do not typically present with the same symptoms as MG. Therefore, it is crucial to consider MG as a potential diagnosis when a patient presents with fatigable muscular weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      97.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old man with difficult hypertension comes to the GP clinic for follow-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with difficult hypertension comes to the GP clinic for follow-up. His average blood pressure over the past two weeks has been 168/100 mmHg and today in the clinic it is 176/102 mmHg. He is currently taking a combination of telmisartan 80 mg and hydrochlorothiazide 25mg tablets, as well as amlodipine 10mg daily. The latest laboratory results are as follows:

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 135 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Add hydralazine

      Correct Answer: Add spironolactone

      Explanation:

      For a patient with poorly controlled moderate hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and thiazide diuretic, the recommended next step would be to add spironolactone if their potassium level is less than 4.5mmol/L. Atenolol may be considered as a fourth-line agent if the potassium level is over 4.5mmol/L, but spironolactone is preferred according to NICE guidelines. Hydralazine should not be used outside of specialist care, and indapamide is not the best option as the patient is already taking a thiazide diuretic. Prazosin is an alternative to spironolactone, but spironolactone is preferred given the lower potassium level.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      108.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department feeling very sick. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department feeling very sick. He reports having flu-like symptoms for the past few days and is having difficulty keeping anything down. He feels weak, drowsy, and disoriented. He experiences dizziness when he stands up. Upon observation, he is found to be tachycardic and hypotensive with a fever. He reports taking only hydrocortisone 10 mg PO bidaily for Addison's disease. What is the most crucial management step in this case?

      Your Answer: Give 100 mg hydrocortisone intravenous (IV) STAT

      Explanation:

      Managing Addisonian Crisis: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Addisonian crisis is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt intervention. Patients with Addison’s disease are at risk of developing an Addisonian crisis if they forget to take their steroids or if steroids have not been increased appropriately during an accompanying illness. In such cases, the first-line treatment is to administer 100 mg hydrocortisone intravenously (IV) STAT. This should be followed by fluid resuscitation and IV glucose if hypoglycemia is present.

      It is important to note that treatment should be initiated before biochemical results are obtained. Patients with Addison’s disease should carry an IM autoinjector in case of an emergency. If an Addisonian crisis is suspected, hydrocortisone should be administered immediately, and blood tests for cortisol, ACTH, urea and electrolytes, and glucose should be carried out urgently.

      Oral hydrocortisone is not recommended in cases where the patient is vomiting. In such cases, IM hydrocortisone injection is the preferred treatment option. Additionally, glucose gel sublingually may be given for hypoglycemia, but the primary focus should be on restoring cortisol levels.

      Fludrocortisone may be of use if the cause of the Addisonian crisis is adrenal disease. However, it should be noted that hydrocortisone is the first-line treatment as it acts mainly on glucocorticoid receptors to increase blood sugar levels and counteract insulin. Fludrocortisone, on the other hand, acts mainly at mineralocorticoid receptors.

      In conclusion, managing Addisonian crisis requires prompt intervention and careful consideration of treatment options. Administering hydrocortisone, fluid resuscitation, and IV glucose if necessary should be the primary focus, with fludrocortisone being considered only if the cause is adrenal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      311.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 48-year-old male presents to the hospital with a productive cough and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male presents to the hospital with a productive cough and a temperature of 38.2 C. He has been feeling ill for the past 10 days with flu-like symptoms. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 96/60 mmHg and his heart rate is 102/min. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral lower zone consolidation. What is the probable pathogen responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Prior infection with influenza increases the likelihood of developing pneumonia caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

      Causes of Pneumonia

      Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various infectious agents. Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is the most common type of pneumonia and is caused by different microorganisms. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which accounts for around 80% of cases. Other infectious agents that can cause CAP include Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, atypical pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and viruses.

      Klebsiella pneumoniae is another microorganism that can cause pneumonia, but it is typically found in alcoholics. Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is characterized by a rapid onset, high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and herpes labialis (cold sores).

      In summary, pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents, with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is important to identify the causative agent to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old man presents to the GP for a blood pressure review after...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the GP for a blood pressure review after a clinic reading of 154/100 mmHg. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and COPD, which are managed with inhalers. His home blood pressure readings over the past week have averaged at 140/96 mmHg. What is the initial intervention that should be considered?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetics.

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that there was little difference in outcomes between patients who had tight blood pressure control (targets < 130/85 mmHg) and those with more relaxed control (< 140-160/90-100 mmHg), except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke in the former group. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. Further management then follows that of non-diabetic patients. It is important to note that autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. Therefore, the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, particularly when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old female patient presents to the GP clinic seeking the combined oral...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient presents to the GP clinic seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has a BMI of 25 kg/m2 and a history of migraine without aura. She is a smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes a day, and drinks socially. The patient gave birth to her second child 10 weeks ago and is currently breastfeeding. Her mother had a pulmonary embolism at the age of 60 years. Identify the UKMEC 4 contraindication that would make the COCP unsuitable for her.

      Your Answer: 37 years-old and smoking 20 cigarettes a day

      Explanation:

      The use of COCP is absolutely contraindicated for individuals who are over 35 years old and smoke more than 15 cigarettes per day. Migraine without aura is not a contraindication, but migraine with aura is a UKMEC 3 contraindication. A BMI of over 35 kg/m2 and a family history of thromboembolism at age less than 45 years are also UKMEC 3 contraindications, but in this case, the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m2 and her mother had pulmonary embolism at the age of 60 years, so these are not contraindications. Breastfeeding less than 6 weeks post-partum is a UKMEC 4 contraindication, but since the patient is 10 weeks post-partum, it is a UKMEC 2.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the primary mode of operation of simvastatin in elderly patients? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary mode of operation of simvastatin in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Agonists of PPAR-alpha

      Correct Answer: Decreases intrinsic cholesterol synthesis

      Explanation:

      The rate-limiting enzyme in hepatic cholesterol synthesis, HMG-CoA reductase, is inhibited by statins.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.

      Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old female presented to her GP with a grey, thin, creamy vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presented to her GP with a grey, thin, creamy vaginal discharge.
      Which of the following is the best verbal advice to give her?

      Your Answer: Risk of pregnancy complications is not increased

      Correct Answer: Avoid perfumed soaps

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Vaginosis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Diagnosis

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by an overgrowth of bacteria. It is important for patients to understand the symptoms, risk factors, and diagnosis of BV in order to properly manage and treat the condition.

      Symptoms of BV include vaginal odor, increased vaginal discharge, vulvar irritation, and rarely, dysuria or dyspareunia. Risk factors for BV include recent antibiotic use, decreased estrogen production, presence of an intrauterine device, douching, and sexual activity that could lead to transmission.

      Physical findings of BV include grey, thin, and homogeneous vaginal discharge that adheres to the vaginal mucosa, increased light reflex of the vaginal walls, and typically little or no evidence of inflammation. Diagnosis of BV is made through microscopic examination of the discharge, with demonstration of three of the following four Amsel criteria: clue cells on a saline smear, a pH >4.5, characteristic discharge, and a positive whiff test.

      Patients with BV should be advised to wash only with hypoallergenic bar soaps or no soap at all, avoid liquid soaps, body washes, and perfumed soaps, and not to douche or use over-the-counter vaginal hygiene products. While studies have shown inconsistent results, some patients may find relief from symptoms by using yogurt containing live bacteria.

      It is important to properly manage and treat BV, as long-standing or untreated cases may lead to more serious complications such as endometritis, salpingitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, or pregnancy complications. However, with proper care and attention, the prognosis for uncomplicated cases of BV is generally excellent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old female presents to the GP office with a complaint of unusual...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the GP office with a complaint of unusual vaginal discharge. The discharge is described as frothy and green-yellow in color. She is sexually active and does not use any form of birth control. Her most recent sexual encounter was with a new partner two weeks ago. During speculum examination, a strawberry cervix is observed. She is in good health and not taking any medications. A pregnancy test came back negative. What is the recommended course of action for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral doxycycline

      Correct Answer: Oral metronidazole

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for the patient’s likely diagnosis of trichomoniasis is oral metronidazole, either as a 7-day course of 200mg or a one-time dose of 2g. Intramuscular ceftriaxone, benzathine benzylpenicillin, and oral doxycycline are not indicated for the treatment of trichomoniasis. Oral azithromycin is also not effective for this condition.

      Understanding Trichomonas vaginalis and its Comparison to Bacterial Vaginosis

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of protozoan parasite that is highly motile and flagellated. It is known to cause trichomoniasis, which is a sexually transmitted infection. The infection is characterized by symptoms such as offensive, yellow/green, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginitis, and strawberry cervix. The pH level is usually above 4.5, and in men, it may cause urethritis.

      To diagnose trichomoniasis, a wet mount microscopy is conducted to observe the motile trophozoites. The treatment for trichomoniasis involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used.

      When compared to bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis has distinct differences. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite. The symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor, and a pH level above 4.5. Unlike trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.

      In conclusion, understanding the differences between trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions effectively. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 67-year-old male experiences a cardiac arrest during coronary angiography in the catheter...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male experiences a cardiac arrest during coronary angiography in the catheter laboratory. His heart rate is 164 beats per minute and the 12-lead ECG monitor displays ventricular tachycardia. As you begin to assess him, you are unable to detect a pulse and immediately call for assistance.

      What is the next appropriate step to take?

      Your Answer: Give adrenaline 1mg IV and amiodarone 300mg IV

      Correct Answer: Deliver a maximum of three successive shocks

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences cardiac arrest in VF/pulseless VT and is monitored, such as in a coronary care unit, critical care unit, or catheter laboratory, they should receive a maximum of three successive shocks instead of one shock followed by two minutes of CPR. After the shocks, chest compressions should be administered for two minutes. Once compressions restart, adrenaline 1mg IV and amiodarone 300 mg IV should be given for shockable rhythms (VT/pulseless VF). Adrenaline 1mg IV should be given after alternate shocks (every 3-5 minutes). For non-shockable rhythms (pulseless electrical activity/asystole), adrenaline 1mg IV should be given as soon as venous access is achieved and administered alongside CPR. Pulseless electrical activity is a type of cardiac arrest where there is electrical activity (other than ventricular tachycardia) that would normally have an associated pulse. Asystole is a complete cessation of any electrical and mechanical heart activity.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      66.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 29-year-old woman comes to her doctor's office in a distressed state. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to her doctor's office in a distressed state. Her 4-year-old daughter passed away a few weeks ago due to a car accident. During the consultation, she reveals that she is having trouble sleeping, cannot function normally, and experiences severe stomach cramps. She admits to having thoughts of wishing she had died instead of her daughter, but denies any current suicidal thoughts. She also mentions seeing her daughter sitting on the couch at home, but acknowledges that it is not real. What is the most likely condition she is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Severe depression

      Correct Answer: Normal grief reaction

      Explanation:

      Experiencing a grief reaction is common after a significant loss, and it can manifest with physical and psychological symptoms that can last up to six months. It can be challenging to differentiate between depression and a typical grief reaction since they share similar symptoms. However, a regular grief reaction typically lasts less than six months, while depression can persist for a more extended period. Although she has brief visual hallucinations, psychosis is an incorrect diagnosis since she does not exhibit any other indications.

      Grief is a natural response to the death of a loved one and does not always require medical intervention. However, understanding the potential stages of grief can help determine if a patient is experiencing a normal reaction or a more significant problem. The most common model of grief divides it into five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. It is important to note that not all patients will experience all five stages. Atypical grief reactions are more likely to occur in women, sudden and unexpected deaths, problematic relationships before death, and lack of social support. Delayed grief, which occurs when grieving does not begin for more than two weeks, and prolonged grief, which is difficult to define but may last beyond 12 months, are features of atypical grief reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that started about...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that started about 30 minutes ago. He mentions having a stressful day at work, but there doesn't seem to be any other obvious trigger. He denies experiencing any chest pain or difficulty breathing. Upon conducting an ECG, a regular tachycardia of 180 bpm with a QRS duration of 0.10s is observed. His blood pressure is 106/70 mmHg, and his oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Despite performing the Valsalva manoeuvre, there is no effect on the rhythm. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Intravenous amiodarone

      Correct Answer: Intravenous adenosine

      Explanation:

      In cases of haemodynamically stable patients with SVT who do not respond to vagal manoeuvres, the recommended course of action is to administer adenosine.

      Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that originates above the ventricles. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.

      When it comes to acute management, vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is another option.

      To prevent episodes of SVT, beta-blockers can be used. Radio-frequency ablation is also an option. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

      Overall, understanding SVT and its management options can help individuals with this condition better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old male presents to his GP with a 6-month history of progressive...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male presents to his GP with a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath. He is now needing to stop a few times on the way to the grocery store to catch his breath, which is not normal for him. He smokes 20 cigarettes a day and has done so for the past 45 years, and drinks no alcohol. His only medication is atorvastatin.

      On examination, there is a bilateral wheeze and coarse crackles at the lung bases. A chest x-ray is ordered by the GP which shows flattening of the diaphragm bilaterally, but is otherwise normal. Spirometry is carried out, with the following results:

      Result Reference Range
      FEV1 (of predicted) 72% >80%
      FEV1:FVC 0.62 >0.7

      What is the most appropriate management for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Montelukast

      Correct Answer: Ipratropium

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history, examination, and obstructive spirometry results suggest that he has COPD, likely due to his smoking history. Malignancy has been ruled out by the chest x-ray. As per NICE guidelines, the first-line pharmacological treatment for COPD is either a SABA or SAMA to alleviate breathlessness and improve exercise tolerance. Ipratropium, a SAMA, is the most suitable option for this patient. Beclomethasone, an inhaled corticosteroid, is used as a second-line treatment with a LABA for those with asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness. Montelukast, a LTRA, is used as a third-line treatment in asthmatic patients, while Salmeterol, a LABA, is used as a second-line treatment in COPD patients.

      NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      72.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology/Oncology (2/2) 100%
Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
Reproductive Medicine (2/5) 40%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (0/7) 0%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Immunology/Allergy (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Respiratory Medicine (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/1) 100%
Passmed