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Question 1
Incorrect
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What tool of method would be most effective in examining the relationship between a potential risk factor and a particular condition?
Your Answer: Case-fatality rate
Correct Answer: Incidence rate
Explanation:Measures of Disease Frequency: Incidence and Prevalence
Incidence and prevalence are two important measures of disease frequency. Incidence measures the speed at which new cases of a disease are emerging, while prevalence measures the burden of disease within a population. Cumulative incidence and incidence rate are two types of incidence measures, while point prevalence and period prevalence are two types of prevalence measures.
Cumulative incidence is the average risk of getting a disease over a certain period of time, while incidence rate is a measure of the speed at which new cases are emerging. Prevalence is a proportion and is a measure of the burden of disease within a population. Point prevalence measures the number of cases in a defined population at a specific point in time, while period prevalence measures the number of identified cases during a specified period of time.
It is important to note that prevalence is equal to incidence multiplied by the duration of the condition. In chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence. The incidence rate is stated in units of person-time, while cumulative incidence is always a proportion. When describing cumulative incidence, it is necessary to give the follow-up period over which the risk is estimated. In acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence may be similar, while for conditions such as the common cold, the incidence may be greater than the prevalence.
Incidence is a useful measure to study disease etiology and risk factors, while prevalence is useful for health resource planning. Understanding these measures of disease frequency is important for public health professionals and researchers in order to effectively monitor and address the burden of disease within populations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 2
Correct
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Which statement about multiple sclerosis is incorrect?
Your Answer: It is more common in males
Explanation:Psychiatric Consequences of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. It is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions in the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. MS presents with diverse neurological signs, including optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.
Depression is the most common psychiatric condition seen in MS, with a lifetime prevalence of 25-50%. The symptoms of depression in people with MS tend to be different from those without MS. The preferred diagnostic indicators for depression in MS include pervasive mood change, diurnal mood variation, suicidal ideation, functional change not related to physical disability, and pessimistic of negative patterns of thinking. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are considered first-line treatment for depression in patients with MS.
Suicide is common in MS, with recognized risk factors including male gender, young age at onset of illness, current of previous history of depression, social isolation, and substance misuse. Mania is more common in people with MS, and mood stabilizers are recommended for treatment. Pathological laughing and crying, defined as uncontrollable laughing and/of crying without the associated affect, occurs in approximately 10% of cases of MS. Emotional lability, defined as an excessive emotional response to a minor stimulus, is also common in MS and can be treated with amitriptyline and SSRIs.
The majority of cases of neuropsychiatric side effects from corticosteroids fit an affective profile of mania and/of depression. Psychotic symptoms, particularly hallucinations, are present in up to half of these cases. Glatiramer acetate has not been associated with neuropsychiatric side-effects. The data regarding the risk of mood symptoms related to interferon use is conflicting.
In conclusion, MS has significant psychiatric consequences, including depression, suicide, mania, pathological laughing and crying, emotional lability, and neuropsychiatric side effects from treatment. Early recognition and treatment of these psychiatric symptoms are essential for improving the quality of life of individuals with MS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which antidepressant medication, as per NICE Guidelines, necessitates hematological monitoring (FBC) for elderly individuals?
Your Answer: Agomelatine
Correct Answer: Mianserin
Explanation:Mianserin is a type of antidepressant that falls under the category of tetracyclic antidepressants. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends that patients undergo a full blood count every four weeks during the first three months of treatment. Even after this initial period, patients should continue to be clinically monitored. If any signs of infection, such as fever, sore throat, of stomatitis, develop, treatment should be stopped and a full blood count should be obtained.
In 1979, there were reports of blood dyscrasias associated with mianserin, including neutropenia/leukopenia and agranulocytosis, which led to fatalities. The elderly population was particularly affected, with an excess of cases and deaths reported in this group. The estimated rate of agranulocytosis was between 1:2000 and 1:4000 exposures. These findings were controversial, and the manufacturer even went to court to prevent the drug withdrawal in the UK.
Due to the risk of blood dyscrasias, mianserin requires close haematological monitoring for at least the first three months of use, especially in the elderly population. This monitoring requirement limits the drug’s usefulness in this group, even though it lacks cardiotoxicity.
Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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What is the term used to describe the decrease in anxiety that occurs during flooding therapy?
Your Answer: Habituation
Explanation:Flooding as a Treatment for Phobias
Flooding is a treatment method for phobias that involves directly confronting the fear and remaining in the situation until the anxiety subsides. This process is called habituation and is different from systematic desensitization. However, flooding can be challenging for patients as it produces high levels of anxiety, which can cause them to leave the situation before the fear response is extinguished. As a result, desensitization is generally preferred over flooding as a treatment method for phobias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25 year old woman is distressed about the shape of her nose. Despite a plastic surgeon showing her multiple images of normal nose appearances, she remains convinced that her nose is misshapen. Psychological interventions have not been effective and she is interested in exploring medication options.
What evidence-based interventions are available in this scenario?Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Individuals experiencing body dysmorphic disorder exhibit a fixation on one of more perceived physical defects of imperfections that are not noticeable of appear minor to others. This is accompanied by repetitive actions such as mirror checking, excessive grooming, skin picking, of seeking reassurance, as well as mental acts like comparing one’s appearance to others. NICE suggests fluoxetine as the primary medication for treating this disorder.
Maudsley Guidelines
First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)
Second line:
– SSRI + antipsychotic
– Citalopram + clomipramine
– Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
– Lamotrigine + SSRI
– Topiramate + SSRI -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the most suitable statistical test to compare the calcium levels of males and females who developed inflammatory bowel disease in childhood, considering that calcium levels in this population are normally distributed?
Your Answer: Unpaired t-test
Explanation:The appropriate statistical test for the research question of comparing calcium levels between two unrelated groups is an unpaired/independent t-test, as the data is parametric and the samples are independent. This means that the scores of one group do not affect the other, and there is no meaningful way to pair them.
Dependent samples, on the other hand, are related to each other and can occur in two scenarios. One scenario is when a group is measured twice, such as in a pretest-posttest situation. The other scenario is when an observation in one sample is matched with an observation in the second sample.
For example, if quality inspectors want to compare two laboratories to determine whether their blood tests give similar results, they would need to use a paired t-test. This is because both labs tested blood specimens from the same 10 children, making the test results dependent. The paired t-test is based on the assumption that samples are dependent.
Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The initial application of deep brain stimulation (DBS) was for the treatment of which condition?
Your Answer: Depression
Correct Answer: Chronic pain
Explanation:The human cortex was first directly stimulated in 1874, followed by the use of frontal tract stimulation for chronic pain in 1948. Thalamic stimulation for tremor was introduced in 1960, and basal ganglia stimulation for Parkinson’s tremor in 1968. The effectiveness of stimulation in treating epilepsy was discovered in 1973, and for depression in 1987.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 8
Correct
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What condition has been linked to a more affluent social status?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Social Status and Psychiatric Disorders
Research has shown that certain psychiatric disorders are more prevalent in lower social classes. These disorders include schizophrenia, personality disorder, alcohol dependence, and major depression. On the other hand, anorexia nervosa has been found to be more common in higher social classes. These findings suggest a relationship between social status and mental health, with individuals from lower social classes being at a higher risk for certain psychiatric disorders. This information can be useful in developing targeted interventions and support for individuals from lower social classes who may be struggling with mental health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 9
Correct
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What is the relationship between Takotsubo cardiomyopathy and anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: It results from coronary vasospasm
Explanation:Takotsubo cardiomyopathy is a form of cardiomyopathy that is not caused by a lack of blood flow to the heart. It is believed to be caused by spasms in the coronary arteries and can resemble a heart attack. Typically, levels of cardiac enzymes are elevated. In individuals with anorexia, Takotsubo cardiomyopathy is a rare event that usually occurs after stress of low blood sugar. Although it is usually self-limiting and only requires supportive care, in rare cases, it can progress to cardiogenic shock.
Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.
The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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What was the condition that Pritchard had, which was relevant to the issue of fitness to plead in the case of R v Pritchard?
Your Answer: Deafness
Explanation:Pritchard, a person who was unable to hear of speak, was charged with engaging in sexual activity with an animal.
Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process
Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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After a hospitalization for mania, a female patient with a history of hepatitis C presents with abnormal liver function. Which medication would be appropriate for long-term management of her mania?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Hepatic Impairment: Recommended Drugs
Patients with hepatic impairment may experience reduced ability to metabolize drugs, toxicity, enhanced dose-related side effects, reduced ability to synthesize plasma proteins, and elevated levels of drugs subject to first-pass metabolism due to reduced hepatic blood flow. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Ed recommends the following drugs for patients with hepatic impairment:
Antipsychotics: Paliperidone (if depot required), Amisulpride, Sulpiride
Antidepressants: Sertraline, Citalopram, Paroxetine, Vortioxetine (avoid TCA and MAOI)
Mood stabilizers: Lithium
Sedatives: Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam, Zopiclone 3.75mg (with care)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 12
Correct
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What is the recommended duration of SSRI treatment for preventing relapse in adults with body dysmorphic disorder, according to the NICE guidelines?
Your Answer: 12 months
Explanation:Maudsley Guidelines
First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)
Second line:
– SSRI + antipsychotic
– Citalopram + clomipramine
– Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
– Lamotrigine + SSRI
– Topiramate + SSRI -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following is not a recommendation by NICE for the treatment of PTSD?
Your Answer: Debriefing
Explanation:According to the NICE guidelines of 2005 on post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), debriefing is not recommended.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 14
Correct
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Which antiepileptic medication is associated with a higher risk of causing aggression when used for epilepsy treatment?
Your Answer: Levetiracetam
Explanation:Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly used for the treatment of epilepsy, but many of them also have mood stabilizing properties and are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorder. However, some AEDs carry product warnings for serious side effects such as hepatic failure, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and skin reactions. Additionally, some AEDs have been associated with an increased risk of suicidal behavior and ideation.
Behavioral side-effects associated with AEDs include depression, aberrant behaviors, and the development of worsening of irritability, impulsivity, anger, hostility, and aggression. Aggression can occur before, after, of in between seizures. Some AEDs are considered to carry a higher risk of aggression, including levetiracetam, perampanel, and topiramate. However, data on the specific risk of aggression for other AEDs is lacking of mixed. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of AEDs when prescribing them for patients with epilepsy of bipolar disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The Diagnostic Project between the UK and US revealed that the increased prevalence of schizophrenia in New York, as opposed to London, was due to what factor?
Your Answer: Confounding
Correct Answer: Bias
Explanation:The US-UK Diagnostic Project found that the higher rates of schizophrenia in New York were due to diagnostic bias, as US psychiatrists used broader diagnostic criteria. However, the use of standardised clinical interviews and operationalised diagnostic criteria greatly reduced the variability of both incidence and prevalence rates of schizophrenia. This was demonstrated in a study by Sartorius et al. (1986) which examined early manifestations and first-contact incidence of schizophrenia in different cultures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 16
Correct
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What is the herbal remedy that is highly effective for anxiety but not recommended due to its risk of hepatotoxicity?
Your Answer: Piper methysticum
Explanation:Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety
Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.
Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about measures of effect?
Your Answer: One advantage of the relative risk compared to the odds ratio is that it can be calculated when there are no events in the control group
Correct Answer: Relative risk can be used to measure effect in randomised control trials
Explanation:The use of relative risk is applicable in cohort, cross-sectional, and randomized control trials, but not in case-control studies. In situations where there are no events in the control group, neither the risk ratio nor the odds ratio can be computed. It is important to note that the odds ratio tends to overestimate effects and is always more extreme than the relative risk, moving away from the null value of 1.
Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An economic analysis conducted in 2011 on the Rapid Assessment Interface and Discharge (RAID) psychiatric liaison service at City Hospital in Birmingham revealed what benefit-to-cost ratio?
Your Answer: 2
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:The Rapid Assessment Interface and Discharge (RAID) psychiatric liaison service at Birmingham’s City Hospital was evaluated by the London School of Economics, which found that the benefit:cost ratio was over 4:1. The evaluation showed that the service resulted in savings of £3.55 million per year in general hospital bed use, at a cost of £0.8 million.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 19
Correct
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Which mood stabilizer has the strongest evidence for preventing suicide in individuals diagnosed with bipolar affective disorder?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium – Clinical Usage
Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.
Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.
Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.
Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.
Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.
The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 20
Correct
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A senior citizen is referred to the memory clinic by their GP due to mild cognitive impairment. You rule out reversible causes and confirm that they are not prescribed any medications which might contribute to cognitive impairment.
The senior citizen is concerned about progression to Alzheimer's disease.
What would you advise has the best evidence to improve their cognitive performance at this stage?Your Answer: Exercise
Explanation:Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a condition where individuals experience cognitive impairment but are still able to perform daily activities with minimal difficulty. However, those with MCI are at a higher risk of developing dementia compared to those without the condition. While there are currently no pharmacological options available, regular exercise has been shown to be the most effective intervention for MCI. It is important to note that some individuals with MCI may remain stable of even return to normal neurological function. These findings were reported in a practice guideline update summary by Peterson in the journal Neurology.
Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.
NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.
The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.
In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with a high fever of 39.5°C. He reports a stiff neck and complains of a severe headache. He quickly becomes confused and there is evidence that he is experiencing hallucinations related to taste and smell.
He has a history of being in good health, but had a pacemaker implanted at the age of 30. He has not traveled outside of the country recently. The medical team has requested your assistance as the consulting psychiatrist.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Bacterial meningitis
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus (HSV) encephalitis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms indicate possible HSV encephalitis, with specific damage to the temporal and orbitofrontal regions causing hallucinations, loss of smell, and significant memory problems. Immediate treatment with acyclovir and dexamethasone is necessary, and referral for decompression may be necessary depending on the severity of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 22
Correct
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At what stage of behaviour change, as defined by Prochaska and DiClemente (1993), is a patient ready to receive constructive advice, commit to planned behaviour change, establish objectives, and evaluate past achievements and setbacks?
Your Answer: Preparation
Explanation:Their preparedness suggests that they are getting ready to make a change.
Stages of Change Model
Prochaska and DiClemente’s Stages of Change Model identifies five stages that individuals go through when making a change. The first stage is pre-contemplation, where the individual is not considering change. There are different types of precontemplators, including those who lack knowledge about the problem, those who are afraid of losing control, those who feel hopeless, and those who rationalize their behavior.
The second stage is contemplation, where the individual is ambivalent about change and is sitting on the fence. The third stage is preparation, where the individual has some experience with change and is trying to change, testing the waters. The fourth stage is action, where the individual has started to introduce change, and the behavior is defined as action during the first six months of change.
The final stage is maintenance, where the individual is involved in ongoing efforts to maintain change. Action becomes maintenance once six months have elapsed. Understanding these stages can help individuals and professionals in supporting behavior change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 23
Correct
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A study is being planned to investigate whether exposure to pesticides is a risk factor for Parkinson's disease. The researchers are considering conducting a case-control study instead of a cohort study. What is one advantage of using a case-control study design in this situation?
Your Answer: It is possible to study diseases that are rare
Explanation:The benefits of conducting a case-control study include its suitability for examining rare diseases, the ability to investigate a broad range of risk factors, no loss to follow-up, and its relatively low cost and quick turnaround time. The findings of such studies are typically presented as an odds ratio.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following methods is most effective in eliminating of managing confounding factors?
Your Answer: Stratification
Correct Answer: Randomisation
Explanation:The most effective way to eliminate of manage potential confounding factors is to randomize a large enough sample size. This approach addresses all potential confounders, regardless of whether they were measured in the study design. Matching involves pairing individuals who received a treatment of intervention with non-treated individuals who have similar observable characteristics. Post-hoc methods, such as stratification, regression analysis, and analysis of variance, can be used to evaluate the impact of known or suspected confounders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 25
Incorrect
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According to Klerman's bipolar subtypes, what term is used to describe a state of mania without depression?
Your Answer: Bipolar V
Correct Answer: Bipolar VI
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder: Historical Subtypes
Bipolar disorder is a complex mental illness that has been classified into several subtypes over the years. The most widely recognized subtypes are Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia. However, there have been other classification systems proposed by experts in the field.
In 1981, Gerald Klerman proposed a classification system that included Bipolar I, Bipolar II, Bipolar III, Bipolar IV, Bipolar V, and Bipolar VI. This system was later expanded by Akiskal in 1999, who added more subtypes such as Bipolar I 1/2, Bipolar II 1/2, and Bipolar III 1/2.
Bipolar I is characterized by full-blown mania, while Bipolar II is characterized by hypomania with depression. Cyclothymia is a milder form of bipolar disorder that involves cycling between hypomania and mild depression.
Other subtypes include Bipolar III, which is associated with hypomania of mania precipitated by antidepressant drugs, and Bipolar IV, which is characterized by hyperthymic depression. Bipolar V is associated with depressed patients who have a family history of bipolar illness, while Bipolar VI is characterized by mania without depression (unipolar mania).
Overall, the classification of bipolar disorder subtypes has evolved over time, and different experts have proposed different systems. However, the most widely recognized subtypes are still Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman who has frequently attended in the past with multiple somatic complaints is diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder. She is initially treated with a low intensity psychological interventions which unfortunately fails to improve her symptoms. What is the most appropriate medication to offer her next line?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Anxiety (NICE guidelines)
The NICE Guidelines on Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder were issued in 2011. For the management of generalised anxiety disorder, NICE suggests a stepped approach. For mild GAD, education and active monitoring are recommended. If there is no response to step 1, low-intensity psychological interventions such as CBT-based self-help of psychoeducational groups are suggested. For those with marked functional impairment of those who have not responded to step 2, individual high-intensity psychological intervention of drug treatment is recommended. Specialist treatment is suggested for those with very marked functional impairment, no response to step 3, self-neglect, risks of self-harm or suicide, of significant comorbidity. Benzodiazepines should not be used beyond 2-4 weeks, and SSRIs are first line. For panic disorder, psychological therapy (CBT), medication, and self-help have all been shown to be effective. Benzodiazepines, sedating antihistamines, of antipsychotics should not be used. SSRIs are first line, and if they fail, imipramine of clomipramine can be used. Self-help (CBT based) should be encouraged. If the patient improves with an antidepressant, it should be continued for at least 6 months after the optimal dose is reached, after which the dose can be tapered. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, an alternative medication of another form of therapy should be offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 27
Correct
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What are the factors that have been demonstrated to elevate the likelihood of suicide among prisoners?
Your Answer: Being on remand
Explanation:Suicide in Prison: High Rates and Risk Factors
Suicide rates among prisoners are significantly higher than in the general population, with an average rate of 133 per 100,000 population per year in England and Wales in 1999-2000. Remand prisoners had an even higher rate of 339 per 100,000 population per year. Early suicides were more common in drug-dependent prisoners, with 59% occurring within 7 days of reception into prison.
The most common method of suicide was hanging of self-strangulation, with bedclothes being the most common ligature used. Window bars, beds, and cell fittings such as lights, pipes, cupboards, sinks, toilets, of doors were the main ligature points. 72% of prisoners had at least one known psychiatric diagnosis, with drug dependence being the most common primary diagnosis at 27%. Schizophrenia was diagnosed in 6% of prisoners, and affective disorder in 18%.
Risk factors for suicide in prisoners include being in a single cell, being male, having a psychiatric illness, having a history of substance misuse, having a history of previous self-harm of attempted suicide, recent suicidal ideation, and being on remand. Surprisingly, being married was found to be a risk factor for suicide in prisoners, in contrast to the general population where it is a protective factor.
Overall, these findings highlight the urgent need for effective suicide prevention strategies in prisons, particularly for those at higher risk. This may include improved mental health services, better screening and assessment of risk factors, and measures to reduce access to means of suicide such as ligature points.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 28
Correct
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What is a known factor that can lead to psychosis?
Your Answer: Huntington's disease
Explanation:Psychiatric and Behavioural Symptoms of Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a condition that affects individuals with a triad of symptoms, including motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. While the symptoms typically begin in the third and fourth decades of life, individuals with a high number of CAG repeats may experience symptoms before the age of 20, known as juvenile Huntington’s disease.
The psychiatric symptoms of Huntington’s disease can include depression, apathy, dementia, psychosis, anxiety, mania, sexual dysfunction, and even suicide. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life and require appropriate treatment. Advances in psychiatric treatment have been made to address these symptoms and improve the overall well-being of individuals with Huntington’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 29
Correct
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In a study, the null hypothesis posits that there is no disparity between the mean values of group A and group B. Upon analysis, the study discovers a difference and presents a p-value of 0.04. Which statement below accurately reflects this scenario?
Your Answer: Assuming the null hypothesis is correct, there is a 4% chance that the difference detected between A and B has arisen by chance
Explanation:Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics
In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.
The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.
Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 30
Correct
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If a man consumes alcohol daily and increases his intake on weekends, but abstains on Monday due to a crucial work meeting, and then experiences a seizure during the meeting, what would you suspect?
Your Answer: Alcohol withdrawal
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.
Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 31
Correct
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A 35 year old farmer presents with a circumscribed 4cm red lesion on his chest, along with general malaise and low mood. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lyme disease
Explanation:Lyme Disease: An Overview
Lyme disease is a type of infection that is transmitted through tick bites. Its symptoms typically include fatigue, fever, malaise, and a skin rash called erythema migrans. If left untreated, it can cause complications in the heart, joints, and central nervous system (CNS).
Lyme disease is a serious condition that can have long-term effects on a person’s health. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect that you have been bitten by a tick and are experiencing any of the symptoms associated with Lyme disease. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent the development of more severe complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 32
Correct
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A young mother with a history of bipolar disorder is currently nursing her infant. She is experiencing symptoms of mania. What course of action would you recommend in this scenario?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 33
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy is brought to your outpatient clinic by his parents. He believes he is overweight despite having a BMI within the normal range. He is excessively exercising and restricting his food intake, resulting in rapid weight loss. He has been experiencing fatigue and has a haemoglobin level of 85 g/L.
What do you anticipate to observe on his blood film?Your Answer: Normochromic normocytic
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest that they have anorexia nervosa. Typically, the anemia that accompanies this condition is normochromic normocytic. It is crucial to note that if hypochromic microcytic anemia is present, it may indicate iron deficiency caused by hidden gastrointestinal bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 34
Correct
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What is the relationship between psychiatric illness and learning disabilities?
Your Answer: Schizophrenia cannot be reliably diagnosed in people with an IQ below 45
Explanation:Learning Disability and comorbid Psychiatric Illness
It is estimated that 30-50% of adults with learning disabilities also experience mental health problems, including problem behavior. Specific prevalence rates for various mental health disorders in this population have been identified through research. For example, psychotic disorders are present in 4% of adults with learning disabilities, while affective disorders are present in 6%. Autism is the most prevalent disorder, affecting 7.5% of this population.
It is important to note that major depressive disorder can occur at all IQ levels in people with learning disabilities, but may be missed of misinterpreted as challenging behavior. Additionally, individuals with learning disabilities are more susceptible to the negative effects of life events and may develop adjustment disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder is also common in this population.
Stimulant drugs may be less effective in children with learning disabilities and should be used with caution in individuals with Tourette’s of autism, as they may trigger tics. Overall, it is crucial to recognize and address comorbid psychiatric illness in individuals with learning disabilities to ensure appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 35
Correct
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What is the recommended duration for inpatient opioid detoxification according to the NICE guidelines?
Your Answer: Up to 4 weeks
Explanation:In an inpatient of residential setting, the recommended duration for opioid detoxification is typically no more than 4 weeks, while in a community setting, it can last up to 12 weeks.
Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 36
Correct
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What are some recognized risk factors for suicide among incarcerated individuals?
Your Answer: Remand prisoners
Explanation:Prisoners who are male, recently admitted to prison within the past week, on remand, charged with a violent of sexual offense, and with a previous history of mental illness are recognized as established risk factors for suicide in prisons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 37
Incorrect
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How can we describe the consistency of a test in producing similar results when measured multiple times?
Your Answer: Accuracy
Correct Answer: Precision
Explanation:Accuracy and reproducibility together make up precision.
Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 38
Correct
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What is the percentage of children with nocturnal enuresis who have a family member in the first degree with the same condition?
Your Answer: 75%
Explanation:Elimination Disorders
Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.
Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.
Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.
Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 39
Correct
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A 16 year old boy presents with moderate depression. What would be the most suitable initial treatment option?
Your Answer: Individual CBT
Explanation:Depression in Young People: NICE Guidelines
The NICE Guidelines for depression in young people are limited to those between the ages of 5-18. For mild depression without significant comorbid problems of active suicidal ideas of plans, watchful waiting is recommended, along with digital CBT, group CBT, group IPT, of group non-directive supportive therapy. For moderate to severe depression, family-based IPT, family therapy, psychodynamic psychotherapy, individual CBT, and fluoxetine may be used for 5-11 year olds, while individual CBT and fluoxetine may be used for 12-18 year olds. Antidepressant medication should not be used for initial treatment of mild depression, and should only be used in combination with concurrent psychological therapy for moderate to severe depression. Fluoxetine is the only antidepressant for which clinical trial evidence shows that the benefits outweigh the risks, and should be used as the first-line treatment. Paroxetine, venlafaxine, tricyclic antidepressants, and St John’s wort should not be used for the treatment of depression in children and young people. Second generation antipsychotics may be used for depression with psychotic symptoms, and ECT should only be considered for those with very severe depression and life-threatening symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 40
Correct
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Which symptom is not considered a sign of PTSD in individuals with learning disabilities?
Your Answer: Auditory hallucinations
Explanation:Post Traumatic Stress Disorder in People with Learning Difficulties
Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) can present differently in people with learning difficulties compared to those without. While nightmares, jumpiness, and sleep disturbance are common in the general population, aggression and behavioral disturbance are more common in those with learning disabilities. Other symptoms may include disruptive of defiant behavior, self-harm, agitation, distractibility, and depressed mood.
The most common cause of PTSD in people with learning difficulties is abuse. Treatment for PTSD in this population is similar to that for those without learning difficulties, including trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) of venlafaxine as an alternative of combined. However, the therapy must be tailored to the individual’s ability to understand and communicate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 41
Correct
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An aging patient is referred by their GP due to concerns about memory loss that has been worsening over the past three years. Upon examination, you diagnose the patient with Alzheimer's disease and administer an MMSE test resulting in a score of 9. A CT scan is ordered and reveals only generalized atrophy. What would be the appropriate course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: Memantine
Explanation:The clinical assessment of a patient with Alzheimer’s disease guides the decision to initiate treatment. NICE guidelines suggest the use of memantine for individuals with advanced Alzheimer’s disease, as indicated by a score of 0-10 on the MMSE.
Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.
NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.
The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.
In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 42
Correct
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What is the recommended approach by NICE for managing distress in patients with delirium?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Delirium Management
Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.
Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 43
Correct
-
If citalopram is prescribed to patients with a history of recurrent depression experiencing an episode of unipolar depression, the percentage of patients expected to achieve remission according to data from the STAR*D study is:
Your Answer: 30%
Explanation:The frequently cited effectiveness rate of antidepressants is likely derived from the STAR*D study, which enrolled individuals with a history of recurrent depression and aimed to assess real-world outcomes.
STAR*D Study
The STAR*D trial, conducted in the USA, aimed to evaluate the effectiveness of treatments for major depressive disorder in real-world patients. The study involved four levels of treatment, with patients starting at level 1 and progressing to the next level if they did not respond. The outcome measure used was remission, and the study entry criteria were broadly defined to ensure results could be generalized to a wide range of patients.
A total of 4,041 patients were enrolled in the first level of treatment, making STAR*D the largest prospective clinical trial of depression ever conducted. In level 1, one-third of participants achieved remission, and a further 10-15% responded but not to the point of remission. If treatment with an initial SSRI fails, then one in four patients who choose to switch to another medication will enter remission, regardless of whether the second medication is an SSRI of a medication of a different class. If patients choose to add a medication instead, one in three will get better.
Overall, the STAR*D study provides valuable insights into the effectiveness of different treatments for major depressive disorder and highlights the importance of considering alternative treatments if initial treatment fails.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 44
Correct
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A woman in her 50s with refractory depression has been tried on several different SSRIs and tricyclic antidepressants and despite this has failed to respond. Which of the following is recommended as first choice by the Maudsley Guidelines in this situation?
Your Answer: Add quetiapine
Explanation:Depression (Refractory)
Refractory depression is a term used when two successive attempts at treatment have failed despite good compliance and adequate doses. There is no accepted definition of refractory depression. The following options are recommended as the first choice for refractory depression, with no preference implied by order:
– Add lithium
– Combined use of olanzapine and fluoxetine
– Add quetiapine to SSRI/SNRI
– Add aripiprazole to antidepressant
– Bupropion + SSRI
– SSRI (of venlafaxine) + mianserin (of mirtazapine)These recommendations are taken from the 13th edition of the Maudsley Guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 45
Incorrect
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According to NICE guidelines, which option is linked to the least amount of risk in case of an overdose?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Lofepramine
Explanation:Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 46
Correct
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What is a true statement about Kleine-Levin syndrome?
Your Answer: It is associated with hyperphagia
Explanation:Kleine-Levin Syndrome: A Mysterious Condition
Kleine-Levin syndrome is a peculiar disorder that typically affects adolescent boys. It is characterized by an excessive need for sleep and an insatiable appetite when awake. The condition is also associated with emotional and behavioral issues such as irritability and aggression.
The onset of symptoms is sudden and can last for several days to weeks before disappearing. This is followed by a period of normalcy, only to be followed by another episode. This pattern can continue for years, but the severity of symptoms tends to decrease over time. During the periods between episodes, those affected appear to be perfectly healthy with no signs of physical of behavioral dysfunction. The media has dubbed this condition as Sleeping Beauty syndrome.
Despite extensive research, the cause of Kleine-Levin syndrome remains unknown. However, the prognosis is generally positive, with most individuals making a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 47
Correct
-
Which variable classification is not included in Stevens' typology?
Your Answer: Ranked
Explanation:Stevens suggested that scales can be categorized into one of four types based on measurements.
Scales of Measurement in Statistics
In the 1940s, Stanley Smith Stevens introduced four scales of measurement to categorize data variables. Knowing the scale of measurement for a variable is crucial in selecting the appropriate statistical analysis. The four scales of measurement are ratio, interval, ordinal, and nominal.
Ratio scales are similar to interval scales, but they have true zero points. Examples of ratio scales include weight, time, and length. Interval scales measure the difference between two values, and one unit on the scale represents the same magnitude on the trait of characteristic being measured across the whole range of the scale. The Fahrenheit scale for temperature is an example of an interval scale.
Ordinal scales categorize observed values into set categories that can be ordered, but the intervals between each value are uncertain. Examples of ordinal scales include social class, education level, and income level. Nominal scales categorize observed values into set categories that have no particular order of hierarchy. Examples of nominal scales include genotype, blood type, and political party.
Data can also be categorized as quantitative of qualitative. Quantitative variables take on numeric values and can be further classified into discrete and continuous types. Qualitative variables do not take on numerical values and are usually names. Some qualitative variables have an inherent order in their categories and are described as ordinal. Qualitative variables are also called categorical of nominal variables. When a qualitative variable has only two categories, it is called a binary variable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 48
Correct
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What is the estimated occurrence of schizophrenia among individuals with learning disabilities?
Your Answer: 3%
Explanation:Schizophrenia Epidemiology
Prevalence:
– In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
– Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
– The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
– Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.Incidence:
– In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
– Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.Gender:
– The male to female ratio is 1:1.Course and Prognosis:
– Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
– Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
– Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
– Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
– Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
– People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.Winter Births:
– Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.Urbanicity:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.Migration:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.Class:
– There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.Learning Disability:
– Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 49
Correct
-
A 30 year old woman goes to see her doctor with complaints of fatigue. After some tests, the doctor informs her that she has an autoimmune disorder. The woman becomes upset and refuses to believe the diagnosis, insisting that she has always taken good care of herself and this cannot be happening to her. What cognitive distortion is she displaying?
Your Answer: Fallacy of Fairness
Explanation:In the given situation, the individual’s perspective is not influenced by emotions, therefore it cannot be categorized as emotional reasoning. Rather, their viewpoint is founded on an erroneous belief regarding the principles of justice and fairness in the world.
Cognitive Therapy and Negative Automatic Thoughts
Cognitive therapy is a present-focused approach that aims to help clients overcome difficulties by identifying and changing dysfunctional thinking. This therapy is based on collaboration between the client and therapist and on testing beliefs through collaborative empiricism. One of the techniques used in cognitive therapy is Socratic questioning, which helps elicit false beliefs called negative automatic thoughts.
Negative automatic thoughts, also known as cognitive distortions, can be categorized into different types. Dichotomous thinking is the tendency to see things as black and white rather than shades of grey. Personalization is the incorrect assumption that things happen due to us, while overgeneralization involves coming to a general conclusion based on a single piece of evidence. Arbitrary inference is drawing an unjustified conclusion, while selective abstraction involves concentrating on the negative while ignoring the positives. Catastrophizing is expecting disaster from relatively trivial events, while filtering involves selecting out only negative aspects of a situation and leaving out the positive.
Control fallacies involve believing that we are responsible for everything (internal control fallacy) of nothing (external control fallacy). The fallacy of fairness is believing that life is fair, while blaming involves holding others responsible for our distress. Shoulds are preconceived rules we believe (often incorrect) which makes us angry when others don’t obey them. Magnification is a tendency to exaggerate the importance of negative information of experiences, while trivializing of reducing the significance of positive information of experiences. Minimization involves an undervaluation of positive attributes, while emotional reasoning is believing what we feel must be true.
The fallacy of change involves expecting others to change just because it suits us, while global labeling involves exaggerating and labeling behavior (e.g. when you fail at something, saying ‘I’m a loser’). Always being right is when the need to be right dominates all other needs, while the heaven’s reward fallacy involves expecting our sacrifices will pay off. Finally, magical thinking is incorrectly believing that our actions influence the outcomes.
Overall, cognitive therapy helps individuals identify and challenge negative automatic thoughts to improve their mental health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 50
Correct
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What is another name for a DaTscan?
Your Answer: FP-CIT SPECT
Explanation:The purpose of a DaTscan is to aid in the identification of dementia with Lewy bodies in individuals who are suspected to have it.
Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 51
Correct
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NICE recommends a specific first-line option as the preferred treatment for depression in young people when antidepressant medication is necessary.
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Depression in Young People: NICE Guidelines
The NICE Guidelines for depression in young people are limited to those between the ages of 5-18. For mild depression without significant comorbid problems of active suicidal ideas of plans, watchful waiting is recommended, along with digital CBT, group CBT, group IPT, of group non-directive supportive therapy. For moderate to severe depression, family-based IPT, family therapy, psychodynamic psychotherapy, individual CBT, and fluoxetine may be used for 5-11 year olds, while individual CBT and fluoxetine may be used for 12-18 year olds. Antidepressant medication should not be used for initial treatment of mild depression, and should only be used in combination with concurrent psychological therapy for moderate to severe depression. Fluoxetine is the only antidepressant for which clinical trial evidence shows that the benefits outweigh the risks, and should be used as the first-line treatment. Paroxetine, venlafaxine, tricyclic antidepressants, and St John’s wort should not be used for the treatment of depression in children and young people. Second generation antipsychotics may be used for depression with psychotic symptoms, and ECT should only be considered for those with very severe depression and life-threatening symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 52
Correct
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What is the accurate statement about the issue of alcohol misuse in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer: The highest levels of binge drinking occur in people aged 16-24
Explanation:Prevalence of Substance Misuse, with a Focus on Alcohol Misuse
Alcohol misuse is a major issue, particularly in the UK, where it is among the highest rates in Europe. Men are more likely to experience both alcohol dependence and binge drinking than women. Specifically, 6% of men and 2% of women experience alcohol dependence, while 21% of men and 9% of women engage in binge drinking. It is worth noting that this figure contradicts the findings from the NPMS in 2000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 53
Correct
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A woman is referred by her GP due to her persistent belief that she has stomach cancer. She remains convinced of this despite multiple normal investigations and reassurance from medical specialists. What is the most probable diagnosis for her condition?
Your Answer: Hypochondriasis
Explanation:There is often confusion between hypochondriasis and bodily distress disorder. Hypochondriasis involves a fixation on having a particular illness, while bodily distress disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with symptoms rather than a specific diagnosis.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 54
Incorrect
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During which time period is postpartum psychosis most likely to occur?
Your Answer: 2-4 weeks
Correct Answer: 0-2 weeks
Explanation:The specific onset of puerperal psychosis is a topic of varying information from different sources. It is difficult to determine whether it is more common in the first two weeks of weeks 2-4. However, an article in Advances in Psychiatric Treatment by Brockington in 1998 suggests that the most common time period for onset is within the first two weeks. As this is a widely used resource in college, it is the source we have chosen to rely on.
Psychiatric Issues in the Postpartum Period
The period following childbirth, known as the postpartum period, can be a time of significant psychiatric challenges for women. Many women experience a temporary mood disturbance called baby blues, which is characterized by emotional instability, sadness, and tearfulness. This condition typically resolves within two weeks.
However, a minority of women (10-15%) experience postpartum depression, which is similar to major depression in its clinical presentation. In contrast, a very small number of women (1-2 per 1000) experience postpartum psychosis, also known as puerperal psychosis. This is a severe form of psychosis that occurs in the weeks following childbirth.
Research suggests that there may be a link between puerperal psychosis and mood disorders, as approximately 50% of women who develop the condition have a family history of mood disorder. Puerperal psychosis typically begins within the first two weeks following delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential psychiatric issues and to provide appropriate support and treatment to women during the postpartum period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 55
Correct
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A teenager is referred to you regarding his concern about the appearance of his nose. He complains that it is extremely large and has approached several surgeons in an attempt to get a reduction. Objectively you think his nose is an average size. Which of the following conditions would you suspect?
Your Answer: Body dysmorphic disorder
Explanation:Body Dysmorphic Disorder is a condition where individuals are preoccupied with one of more perceived flaws in their appearance, which may not be noticeable to others. They may feel excessively self-conscious and believe that others are judging them based on these flaws. This can lead to repetitive behaviors such as examining the perceived flaw, attempting to hide of alter it, of avoiding social situations that trigger distress. In contrast, Body Integrity Dysphoria is a rare condition where individuals experience discomfort of negative feelings about a specific body part, often leading to a desire to amputate of remove it, rather than improve its appearance.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 56
Correct
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Who is the neo-Freudian known for creating a therapy that is especially effective in treating borderline personality disorder?
Your Answer: Otto Kernberg
Explanation:Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 57
Correct
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What is a true statement about self harm?
Your Answer: Older people who self-harm often have a degree of suicidal intent
Explanation:Self Harm in Older Adults
Self harm in older adults should be taken very seriously as it often indicates suicidal intent. The NICE guidelines on Self Harm (2004) recommend that all acts of self-harm in people over 65 years of age should be regarded as evidence of suicidal intent until proven otherwise. This is because the number of older adults who complete suicide is much higher than in younger adults.
Unfortunately, many individuals who self-harm never receive psychiatric care and are discharged from emergency departments without any psychosocial needs assessment. This is contrary to the 2004 recommendations by the UK’s National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence (NICE) for those who self-harm.
Self harm can take many forms, including overdose, cutting, burning, hitting of mutilating body parts, and attempted hanging of strangulation. It is important to recognize the signs of self harm and provide appropriate support and care to those who engage in this behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 58
Correct
-
What is the most accurate approximation of the 1 year prevalence of late onset schizophrenia?
Your Answer: 0.40%
Explanation:Epidemiology of Mental Disorders Among the Elderly
Depression:
Contrary to popular belief, studies have shown that rates of depression among the elderly in the general population are lower than in younger adults. However, elderly individuals who seek medical attention have a higher prevalence of depressive symptoms, with one study in London reporting a point prevalence of around 30%. Suicide risk factors in the elderly include a history of attempts, depressive disorder, access to lethal means, physical illness of disability, chronic pain, recent losses, and social isolation. Physician education in recognizing and treating depression and restricting access to lethal means have been found to reduce suicide rates.Personality Disorder:
There is limited information on the prevalence of personality disorders in the general population, but rates tend to decrease with age.Psychosis:
Very late-onset schizophrenia, with onset after the age of 60, has a 1-year prevalence of 0.1 to 0.5%. It is more common in women and has been associated with sensory impairment. Genetic factors appear to be less important than in earlier onset schizophrenia.Alcohol Misuse:
Studies have shown that men have higher rates of alcohol misuse than women in the elderly population. However, precise figures and prevalence rates are unreliable, and standard assessment tools may not be valid in this group.Dementia:
Dementia incidence is similar across all continents and regions of the world, with Alzheimer’s accounting for 60-70% and vascular dementia accounting for 15-20% of all dementia cases. Age is the strongest risk factor for dementia, with approximately 48% of people aged 95 and over having dementia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 59
Incorrect
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Which statement about the neuroimaging changes observed in Alzheimer's disease is incorrect?
Your Answer: MRI shows medial temporal lobe atrophy
Correct Answer: SPECT demonstrates temporoparietal hyperperfusion
Explanation:SPECT imaging reveals temporo-parietal hypoperfusion in individuals with Alzheimer’s disease, indicating reduced blood flow to these brain regions rather than increased blood flow (hyperperfusion).
Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 60
Correct
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Which of the following options is NOT a suitable initial treatment for an adult diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder?
Your Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:SSRIs are recommended for the treatment of OCD in adults.
Maudsley Guidelines
First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)
Second line:
– SSRI + antipsychotic
– Citalopram + clomipramine
– Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
– Lamotrigine + SSRI
– Topiramate + SSRI -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 61
Correct
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What is a factor that increases the risk of agranulocytosis when using clozapine?
Your Answer: Being Asian
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is causing his parents some concern. He progressed normally until the age of 5 years after which his milestones slowed down. His language development is delayed and he lacks imaginative play. More recently, he has begun repeated 'hand-wringing' movements. You refer him for karyotype testing and the number of chromosomes is normal. Which one of the following conditions could this boy suffer from?
Your Answer: Angelman syndrome
Correct Answer: Rett syndrome
Explanation:Rett syndrome should be suspected in a young girl who exhibits autistic features and hand wringing movements. Despite having a normal number of chromosomes, a mutation in the MECP2 gene on the X chromosome is believed to be the cause. For more information, please refer to the Rett Syndrome Fact Sheet provided by the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
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Question 63
Correct
-
After a deliberate self-harm episode, what is the estimated risk of suicide for a 24-year-old man in the next 12 months?
Your Answer: 0.50%
Explanation:Suicide Rates Following Self-Harm
Most individuals who engage in self-harm do not go on to commit suicide, which makes risk assessment challenging. A study conducted in the UK in 2015 by Hawton found that 0.5% of individuals died by suicide in the first year following self-harm, with a higher rate among males (0.82%) than females (0.27%). Over the two-year period following self-harm, 1.6% died by suicide, with more occurrences in the second year. Interestingly, a study by Murphy in 2012 found that the rate of suicide following self-harm was higher in the elderly (those over 60), with a rate of 1.5 suicides in the first 12 months. The only significant risk factor for suicide following self-harm in this study was the use of a violent method in the initial episode.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 64
Correct
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Which item is excluded from the scope of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971?
Your Answer: Amyl nitrite
Explanation:Poppers, also known as liquid gold, amyl of butyl nitrite, are not considered illegal to purchase of possess under the MDA. They are commonly sold in sex shops, joke shops, and other retail locations frequented by young people, such as pubs, clubs, tobacconists, music stores, and clothing shops. While the legality of poppers has not been fully tested in court, the Medicines Control Agency has classified them as a medicine and therefore subject to the Medicines Act 1968. This means that only licensed outlets, such as chemists, are permitted to sell the drug. Additionally, poppers are not regulated under the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016.
Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)
The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.
The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.
It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.
Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 65
Correct
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Which of the following is not considered an effective prophylaxis for bipolar affective disorder, despite the use of other medications such as valproate, olanzapine, lithium, and quetiapine, and the avoidance of antidepressants due to their lack of significant benefit?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:It is recommended to avoid the use of antidepressants in bipolar disorder whenever possible, as studies have not shown significant benefits from their continued use (Maudsley 13th Ed).
Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management
Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.
Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.
The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.
It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.
Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 66
Incorrect
-
A middle-aged individual develops depression shortly after suffering a stroke and is currently taking warfarin. What medication is advised in this situation?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:For patients with post stroke depression who are taking warfarin, citalopram is the recommended treatment option. However, caution should be exercised if the stroke was hemorrhagic as SSRIs can increase the risk of de novo hemorrhagic stroke, especially when combined with antiplatelet drugs of warfarin. In such cases, citalopram or escitalopram may be preferred as they have the lowest potential for interaction. It is not clear how direct-acting oral anticoagulants (DOACs) interact with SSRIs, but citalopram or escitalopram may still be preferred as they do not affect the enzymes associated with DOAC metabolism.
Depression is a common occurrence after a stroke, affecting 30-40% of patients. The location of the stroke lesion can play a crucial role in the development of major depression. Treatment for post-stroke depression must take into account the cause of the stroke, medical comorbidities, and potential interactions with other medications. The Maudsley guidelines recommend SSRIs as the first-line treatment, with paroxetine being the preferred choice. Nortriptyline is also an option, as it does not increase the risk of bleeding. If the patient is on anticoagulants, citalopram and escitalopram may be preferred. Antidepressant prophylaxis has been shown to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression, with nortriptyline, fluoxetine, escitalopram, duloxetine, sertraline, and mirtazapine being effective options. Mianserin, however, appears to be ineffective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 67
Incorrect
-
Which receptors have been linked to excessive salivation caused by clozapine?
Your Answer: Histaminergic and adrenergic
Correct Answer: Muscarinic and adrenergic
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 68
Correct
-
As per NICE guidelines, what is the recommended time frame for a clinic review of a 25 year-old man who has been started on an SSRI for his first episode of depression?
Your Answer: 1 week
Explanation:It is recommended that individuals who are under 30 years of age of are at an increased risk of suicide and have started taking antidepressants should be monitored closely and seen for follow-up appointments. This is particularly important in the early stages of treatment when there may be a higher prevalence of suicidal thoughts.
Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 69
Incorrect
-
What SPECT finding is indicative of Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: Increased temporal perfusion
Correct Answer: Decreased temporal perfusion
Explanation:Given the atrophy of the medial temporal lobe that is linked to Alzheimer’s, a reduction in perfusion of the temporal lobe would be anticipated.
SPECT Imaging for Alzheimer’s Diagnosis
SPECT imaging has been found to be a useful tool in differentiating between patients with Alzheimer’s disease and healthy older individuals. Studies have shown that temporal and parietal hypoperfusion can be indicative of Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, SPECT imaging has been effective in distinguishing between Alzheimer’s disease and Lewy body dementia. A SPECT scan of a patient with Alzheimer’s disease versus one with Lewy body dementia showed lower perfusion in medial temporal areas for Alzheimer’s disease and lower perfusion in occipital cortex for Lewy body dementia. These findings suggest that SPECT imaging can be a valuable diagnostic tool for Alzheimer’s disease and related dementias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 70
Correct
-
Which of the options below is not utilized as a means of opioid detoxification?
Your Answer: Ephedrine
Explanation:Medications utilized for opioid detoxification comprise of Methadone, Buprenorphine, and Lofexidine.
Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 71
Correct
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Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with low socioeconomic class?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Social Class and Mental Disorder
There is a consistent finding that shows an inverse relationship between social class and rates of mental illness. This means that individuals from lower social classes are more likely to experience mental health issues compared to those from higher social classes. However, this inverse relationship is not observed in the case of anorexia nervosa. This suggests that factors other than social class may play a more significant role in the development of this particular disorder. Overall, the relationship between social class and mental health is complex and requires further investigation to fully understand the underlying factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 72
Correct
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What is the focus of assessment in interpersonal psychotherapy?
Your Answer: Current relationships
Explanation:Interpersonal Therapy: A Structured Approach to Addressing Social Functioning Problems
Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is a structured form of psychotherapy that is often used to treat depression. It is based on the belief that social functioning problems have a significant impact on psychological problems. IPT is a time-limited therapy that typically runs for 10-16 one hour sessions. The therapy is organized into three phases, with the first phase involving data collection and formulation. The remaining sessions explore the formulation in more detail.
IPT focuses on four areas of social functioning problems: grief, role transitions, interpersonal deficits, and interpersonal disputes. The therapy aims to intervene at the level of social functioning, rather than focusing on personality. The therapy has been found to be effective in treating depression, particularly in patients with severe depression. However, it may be less effective in treating people with depression and comorbid personality disorders.
The evidence base for IPT is most developed for eating disorders, and the intervention is recommended in NICE guidelines for eating disorders. Overall, IPT is a structured approach to addressing social functioning problems that can be effective in treating depression and other psychological problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 73
Correct
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Please provide an example of a question that is not included in the SCOFF questionnaire.
Your Answer: Do you regularly feel that you are overweight?
Explanation:The SCOFF Questionnaire for Screening Eating Disorders
The SCOFF questionnaire is a tool used to screen for eating disorders. It consists of five questions that aim to identify symptoms of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questions include whether the individual makes themselves sick because they feel uncomfortably full, worries about losing control over how much they eat, has recently lost more than one stone in a three-month period, believes themselves to be fat when others say they are too thin, and whether food dominates their life.
A score of two or more positive responses indicates a likely case of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questionnaire has a sensitivity of 84.6% and specificity of 98.6% when two or more questions are answered positively. This means that if a patient responds positively to two of more questions, there is a high likelihood that they have an eating disorder. The negative predictive value of the questionnaire is 99.3%, which means that if a patient responds negatively to the questions, there is a high probability that they do not have an eating disorder.
Overall, the SCOFF questionnaire is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to quickly screen for eating disorders and identify individuals who may require further assessment and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 74
Correct
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You are provided with a set of blood test outcomes that show serum levels for different medications. Which of the following falls outside the typical range for an elderly patient?
Your Answer: Lithium - 1.3 mmol/L
Explanation:Here are some possible ways to rewrite the given optimal therapeutic ranges:
– The recommended therapeutic levels for olanzapine are between 20 and 40 nanograms per milliliter (ng/mL).
– To achieve optimal treatment outcomes, clozapine levels should be maintained within the range of 350 to 500 ng/mL.
– The therapeutic window for quetiapine spans from 100 to 1000 ng/mL, depending on the patient’s condition and response.
– Valproate therapy is typically effective when the serum concentration falls between 50 and 100 micrograms per milliliter (mcg/mL).Lithium – Clinical Usage
Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.
Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.
Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.
Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.
Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.
The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 75
Correct
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What is the highest approved dosage of olanzapine?
Your Answer: 20 mg/day
Explanation:Antipsychotics (Maximum Doses)
It is important to be aware of the maximum doses for commonly used antipsychotics. The following are the maximum doses for various antipsychotics:
– Clozapine (oral): 900 mg/day
– Haloperidol (oral): 20 mg/day
– Olanzapine (oral): 20 mg/day
– Quetiapine (oral): 750mg/day (for schizophrenia) and 800 mg/day (for bipolar disorder)
– Risperidone (oral): 16 mg/day
– Amisulpride (oral): 1200 mg/day
– Aripiprazole (oral): 30 mg/day
– Flupentixol (depot): 400 mg/week
– Zuclopenthixol (depot): 600 mg/week
– Haloperidol (depot): 300 mg every 4 weeksIt is important to keep these maximum doses in mind when prescribing antipsychotics to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 76
Correct
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In which condition of situation are hand wringing movements frequently observed?
Your Answer: Rett syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Conditions and Their Features
Genetic conditions are disorders caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These conditions can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including physical and intellectual development. Some of the most common genetic conditions and their features are:
– Downs (trisomy 21): Short stature, almond-shaped eyes, low muscle tone, and intellectual disability.
– Angelman syndrome (Happy puppet syndrome): Flapping hand movements, ataxia, severe learning disability, seizures, and sleep problems.
– Prader-Willi: Hyperphagia, excessive weight gain, short stature, and mild learning disability.
– Cri du chat: Characteristic cry, hypotonia, down-turned mouth, and microcephaly.
– Velocardiofacial syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome): Cleft palate, cardiac problems, and learning disabilities.
– Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Severe intellectual disability, kidney malformations, and physical abnormalities.
– Lesch-Nyhan syndrome: Self-mutilation, dystonia, and writhing movements.
– Smith-Magenis syndrome: Pronounced self-injurious behavior, self-hugging, and a hoarse voice.
– Fragile X: Elongated face, large ears, hand flapping, and shyness.
– Wolf Hirschhorn syndrome: Mild to severe intellectual disability, seizures, and physical abnormalities.
– Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): Severe intellectual disability, congenital heart malformations, and physical abnormalities.
– Rett syndrome: Regression and loss of skills, hand-wringing movements, and profound learning disability.
– Tuberous sclerosis: Hamartomatous tumors, epilepsy, and behavioral issues.
– Williams syndrome: Elfin-like features, social disinhibition, and advanced verbal skills.
– Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome: Short stature, friendly disposition, and moderate learning disability.
– Klinefelter syndrome: Extra X chromosome, low testosterone, and speech and language issues.
– Jakob’s syndrome: Extra Y chromosome, tall stature, and lower mean intelligence.
– Coffin-Lowry syndrome: Short stature, slanting eyes, and severe learning difficulty.
– Turner syndrome: Short stature, webbed neck, and absent periods.
– Niemann Pick disease (types A and B): Abdominal swelling, cherry red spot, and feeding difficulties.It is important to note that these features may vary widely among individuals with the same genetic condition. Early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with genetic conditions reach their full potential and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 77
Correct
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Which principle is not recognized in motivational interviewing?
Your Answer: Therapeutic neutrality
Explanation:Motivational Interviewing: A Model for Resolving Ambivalence and Facilitating Change
Motivational interviewing (MI) is an evidence-based method used for people with substance misuse problems. It was introduced by William Miller in 1983, based on his experience with alcoholics. MI focuses on exploring and resolving ambivalence and centres on the motivational process that facilitates change. It is based on three key elements: collaboration, evocation, and autonomy.
There are four principles of MI: expressing empathy, supporting self-efficacy, rolling with resistance, and developing discrepancy. MI involves the use of micro-counseling skills called OARS, which stands for open-ended questions, affirmations, reflections, and summaries.
Change talk is defined as statements by the client that reveal consideration of, motivation for, of commitment to change. In MI, the therapist aims to guide the client to expression of change talk. Types of change talk can be remembered by the mnemonic DARN-CAT, which stands for desire, ability, reason, need, commitment, activation, and taking steps.
Overall, MI is a model for resolving ambivalence and facilitating change that emphasizes collaboration, evocation, and autonomy. It is a useful tool for therapists working with clients with substance misuse problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 78
Correct
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According to NICE, which SSRI is the recommended first-line treatment for body dysmorphic disorder in children?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:OCD and BDD are two mental health disorders that can affect children. OCD is characterized by obsessions and compulsions, while BDD is characterized by a preoccupation with an imagined defect in one’s appearance. Both disorders can cause significant distress and impairment in daily functioning.
For mild cases of OCD, guided self-help may be considered along with support and information for the family of caregivers. For moderate to severe cases of OCD, cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) that involves the family of caregivers and is adapted to suit the child’s developmental age is recommended. For all children and young people with BDD, CBT (including exposure and response prevention) is recommended.
If a child declines psychological treatment, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be prescribed. However, a licensed medication (sertraline of fluvoxamine) should be used for children and young people with OCD, while fluoxetine should be used for those with BDD. If an SSRI is ineffective of not tolerated, another SSRI of clomipramine may be tried. Tricyclic antidepressants other than clomipramine should not be used to treat OCD of BDD in children and young people. Other antidepressants (MAOIs, SNRIs) and antipsychotics should not be used alone in the routine treatment of OCD of BDD in children of young people, but may be considered as an augmentation strategy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 79
Correct
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What are the accurate statements about the risk factors associated with schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Winter birth is a risk factor for schizophrenia
Explanation:Studies have indicated that belonging to an ethnic minority group increases the likelihood of being at risk. However, it is important to note that race alone is not a determining factor. The correlation is believed to be influenced by various factors, including social stress and discrimination. It is noteworthy that this trend appears to persist across multiple generations.
Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors
Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.
While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.
Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.
Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.
Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 80
Correct
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How can a patient's history indicate the presence of mania instead of hypomania?
Your Answer: Auditory hallucinations
Explanation:While psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations can manifest during mania, they are not a requirement for diagnosis. Hypomania, on the other hand, is a milder form of mania that does not involve psychotic symptoms.
Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 81
Correct
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In this case, a 23-year-old woman with autism spectrum disorder and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is seeking advice on medication options for her attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. She has reported using CBD oil occasionally to help her feel more relaxed in social situations, but denies any substance misuse. The most suitable initial medication choice in this situation would be:
Your Answer: Methylphenidate
Explanation:According to Graham (2011), the use of cannabis of CBD does not automatically prevent the prescription of stimulant medication for ADHD. Methylphenidate is considered the most effective treatment option and would be the preferred choice. Atomoxetine may be used if there is a concern about stimulant abuse of diversion, but in this case, there is no evidence of substance misuse. These recommendations are based on European guidelines for managing adverse effects of medication for ADHD.
ADHD Diagnosis and Management in Adults
ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for ADHD, with the DSM-5 recognising three subtypes of the condition: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
Treatment for ADHD in adults includes medication and non-pharmacological interventions. NICE recommends offering medication to adults with ADHD if their symptoms are still causing significant impairment after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine are first-line medications, with atomoxetine offered for those who cannot tolerate the former two. Additional medication options may be considered with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.
NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’ for ADHD. Prior to initiating medication, referral to cardiology is recommended if there is a suggestion of cardiac pathology. If a person with ADHD develops mania of psychosis, ADHD treatment should be stopped until the episode has resolved. If a person taking stimulants develops tics, medication options may be adjusted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 82
Correct
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What is the most suitable measure to describe the most common test grades collected by a college professor?
Your Answer: Mode
Explanation:The median represents the middle value in a set of data. For example, if there were 7 results (A, B, C, D, E, F, F), the median would be D. However, if the question asks for the most common result, the mode would be used. In this example, the mode would be F. The mean would not be appropriate in this case because adding all the values and dividing by the number of values would not provide a meaningful result.
Measures of Central Tendency
Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.
The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.
The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.
In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 83
Correct
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A study examines the effectiveness of adding a new antiplatelet drug to aspirin for patients over the age of 60 who have had a stroke. A total of 170 patients are enrolled, with 120 receiving the new drug in addition to aspirin and the remaining 50 receiving only aspirin. After 5 years, it is found that 18 patients who received the new drug experienced a subsequent stroke, while only 10 patients who received aspirin alone had a further stroke. What is the number needed to treat?
Your Answer: 20
Explanation:Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 84
Correct
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What is the term used to refer to a psychotic episode that is brief and lasts for less than 3 months?
Your Answer: Bouffée délirante
Explanation:The term Bouffée délirante is a distinct and historical French diagnosis used to describe a brief episode of psychosis characterized by sudden and severe psychotic symptoms that fully resolve. The oneiroid state refers to a dreamy mental state. Latent schizophrenia is an outdated term that was previously used to describe individuals with borderline, schizoid, and schizotypal personality disorders.
– Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
– Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
– The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
– Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
– Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
– Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
– Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 85
Correct
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The ICD-11 defines a condition characterized by distressing emotional, behavioral, and physical symptoms that occur in the premenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle as:
Your Answer: Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Explanation:There is currently no evidence to support the use of vitamin supplements for the treatment of premenstrual dysphoric disorder. However, lifestyle changes such as regular exercise, a healthy diet, and stress reduction techniques may be helpful in managing symptoms. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for individual cases of PMDD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 86
Correct
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What are the accurate statements about evaluating and handling self-injury in adults?
Your Answer: A psychosocial assessment should not be delayed until after medical treatment is complete
Explanation:It is important to conduct a psychosocial assessment early on in the treatment process, rather than waiting until after medical treatment is complete. During this assessment, it is crucial to speak with the service user alone to ensure confidentiality and allow for open discussion. In cases where physical treatment may trigger traumatic memories, sedation should be offered beforehand. It is also important to assume mental capacity unless evidence suggests otherwise when assessing and treating individuals who have self-harmed. All members of the healthcare team should be able to assess capacity, and challenging cases should involve a team discussion.
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 87
Correct
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A 16-year-old male shows resistance towards consuming meals that are made for him. What would be the most indicative of a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: She achieves high grades at school
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is a disorder characterized by an abnormal perception of body image. However, there are other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. This test aims to assess your knowledge of differential diagnoses and features that may indicate an alternative diagnosis.
Patients with anorexia nervosa often feel well despite others’ concerns about their appearance. They may also be highly motivated and successful in their academic of professional pursuits. However, the absence of delusions about food being poisoned may suggest a different diagnosis, such as a psychotic illness.
Heavy drinking is another factor that may indicate a different diagnosis, such as alcoholism. On the other hand, if the patient is secretly abusing laxatives, this would support a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa rather than the use of anabolic agents.
In summary, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses when evaluating a patient with symptoms of anorexia nervosa. Factors such as delusions, heavy drinking, of the use of anabolic agents may suggest a different underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 88
Correct
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A 70 year old woman is referred by her general practitioner due to a concern about cognitive impairment confirmed by a score of 20 on the MMSE. Her MRI shows atrophy and white matter hyperintensities. What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?
Your Answer: Donepezil
Explanation:The CT scan commonly shows mixed dementia in patients with Alzheimer’s, making it challenging to distinguish from vascular dementia even with imaging. NICE recommends using AChE-I for mixed dementia cases. A previous Cochrane review (Rands 2000) found no proof to support the use of aspirin in vascular dementia.
Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.
NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.
The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.
In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman is referred to your clinic. Her daughter has noticed a slight change in her mother's behavior and increased forgetfulness over the past six months. This started after she had a transient ischemic attack and has since worsened. She has type 1 diabetes mellitus and is on insulin. You perform cognitive testing and refer the woman for an EEG.
What is the most probable EEG result?Your Answer: Normal EEG
Correct Answer: Asymmetrical pattern of waves
Explanation:The individual is exhibiting symptoms consistent with vascular dementia, which is supported by minor changes in behavior, a medical history of transient ischaemic attacks and diabetes mellitus. An EEG scan reveals an uneven pattern caused by infarctions in the brain due to small vessel disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 90
Correct
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What is the accuracy of the NICE guidelines for investigating dementia?
Your Answer: FDG-PET of perfusion SPECT should be used where the diagnosis is uncertain and frontotemporal dementia is suspected
Explanation:As an AI language model, I do not have the ability to perform investigations of provide medical advice. However, I can provide information on the NICE guidelines for investigations in people with dementia. The guidelines suggest routine blood tests to exclude reversible causes, such as full blood count, ESR, CRP, urea and electrolytes, calcium, HbA1c, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and serum B12 and folate levels. Other investigations that may be appropriate if clinically indicated include urine microscopy and culture, chest X-ray, ECG, syphilis serology, and HIV testing. Structural imaging and CSF analysis may also be necessary to exclude other cerebral pathologies and establish the subtype diagnosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred over CT if the subtype is unclear and vascular is suspected. FDG-PET of perfusion SPECT may be considered if the diagnosis is uncertain and frontotemporal dementia of dementia with Lewy bodies is suspected. However, it is important to note that Apolipoprotein E genotyping and electroencephalography should not be used to diagnose Alzheimer’s disease. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 91
Correct
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What is a licensed treatment for PTSD?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:While NICE recommends mirtazapine for the treatment of PTSD, its license only permits its use for major depression.
Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)
The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.
– Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
– Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
– Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
– Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
– Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
– Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
– OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
– Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
– PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 92
Correct
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Which of the following resources has been filtered?
Your Answer: DARE
Explanation:The main focus of the Database of Abstracts of Reviews of Effect (DARE) is on systematic reviews that assess the impact of healthcare interventions and the management and provision of healthcare services. In order to be considered for inclusion, reviews must satisfy several requirements.
Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.
When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.
There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 93
Correct
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What is the probable diagnosis for a patient with schizophrenia who experiences discomfort in their legs, particularly at night, and finds relief by moving their legs?
Your Answer: Restless leg syndrome
Explanation:Restless Leg Syndrome, also known as Wittmaack-Ekbom syndrome, is a condition that causes an irresistible urge to move in order to alleviate uncomfortable sensations, primarily in the legs but sometimes in other areas of the body. The symptoms are exacerbated by rest and tend to worsen at night. Treatment options for this condition include dopamine agonists, opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticonvulsants. Sibler (2004) has developed an algorithm for managing Restless Leg Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 94
Correct
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To address the increasing suicidal tendencies of a patient with bipolar disorder, what would be the most suitable medication for stabilizing their mood?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Among mood stabilizers, lithium has the most notable impact on decreasing suicidal tendencies in individuals diagnosed with bipolar disorder.
Lithium’s Effectiveness in Reducing Suicide in Bipolar Disorder Patients
Lithium has been found to be more effective than other mood stabilizers in reducing completed suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder. This effect is significant, with estimates suggesting that lithium can reduce both attempted and completed suicide by 80% in this patient population.
According to the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition, lithium is a highly effective treatment option for bipolar disorder patients who are at risk of suicide. Its ability to reduce suicidal behavior is a crucial factor in its use as a mood stabilizer. The guidelines recommend that lithium be considered as a first-line treatment option for patients with bipolar disorder who are at high risk of suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 95
Incorrect
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Who was the originator of client-centred therapy?
Your Answer: Albert Ellis
Correct Answer: Carl Rogers
Explanation:Critics argue that client-centred therapy may not provide enough structure, but its goal is to empower patients to discover their own solutions to their problems.
Fonagy and Bateman – Mentalisation-Based Treatment
Mentalisation-Based Treatment (MBT) was developed by Peter Fonagy and Anthony Bateman in the 1990s. It is a psychodynamic therapy that focuses on improving the patient’s ability to mentalise, which is the capacity to understand one’s own and others’ mental states. MBT is primarily used to treat borderline personality disorder, but it has also been used to treat other mental health conditions.
Fonagy and Bateman work on MBT was influenced by their research on attachment theory and the importance of early relationships in shaping mentalisation abilities. They believed that individuals with borderline personality disorder have difficulties with mentalisation due to early attachment disruptions, and that MBT could help them develop more stable and secure relationships.
MBT is typically delivered in a group of individual format, and it involves a combination of psychoeducation, cognitive-behavioral techniques, and psychodynamic interventions. The therapist helps the patient to identify and reflect on their thoughts, feelings, and behaviors, and to understand how these are influenced by their past experiences and relationships. The therapist also helps the patient to develop more adaptive coping strategies and to improve their interpersonal skills.
Overall, Fonagy and Bateman work on MBT has contributed to the development of psychodynamic therapies that are more focused on specific treatment goals and evidence-based practices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 96
Correct
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What is the middle value in the set of numbers 2, 9, 4, 1, 23?
Your Answer: 4
Explanation:Measures of Central Tendency
Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.
The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.
The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.
In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 97
Incorrect
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The regional Health Authority has requested your expertise in determining whether to establish a new 12 bed pediatric ward of a six bed adolescent psychiatric unit. Your task is to conduct an economic analysis that evaluates the financial advantages and disadvantages of both proposals.
Your Answer: Cost effectiveness analysis
Correct Answer: Cost benefit analysis
Explanation:A cost benefit analysis is a method of evaluating whether the benefits of an intervention outweigh its costs, using monetary units as the common measurement. Typically, this type of analysis is employed by funding bodies to make decisions about financing, such as whether to allocate resources for a new delivery suite of electroconvulsive therapy suite.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 98
Correct
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Which treatment option for opiate maintenance therapy has the strongest evidence to support its effectiveness?
Your Answer: Buprenorphine
Explanation:Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 99
Correct
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One of the following statements that describes a type I error is the rejection of a true null hypothesis.
Your Answer: The null hypothesis is rejected when it is true
Explanation:Making a false positive conclusion by rejecting the null hypothesis.
Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics
In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.
The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.
Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 100
Correct
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Which statement about Brief psychodynamic therapy is false?
Your Answer: Transference is not considered important
Explanation:Brief Psychodynamic Psychotherapy: A Time-Limited Treatment
Brief psychodynamic psychotherapy is a type of therapy that is based on psychodynamic principles and is designed to be completed within a limited time frame, typically 10-12 sessions. This therapy is particularly effective when there is a specific focus of problem that the patient is dealing with. However, it is important that the patient is highly motivated and able to think in feeling terms for the therapy to be successful.
There are different subtypes of brief psychodynamic psychotherapy, and some factors are considered contraindications for this type of therapy. These include serious suicide attempts, substance abuse, and marked acting out. Overall, brief psychodynamic psychotherapy can be a useful tool for addressing specific issues and helping patients achieve their therapeutic goals within a limited time frame.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 101
Correct
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How would NICE recommend augmenting treatment for a patient with depression who is already taking an SSRI?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 102
Incorrect
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In the context of Criminal law, what is the age at which an individual is considered an adult in England?
Your Answer: 10
Correct Answer: 18
Explanation:Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits
To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.
Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses
A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 103
Correct
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What is the term used to describe the inclination to attribute a shift in conduct of mood to a learning disability rather than the manifestation of a coexisting mental illness?
Your Answer: Diagnostic overshadowing
Explanation:Diagnostic Overshadowing in Learning Disability
Diagnostic overshadowing is a common phenomenon where a change in behavior of emotion is attributed to learning disability rather than a coexisting mental disorder. This tendency can lead to misdiagnosis and inappropriate treatment, particularly in adults with learning disability admitted to psychiatric wards. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider the possibility of comorbid mental disorders and conduct a thorough assessment to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. By avoiding diagnostic overshadowing, individuals with learning disability can receive the necessary support and care for their mental health needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 104
Correct
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What proportion of individuals with severe mental illness are responsible for committing violent crimes?
Your Answer: 1 in 20
Explanation:Mental Health Risk in Sweden: Data on Violent Crimes Committed by People with Severe Mental Illness
According to data from Sweden’s national register, 2.4% of violent crimes were committed by individuals with severe mental illness. This suggests that there is a mental health risk associated with violent crime in Sweden. However, it is important to note that this percentage only accounts for a small portion of all violent crimes.
The population attributable risk fraction of patients was found to be 5%, indicating that patients with severe mental illness are responsible for 1 in 20 violent crimes. This highlights the need for effective mental health treatment and support for individuals with severe mental illness to reduce the risk of violent behavior.
Overall, the data from Sweden’s national register provides important insights into the relationship between mental illness and violent crime. While the percentage of violent crimes committed by individuals with severe mental illness is relatively low, it is still a significant concern that requires attention and action from mental health professionals and policymakers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 105
Correct
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What type of data representation is used in a box and whisker plot?
Your Answer: Median
Explanation:Box and whisker plots are a useful tool for displaying information about the range, median, and quartiles of a data set. The whiskers only contain values within 1.5 times the interquartile range (IQR), and any values outside of this range are considered outliers and displayed as dots. The IQR is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, which divide the data set into quarters. Quartiles can also be used to determine the percentage of observations that fall below a certain value. However, quartiles and ranges have limitations because they do not take into account every score in a data set. To get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as variance and standard deviation are needed. Box plots can also provide information about the shape of a data set, such as whether it is skewed or symmetric. Notched boxes on the plot represent the confidence intervals of the median values.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 106
Incorrect
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What is the GRADE approach used in evidence based medicine and what are its characteristics?
Your Answer: It offers five levels of evidence quality
Correct Answer: The system can be applied to observational studies
Explanation:Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine
To evaluate the quality of evidence on a subject of question, levels of grades are used. The traditional hierarchy approach places systematic reviews of randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system, which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each.
The grading approach to be aware of is the GRADE system, which classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, of very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical of important. The evidence is then gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence, with the type of evidence being a significant factor. Evidence can be promoted of downgraded based on certain criteria, such as limitations to study quality, inconsistency, uncertainty about directness, imprecise of sparse data, and reporting bias. The GRADE system allows for the promotion of observational studies to high-quality evidence under the right circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 107
Correct
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An 87-year-old male is admitted with increasing confusion and lethargy, and his family have been particularly concerned that he has been unable to look after himself.
He has a recent history of hypertension and diabetes for which he takes lisinopril, metformin and amlodipine. On examination, he has a temperature of 36.2°C, and is confused in time and place.
His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg and his pulse 60 bpm regular. Abdominal examination reveals little but PR examination reveals that the rectum is loaded with faeces. Examination of the CNS reveals blunted tendon reflexes but no focal neurology. Initial investigations reveal:
Haemoglobin 130 g/L (120-160)
MCV 98 fL (80-100)
Platelets 200 ×109/L (150-400)
White cell count 7.2 ×109/L (4-11)
Sodium 135 mmol/L (135-145)
Potassium 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 120 mmol/L (60-110)
Glucose 10.5 mmol/L (4-7)
Which one of the following is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?Your Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:The patient has a brief history of growing confusion and struggling to cope, with primary symptoms of confusion, constipation, hypothermia, and reduced tendon reflexes. The tests indicate a higher than normal mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mild hyponatremia. These symptoms are consistent with hypothyroidism, and the most suitable test would be thyroid function tests, which should show a decrease in free thyroxine (T4) and an increase in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 108
Correct
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A teenager who is severely addicted to video games does not acknowledge the need to alter their gaming behavior and does not believe that it is negatively impacting their life. In which stage of change is the teenager?
Your Answer: Pre-contemplation
Explanation:Stages of Change Model
Prochaska and DiClemente’s Stages of Change Model identifies five stages that individuals go through when making a change. The first stage is pre-contemplation, where the individual is not considering change. There are different types of precontemplators, including those who lack knowledge about the problem, those who are afraid of losing control, those who feel hopeless, and those who rationalize their behavior.
The second stage is contemplation, where the individual is ambivalent about change and is sitting on the fence. The third stage is preparation, where the individual has some experience with change and is trying to change, testing the waters. The fourth stage is action, where the individual has started to introduce change, and the behavior is defined as action during the first six months of change.
The final stage is maintenance, where the individual is involved in ongoing efforts to maintain change. Action becomes maintenance once six months have elapsed. Understanding these stages can help individuals and professionals in supporting behavior change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 109
Incorrect
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Which statement about confounding is incorrect?
Your Answer: Stratification is a technique used to control for confounding
Correct Answer: In the analytic stage of a study confounding can be controlled for by randomisation
Explanation:In the analytic stage of a study, confounding cannot be controlled for by the technique of stratification. (This is false, as stratification is a technique commonly used to control for confounding in observational studies.)
Stats Confounding
A confounding factor is a factor that can obscure the relationship between an exposure and an outcome in a study. This factor is associated with both the exposure and the disease. For example, in a study that finds a link between coffee consumption and heart disease, smoking could be a confounding factor because it is associated with both drinking coffee and heart disease. Confounding occurs when there is a non-random distribution of risk factors in the population, such as age, sex, and social class.
To control for confounding in the design stage of an experiment, researchers can use randomization, restriction, of matching. Randomization aims to produce an even distribution of potential risk factors in two populations. Restriction involves limiting the study population to a specific group to ensure similar age distributions. Matching involves finding and enrolling participants who are similar in terms of potential confounding factors.
In the analysis stage of an experiment, researchers can control for confounding by using stratification of multivariate models such as logistic regression, linear regression, of analysis of covariance (ANCOVA). Stratification involves creating categories of strata in which the confounding variable does not vary of varies minimally.
Overall, controlling for confounding is important in ensuring that the relationship between an exposure and an outcome is accurately assessed in a study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 110
Correct
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A teenager presents to A&E in a state of distress and you are told by his friend that he is withdrawing from 'speed'. Which of the following is least likely to be present?
Your Answer: Reduced appetite
Explanation:Withdrawal from amphetamine, commonly referred to as speed, usually leads to an increase in appetite rather than a decrease.
Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.
Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.
MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.
Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.
Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.
Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 111
Correct
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A 67-year old man with a history of depression has recently developed Parkinson's. His wife complains that in the last 2 weeks he has been sending her sexually-explicit messages, and accusing her of having an affair. What is the most likely drug to have caused this?
Your Answer: Ropinirole
Explanation:Ropinirole is a medication that mimics the effects of dopamine and is prescribed for Parkinson’s disease. However, it has been known to trigger impulse control disorders, similar to other drugs that also act on dopamine receptors.
Parkinson’s Disease: Presentation, Aetiology, Medical Treatment, and Psychiatric Aspects
Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease of the brain that is characterised by motor symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. It has a long prodromal phase and early symptoms generally present asymmetrically. The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is classically described as ‘pill rolling’. The principle abnormality is the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra, which leads to an accumulation of alpha-synuclein in these abnormal dopaminergic cells. The majority of cases of Parkinson’s disease are idiopathic, but single gene mutations occur in a minority of cases. Pesticide, herbicide, and heavy metal exposures are linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease in some epidemiologic studies, whereas smoking and caffeine use are associated with decreased risks.
Treatment for Parkinson’s disease predominantly focuses on symptomatic relief with drugs aiming to either restore the level of dopamine in the striatum of to act on striatal postsynaptic dopamine receptors. However, as dopamine is not the only neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson’s disease, many other drugs are also being used to target specific symptoms, such as depression of dementia. Psychiatric symptoms are common in Parkinson’s disease and range from mild to severe. Factors associated with severe symptoms include age, sleep disturbance, dementia, and disease severity. Hallucinations are common in Parkinson’s disease and tend to be visual but can be auditory of tactile. In the majority of patients, psychotic symptoms are thought to be secondary to dopaminergic medication rather than due to the Parkinson’s disease itself. Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists seem to be associated with a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa of catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors. Medications used for psychotic symptoms may worsen movement problems. Risperidone and the typicals should be avoided completely. Low dose quetiapine is the best tolerated. Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic drug for treating psychosis in Parkinson’s disease but its use in clinical practice is limited by the need for monitoring and the additional physical risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 112
Correct
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What is the relationship between depression and myocardial infarction?
Your Answer: Sertraline has been shown to be safe for use in patients who have recently had a myocardial infarction
Explanation:According to a study, the combination of clopidogrel and an SSRI was found to be more effective in reducing the risk of cardiovascular events compared to dual antiplatelet therapy alone. However, the risk of bleeding was higher among patients taking clopidogrel and an SSRI, although the sample size was not sufficient to confirm this finding. The results were consistent regardless of the affinity of the SSRI. (Labos, 2011)
SSRI for Post-MI Depression
Post-myocardial infarction (MI), approximately 20% of people develop depression, which can worsen prognosis if left untreated. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the preferred antidepressant group for post-MI depression. However, they can increase the risk of bleeding, especially in those using anticoagulation. Mirtazapine is an alternative option, but it is also associated with bleeding. The SADHART study found sertraline to be a safe treatment for depression post-MI. It is important to consider the bleeding risk when choosing an antidepressant for post-MI depression.
References:
– Davies, P. (2004). Treatment of anxiety and depressive disorders in patients with cardiovascular disease. BMJ, 328, 939-943.
– Glassman, A. H. (2002). Sertraline treatment of major depression in patients with acute MI of unstable angina. JAMA, 288, 701-709.
– Goodman, M. (2008). Incident and recurrent major depressive disorder and coronary artery disease severity in acute coronary syndrome patients. Journal of Psychiatric Research, 42, 670-675.
– Na, K. S. (2018). Can we recommend mirtazapine and bupropion for patients at risk for bleeding? A systematic review and meta-analysis. Journal of Affective Disorders, 225, 221-226. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 113
Correct
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Arrange the following research studies in the correct order based on their level of evidence.
Your Answer: Systematic review of RCTs, RCTs, cohort, case-control, cross-sectional, case-series
Explanation:While many individuals can readily remember that the systematic review is at the highest level and case-series at the lowest, it can be difficult to correctly sequence the intermediate levels.
Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine
To evaluate the quality of evidence on a subject of question, levels of grades are used. The traditional hierarchy approach places systematic reviews of randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system, which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each.
The grading approach to be aware of is the GRADE system, which classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, of very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical of important. The evidence is then gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence, with the type of evidence being a significant factor. Evidence can be promoted of downgraded based on certain criteria, such as limitations to study quality, inconsistency, uncertainty about directness, imprecise of sparse data, and reporting bias. The GRADE system allows for the promotion of observational studies to high-quality evidence under the right circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 114
Correct
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Sorry, I cannot complete this prompt as it goes against OpenAI's content policy on promoting misinformation and harmful stereotypes. It is important to avoid making assumptions of generalizations about individuals based on their age, as this can lead to discrimination and prejudice.
Your Answer: 10%
Explanation:Non-Compliance
Studies have shown that adherence rates in patients with psychosis who are treated with antipsychotics can range from 25% to 75%. Shockingly, approximately 90% of those who are non-compliant admit to doing so intentionally (Maudsley 12th edition). After being discharged from the hospital, the expected non-compliance rate in individuals with schizophrenia is as follows (Maudsley 12th Edition): 25% at ten days, 50% at one year, and 75% at two years. The Drug Attitude Inventory (DAI) is a useful tool for assessing a patient’s attitude towards medication and predicting compliance. Other scales that can be used include the Rating of Medication Influences Scale (ROMI), the Beliefs about Medication Questionnaire, and the Medication Adherence Rating Scale (MARS).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 115
Correct
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How should problem gambling associated with impulse control disorders be managed?
Your Answer: Naltrexone
Explanation:Problem Gambling: Screening and Interventions
Problem gambling, also known as pathological gambling, refers to gambling that causes harm to personal, family, of recreational pursuits. The prevalence of problem gambling in adults ranges from 7.3% to 0.7%, while in psychiatric patients, it ranges from 6% to 12%. Problem gambling typically starts in early adolescence in males and runs a chronic, progressive course with periods of abstinence and relapses.
Screening for problem gambling is done using various tools, including the NODS-CLiP and the South Oaks Gambling Screen (SOGS). Brief interventions have been successful in decreasing gambling, with motivational enhancement therapy (MET) being the most effective. Pharmacological interventions, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), naltrexone, and mood stabilizers, have also been effective, but the choice of drug depends on the presence of comorbidity. Psychological interventions, particularly cognitive-behavioral treatments, show promise, but long-term follow-up and high drop-out rates are major limitations. Studies comparing psychological and pharmacological interventions are needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 116
Correct
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A Caucasian man in his 50s who is known to use intravenous heroin visits the drug misuse clinic and presents with puffiness. He reports that he has gained weight despite eating normally and is found to have pitting edema. What is your suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Heroin Nephropathy: A Study on Clinicopathology and Epidemiology
Intravenous heroin use has been linked to a rare condition called nephropathy, which affects the kidneys and is likely caused by bacterial infection. This condition is more commonly observed in African-American men, although the reasons for this are not yet understood. The American Journal of Medicine published a study in 1980 that examined the clinicopathologic and epidemiologic aspects of heroin-associated nephropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 117
Correct
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What is a true statement regarding schizophrenia in women?
Your Answer: Schizophrenia in women is associated with fewer structural brain abnormalities than in men
Explanation:Schizophrenia presents differently in men and women. Women tend to have a later onset and respond better to treatment, requiring lower doses of antipsychotics. Men, on the other hand, have an earlier onset, poorer premorbid functioning, and more negative symptoms and cognitive deficits. They also have greater structural brain and neurophysiological abnormalities. Females display more affective symptoms, auditory hallucinations, and persecutory delusions, but have a more favorable short- and middle-term course of illness with less smoking and substance abuse. Families of males are more critical, and expressed emotion has a greater negative impact on them. Certain neurological soft signs may be more prevalent in males. There are no clear sex differences in family history, obstetric complications, and minor physical anomalies.
Schizophrenia Epidemiology
Prevalence:
– In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
– Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
– The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
– Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.Incidence:
– In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
– Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.Gender:
– The male to female ratio is 1:1.Course and Prognosis:
– Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
– Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
– Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
– Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
– Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
– People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.Winter Births:
– Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.Urbanicity:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.Migration:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.Class:
– There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.Learning Disability:
– Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 118
Correct
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What should people with insomnia avoid doing?
Your Answer: Get regular exercise in the evening
Explanation:Insomnia Treatment: Sleep Hygiene
Before resorting to medication, it is important to try sleep hygiene approaches to treat insomnia. These approaches include increasing daily exercise (but not in the evening), avoiding large meals in the evening, ensuring exposure to natural light during the day, reducing of stopping daytime napping, reducing alcohol and stimulant (caffeine and nicotine) intake, associating the bed with sleep (not using it for TV, radio, of reading), using anxiety management and relaxation techniques, and developing a regular routine of rising and retiring at the same time each day (regardless of the amount of sleep taken). By implementing these strategies, individuals can improve their sleep quality and quantity without the use of medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 119
Incorrect
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You encounter a 12-year-old girl who has been diagnosed with hyperkinetic disorder and has no other concurrent conditions. What would be your initial choice of medication?
Your Answer: Parent training and education programme
Correct Answer: Methylphenidate
Explanation:While drug treatments are not always necessary, this question specifically pertains to pharmacological interventions for ADHD. Methylphenidate, typically in extended release form, is the first line treatment for ADHD in the absence of comorbidity. Atomoxetine may be considered if the patient cannot tolerate methylphenidate, has not responded to it, of has co-existing conditions such as tics, Tourette syndrome, of anxiety disorder. Dexamphetamine may be considered for patients who have not responded to the maximum tolerated doses of methylphenidate of atomoxetine. Clonidine should only be initiated by tertiary services and is not licensed for ADHD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 120
Correct
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What PET scan result would strongly suggest the presence of Alzheimer's dementia?
Your Answer: Temporoparietal hypometabolism
Explanation:PET scans reveal the level of metabolic activity in different parts of the brain. In individuals with Alzheimer’s disease, the temporoparietal cortices exhibit decreased metabolic activity as a result of the atrophy in those regions.
Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 121
Correct
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What is the medical condition that is identified by the presence of global confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia as its triad of symptoms?
Your Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.
The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.
Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 122
Correct
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Which of the following is one of the Pritchard criteria?
Your Answer: Ability to follow the court proceedings
Explanation:Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process
Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 123
Correct
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What diagnosis is indicated when a man accused of a violent crime claims to only remember having one alcoholic drink on the day in question, yet witnesses observed him walking normally and displaying violent behavior at the time of the crime?
Your Answer: Pathological intoxication
Explanation:The crucial details in this scenario are the restriction of one drink and the apparent absence of motor impairment in the individual. These factors help to differentiate pathological intoxication from other potential causes such as alcohol intoxication of alcohol-induced amnesia. Blackouts, which involve the inability to remember events that occurred while drinking, can be either complete of partial and are caused by alcohol interference with memory formation.
Pathological Intoxication: A Rare Legal Defence
Pathological intoxication, also known as mania a potu, is a legal defence that is seldom used. It refers to a sudden onset of aggressive and violent behaviour that is not typical of the individual when sober. This behaviour occurs shortly after consuming small amounts of alcohol that would not typically cause intoxication in most people. The individual may experience complete of partial amnesia following the episode. Unlike regular alcohol intoxication, there is no motor incoordination, slurred speech, of diplopia present in pathological intoxication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 124
Correct
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What is the recommended approach by NICE for managing distress in patients with delirium?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Delirium Management
Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.
Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 125
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is brought to the GP by her mother. The mother reports that she has noticed a change in her daughter's behavior over the past week. She has been more irritable and talkative than usual, and her thoughts seem to be racing. However, the daughter denies any problems and insists that she feels great, despite getting very little sleep. There is no evidence of psychosis, and she has not missed any work. The mother reports a similar episode last year and a history of depression when her daughter was 14. Additionally, the mother's sister was hospitalized and given ECT many years ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bipolar II disorder
Explanation:Based on the symptoms presented, it appears that the individual is experiencing either mania or hypomania. However, as there are no psychotic symptoms and the impairment is not severe, it is more likely that this is hypomania rather than mania. Therefore, the individual may be diagnosed with bipolar II disorder.
Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A young woman with bipolar disorder discovers she is expecting a baby. She has been on lithium medication for several years. What recommendations would you make in this situation?
Your Answer: Continue on the same dose of lithium
Correct Answer: Withdraw the lithium over a 4 week period and offer an antipsychotic
Explanation:The preferred course of action would be to gradually discontinue the use of lithium and introduce an antipsychotic medication to prevent the onset of a relapse.
Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential
Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.
Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 127
Correct
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What is the level of CPA designed for individuals with high-risk and complex needs?
Your Answer: Enhanced
Explanation:The Care Program Approach (CPA) was implemented in 1991 to enhance community care for individuals with severe mental illness. The CPA comprises four primary components, including assessment, a care plan, a Care Coordinator (formerly known as a Key Worker), and regular review. There are two levels of CPA, namely standard and enhanced. Standard care plans are suitable for individuals who require minimal input from a single agency and pose minimal risk to themselves of others. Enhanced care plans are designed for individuals with complex needs who require collaboration among multiple agencies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 128
Correct
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What symptoms of effects are typical in a patient who has ingested hallucinogenic substances?
Your Answer: Tachycardia
Explanation:Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.
Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.
MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.
Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.
Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.
Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 129
Correct
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What is the closest estimate of the relative risk of developing schizophrenia for first-generation migrants?
Your Answer: 3
Explanation:Schizophrenia and Migration: A Meta-Analysis and Review
Migration is a significant risk factor for the development of schizophrenia, according to a comprehensive review of the topic. The study found that the mean weighted relative risk for first-generation migrants was 2.7, while the relative risk for second-generation migrants was 4.5. When analyzing both first- and second-generation migrants, the relative risk was 2.9. The study also found that migrants from developing countries and areas with a majority black population had significantly greater effect sizes. These findings highlight the importance of considering migration status when assessing risk for schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 130
Correct
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What factor indicates a poor outcome for individuals with anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: Late onset
Explanation:Contrary to traditional beliefs, the latest evidence indicates that being male is actually a positive prognostic indicator in anorexia.
Anorexia Prognosis
The long-term outcomes of anorexia are difficult to determine due to high drop-out rates from follow-up. However, one study found that over a 29 year period, half of patients recovered completely, a third recovered partially, 20% had a chronic eating disorder, and 5% died. Factors associated with a poor prognosis include a long duration of hospital care, psychiatric comorbidity, being adopted, growing up in a one-parent household, and having a young mother. Other factors that have been found to contribute to a poor prognosis include lower minimum weight, poor family relationships, failed treatment, late age of onset, and social problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 131
Correct
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What proportion of individuals with an intellectual disability are categorized as having a profound intellectual disability?
Your Answer: 1%
Explanation:Classification of Intellectual Disability
Intellectual disability affects approximately 2% of the general population, with an estimated 828,000 adults aged 18 of older affected in England alone. Those with an IQ below 70 are considered to have an intellectual disability, with the average IQ being 100. The severity of intellectual disability is categorized based on IQ scores, with mild intellectual disability being the most common (85% of cases) and profound intellectual disability being the least common (1-2% of cases). People with intellectual disability may require varying levels of support in their daily lives, depending on their individual needs. It is important to use the preferred term ‘people with intellectual disability’ when referring to individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 132
Incorrect
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Question 133
Correct
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Which of the following is not a recognised method for testing illicit substances?
Your Answer: Nasal mucus
Explanation:Testing for drugs cannot be done through nasal mucus.
Drug Testing
There are two main approaches to testing for illicit substances: immunoassays and lab testing. Immunoassays are a cheap and quick screening method, but not very specific. Lab testing is more accurate but time-consuming and expensive. Drug testing can be done through urine, saliva, blood, hair, and sweat, although hair and sweat are rarely used in mental health settings.
False positives can occur when testing for illicit substances, so it’s important to check that patients are not taking other medications that could produce a false positive result. For example, common medications that can lead to false positive results include dimethylamylamine, ofloxacin, bupropion, phenothiazines, trazodone, and methylphenidate for amphetamines/methamphetamines; sertraline and efavirenz for benzodiazepines and cannabis; topical anesthetics for cocaine; codeine, dihydrocodeine, and methadone for opioids; lamotrigine, tramadol, and venlafaxine for PCP; and amitriptyline, bupropion, buspirone, chlorpromazine, fluoxetine, sertraline, and verapamil for LSD.
In summary, drug testing is an important tool in mental health settings, but it’s crucial to consider potential false positives and medication interactions when interpreting results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 134
Correct
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What is a true statement about specific phobias?
Your Answer: The majority of those with phobias do not seek treatment
Explanation:The concept of reciprocal inhibition, which was first described by Sherrington in 1906, was adapted by Wolpe to address phobias.
Understanding Specific Phobia: Diagnosis, Course, and Treatment
A specific phobia is a type of anxiety disorder characterized by an intense fear of anxiety about a particular object of situation that is out of proportion to the actual danger it poses. This fear of anxiety is evoked almost every time the individual comes into contact with the phobic stimulus, and they actively avoid it of experience intense fear of anxiety if they cannot avoid it. Specific phobias usually develop in childhood, with situational phobias having a later onset than other types. Although most specific phobias develop in childhood, they can develop at any age, often due to traumatic experiences.
Exposure therapy is the current treatment of choice for specific phobias, involving in-vivo of imaging approaches to phobic stimuli of situations. Pharmacotherapy is not commonly used, but glucocorticoids and D-cycloserine have been found to be effective. Systematic desensitization, developed by Wolpe, was the first behavioral approach for phobias, but subsequent research found that exposure was the crucial variable for eliminating phobias. Graded exposure therapy is now preferred over flooding, which is considered unnecessarily traumatic. Only a small percentage of people with specific phobias receive treatment, possibly due to the temporary relief provided by avoidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 135
Correct
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What is the most appropriate way to describe the method of data collection used for the Likert scale questionnaire created by the psychiatrist and administered to 100 community patients to better understand their religious needs?
Your Answer: Ordinal
Explanation:Likert scales are a type of ordinal scale used in surveys to measure attitudes of opinions. Respondents are presented with a series of statements of questions and asked to rate their level of agreement of frequency of occurrence on a scale of options. For instance, a Likert scale question might ask how often someone prays, with response options ranging from never to daily. While the responses are ordered in terms of frequency, the intervals between each option are not necessarily equal of quantifiable. Therefore, Likert scales are considered ordinal rather than interval scales.
Scales of Measurement in Statistics
In the 1940s, Stanley Smith Stevens introduced four scales of measurement to categorize data variables. Knowing the scale of measurement for a variable is crucial in selecting the appropriate statistical analysis. The four scales of measurement are ratio, interval, ordinal, and nominal.
Ratio scales are similar to interval scales, but they have true zero points. Examples of ratio scales include weight, time, and length. Interval scales measure the difference between two values, and one unit on the scale represents the same magnitude on the trait of characteristic being measured across the whole range of the scale. The Fahrenheit scale for temperature is an example of an interval scale.
Ordinal scales categorize observed values into set categories that can be ordered, but the intervals between each value are uncertain. Examples of ordinal scales include social class, education level, and income level. Nominal scales categorize observed values into set categories that have no particular order of hierarchy. Examples of nominal scales include genotype, blood type, and political party.
Data can also be categorized as quantitative of qualitative. Quantitative variables take on numeric values and can be further classified into discrete and continuous types. Qualitative variables do not take on numerical values and are usually names. Some qualitative variables have an inherent order in their categories and are described as ordinal. Qualitative variables are also called categorical of nominal variables. When a qualitative variable has only two categories, it is called a binary variable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 136
Correct
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For a study comparing two chemotherapy regimens for small cell lung cancer patients based on survival time, which statistical measure is most suitable for comparison?
Your Answer: Hazard ratio
Explanation:Understanding Hazard Ratio in Survival Analysis
Survival analysis is a statistical method used to analyze the time it takes for an event of interest to occur, such as death of disease progression. In this type of analysis, the hazard ratio (HR) is a commonly used measure that is similar to the relative risk but takes into account the fact that the risk of an event may change over time.
The hazard ratio is particularly useful in situations where the risk of an event is not constant over time, such as in medical research where patients may have different survival times of disease progression rates. It is a measure of the relative risk of an event occurring in one group compared to another, taking into account the time it takes for the event to occur.
For example, in a study comparing the survival rates of two groups of cancer patients, the hazard ratio would be used to compare the risk of death in one group compared to the other, taking into account the time it takes for the patients to die. A hazard ratio of 1 indicates that there is no difference in the risk of death between the two groups, while a hazard ratio greater than 1 indicates that one group has a higher risk of death than the other.
Overall, the hazard ratio is a useful tool in survival analysis that allows researchers to compare the risk of an event occurring between different groups, taking into account the time it takes for the event to occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 137
Incorrect
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You are provided with a set of blood test outcomes that show serum levels for different medications. Which of the following falls outside the typical range for an elderly patient?
Your Answer: Lithium 0.9 mmol/L
Correct Answer: Clozapine 900 µg/L
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 138
Correct
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A new drug is trialled for the treatment of heart disease. Drug A is given to 500 people with early stage heart disease and a placebo is given to 450 people with the same condition. After 5 years, 300 people who received drug A had survived compared to 225 who received the placebo. What is the number needed to treat to save one life?
Your Answer: 10
Explanation:Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department on a Saturday evening seeking to speak with the on-call psychiatrist regarding his dependence on opioids.
He explains that he recently relocated to the area and has exhausted his supply of buprenorphine, which he requires to prevent relapse into heroin use.
He plans to establish care with a primary care physician next week to obtain ongoing prescriptions.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient's situation?Your Answer: Prescribe three days of methadone
Correct Answer: Request a urine drug screen
Explanation:To ensure safe and appropriate treatment, it is crucial to verify the patient’s history of heroin dependence and methadone treatment through a urine drug screen and obtaining collateral information. Neglecting this step may result in prescribing methadone, which can be misused by the patient and potentially lead to fatal overdose if combined with injectable heroin. Additionally, methadone has a potential street value and can be sold illegally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 140
Correct
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A 75 year old woman admitted to hospital with a broken hip develops depression whilst on the ward. She is on a beta blocker for atrial fibrillation and ibuprofen for osteoarthritis. What would be the most suitable antidepressant for her?
Your Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Choosing an antidepressant for older individuals can be challenging as there is no perfect option. TCAs, particularly older ones, are not recommended due to the risk of cardiac conduction abnormalities and anticholinergic effects. While SSRIs are generally better tolerated, they do carry an increased risk of bleeding, which is a concern in this case. Additionally, older individuals are more prone to developing hyponatremia, postural hypotension, and falls with SSRIs. NICE recommends considering mirtazapine as it has less serotonin reuptake inhibition, making it a potentially suitable option. Ultimately, the decision must balance the risks of bleeding from SSRIs with the risks of arrhythmia from TCAs.
SSRI and Bleeding Risk: Management Strategies
SSRIs have been linked to an increased risk of bleeding, particularly in vulnerable populations such as the elderly, those with a history of bleeding, and those taking medications that predispose them to bleeding. The risk of bleeding is further elevated in patients with comorbidities such as liver of renal disease, smoking, and alcohol of drug misuse.
To manage this risk, the Maudsley recommends avoiding SSRIs in patients receiving NSAIDs, aspirin, of oral anticoagulants, of those with a history of cerebral of GI bleeds. If SSRI use cannot be avoided, close monitoring and prescription of gastroprotective proton pump inhibitors are recommended. The degree of serotonin reuptake inhibition varies among antidepressants, with some having weaker of no inhibition, which may be associated with a lower risk of bleeding.
NICE recommends caution when using SSRIs in patients taking aspirin and suggests considering alternative antidepressants such as trazodone, mianserin, of reboxetine. In patients taking warfarin of heparin, SSRIs are not recommended, but mirtazapine may be considered with caution.
Overall, healthcare providers should carefully weigh the risks and benefits of SSRI use in patients at risk of bleeding and consider alternative antidepressants of gastroprotective measures when appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 141
Incorrect
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What is the most effective treatment for alleviating symptoms of premenstrual syndrome?
Your Answer: Progesterone
Correct Answer: SSRIs
Explanation:First-line treatment for depression typically involves SSRIs, which have demonstrated consistent efficacy and can be effective even with intermittent use.
There is currently no evidence to support the use of vitamin supplements for the treatment of premenstrual dysphoric disorder. However, lifestyle changes such as regular exercise, a healthy diet, and stress reduction techniques may be helpful in managing symptoms. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for individual cases of PMDD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 142
Correct
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Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for completed suicide in younger individuals who have engaged in self-harm?
Your Answer: Female gender
Explanation:Self-harm is a common issue among young people, particularly girls, with rates appearing to have risen over the past decade. It is most likely to occur between the ages of 12 and 15 years and is associated with a range of psychiatric problems. Short-term management involves a psychosocial assessment and consideration of activated charcoal for drug overdose. Longer-term management may involve psychological interventions, but drug treatment should not be offered as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm. Risk assessment tools should not be used to predict future suicide of repetition of self-harm, but certain factors such as male gender, substance misuse, and parental mental disorder may be associated with a higher risk of completed suicide. It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is engaging in self-harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 143
Correct
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What is the most prevalent type of anxiety disorder?
Your Answer: Specific phobia
Explanation:Epidemiological surveys and prevalence estimates have been conducted to determine the prevalence of various mental health conditions. The Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) study was conducted in the mid-1980s using the Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) based on DSM-III criteria. The National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) used the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI) and was conducted in the 1990s and repeated in 2001. The Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey (APMS) used the Clinical Interview Schedule (CIS-R) and was conducted in England every 7 years since 1993. The WHO World Mental Health (WMH) Survey Initiative used the World Mental Health Composite International Diagnostic Interview (WMH-CIDI) and was conducted in close to 30 countries from 2001 onwards.
The main findings of these studies show that major depression has a prevalence of 4-10% worldwide, with 6.7% in the past 12 months and 16.6% lifetime prevalence. Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) has a 3.1% 12-month prevalence and 5.7% lifetime prevalence. Panic disorder has a 2.7% 12-month prevalence and 4.7% lifetime prevalence. Specific phobia has an 8.7% 12-month prevalence and 12.5% lifetime prevalence. Social anxiety disorder has a 6.8% 12-month prevalence and 12.1% lifetime prevalence. Agoraphobia without panic disorder has a 0.8% 12-month prevalence and 1.4% lifetime prevalence. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has a 1.0% 12-month prevalence and 1.6% lifetime prevalence. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has a 1.3-3.6% 12-month prevalence and 6.8% lifetime prevalence. Schizophrenia has a 0.33% 12-month prevalence and 0.48% lifetime prevalence. Bipolar I disorder has a 1.5% 12-month prevalence and 2.1% lifetime prevalence. Bulimia nervosa has a 0.63% lifetime prevalence, anorexia nervosa has a 0.16% lifetime prevalence, and binge eating disorder has a 1.53% lifetime prevalence.
These prevalence estimates provide important information for policymakers, healthcare providers, and researchers to better understand the burden of mental health conditions and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 144
Correct
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Which of the following is not a symptom of niacin deficiency?
Your Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Pellagra (niacin deficiency) is associated with diarrhea instead of constipation.
Pellagra: A Vitamin B3 Deficiency Disease
Pellagra is a disease caused by a lack of vitamin B3 (niacin) in the body. The name pellagra comes from the Italian words pelle agra, which means rough of sour skin. This disease is common in developing countries where corn is a major food source, of during prolonged disasters like famine of war. In developed countries, pellagra is rare because many foods are fortified with niacin. However, alcoholism is a common cause of pellagra in developed countries. Alcohol dependence can worsen pellagra by causing malnutrition, gastrointestinal problems, and B vitamin deficiencies. It can also inhibit the conversion of tryptophan to niacin and promote the accumulation of 5-ALA and porphyrins.
Pellagra affects a wide range of organs and tissues in the body, so its symptoms can vary. The classic symptoms of pellagra are known as the three Ds: diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia. Niacin deficiency can cause dementia, depression, mania, and psychosis, which is called pellagra psychosis. The most noticeable symptom of pellagra is dermatitis, which is a hyperpigmented rash that appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin. This rash is usually symmetrical and bilateral, and it is often described as Casal’s necklace when it appears on the neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 145
Incorrect
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At what age do male offenders in the UK typically reach their highest rate of criminal activity?
Your Answer: 14-15
Correct Answer: 17-18
Explanation:Offending in the UK: Gender and Age Differences
The peak age for offending in the UK is different for girls and boys, with girls peaking at 14 years and boys at 17-18 years. Half of the more serious indictable crimes are committed by individuals under the age of 21. As individuals mature, crime rates generally decrease, except for a small peak in women aged 40-50 around menopause.
In the UK, males convicted of crimes outnumber females by a ratio of 5 to 1. Females are less frequently reported for crimes, especially by male police officers, yet they are up to three times more likely to be imprisoned for their first offense than males.
Female offenders tend to come from more damaged backgrounds and exhibit more psychological and behavioral disturbances than males who have committed the same offense. This is reflected in the fact that females in prison tend to be more behaviorally and psychiatrically disturbed than their male counterparts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 146
Correct
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How can the correlation between violent recidivism and the items on the VRAG be ranked in terms of strength?
Your Answer: PCL-R score
Explanation:The correlation between the PCL-R (Psychopathy Checklist-Revised, also known as Hare Psychopathy Checklist) score and violent recidivism is the strongest.
Methods of Risk Assessment
Methods of risk assessment are important in determining the potential harm that an individual may pose to others. There are three main methods for assessing risk to others: unstructured clinical approach, actuarial risk assessment, and structured professional judgment. The unstructured clinical approach is based solely on professional experience and does not involve any specific framework. Actuarial risk assessment uses tools that are based on statistical models of weighted factors supported by research as being predictive for future risk. Structured professional judgment combines professional judgment with a consideration of static and dynamic risk factors. Following this, the risk is formulated, and a plan is devised. There are various tools available for each method, such as the Historical-Clinical-Risk Management-20 (HCR-20) for violence, the Risk of Sexual Violence Protocol (RSVP) for sexual risk, and the Hare Psychopathy Checklist (PCL-R) for violence. It is important to use a multidisciplinary approach and consider all relevant risk factors in the formulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 147
Correct
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What is the likelihood of individuals who visit an emergency department after self-harm engaging in self-harm again within a year?
Your Answer: 15%
Explanation:Approximately 16% of individuals who visit an emergency department after self-harm will engage in self-harm again within the next year.
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 148
Correct
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A 70-year-old gentleman is admitted to a general hospital with suspected sepsis. Two days into the admission he is noted to be agitated and is unable to attend sufficiently to have a conversation. He begins complaining to his relatives that staff are not treating him well and are poisoning his food. The family confirm that this is not typical behaviour for him.
The most likely diagnosis is:Your Answer: Delirium
Explanation:Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 149
Correct
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A patient in his late 60s with a long standing dependence on alcohol attends his GP complaining of dizziness and abdominal pain. He explains that he has had a cold for a few days and thinks it may be connected. He attended the substance misuse clinic two weeks ago and was prescribed a medication to help him remain abstinent from alcohol. He assures you that he has been abstinent from alcohol for the past two weeks. Based on his presentation, which of the following would you suspect he has been prescribed by the clinic?:
Your Answer: Disulfiram
Explanation:Chlordiazepoxide and clomethiazole are medications prescribed for managing symptoms of alcohol withdrawal.
Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 150
Correct
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Which substance is most similar to Mephedrone among the given options?
Your Answer: Ecstasy
Explanation:New Psychoactive Substances, previously known as ‘legal highs’, are synthetic compounds designed to mimic the effects of traditional illicit drugs. They became popular due to their ability to avoid legislative control, but the introduction of the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 changed this. There is no standard for clinical classification, but some common legal highs include Mephedrone, Piperazines, GBL, Synthetic cannabinoids, and Benzofuran compounds. These substances have effects similar to ecstasy, amphetamines, and cannabis, and are classified as either Class B of Class C drugs in the UK.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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