-
Question 1
Correct
-
The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures?
Your Answer: Inguinal ligament
Explanation:The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by the inguinal ligament which forms the base of the triangle, medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus and laterally by the sartorius muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements regarding episiotomy are true, except?
Your Answer: Indications for episiotomy include avoiding an imminent perineal tear, the use of forceps, breech delivery, & the delivery of premature infants
Correct Answer: The earlier the episiotomy is done during delivery, generally the more beneficial it will be in speeding up delivery
Explanation:The best time of the episiotomy is when the presenting part becomes visible during the contractions. If the episiotomy is performed at the proper time, less time will be required for the delivery. However, if its done too late, it causes excessive stretching of the pelvic floor and further potential lacerations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy, except:
Your Answer: Serum prolactin
Correct Answer: Serum free T4
Explanation:Free T3 (FT3) and free T4 (FT4) levels are slightly lower in the second and third trimesters. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low-normal in the first trimester, with normalization by the second trimester.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements regarding hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women at the age of 55 is incorrect?
Your Answer: It is not recommended for treating postmenopausal women presenting with osteoporosis who are older than 60 to 65 years and where the management of osteoporosis is the only concern
Correct Answer: Combination with Alendronate is usually encouraged
Explanation:Taking hormone replacement therapy for more than 5 years can increase the risk of developing breast cancer. HRT is not recommended as treatment for osteoporosis alone in postmenopausal women older than 60. Raloxifene reduces risk of vertebral fracture in post menopausal women.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
Relationship of the long axis of the mother to the long axis of foetus is known as:
Your Answer: Lie
Explanation:Fetal lie refers to the relationship between the long axis of the foetus relative to the long axis of the mother. If the foetus and maternal column are parallel (on the same long axis), the lie is termed vertical or longitudinal lie.
Fetal presentation means, the part of the foetus which is overlying the maternal pelvic inlet.
Position is the positioning of the body of a prenatal foetus in the uterus. It will change as the foetus develops. This is a description of the relation of the presenting part of the foetus to the maternal pelvis. In the case of a longitudinal lie with a vertex presentation, the occiput of the fetal calvarium is the landmark used to describe the position. When the occiput is facing the maternal pubic symphysis, the position is termed direct occiput anterior.
Fetal attitude is defined as the relation of the various parts of the foetus to each other. In the normal attitude, the foetus is in universal flexion. The anatomic explanation for this posture is that it enables the foetus to occupy the least amount of space in the intrauterine cavity. The fetal attitude is extremely difficult, if not impossible, to assess without the help of an ultrasound examination.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
Immediate therapy for infants with suspected meconium should routinely include:
Your Answer: Clearing of the airway
Explanation:Immediate treatment for infants with suspected meconium aspiration syndrome is to clear/suction the airway. Intubation and tracheal toileting have remained a matter of debate till the most recent times. All neonates at risk of MAS who show respiratory distress should be admitted to a neonatal intensive care unit and monitored closely. The treatment is mainly supportive and aims to correct hypoxemia and acidosis with the maintenance of optimal temperature and blood pressure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false?
Your Answer: The risk of fibroids is increased by pregnancy
Explanation:Fibroids are a common gynaecological condition found in many women above the age of 35. They are however uncommon before puberty. They are most common in black women vs white women, and its prevalence increases from puberty to menopause. Risk factors for fibroids include increasing age, obesity and infertility. Protective factors, on the other hand, include pregnancy, as the risk of fibroids decreases with increasing numbers of pregnancies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation who is gravida 2 para 1, presented to the labour and delivery department since she has been having regular, painful contractions over the past 3 hours. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that the patient has had no prenatal care during this pregnancy. She also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only surgery was a low transverse caesarean delivery 2 years ago. Upon admission, her cervix is 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced with the fetal head at +2 station. Fetal heart rate tracing is category 1. Administration of epidural analgesia was performed, and the patient was relieved from pain due to the contractions. There was also rupture of membranes which resulted in bright-red amniotic fluid. Further examination was done and her results were: Blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, Pulse is 112/min. Which of the following is most likely considered as the cause of the fetal heart rate tracing?
Your Answer: Intraamniotic infection
Correct Answer: Fetal blood loss
Explanation:Fetal heart rate tracings (FHR) under category I include all of the following:
– baseline rate 110– 160 bpm
– baseline FHR variability moderate
– accelerations present or absent
– late or variable decelerations absent
– early decelerations present or absentThe onset of fetal bleeding is marked by a tachycardia followed by a bradycardia with intermittent accelerations or decelerations. Small amounts of vaginal bleeding associated with FHR abnormalities should raise the suspicion of fetal haemorrhage. This condition demands prompt delivery and immediate reexpansion of the neonatal blood volume.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
What is the inferior border of the deep perineal pouch?
Your Answer: Membranous layer of superficial fascia
Correct Answer: Perineal membrane
Explanation:The perineal membrane (also known as the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm) separates the deep and superficial perineal pouches i.e. it is the inferior border of the deep pouch and superior border of the superficial pouch. The deep perineal pouch is the space therefore between superior and inferior layers of the urogenital diaphragm The superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm is the superior border
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman in her 36 weeks of gestation, presents for her planned antenatal appointment. On examination her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, in two consecutive readings 5 minutes apart. Which among the following statements is true regarding gestational hypertension and pre-eclampsia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre-eclampsia involves other features in addition to the presence of hypertension
Explanation:Pre-eclampsia presents with other features in addition to the presence of hypertension, also it’s diagnosis cannot be made considered peripheral edema as the only presenting symptom. Proteinuria occurs more commonly in pre-eclampsia than in gestational hypertension and the latter is mostly asymptomatic.
Hypertensive disorders are found to complicate about 10% of all pregnancies. Common one among them is Gestational hypertension, which is defined as the new onset of hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation without any maternal or fetal features of pre-eclampsia, in this case BP will return to normal within three months of postpartum.
Types of hypertensive disorders during pregnancy:
1. Pregnancy-induced hypertension:
a. Systolic blood pressure (SBP) above 140 mm of Hg and diastolic hypertension above 90 mmHg occurring for the first time after the 20th week of pregnancy, which regresses postpartum.
b. The rise in systolic blood pressure above 25 mm of Hg or diastolic blood pressure above 15 mm of Hg from readings before pregnancy or in the first trimester.
2. Mild pre-eclampsia:
BP up to 170/110 mm of Hg in the absence of associated features.
3. Severe pre-eclampsia:
BP above 170/110 mm of Hg and along with features such as kidney impairment, thrombocytopenia, abnormal liver transaminase levels, persistent headache, epigastric tenderness or fetal compromise.
4. Essential (coincidental) hypertension:
Chronic underlying hypertension occurring before the onset of pregnancy or persisting after postpartum.
5. Pregnancy-aggravated hypertension:
Underlying hypertension which is worsened by pregnancy.To diagnose pre-eclampsia clinically, presence of one or more of the following symptoms are required along with a history of onset of hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation.
– Proteinuria: Above 300 mg/24 h or urine protein
reatinine ratio more than 30 mg/mmol.
– Renal insufficiency: serum/plasma creatinine above 0.09 mmol/L or oliguria.
– Liver disease: raised serum transaminases and severe epigastric or right upper quadrant pain.
– Neurological problems: convulsions (eclampsia); hyperreflexia with clonus; severe headaches with hyperreflexia; persistent visual disturbances (scotomata).
– Haematological disturbances like thrombocytopenia; disseminated intravascular coagulation; hemolysis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Spinnbarkheit is a term which means:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Threading of the cervical mucous
Explanation:Spinnability (or Spinnbarkeit), which measures the capacity of fluids to be drawn into threads, represents an indirect measurement of the adhesive and elastic properties of mucus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A pregnant woman who is a heavy smoker, observed some thick white patches on the inside of her mouth. Her oral cavity appears inflamed on examination. Which diagnosis is most likely correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Candidiasis
Explanation:During pregnancy, the chances for a woman to develop oral candidiasis double. An aphthous ulcer has a yellowish floor which is surrounded by an erythematous halo while in lichen planus, the lesions do not have the appearance of a thick white mark but are more or less lace-like. The lesions in leucoplakia have raised edges and they appear as bright white patches which are sharply defined and cannot be rubbed out. Smoking may affect the tongue, producing tongue coating. In this case the tongue is just inflamed which is a sign of infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
In the foetus where is the principle site of alpha fetoprotein (AFP) production
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver
Explanation:AFP is a glycoprotein that is synthesized in the fetal liver (primarily), umbilical vesicles and the gut. It is found in elevated quantities in the fetal serum and peaks at around 14 week of gestation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 22 year old woman miscarries at 6 weeks gestation. At checkup, she shows no obvious signs of complication. What would you advise regarding further pregnancy testing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urine pregnancy test in 3 weeks
Explanation:In the management of a miscarriage, after the completion of 7-14 days of expectant management, the woman is advised to take a pregnancy test after 3 weeks. In case of a positive result she is to return for further care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
The main support of the uterus is provided by:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The cardinal ligament
Explanation:The cardinal ligament (or Mackenrodt’s ligament, lateral or transverse cervical ligament) is a major ligament of the uterus. It is located at the base of the broad ligament of the uterus. It attaches the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall by its attachment to the Obturator fascia of the Obturator internus muscle, and is continuous externally with the fibrous tissue that surrounds the pelvic blood vessels. It thus provides support to the uterus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Regarding gestational diabetes which of the following is NOT a recognised risk factor
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High polyunsaturated fat intake
Explanation:Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justify ed to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specific city for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges. There are various risk factors for gestational diabetes including increasing age, ethnicity, previous still births etc.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 51-year-old woman comes to your doctor's office for a breast cancer screening. For the past year, she has been on combination hormone replacement treatment (HRT). Mammography is the sole accessible form of breast cancer screening, and she is predicted to have dense breast tissue due to HRT. Which of the following is the best HRT and breast cancer screening suggestion for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue HRT and perform mammography as recommended for other women
Explanation:Among a variety of imaging modalities developed for breast cancer screening, mammography is the best-studied and the only imaging technique that has been shown to decrease mortality as demonstrated in multiple randomized trials. However, it is important to know that, even in the best circumstances, mammography may miss up to 20 percent of underlying breast cancers.
Women on HRT are likely to have dense breast. Dense breasts are associated with an increased risk of breast cancer and can decrease the sensitivity of mammography for small lesions. Nevertheless, we do not alter our general approach to age- and risk-based screening based on breast density. However, for women with dense breasts, we do prefer digital mammography over film mammography, due to greater sensitivity; digital mammography is the modality typically used for mammography in most locations in the United States.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old woman came in with a two-year history of amenorrhea and excessive facial hair growth. She had previously given birth to two children. FSH, LH, Prolactin, and oestrogen levels in the blood are all normal. The amount of testosterone in the blood is somewhat higher. More than 12 tiny cysts can be seen on a transvaginal pelvic ultrasonography. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Explanation:This patient has experienced polycystic ovarian syndrome-like symptoms.
At least two out of three of the following criteria must be met to diagnose polycystic ovarian syndrome:
1- Hyperandrogenism suggesting an excess of androgens e.g. excess hair growth, acne etc.
2- Menstrual irregularities e.g. dysmenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, and amenorrhea.
3-The ovaries are polycystic if one ovary has 12 or more follicles or if the size of one or both ovaries has risen.Low FSH, LH, and pituitary hormones are typically associated with hypothalamic dysfunction, however this is not the case here.
Similarly, with premature ovarian failure, FSH/LH levels rise while oestrogen levels decrease.All of the other choices are incorrect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A young woman came to your clinic seeking help. She has been married for two years and has yet to conceive. The following are the findings of blood tests: Luteinizing hormone levels are low. Low levels of follicle stimulating hormone. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low. Prolactin-high. What is the most effective way to deal with infertility?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bromocriptine
Explanation:The most common treatment approach is with the dopamine receptor agonists, bromocriptine, and cabergoline. Bromocriptine normalizes prolactin and decreases tumour size in 80%–90% of patients with microadenomas. Bromocriptine should be given to this patient who has developed hyperprolactinemia anovulation.
Women with hyperprolactinaemic anovulation are treated with dopamine agonists such as bromocriptine.
This patient has also developed symptoms of a low-functioning pituitary gland tumour, which bromocriptine will assist to shrink. Before starting bromocriptine, a head MRI scan should be considered to confirm the suspected diagnosis.Clomiphene is an oestrogen receptor modulator that is selective. It works by competing with oestrogen receptors in the hypothalamus. This disrupts normal negative feedback mechanisms, causing the release of pituitary gonadotropins, particularly LH, to rise, triggering ovulation.
When the levels of gonadotropins and oestrogen are normal but the women still have ovulatory dysfunction, it is successful in inducing ovulation. In hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism patients, clomiphene is frequently ineffective. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A low APGAR score at one minute:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indicates the need for immediate resuscitation
Explanation:The treatment of asphyxia starts with the correct perinatal management of high-risk pregnancies. The management of the hypoxic-ischemic new-borns in the delivery room is the second fundamental step of the treatment. Low Apgar scores and need for cardiopulmonary resuscitation at birth are common but nonspecific findings. Most new-borns respond rapidly to resuscitation and make a full recovery. The outcomes for new-borns who do not respond to resuscitation by 10 minutes of age are very poor, with a very low probability of surviving without severe disability. Resuscitation in room air is advised for term new-borns, since the use of 100% oxygen is associated with worse outcomes compared to the use of room air.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 42 years old woman presents to a gynaecologic clinic with mid-cycle, moderate-intensity abdominal pain. There is also a similar episode of pain around a month ago, which remained for about 3 days and resolved spontaneously. She is otherwise healthy with a normal regular cycle of about 28 days duration. Examination reveals normal vitals, soft and non-tender abdomen without any guarding or rebound tenderness. The most likely cause of the patient's problem is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ovulation pain
Explanation:This patient has developed symptoms of ovulation discomfort, which is also known as Mittelschmerz syndrome. Lower abdominal and pelvic pain that arises around the middle of a woman’s menstrual cycle characterises this condition.
The discomfort usually appears suddenly and disappears within hours, though it can continue up to three days.The symptoms of ovulation pain can include:
– Lower abdomen pain.
– The pain typically occurs about two weeks before the menstrual period is due.
– The pain is felt on the right or left side, depending on which ovary is releasing an egg.
– The pain may switch from one side to the other from one cycle to the next, or remain on one side for a few cycles.
The duration of pain ranges anywhere from minutes to 48 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
Which of the following drugs is associated with reduced milk production whilst breastfeeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cabergoline
Explanation:Domperidone and metoclopramide are D2 dopamine receptor antagonists. They are primarily used to promote gastric motility. They are also known as galactagogues and they promote the production of milk. Cabergoline and bromocriptine are prolactin inhibitors and they reduce milk production.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Regarding miscarriage rates, which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In women over 45 years of age miscarriage rate approximately 75%
Explanation:With increasing maternal age, the risk of miscarriage increases. For women between the ages of 40-44, the miscarriage rates sit at about 50% and increases to over 75% for women 45 years and over. The miscarriage rate for women between the ages of 35-39 is 25%.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 days
Explanation:Shortly after the Morula enters into the uterus, approximately on the 4th day after fertilization a fluid filled cystic cavity appears in the morula and transforms the morula into a blastocyst.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes that last for about three days each month. These symptoms have been ongoing for the past 12 months. She reports that pubertal breast changes started about four years ago, however she has not yet had her first period. On examination of her abdomen there is no evidence of any suprapubic mass or tenderness when she is not in pain. Blood tests indicate that she is ovulating. From the following developmental abnormalities, identify the one that is most likely to be the cause of her abdominal pain.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis.
Explanation:The clinical evaluation indicates that the patient is ovulating but has not started menstruating. These observations suggest that the pain she is experiencing on a monthly basis could be related to ovulation or there could be an obstruction preventing the flow of menstrual blood from the uterus.
Uterine or vaginal anomalies that can obstruct menstrual flow include imperforate hymen, absent vagina, a transverse vaginal septum, or cervical obstruction.
If the cause was an obstruction to the flow, the retained menstrual products would have developed into a suprapubic mass (hematometra/ haematocolpos). However, no palpable mass was detected on abdominal examination.
Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis (correct answer) is the only condition that would result in no endometrial development; consequently there was no palpable mass observed and no menstrual loss that could be shed was present. A pelvic (lower abdominal) ultrasound examination can confirm the diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 24-year-old Aboriginal woman at 10 weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week history of nausea and vomiting along with dizziness. She has not seen any doctor during this period. On examination, she is found to be dehydrated and her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg with a drop in systolic blood pressure by more than 20% when she stands. She is unable to tolerate oral intake and her laboratory results show ketonuria. Which one of the following would be the best next step in management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give metoclopramide and intravenous normal saline
Explanation:Clinical picture mentioned is indicative of hyperemesis gravidarum with resultant hypovolemia and pre-shock state, were patient needs urgent fluid resuscitation and intravenous antiemetic medications. The first-line fluid for resuscitation is normal saline (0.9% NaCl) and metoclopramide an antiemetic drug which is safe for use in pregnancy (category A).
Dextrose should be avoided in this situation as the sugar in the solution will leave behind a hypotonic fluid leading to severe hyponatraemic state which increases the risk for encephalopathy due to edema.
Ondansetron is considered as the second-line of antiemetic drug under category B1 which is used in situations like more refractory vomiting, when patient is not responding to metoclopramide and in cases of recurrent hospital admissions due to hyperemesis gravidarum.
Steroids such as prednisolone are considered as the third-line medication mostly used in resistant cases of hyperemesis gravidarum and should be used only after consulting an expert in the field.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 26 year old patient known to have Group B Streptococcus (GBS) on vaginal swab is going into labour. A normal vaginal delivery is planned. She is penicillin allergic with a history of anaphylaxis. What intrapartum antibiotic treatment is advised?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV Vancomycin 1g 12 hourly
Explanation:In a person who is infected by streptococcus (Group B) should be started on benzylpenicillin as soon as possible. In case of allergy vancomycin should be started at 1g every 12 hours. Tetracyclines should be avoided in pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A patient is being discharged following a termination of pregnancy at 14 weeks. She had been taking Microgynon in the past but stopped taking this 6 months prior to falling pregnant as she wasn't in a serious relationship.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start immediately
Explanation:Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) can be started immediately following abortion or miscarriage. Note following childbirth COCPs should not be restarted for 3 weeks (assuming the patient is not breastfeeding).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)