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  • Question 1 - A 10-year-old boy is prescribed erythromycin for a lower respiratory tract infection. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is prescribed erythromycin for a lower respiratory tract infection. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Disruption of cell membrane

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      Macrolides work by inhibiting protein synthesis through their action on the 50S subunit of ribosomes. This class of antibiotics, which includes erythromycin, does not inhibit cell wall synthesis, topoisomerase IV enzyme, or disrupt the cell membrane, which are mechanisms of action for other types of antibiotics.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

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  • Question 2 - A 14-year-old girl has been brought to the GP by her mother after...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl has been brought to the GP by her mother after experiencing a sore throat and cough for the past week. Following an examination, the GP determines that she is likely suffering from a viral infection that will resolve on its own.

      Which specific immune cells are responsible for directly fighting this type of infection by inducing apoptosis?

      Your Answer: Cytotoxic T cells

      Explanation:

      The induction of apoptosis in virally infected and tumour cells is carried out by cytotoxic T cells.

      The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.

      B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.

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  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old woman complains of aching pain in her legs and persistent fatigue...

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    • A 56-year-old woman complains of aching pain in her legs and persistent fatigue over the last two months. Her blood is tested, and the following results are obtained:

      - Hb: 135 g/L (115 - 160)
      - Serum ferritin: 25 µg/l (10 - 300)
      - Folate: 7.0 ng/ml (>4.0)
      - B12: 525 pg/ml (180 - 1000)
      - Na+: 141 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Creatinine: 86 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - CRP: 1 mg/L (< 5)
      - Corrected serum Ca2+: 2.35 mmol/L (2.25-2.5)
      - ALP: 85 U/L (30 - 130)
      - Vitamin D: 17 nmol/L (>50)
      - TSH: 0.31 mIU/L (0.27 - 4.20)
      - HbA1c: 38 mmol/mol (<48)

      Based on these results, the GP prescribes medication to address the underlying cause of her fatigue.

      Where does the conversion of this medication into its biologically active form take place?

      Your Answer: Kidneys

      Explanation:

      Calcifediol is converted into calcitriol in the kidneys, which is the biologically active form of vitamin D. Vitamin D deficiency can cause fatigue and aches, and in severe cases, osteomalacia. Tiredness can also be a symptom of other underlying medical conditions. Vitamin D supplements are given as ergocalciferol or cholecalciferol, which are converted into their active forms in the liver and kidneys. Bone is not involved in vitamin D metabolism, but vitamin D acts on bone to increase serum calcium levels. The skin plays a role in vitamin D absorption, but not in vitamin D metabolism.

      Understanding Vitamin D

      Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that is soluble in fat and is essential for the metabolism of calcium and phosphate in the body. It is converted into calcifediol in the liver and then into calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. Vitamin D can be obtained from two sources: vitamin D2, which is found in plants, and vitamin D3, which is present in dairy products and can also be synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight.

      The primary function of vitamin D is to increase the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood. It achieves this by increasing the absorption of calcium in the gut and the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys. Vitamin D also stimulates osteoclastic activity, which is essential for bone growth and remodeling. Additionally, it increases the reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys.

      A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to two conditions: rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Rickets is characterized by soft and weak bones, while osteomalacia is a condition where the bones become weak and brittle. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D to maintain healthy bones and overall health.

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  • Question 4 - A 2-month-old boy is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with microcephaly....

    Incorrect

    • A 2-month-old boy is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with microcephaly. He is in the 5th percentile for weight and length, and his head circumference is <3rd percentile for his age. Upon physical examination, his lungs are clear and there are no audible murmurs, but his liver edge is palpable at the level of the umbilicus. Further investigations reveal ventriculomegaly with periventricular calcifications on a CT scan of the head. What is the most likely cause of this congenital infection?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital CMV infection can lead to various symptoms such as hearing loss, low birth weight, petechial rash, microcephaly, and seizures. This condition is typically acquired during pregnancy, and if the fetus is exposed to CMV during the first trimester, it may result in intrauterine growth retardation and central nervous system damage, leading to hearing and sight impairments.

      Infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus is an uncommon cause of congenital defects. Herpes simplex virus may cause skin rashes and microcephaly, but it is not typically associated with calcifications and hepatomegaly. Toxoplasmosis often presents with macrocephaly and diffuse parenchymal calcifications rather than periventricular calcifications. Congenital syphilis can result in various symptoms such as sensorineural deafness, mulberry molars, bone lesions, saddle nose, and Hutchinson’s teeth.

      Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus

      Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three most common congenital infections encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Of these, cytomegalovirus is the most common in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.

      Each of these infections can cause different characteristic features in newborns. Rubella can cause sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease, glaucoma, cerebral calcification, chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, low birth weight, and purpuric skin lesions. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, cerebral palsy, anaemia, and microcephaly. Cytomegalovirus can cause visual impairment, learning disability, encephalitis/seizures, pneumonitis, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, jaundice, and cerebral palsy.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early detection and treatment can help prevent or minimize the health problems associated with these infections.

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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old male presents to his GP with a widespread itchy rash 24-hours...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male presents to his GP with a widespread itchy rash 24-hours after a spa day with his wife. The rash is mainly on his trunk and consists of small red bumps with a few containing pus. He has a history of well-managed type 2 diabetes and takes metformin. The doctor suspects 'hot-tub' folliculitis. What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of hot tub folliculitis is Pseudomonas aeruginosa, not Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. While Staphylococcus aureus can be found in spa water, it typically causes other skin infections and is not as resistant to chlorinated water as Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Streptococcus pyogenes, on the other hand, usually causes cellulitis through wound entry or pharyngitis/tonsillitis and is not commonly associated with hot tub folliculitis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is well-suited to thrive in warm, moist environments like spas and can be resistant to chlorinated water. Treatment with gentamicin cream may be necessary in severe cases, but it is not typically required. Streptococcus pneumoniae is not a common cause of hot tub folliculitis and is susceptible to chlorinated water.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa: A Gram-negative Rod Causing Various Infections

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the environment. It is a Gram-negative rod that can cause a range of infections in humans. Some of the infections it causes include chest infections, skin infections such as burns and wound infections, otitis externa, and urinary tract infections.

      In the laboratory, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is identified as a Gram-negative rod that does not ferment lactose and is oxidase positive. The bacteria produce both an endotoxin and exotoxin A. The endotoxin causes fever and shock, while exotoxin A inhibits protein synthesis by catalyzing ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor EF-2.

      Overall, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a pathogenic bacteria that can cause a variety of infections in humans. Its ability to produce toxins makes it particularly dangerous and difficult to treat. Proper hygiene and infection control measures can help prevent the spread of this bacteria.

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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old man with a history of HIV and intravenous drug use presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with a history of HIV and intravenous drug use presents with abnormal liver function tests. PCR testing confirms chronic hepatitis C virus infection. How would you describe this virus?

      Your Answer: Negative (-) sense single-stranded RNA (ssRNA) flavivirus

      Correct Answer: Positive (+) sense single-stranded RNA (ssRNA) flavivirus

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

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  • Question 7 - A 52-year-old man with a history of small cell lung cancer presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man with a history of small cell lung cancer presents to the hospital with a productive cough after his first round of chemotherapy. During examination, left basal inspiratory crackles are noted. His vital signs are heart rate 81/min, respiratory rate 18/min, blood pressure 118/74 mmHg, saturations 96% on air, and temperature 38.1 ºC. Which cytokine is most likely responsible for his elevated temperature?

      Your Answer: Interleukin-2

      Correct Answer: Interleukin-6

      Explanation:

      IL-6 is primarily responsible for inducing fever. It is produced by macrophages and helps to stimulate the differentiation of B cells. In this case, the patient has recently undergone chemotherapy and is presenting with a fever, which may indicate neutropenic sepsis. However, further investigations are necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

      Interferon-γ is a cytokine produced by Th1 cells that activates macrophages.

      IL-2 is produced by T helper 1 cells and promotes the growth and development of various immune cells in the T cell response.

      IL-4 is produced by T helper 2 cells and activates B cells. It can also induce differentiation of CD4+ T cells into T helper 2 cells.

      IL-10 is an anti-inflammatory cytokine produced by both macrophages and T helper 2 cells. It inhibits cytokine production from T helper 1 cells.

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

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  • Question 8 - You are designing a research project to study the effects of the hexose...

    Incorrect

    • You are designing a research project to study the effects of the hexose monophosphate shunt on oxidative stress in cells.

      What is the rate limiting step for the hexose monophosphate shunt if the cells are aged?

      Your Answer: Glycogen phosphorylase

      Correct Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      The enzyme that limits the rate of the hexose monophosphate shunt is G6PD.

      The hexose monophosphate shunt plays a crucial role in generating NADPH, which is necessary for reducing glutathione. The reduced glutathione produced is vital for protecting cells against oxidative stress. G6PD is the enzyme that limits the rate of the pentose phosphate pathway.

      Glycogen phosphorylase is the enzyme that limits the rate of glycogenolysis.

      Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the enzyme that limits the rate of the citric acid cycle.

      The rate of glycolysis is limited by phosphofructokinase-1.

      Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes

      Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.

      For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.

      Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.

      The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.

      Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.

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  • Question 9 - A 28-week-old premature baby is born and develops tachypnoea, tachycardia, and chest wall...

    Correct

    • A 28-week-old premature baby is born and develops tachypnoea, tachycardia, and chest wall retractions shortly after birth. The neonate also shows blue discolouration of the skin. The doctor starts administering intravenous fluids and CPAP and informs the parents that the baby's lungs are lacking surfactant, a substance that aids breathing.

      What type of cells produce surfactant?

      Your Answer: Type 2 pneumocytes

      Explanation:

      Infant respiratory distress syndrome, also known as surfactant deficiency disorder, is caused by a lack of surfactant development and is commonly found in premature infants. To identify the correct answer, we must focus on lung cells, excluding paneth cells and microfold cells found in the intestinal epithelium, as well as alveolar macrophages, which are responsible for clearing infections and debris. The correct answer is type 2 pneumocytes, which produce pulmonary surfactant, while type 1 pneumocytes facilitate gas exchange between the alveoli and the blood.

      Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants

      Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.

      The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.

      Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube.

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  • Question 10 - A 49-year-old man presents to the hospital with complaints of weakness in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to the hospital with complaints of weakness in his legs and tingling sensation in his feet. His wife noticed a problem with his gait over the past few weeks. The patient also reports increasing forgetfulness. During examination, the Romberg test is positive. The patient has a medical history of Crohn's disease and is currently on treatment with 5-aminosalicylic acid and prednisone. A peripheral blood smear shows the presence of larger than normal and pale red blood cells. What laboratory finding is most likely to be present in this patient?

      Your Answer: Reduced iron levels

      Correct Answer: Elevated methylmalonic acid levels

      Explanation:

      Megaloblastic anemia can be caused by either folate deficiency or vitamin B12 deficiency, but it is important to differentiate between the two. In this case, the patient’s neurological symptoms suggest a diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency. This can be confirmed by checking methylmalonic acid levels, which are normal in folate deficiency but elevated in vitamin B12 deficiency. Homocysteine levels are raised in both conditions and cannot be used to differentiate between them. Reduced iron and elevated ferritin levels are common in anemia of chronic disease, which is associated with inflammatory and autoimmune conditions.

      Vitamin B12 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Unlike other vitamins, it can only be found in animal-based foods. The human body typically stores enough vitamin B12 to last for up to 5 years. This vitamin plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including acting as a co-factor for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine through the enzyme homocysteine methyltransferase, as well as for the isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl Co A via the enzyme methylmalonyl mutase. Additionally, it is used to regenerate folic acid in the body.

      However, there are several causes of vitamin B12 deficiency, including pernicious anaemia, Diphyllobothrium latum infection, and Crohn’s disease. When the body lacks vitamin B12, it can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy. To prevent these consequences, it is important to ensure that the body has enough vitamin B12 through a balanced diet or supplements.

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  • Question 11 - An aged patient is admitted to the hospital due to severe abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • An aged patient is admitted to the hospital due to severe abdominal pain and blood in her urine. Her blood pressure is 90/60, and her heart rate is 140 bpm. She is breathing at a rate of 30 breaths per minute, and her oxygen saturation is at 90%. The medical team administers high-flow oxygen, antibiotics, and a fluid bolus. They also conduct blood cultures, lactate, and urine output tests. Within the next 10 minutes, her blood pressure and heart rate stabilise. The family is informed that the patient is most likely experiencing sepsis caused by a urinary tract infection. What cytokine is responsible for the chemotaxis of neutrophils?

      Your Answer: IL-2

      Correct Answer: IL-8

      Explanation:

      IL-8’s primary role is to attract neutrophils towards the site of inflammation. It is produced by macrophages and certain epithelial tissues. IL-1 is involved in acute inflammation, while IL-2, secreted by Th1 cells, promotes the growth and specialization of T cells. IL-5 stimulates the proliferation of eosinophils.

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old male patient visits his doctor complaining of red, itchy skin around...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient visits his doctor complaining of red, itchy skin around his nose and mouth. He has a medical history of portal hypertension, macrocytic anemia, and alcoholic liver disease. Upon examination, the doctor suspects a deficiency in vitamin B6. If left untreated, what other symptom may this patient experience?

      Your Answer: Bleeding gums

      Correct Answer: Seizures

      Explanation:

      Insufficient levels of Vitamin B6 can lead to seizures as it reduces the production of GABA, which is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.

      Other deficiencies may result in specific symptoms such as muscle weakness and lack of energy for Vitamin B1 (thiamine), bleeding gums and slow wound healing for Vitamin C, hair loss and skin inflammation for Vitamin B7 (biotin), diarrhea and skin inflammation for Vitamin B3 (niacin), and seizures, peripheral neuropathy, and sideroblastic anemia for Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine).

      The Importance of Vitamin B6 in the Body

      Vitamin B6 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Once it enters the body, it is converted into pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), which acts as a cofactor for various biochemical reactions such as transamination, deamination, and decarboxylation. These reactions are essential for the proper functioning of the body.

      However, a deficiency in vitamin B6 can lead to various health problems such as peripheral neuropathy and sideroblastic anemia. One of the common causes of vitamin B6 deficiency is isoniazid therapy, which is used to treat tuberculosis. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin B6 to maintain optimal health.

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  • Question 13 - A 52-year-old, male, intravenous drug user visits the doctor complaining of increased pain...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old, male, intravenous drug user visits the doctor complaining of increased pain in the right upper quadrant. His partner has observed a recent yellowing of his skin, indicating a possible viral hepatitis cause. Which viral hepatitis types are transmitted through needle sharing and blood products?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B can be transmitted through parenteral, sexual, and vertical routes, while hepatitis A and E are transmitted through the faecal-oral route. Hepatitis B, C, and D are specifically spread through blood and blood products.

      Understanding Hepatitis B: Causes, Symptoms, Complications, Prevention, and Management

      Hepatitis B is a virus that spreads through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, including from mother to child during birth. The incubation period is typically 6-20 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases. Complications of the infection can include chronic hepatitis, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.

      Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of an individual with hepatitis B, individuals receiving regular blood transfusions, chronic kidney disease patients, prisoners, and chronic liver disease patients. The vaccine is given in three doses and is typically effective, although around 10-15% of adults may not respond well to the vaccine.

      Management of hepatitis B typically involves antiviral medications such as tenofovir, entecavir, and telbivudine, which aim to suppress viral replication. Pegylated interferon-alpha was previously the only treatment available and can still be used as a first-line treatment, but other medications are increasingly being used. A better response to treatment is predicted by being female, under 50 years old, having low HBV DNA levels, being non-Asian, being HIV negative, and having a high degree of inflammation on liver biopsy.

      Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, complications, prevention, and management of hepatitis B is important for both healthcare professionals and the general public. Vaccination and early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the virus and reduce the risk of complications.

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  • Question 14 - Which of the following symptoms is least commonly associated with salicylate overdose? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms is least commonly associated with salicylate overdose?

      Your Answer: Seizures

      Correct Answer: Tremor

      Explanation:

      Salicylate overdose can cause a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The respiratory center is initially stimulated, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can later cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of over 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      Salicylates can also cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. It is important to recognize the symptoms of salicylate overdose and seek prompt medical attention to prevent serious complications.

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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman has come in with symptoms of loin pain and dysuria...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has come in with symptoms of loin pain and dysuria and has been diagnosed with pyelonephritis. She was treated with intravenous amoxicillin and gentamicin and has responded well. The consultant has decided to follow local guidelines and switch her to oral co-trimoxazole. What are the components of this medication?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sulfonamides and Their Adverse Effects

      Sulfonamides are a type of drug that work by inhibiting dihydropteroate synthetase. This class of drugs includes antibiotic sulfonamides such as sulfamethoxazole, sulfadiazine, and sulfisoxazole. Co-trimoxazole, a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, is commonly used in the management of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Non-antibiotic sulfonamides like sulfasalazine and sulfonylureas also exist.

      However, the use of co-trimoxazole may lead to adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia, headache, and rash, including the potentially life-threatening Steven-Johnson Syndrome. It is important to understand the potential risks associated with sulfonamides and to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any medication.

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  • Question 16 - You are working in the palliative care unit. A 67-year-old male has severe...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the palliative care unit. A 67-year-old male has severe neuropathic pain secondary to spinal cord metastasis. It has been unresponsive to titration of opioid and neuropathic agents. Your consultant decides to use ketamine.

      What is the mechanism of action of ketamine?

      Your Answer: GABA agonist

      Correct Answer: NMDA receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Ketamine works by blocking NMDA receptors. It can be used to treat neuropathic pain that does not respond well to opioids and other oral pain medications, especially when there is abnormal pain sensitivity such as allodynia, hyperalgesia, or hyperpathia.

      Gabapentin works by changing the way voltage-gated calcium channels function.

      Pregabalin is similar to the neurotransmitter GABA.

      Benzodiazepines activate GABA receptors.

      Local anesthetics like lidocaine block sodium channels.

      Overview of Commonly Used IV Induction Agents

      Propofol, sodium thiopentone, ketamine, and etomidate are some of the commonly used IV induction agents in anesthesia. Propofol is a GABA receptor agonist that has a rapid onset of anesthesia but may cause pain on IV injection. It is widely used for maintaining sedation on ITU, total IV anesthesia, and day case surgery. Sodium thiopentone has an extremely rapid onset of action, making it the agent of choice for rapid sequence induction. However, it may cause marked myocardial depression and metabolites build up quickly, making it unsuitable for maintenance infusion. Ketamine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, has moderate to strong analgesic properties and produces little myocardial depression, making it a suitable agent for anesthesia in those who are hemodynamically unstable. However, it may induce a state of dissociative anesthesia resulting in nightmares. Etomidate has a favorable cardiac safety profile with very little hemodynamic instability but has no analgesic properties and is unsuitable for maintaining sedation as prolonged use may result in adrenal suppression. Postoperative vomiting is common with etomidate.

      Overall, each of these IV induction agents has specific features that make them suitable for different situations. Anesthesiologists must carefully consider the patient’s medical history, current condition, and the type of surgery being performed when selecting an appropriate induction agent.

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  • Question 17 - An 88-year-old man residing in a care home is evaluated by the GP...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old man residing in a care home is evaluated by the GP due to reports from staff that he has developed an itchy rash on his groin. The rash is scaly, red, and has spread across the groin and skin folds. The GP suspects a fungal infection and initiates treatment with clotrimazole. What is the mechanism of action of clotrimazole?

      Your Answer: Affects RNA elongation

      Correct Answer: Affects the production of the cell wall

      Explanation:

      Clotrimazole is a medication that fights against fungal infections like vaginal thrush, athletes foot (tinea pedis), and ringworm of the groin (tinea cruris). It works by inhibiting the synthesis of ergosterol, which alters the permeability of the fungal cell wall.

      Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.

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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old female has a sub total thyroidectomy. After five days, the wound...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female has a sub total thyroidectomy. After five days, the wound starts discharging pus and becomes erythematous. What organism is most likely responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer: Proteus mirabilis

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Staph aureus was responsible for the majority of infections, as per the given situation. Infections caused by strep pyogenes and other organisms were infrequent.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) are a common complication following surgery, occurring when normal bacteria and other pathogens enter the body through a breach in tissue surfaces. These infections can cause significant morbidity and mortality, with up to 20% of all healthcare-associated infections being SSIs. Patients undergoing surgery have at least a 5% chance of developing an SSI. In many cases, the bacteria causing the infection come from the patient’s own body. Certain measures can increase the risk of SSI, such as using a razor to shave the wound or using a non-iodine impregnated incise drape.

      To prevent SSI, certain steps can be taken before, during, and after surgery. Body hair should not be removed routinely, but if necessary, electrical clippers with a single-use head should be used instead of razors. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be given for certain types of surgery, and a single-dose IV antibiotic should be given on anesthesia. If a tourniquet is used, prophylactic antibiotics should be given earlier. During surgery, the skin should be prepared with alcoholic chlorhexidine, and the surgical site should be covered with a dressing. Postoperatively, tissue viability advice should be given for managing surgical wounds healing by secondary intention.

      The use of diathermy for skin incisions is not recommended in the NICE guidelines, as several randomized controlled trials have shown no increase in the risk of SSI when diathermy is used. It has also been found that wound edge protectors do not provide any benefit in preventing SSI. A recent meta-analysis has shown that the administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection, contrary to previous individual RCTs. By following these preventative measures, the risk of SSI can be significantly reduced, leading to better outcomes for patients undergoing surgery.

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  • Question 19 - A familiar alcohol dependent woman arrives at the emergency department with ophthalmoplegia, ataxia...

    Incorrect

    • A familiar alcohol dependent woman arrives at the emergency department with ophthalmoplegia, ataxia and confusion. She is administered IV pabrinex to rectify the probable vitamin deficiency causing her symptoms.

      What is the function of this vitamin within the body?

      Your Answer: Catabolism of fats

      Correct Answer: Catabolism of sugars and amino acids

      Explanation:

      Thiamine plays a crucial role in breaking down sugars and amino acids. When there is a deficiency of thiamine, it can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is commonly seen in individuals with alcohol dependence or malnutrition.

      The deficiency of thiamine affects the highly aerobic tissues of the brain and heart, resulting in conditions like Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome or beriberi.

      Retinal production requires Vitamin A, while collagen synthesis needs Vitamin C. Vitamin D helps in increasing plasma calcium and phosphate levels.

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a sudden loss...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a sudden loss of consciousness upon standing up from a chair. He has a medical history of asthma, migraine, atrial fibrillation, and benign prostate hypertrophy.

      The radiology reports come back normal, but his vital signs show a lying blood pressure of 120/77 mmHg and a standing blood pressure of 90/55 mmHg.

      After reviewing his medication chart, the doctor decides to discontinue a drug that may have caused his current condition.

      Which medication did the doctor discontinue?

      Your Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Doxazosin is known to cause postural hypotension as an adverse effect. This medication is an alpha-1 blocker and is commonly used to manage hypertension and benign prostate hypertrophy. It is important to note that doxazosin can increase the risk of postural hypotension, especially when used in combination with other antihypertensive medications. As a result, it is likely that this medication would have been discontinued.

      On the other hand, paracetamol and venlafaxine are not typically associated with a decrease in blood pressure. Instead, they may cause an increase in blood pressure.

      Prednisolone, on the other hand, is known to raise blood pressure and would not be the correct answer in this scenario.

      Adrenoceptor Antagonists: Types and Examples

      Adrenoceptor antagonists are drugs that block the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline on specific receptors in the body. There are two main types of adrenoceptor antagonists: alpha antagonists and beta antagonists. Alpha antagonists block the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline on alpha receptors, while beta antagonists block their action on beta receptors.

      Examples of alpha antagonists include doxazosin, which blocks alpha-1 receptors, and tamsulosin, which acts mainly on urogenital tract by blocking alpha-1a receptors. Yohimbine is an example of an alpha-2 antagonist, while phenoxybenzamine, previously used in peripheral arterial disease, is a non-selective alpha antagonist.

      Beta antagonists include atenolol, which blocks beta-1 receptors, and propranolol, which is a non-selective beta antagonist. Carvedilol and labetalol are examples of mixed alpha and beta antagonists.

      Overall, adrenoceptor antagonists are important drugs that can be used to treat a variety of conditions, including hypertension, heart failure, and angina.

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  • Question 21 - Mary is a 36-year-old woman with severe atopic dermatitis. She has tried various...

    Incorrect

    • Mary is a 36-year-old woman with severe atopic dermatitis. She has tried various treatments, but none have effectively managed her symptoms. Her dermatologist invites her to participate in a clinical trial that is testing the efficacy of injecting a specific cytokine into patients with atopic dermatitis. The cytokine being tested is primarily secreted by Th1 cells and has various effects, including promoting macrophage activation, antiviral immunity, antigen presentation, and regulating the balance of Th1 and Th2 cells. Some of these effects may be beneficial for patients with uncontrolled atopic dermatitis.

      Which cytokine is being tested in the clinical trial described in the text?

      Your Answer: Interleukin-6 (IL-6)

      Correct Answer: Interferon-γ (IFN-γ)

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

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  • Question 22 - A study is proposed to determine if adolescent obesity in girls increases the...

    Correct

    • A study is proposed to determine if adolescent obesity in girls increases the likelihood of developing polycystic ovarian syndrome. What study design would be most suitable?

      Your Answer: Cohort study

      Explanation:

      A cohort study is a more reliable source of evidence compared to a case-control study as it involves selecting two groups based on their exposure to a specific agent and monitoring their development of a disease or outcome.

      There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.

      On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.

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  • Question 23 - What enzyme is accountable for linking Okazaki fragments, which are around 150-200 base...

    Correct

    • What enzyme is accountable for linking Okazaki fragments, which are around 150-200 base pairs long, during the DNA replication process in eukaryotic human cells?

      Your Answer: DNA ligase

      Explanation:

      DNA ligase is an enzyme that connects Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand to create a continuous strand. This process is essential for the completion of DNA replication. DNA helicase, on the other hand, unwinds the DNA strand to allow other enzymes to access and copy the genetic information. DNA polymerase I is only present in prokaryotic cells and is not involved in joining Okazaki fragments. Similarly, DNA polymerase beta is responsible for repairing base errors in DNA replication and does not play a role in connecting Okazaki fragments.

      DNA Replication in Prokaryotes vs Eukaryotes

      DNA replication is the process by which genetic information is copied and passed on to the next generation of cells. In prokaryotes, DNA replication occurs in the cytoplasm, while in eukaryotes, it occurs in the nucleus. Additionally, prokaryotes have a single origin of replication, while eukaryotes have multiple origins.

      During DNA replication, the double helix is unzipped by DNA helicase, creating a replication fork. Single-stranded binding proteins prevent the DNA from reannealing. DNA polymerase III elongates the leading strand in a 5′-3′ direction, while DNA polymerase I removes RNA primers and replaces them with DNA. DNA ligase seals up the fragments.

      While the basic mechanisms of DNA replication are similar in prokaryotes and eukaryotes, there are some differences in the process. Understanding these differences can help researchers better understand the genetic processes of different organisms.

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  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old woman visits the respiratory clinic complaining of ongoing nighttime cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman visits the respiratory clinic complaining of ongoing nighttime cough and difficulty breathing, despite trying various inhalers and oral medications. To alleviate bronchoconstriction, her consultant prescribes a drug that hinders the activity of the enzyme responsible for converting arachidonic acid into hydroperoxyeicosatetraenoic acid (HPETEs).

      Which enzyme does this medication inhibit?

      Your Answer: Phospholipase A2

      Correct Answer: Lipoxygenase

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is lipoxygenase, which is responsible for converting arachidonic acid to HPETEs. This process is important in the formation of leukotrienes, which can cause bronchoconstriction in asthma. Zileuton is a medication that inhibits lipoxygenase and is used in the US for asthma treatment. In the UK, montelukast is used as an oral leukotriene receptor antagonist to block the action of leukotrienes in the lungs.

      Cyclo-oxygenase-1 and cyclo-oxygenase-2 are incorrect answers. These enzymes are responsible for converting arachidonic acid to prostaglandins and thromboxanes, not HPETEs and leukotrienes. NSAIDs are a group of medications that block cyclo-oxygenase enzymes and are commonly used for pain relief. However, they can cause gastric irritation and ulceration, which can be reduced by co-prescribing a proton pump inhibitor. NSAIDs also reduce platelet aggregation and increase bleeding, so they should be avoided in patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Hydrolase is also an incorrect answer. This enzyme is involved in the conversion of leukotriene A4 to leukotriene B4, which occurs later in the pathway than the conversion of arachidonic acid to HPETEs by lipoxygenase.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

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  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old pig farmer presents to the GP with complaints of abdominal discomfort...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old pig farmer presents to the GP with complaints of abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea. Upon initial investigations, the patient is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection. Which immunoglobulin plays a primary role in eliminating this organism?

      Your Answer: IgM

      Correct Answer: IgE

      Explanation:

      IgE provides protection against parasitic infections, particularly helminths, by providing immunity. It also triggers the release of histamine. IgA fights off various infections but not primarily parasites, and is found in saliva, tears, and breast milk. IgD plays a role in activating B cells. IgG protects against a range of pathogens and aids in the phagocytosis of viruses and bacteria. It is also involved in rhesus disease as it can cross the placenta.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

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  • Question 26 - A 20-year-old male presents with myoclonus and confusion. His blood test shows an...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male presents with myoclonus and confusion. His blood test shows an elevated level of ammonium. He has a familial history of a urea cycle disorder. What specific enzyme deficiency is present in this case?

      Your Answer: Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

      Explanation:

      Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I is the enzyme that limits the rate of the urea cycle, which is a series of six enzymatic and two transport steps required to metabolize and eliminate nitrogen produced by the breakdown of amino acids in proteins and other nitrogen-containing molecules. If there is a deficiency of this enzyme, it can result in high levels of ammonium, leading to encephalopathy.

      Glycogen phosphorylase is the enzyme that limits the rate of glycogenolysis.

      Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the enzyme that limits the rate of the citric acid cycle.

      The rate of glycolysis is limited by the enzyme phosphofructokinase-1.

      Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes

      Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.

      For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.

      Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.

      The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.

      Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.

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  • Question 27 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her doctor with a complaint of dysuria that...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her doctor with a complaint of dysuria that has been bothering her for the last 48 hours. She reports that her urine appears cloudier than usual. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, the doctor observes positive results for both leukocytes and nitrites. As a result, the doctor prescribes a 3-day course of trimethoprim to treat the suspected urinary tract infection.

      What is the mode of action of the selected antibiotic?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking

      Correct Answer: Inhibits folic acid formation

      Explanation:

      Trimethoprim inhibits the formation of folic acid, making it an effective antibiotic. Other antibiotics, such as penicillin, disrupt bacterial cell wall formation, macrolides inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of ribosomes, aminoglycosides inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30S subunit of ribosomes, and rifampicin is an RNA polymerase inhibitor.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

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  • Question 28 - Which of the following pertains to a placebo that induces unfavorable side effects?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pertains to a placebo that induces unfavorable side effects?

      Your Answer: An active placebo

      Correct Answer: A nocebo

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.

      It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.

      The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.

      Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 29 - A truck mechanic is discovered by his supervisor sitting on the ground of...

    Correct

    • A truck mechanic is discovered by his supervisor sitting on the ground of the garage workshop, complaining of a severe headache, vertigo, and difficulty breathing. As they wait for the ambulance, he starts to breathe rapidly. After being given oxygen in the ambulance, his breathing returns to normal. The paramedics suspect carbon monoxide poisoning. Where in the brain are the central chemoreceptors located that detected the alterations in interstitial fluid and the patient's heightened respiratory rate?

      Your Answer: Medulla oblongata

      Explanation:

      The central chemoreceptors located in the medulla oblongata can detect alterations in the levels of carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions in the cerebrospinal fluid. They can then adjust the respiratory rate accordingly, superseding any voluntary signals from the cerebral cortex. Compared to the peripheral chemoreceptors found in the aortic and carotid bodies, the central chemoreceptors have a higher degree of sensitivity.

      Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin, leading to tissue hypoxia. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and in severe cases, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and death. Diagnosis is made through measuring carboxyhaemoglobin levels in arterial or venous blood gas. Treatment involves administering 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask for at least six hours, with hyperbaric oxygen therapy considered for more severe cases.

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  • Question 30 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with anaphylaxis after unintentionally ingesting...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with anaphylaxis after unintentionally ingesting peanuts, to which she has a documented allergy.

      Which immune cell type is primarily responsible for orchestrating this type of allergic reaction?

      Your Answer: B cells

      Correct Answer: Mast cells

      Explanation:

      IgE antibodies play a role in allergic, hypersensitivity, and anaphylactic responses by binding to Fc receptors on mast cells.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

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