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Question 1
Correct
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents with a complaint of dyspnoea that has been worsening with physical activity for the past month. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has had normal prenatal testing. Upon examination, her vital signs are stable, and her lungs are clear bilaterally without cardiac murmur. Mild dependent oedema is noted in her lower extremities. What is the probable cause of her dyspnoea?
Your Answer: Increased minute ventilation
Explanation:Physiological Changes During Pregnancy and Breathlessness: Understanding the Relationship
During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes numerous physiological changes that can affect her respiratory system. One of the most significant changes is an increase in tidal volume, which leads to an overall increase in minute ventilation. This increased respiratory workload can result in a feeling of breathlessness, which is experienced by up to 75% of pregnant women, particularly during the first trimester. However, it is important to note that this feeling of breathlessness is typically not indicative of any underlying cardiac or pulmonary issues.
While some degree of dependent leg edema is normal during pregnancy, it is important to understand that other respiratory changes, such as a decrease in residual volume or a reduction in functional residual capacity, do not typically contribute to the feeling of breathlessness. Respiratory rate usually remains unchanged during pregnancy.
Overall, understanding the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy and their impact on the respiratory system can help healthcare providers better manage and address any concerns related to breathlessness in pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is brought to the hospital following a fall. He reports feeling increasingly dizzy when moving around his apartment, but denies losing consciousness. He has a medical history of heart failure, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes. His medications were recently adjusted by the hospital clinic and include bendroflumethiazide, aspirin, ramipril, gliclazide, furosemide, simvastatin, and a newly prescribed doxazosin. What single observation would aid in establishing his diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lying and standing blood pressures
Explanation:Drug-induced Postural Hypotension
Drug-induced postural hypotension is a condition that can occur as a side effect of antihypertensive therapy, especially with the use of alpha-blockers. This condition is characterized by a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing up, which can cause dizziness, lightheadedness, and even fainting. In this case, the recent introduction of doxazosin is a clue that this patient may be experiencing drug-induced postural hypotension. It is important to monitor patients closely when starting new medications and to be aware of the potential side effects, especially those related to blood pressure regulation. Healthcare providers should also educate patients on the signs and symptoms of postural hypotension and advise them to report any changes in their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A woman complains of persistent indigestion that has not responded to over the counter ranitidine. She is started on a proton pump inhibitor, and the dose is then increased without effect. Gastrin levels are measured at 100,000 (NR <200 pmol/l).
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Explanation:Rare but Beloved Medical Conditions in Examinations
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, also known as gastrinoma, is a rare medical condition caused by a tumour that secretes gastrin. This leads to excessive acid production that is not easily treated with proton pump inhibitors, except in high doses. Another rare medical condition is insulinoma, which causes hypoglycaemia due to excessive insulin production. Lastly, Plummer-Vinson syndrome is a combination of iron deficiency anaemia and oesophageal webs that cause difficulty in swallowing. These medical conditions are not commonly encountered in clinical practice, but they are much beloved in medical examinations. It is important for medical students to be familiar with these conditions and their symptoms in order to provide accurate diagnoses and treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presented 9 months after discharge from hospital, following a myocardial infarction. He had no further chest pain but had developed swelling of the breasts, which was uncomfortable on occasion. Upon examination, tender bilateral gynaecomastia was observed.
Which medication he is currently taking is most likely responsible for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Digoxin is a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, and congestive heart failure. However, it has a narrow therapeutic window, meaning that even small changes in dosage can cause significant side effects. Common side effects include dizziness, skin reactions, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Gynaecomastia, or breast enlargement in males, is a rare side effect of digoxin. Signs of digoxin toxicity include drowsiness, confusion, bradycardia, shortness of breath, and blurred vision. Other medications that can cause gynaecomastia include anti-androgens, 5-a reductase inhibitors, exogenous estrogens, and certain chemotherapy agents.
Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker used to control heart rate in atrial fibrillation, treat hypertension and congestive heart failure, and prevent secondary heart attacks. Side effects of bisoprolol and beta-blockers in general include vivid dreams, mood changes, bronchospasm in asthmatics, dizziness, and nausea.
Aspirin is an anti-platelet medication that can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, tinnitus, and Reye’s syndrome.
Eplerenone is a potassium-sparing diuretic used to treat heart failure and post-MI. It can cause hyperkalemia, diarrhea, constipation, dizziness, hypotension, and hyponatremia. Unlike spironolactone, another aldosterone antagonist, eplerenone does not have anti-androgenic, estrogenic, or progestogenic properties.
Simvastatin is an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor used to lower cholesterol. Side effects include muscle cramps, rhabdomyolysis, hepatitis, hair thinning, abdominal pain, and tiredness. Other cardiovascular drugs that may cause gynaecomastia include spironolactone, ACE inhibitors, amiodarone, and calcium channel blockers. Many drugs can cause gynaecomastia, including anti-androgens, antimicrobial medications, anti-ulcer drugs, hormonal therapies, psychoactive drugs, and drugs of abuse. Aspirin is generally well-tolerated at anti-platelet dosages, with bleeding being the main adverse effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A mother of three brings her youngest daughter, aged 15, to the general practitioner (GP) as she is yet to start menstruating, whereas both her sisters had menarche at the age of 12.
The patient has developed secondary female sexual characteristics and has a normal height. She reports struggling with headaches and one episode of galactorrhoea.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) reveals an intracranial tumour measuring 11 mm in maximal diameter.
Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the first-line management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medical treatment with cabergoline
Explanation:The patient has primary amenorrhoea due to a macroprolactinoma, which is a benign prolactin-secreting tumor of the anterior pituitary gland. Treatment in the first instance is with a dopamine receptor agonist such as bromocriptine or cabergoline. Surgery is the most appropriate management if conservative management fails or the patient presents with visual field defects. Radiotherapy is rarely used. Exclusion of pregnancy is the first step in every case of amenorrhoea. Metoclopramide is a dopamine receptor antagonist and a cause of hyperprolactinaemia, so it should not be used to treat this patient. Thyroxine is not appropriate as hyperprolactinaemia is secondary to a pituitary adenoma. Indications for surgery are failure to respond to medical therapy or presentation with acute visual field defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 88-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) via ambulance with central crushing chest pain. An electrocardiogram (ECG) in the ambulance shows 3 mm ST elevation in the anterior leads consistent with a STEMI. His wife says he has a history of ischaemic heart disease and congestive cardiac failure. He has a cardiac arrest in the ED secondary to ventricular fibrillation. Despite resuscitation using advanced cardiac life support, he dies. His wife asks what will happen to his body.
What is the most appropriate next step in management for this deceased patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to the coroner
Explanation:Guidelines for Filling out a Death Certificate
When filling out a death certificate, it is important to follow certain guidelines to ensure accuracy and completeness. If the death was sudden and unexpected, it should be referred to the coroner. In part 1 of the certificate, the specific disease, illness, or complication that led to death should be stated, not a mode of dying. Terms such as cardiac arrest, old age, and coma are not suitable for part 1. In part 2, any conditions that may have contributed to the death should be listed, but terms such as heart failure, liver failure, and kidney failure are not acceptable. By following these guidelines, death certificates can provide valuable information for medical research and public health purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with bright red rectal bleeding. The bleeding started several hours ago after he has been to the toilet to defecate and he states that if he had to guess he has lost around 'a mug's worth' of blood. He is normally fit and well and has no significant past medical history. His observations are BP 115/84 mmHg, heart rate 74/min, temperature 37.3ºC, respiration rate 12/min, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supportive management
Explanation:When a patient with acute PR bleeds is haemodynamically stable, the primary treatment approach is supportive management. In this scenario, the patient is likely suffering from haemorrhoids. Supportive management involves providing analgesia for pain relief, regular monitoring of the patient’s condition, and administering fluids and oxygen as necessary.
If the patient shows signs of haemodynamic compromise, intravenous fluids and/or blood transfusions may be necessary. Endoscopy is a useful tool for identifying the underlying cause of the bleed. Colonoscopy is typically used in elective settings, while flexible sigmoidoscopy is effective in identifying haemorrhoids as the source of the bleed.
Understanding Lower Gastrointestinal Bleeding
Lower gastrointestinal bleeding, also known as colonic bleeding, is characterized by the presence of bright red or dark red blood in the rectum. Unlike upper gastrointestinal bleeding, colonic bleeding rarely presents as melaena type stool. This is because blood in the colon has a powerful laxative effect and is rarely retained long enough for transformation to occur. Additionally, the digestive enzymes present in the small bowel are not present in the colon. It is important to note that up to 15% of patients presenting with hematochezia will have an upper gastrointestinal source of haemorrhage.
Right-sided bleeds tend to present with darker coloured blood than left-sided bleeds. Haemorrhoidal bleeding, on the other hand, typically presents as bright red rectal bleeding that occurs post defecation either onto toilet paper or into the toilet pan. However, it is very unusual for haemorrhoids alone to cause any degree of haemodynamic compromise.
There are several causes of lower gastrointestinal bleeding, including colitis, diverticular disease, cancer, and angiodysplasia. The management of lower gastrointestinal bleeding involves prompt correction of any haemodynamic compromise. Unlike upper gastrointestinal bleeding, the first-line management is usually supportive. When haemorrhoidal bleeding is suspected, a proctosigmoidoscopy is reasonable as attempts at full colonoscopy are usually time-consuming and often futile. In the unstable patient, the usual procedure would be an angiogram, while in others who are more stable, a colonoscopy in the elective setting is the standard procedure. Surgery may be necessary in some cases, particularly in patients over 60 years, those with continued bleeding despite endoscopic intervention, and those with recurrent bleeding.
In summary, lower gastrointestinal bleeding is a serious condition that requires prompt attention. It is important to identify the cause of the bleeding and manage it accordingly to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents to his local Emergency Department with sudden loss of vision in the lower left quadrant of his visual field in both eyes. A CT scan of his head reveals an area of infarction in his brain, leading to a diagnosis of acute ischemic stroke. Which blood vessel is most likely occluded?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right middle cerebral artery
Explanation:Effects of Cerebral Artery Occlusions on Vision
The brain’s interpretation of visual information is a complex process that involves multiple pathways and structures. The occlusion of different cerebral arteries can lead to various visual impairments.
Right Middle Cerebral Artery
The right middle cerebral artery supplies blood to the right superior optic radiation. An infarction in this area can cause contralateral homonymous quadrantanopia, which is the loss of vision in the lower left quadrant of the visual field of both eyes.Left Anterior Cerebral Artery
An occlusion of the left anterior cerebral artery can lead to complete loss of vision in the left eye due to optic nerve ischaemia.Left Posterior Cerebral Artery
A left posterior cerebral artery infarct can cause contralateral homonymous hemianopia, which is the loss of the medial half of the left eye’s visual field and the lateral half of the right eye visual field.Right Vertebral Artery
The right vertebral artery supplies blood to the basilar artery and contributes blood to many anastomotic vessels. An occlusion in this area can result in unpredictable outcomes.Left Ophthalmic Artery
An occlusion of the left ophthalmic artery can cause complete vision loss of the ipsilateral eye due to infarction of the ipsilateral optic nerve, similar to the possible ocular effects of an anterior cerebral artery infarct.In conclusion, the occlusion of different cerebral arteries can lead to various visual impairments, and understanding these effects can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of stroke patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of painful red eye on one side. Upon examination, the GP observes reduced visual acuity, photophobia, eye watering, and a poorly reactive pupil. The patient is suspected to have uveitis. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Same-day referral to an Ophthalmologist
Explanation:Management of Acutely Painful Red Eye with Suspected Uveitis
Explanation:
When a patient presents with an acutely painful red eye and suspected uveitis, it is crucial to refer them for same-day assessment by an Ophthalmologist. A slit-lamp examination is necessary to confirm the diagnosis, which cannot be performed by a GP. Non-infective anterior uveitis is treated with a combination of steroids and cycloplegics to reduce inflammation and ciliary spasm. In cases of infective uveitis, antimicrobials are also added.Chloramphenicol is used in the treatment of conjunctivitis, but it is not appropriate for uveitis. Conservative management with pain relief alone is not sufficient for this condition. Topical steroids are required to reduce inflammation, along with a cycloplegic such as atropine to reduce ciliary spasm. However, topical steroids should not be initiated in primary care, and patients require urgent assessment in secondary care.
Referral within two weeks is not appropriate for a patient with an acutely painful red eye and suspected uveitis. Any delay in treatment can result in adhesions within the eye and long-term damage. Therefore, same-day referral to an Ophthalmologist is necessary for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has complained of increased frequency of urination and urge incontinence. He wakes up 4 times at night to urinate. He has no other medical conditions and is in good health. On physical examination, his prostate is normal in size on digital rectal examination. What is the most suitable investigation to determine the cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urodynamic studies
Explanation:Urodynamic studies are used to measure bladder voiding and can be helpful in diagnosing overactive bladder (OAB), which is suspected in patients who cannot control their urge to urinate. The symptoms of urgency described by the patient are indicative of lower urinary tract symptoms associated with OAB. While OAB is a clinical syndrome that does not necessarily require investigation, the question specifically asks which investigation would be most useful in demonstrating this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is urodynamic studies. Other modalities such as bladder ultrasound may be useful in detecting large post-voiding volumes, but they would not reveal the underlying pathology of OAB.
Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a urinalysis to check for infection and haematuria, perform a digital rectal examination to assess the size and consistency of the prostate, and possibly conduct a PSA test after proper counselling. Patients should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.
For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be offered. If there are mixed symptoms of voiding and storage not responding to an alpha-blocker, an antimuscarinic drug may be added. For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered, and antimuscarinic drugs may be prescribed if symptoms persist. Mirabegron may be considered if first-line drugs fail. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night, furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon, and desmopressin may be helpful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A middle-aged man without prior medical history is experiencing increasing back pain and right hip pain for the past decade. The pain worsens towards the end of the day. He has bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints. Radiographs reveal prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral bodies and sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the right acetabulum. What is the most likely pathologic process occurring in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Arthritis
Degenerative osteoarthritis is a condition that becomes more prevalent and symptomatic as one ages. It is characterized by the erosion and loss of articular cartilage. On the other hand, rheumatoid arthritis typically affects the small joints of the hands and feet, leading to marked joint deformity due to a destructive pannus. Gouty arthritis, on the other hand, is more likely to cause swelling and deformity with joint destruction, and the pain is not related to usage. Osteomyelitis, meanwhile, is an ongoing infection that produces marked bone deformity, not just joint narrowing. Lastly, Lyme disease produces a chronic arthritis, but it is typically preceded by a deer tick bite with a skin lesion. It is much less common than osteoarthritis. By the differences between these types of arthritis, proper diagnosis and treatment can be given to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which statement about leptin is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Produces satiety
Explanation:The Role of Leptin in Regulating Appetite and Body Weight
Leptin is a hormone that is produced by adipocytes, or fat cells, and its concentration in the bloodstream is directly related to the amount of fat in the body. When leptin levels are high, it acts on receptors in the hypothalamus to produce feelings of satiety, or fullness, which can help to reduce food intake. This makes leptin an important regulator of appetite and body weight.
However, in some cases, patients may develop leptin resistance, which means that their bodies are no longer able to respond to the hormone in the same way. This can lead to continued weight gain and difficulty in controlling food intake, even when leptin levels are high. Despite this, researchers continue to study the role of leptin in the body and explore potential treatments for obesity and other related conditions.
Overall, the physiology of leptin and its effects on appetite and body weight is an important area of research that has the potential to improve the health and well-being of millions of people around the world. By developing new treatments and interventions that target leptin and other related hormones, we may be able to help patients achieve and maintain a healthy weight and reduce their risk of developing chronic diseases such as diabetes, heart disease, and cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 6-day-old infant has been experiencing noisy breathing since birth. A perceptive resident physician identifies that the sound occurs during inhalation. What is the primary reason for stridor in a newborn?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia
Explanation:1 – Children between 6 months and 3 years old are typically affected by croup.
2 – Stridor is a common symptom of Epiglottitis in children aged 2-4 years, although the introduction of the H. influenzae vaccine has almost eliminated this condition.
4 – Bronchiolitis often affects individuals between 3 and 6 months old.
5 – No information provided.Stridor in Children: Causes and Symptoms
Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is commonly seen in children. There are several causes of stridor in children, including croup, acute epiglottitis, inhaled foreign body, and laryngomalacia. Croup is a viral infection that affects the upper respiratory tract and is characterized by stridor, barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms. Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, which can lead to airway obstruction. Inhaled foreign body can cause sudden onset of coughing, choking, vomiting, and stridor, depending on the site of impaction. Laryngomalacia is a congenital abnormality of the larynx that typically presents at 4 weeks of age with stridor.
It is important to recognize the symptoms of stridor in children and seek prompt medical attention, especially if the child appears unwell or toxic. Treatment may include medications, such as corticosteroids or nebulized epinephrine, or in severe cases, intubation or tracheostomy. Prevention measures, such as vaccination against Haemophilus influenzae type B, can also help reduce the incidence of acute epiglottitis. Overall, early recognition and management of stridor in children can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male patient complained of frequent nosebleeds and was diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. During a chest x-ray, a shadow was detected over the right lung base, and a bruit was heard upon auscultation in the same area. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
Explanation:Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia
Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia is a genetic disorder that causes bleeding from small blood vessels called telangiectasia on mucous membranes such as the nose, mouth, and gastrointestinal tract. This condition is characterised by the presence of telangiectasia on the skin, which can be seen during clinical examination. In some cases, arteriovenous malformations may also be present in the lung or brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department following an overdose at home. She reports taking 32 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg six hours ago. The patient is admitted to the observation unit for IV n-acetylcysteine. Which of the following factors is not linked to an elevated risk of developing hepatotoxicity in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute alcohol intake
Explanation:Acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of developing hepatotoxicity in cases of paracetamol overdose and may even have a protective effect. However, patients taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin, and carbamazepine are at a higher risk of developing hepatotoxicity.
Risk Factors for Paracetamol Overdose
Paracetamol overdose can lead to hepatotoxicity, especially in certain groups of patients. Those taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or those with chronic alcohol excess or who take St John’s Wort are at an increased risk. Malnourished patients, such as those with anorexia nervosa, or those who have not eaten for a few days are also at a higher risk. Interestingly, acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity, and may even have a protective effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors when treating patients who have overdosed on paracetamol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A mother presents with her 3-month-old baby boy to ask advice about his failed newborn hearing screening. Further tests were normal; however, she has been advised to seek medical advice if she has any concerns about his hearing in the future. Which one of the following would warrant referral for a further hearing test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Not babbling or imitating sounds by the age of nine months old
Explanation:Developmental Milestones for Language Acquisition in Children
Language acquisition is an important developmental milestone in children. Here are some key markers to look out for:
– Not babbling or imitating sounds by the age of nine months old: If a baby is not babbling or imitating sounds by this age, it could be a sign of a social, cognitive, speech, or hearing problem. A full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
– Putting two words together by the age of 18 months old: By this age, a child should be using 50+ words and be able to put two words together. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
– More than 200 spoken words by the age of two years: A 30-month-old child should be using 200+ words. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
– Not responding to his own name by the age of six months old: By the age of one year, a child should respond to their own name. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
– Speaking 6-20 words by the age of one year: By the age of one, a child should be using 6-20 words. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are any concerns. Early intervention can make a significant difference in a child’s language acquisition and overall development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very keen to get back to work as he is self-employed.
Following a stroke, what is the minimum time that patients are advised not to drive a car for?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:Driving Restrictions After Stroke or TIA
After experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) or stroke, it is important to be aware of the driving restrictions set by the DVLA. For at least 4 weeks, patients should not drive a car or motorbike. If the patient drives a lorry or bus, they must not drive for 1 year and must notify the DVLA. After 1 month of satisfactory clinical recovery, drivers of cars may resume driving, but lorry and bus drivers must wait for 1 year before relicensing may be considered. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required. Following stroke or single TIA, a person may not drive a car for 2 weeks, but can resume driving after 1 month if there has been a satisfactory recovery. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure safe driving and prevent further health complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual onset of weakness in his legs, arms, neck, and face. He notices that his muscle strength improves after some exercise.
During the examination, the doctor observes weakness in all limbs, particularly in the proximal arms and legs, and ptosis in both eyelids. The patient has a history of heavy smoking for 45 pack-years and was recently diagnosed with lung cancer.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Bilateral Ptosis and Limb Weakness
The patient’s symptoms of bilateral ptosis and limb weakness suggest several possible diagnoses. However, the most likely diagnosis is Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome, a disorder of the presynaptic calcium channels that impairs the release of acetylcholine. This condition is often associated with lung cancer.
Other possible diagnoses include myasthenia gravis, which typically causes weakness and fatigability of skeletal muscles, but the patient’s muscle strength increased with exercise, which is more typical of Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome. Thymoma, not lung cancer, is associated with myasthenia gravis.
Central Horner syndrome and postganglionic Horner syndrome are unlikely because they do not typically cause bilateral ptosis accompanied by limb weakness. Preganglionic Horner syndrome is also unlikely for the same reason.
In summary, the patient’s symptoms suggest Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome as the most likely diagnosis, but further testing and evaluation are necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with bone pain and muscle tenderness. He has a past medical history of stage 3 chronic kidney disease.
The GP decides to take some blood, and the results are shown below.
Calcium 2.1 mmol/L (2.2-2.7)
Phosphate 0.72 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.8 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 10.8 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
What is the most appropriate initial management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin D supplements
Explanation:The appropriate management for osteomalacia, which is likely caused by chronic kidney disease, involves vitamin D supplementation with an initial loading dose regime. Blood tests for osteomalacia typically reveal low levels of calcium and phosphate, as well as high levels of alkaline phosphatase. Calcium supplementation may also be prescribed if the patient’s dietary intake is insufficient. Intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates are not recommended for the treatment of hypocalcaemia, while levothyroxine is used to manage hypothyroidism and oral bisphosphonates are used for osteoporosis.
Understanding Osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.
The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.
The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to your General Practice clinic complaining of worsening hearing and tinnitus. She is currently pregnant and has noticed a significant decline in her hearing, although she had hearing problems before her pregnancy. Her father and grandfather also had hearing problems, and she is concerned about her future. During the examination, both tympanic membranes appear normal without abnormalities detected.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Otosclerosis
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis: A Common Cause of Hearing Loss in Pregnancy
Otosclerosis is a genetic condition that causes the stapes footplate to become fused to the oval window, resulting in hearing loss. While it is an autosomal dominant condition, many people develop it without a family history. Women are twice as likely to be affected, and bilateral deafness is common. The condition typically manifests during middle age and is worsened by pregnancy. Interestingly, background noise can actually improve hearing. Eustachian tube dysfunction is another common cause of hearing loss in pregnancy, but it is usually accompanied by otitis media with effusion. Wax build-up is unlikely to be the cause of hearing loss in this case, and normal age-related hearing loss is not consistent with the rapid progression of symptoms. While Meniere’s disease is a possibility, the lack of vertigo and family history make otosclerosis the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 10-day old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother due to poor feeding and drinking for the past 48 hours. The mother is concerned about the baby's weight gain and has noticed pale stools. During the examination, the baby appears jaundiced and has an enlarged liver. The medical team performs a newborn jaundice screen and considers biliary atresia as a possible diagnosis. What clinical finding would be most indicative of biliary atresia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised level of conjugated bilirubin
Explanation:Elevated conjugated bilirubin is a characteristic feature of biliary atresia. This condition is often associated with prolonged jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, abnormal growth, and cardiac murmurs in the presence of cardiac abnormalities. While liver transaminases and bile acids may also be elevated in biliary atresia, they are not specific to this condition and cannot distinguish it from other causes of neonatal cholestasis. Poor feeding and drinking are not helpful in making a diagnosis, as they can occur in many different conditions. While the age of presentation may suggest biliary atresia, there are several other potential causes of neonatal jaundice in a 15-day old infant, including congenital infections, urinary tract infections, breast milk jaundice, and hypothyroidism. Elevated unconjugated bilirubin is not a typical finding in biliary atresia, but may be seen in cases of hypothyroidism.
Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children
Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.
To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.
Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who gave birth a week ago presents to the emergency department with concerns about vaginal bleeding. She reports that the bleeding started as bright red but has now turned brown. She is changing her pads every 3 hours and is worried about possible damage to her uterus from her recent caesarean section. On examination, she appears distressed but has no fever. Her vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 95 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 19 breaths per minute. Abdominal examination is unremarkable except for a pink, non-tender caesarean section scar. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure, advise and discharge
Explanation:The patient is discussing the bleeding that occurs during the first two weeks after giving birth, known as lochia. It is important to note that both vaginal birth and caesarian section can result in this bleeding, but caesarian section carries a higher risk of post-partum haemorrhage. Therefore, a thorough history and examination should be conducted to identify any potential issues.
Typically, lochia begins as fresh bleeding and changes color before eventually stopping. The patient should be advised that if the bleeding becomes foul-smelling, increases in volume, or does not stop, they should seek medical attention. However, in this case, the volume of bleeding is not excessive and there are no concerning features or abnormal observations. The patient can be reassured and provided with advice regarding lochia.
Lochia refers to the discharge that is released from the vagina after childbirth. This discharge is composed of blood, mucous, and uterine tissue. It is a normal occurrence that can last for up to six weeks following delivery. During this time, the body is working to heal and recover from the physical changes that occurred during pregnancy and childbirth. It is important for new mothers to monitor their lochia and report any unusual changes or symptoms to their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old primigravida at 8 weeks comes in with suprapubic pain and vaginal bleeding. She has passed tissue through her vagina and blood is pooled in the vaginal area. The cervix is closed and an ultrasound reveals an empty uterine cavity. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Complete miscarriage
Explanation:A complete miscarriage occurs when the entire fetus is spontaneously aborted and expelled through the cervix. Once the fetus has been expelled, the pain and uterine contractions typically cease. An ultrasound can confirm that the uterus is now empty.
Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male presents with a one day history of right-sided chest pain and dyspnoea that has worsened throughout the day. He underwent a right hip replacement and was discharged from BUPA one week ago. On examination, his temperature is 37.5°C, pulse is 96 bpm, blood pressure is 138/88 mmHg, and oxygen saturations are 90% on air. There are no specific abnormalities on chest examination, but his chest x-ray shows consolidation at the right base. The ECG is also normal. What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CTPA chest
Explanation:Consider Pulmonary Embolism in Post-Surgery Patients
A patient who has recently undergone surgery and presents with chest x-ray changes and respiratory symptoms should be evaluated for pulmonary embolism (PE). While infection is a possibility, it is important to consider thromboembolic disease as it can be fatal if left untreated.
A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan may not be sufficient in this context, and a computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) would provide a more definitive diagnosis. While raised FDPs/D-dimers can indicate PE, they are not specific and only provide value if they fall within a normal range. Blood cultures for chest infection are unlikely to yield significant results.
It is crucial to consider the possibility of PE in post-surgery patients to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of vision issues. She reports seeing a red tint in her vision and dark spots in her right eye. The physician sends her to the eye casualty department where they suspect a vitreous haemorrhage.
What factors could potentially increase the likelihood of developing this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Use of warfarin
Explanation:The use of blood thinning agents such as warfarin is a predisposing factor for vitreous haemorrhage, which is characterized by red-tinged vision and dark spots. Other risk factors include diabetes, trauma, coagulation disorders, and severe short sightedness.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old retired teacher with advanced ovarian cancer is reviewed at home by her General Practitioner (GP). Her daughter requested a home visit due to significant deterioration in her health over the past few days, and she is concerned that she can no longer meet her healthcare needs at home without assistance.
During the consultation, the GP discusses considering hospice care for the patient.
To be appropriate for hospice care management, a patient must:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No longer be seeking curative treatment
Explanation:Myths about Hospice Care: Debunked
Hospice care is often misunderstood, leading to misconceptions about who can receive it and what it entails. Here are some common myths about hospice care debunked:
Myth #1: Hospice care is only for patients with terminal cancer.
Fact: Patients with any terminal diagnosis can seek hospice care, not just those with cancer. Commonly, patients with chronic lung disease, dementia, and neurodegenerative disorders benefit from hospice care.Myth #2: Patients must be bed-bound to receive hospice care.
Fact: Mobility status does not affect admission to hospice. Patients in hospices often take part in activities and may be fully mobile.Myth #3: Patients must have a ‘do not resuscitate’ (DNACPR) decision to receive hospice care.
Fact: Although most patients will have a DNACPR decision in a hospice, this is not a requirement.Myth #4: Patients must have uncontrolled pain to receive hospice care.
Fact: While some patients may be admitted to a hospice for pain control, hospices are able to treat other symptoms, and pain control can be addressed in other settings, depending on the patient’s needs and wishes.Hospice care and palliative care both focus on quality of life care for the patient and address adjustment to illness and end-of-life issues. Both forms of care address pain and symptom control issues for patients. However, hospice care is for patients who are no longer actively seeking curative treatment and have a terminal diagnosis with a life expectancy of 6 months or less. In contrast, for palliative care treatment, patients may still be undergoing aggressive treatment and do not have to be terminally ill. It is important to understand the facts about hospice care to make informed decisions about end-of-life care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man is admitted for a radical nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma. He has an uncomplicated postoperative course and after one week is ready for discharge home. You are the house officer on the urology team and have attended him daily. He hands you an envelope and inside you find a thank you card with a voucher for a department store for £500. What should you do regarding the gift you have received?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Return it to the patient and explain you cannot accept such a gift
Explanation:How to Handle a Valuable Gift from a Patient as a Doctor
As a doctor, it is important to maintain a professional relationship with your patients. This includes being cautious about accepting gifts, especially those valued over £50. Here are some options for handling a valuable gift from a patient:
1. Return it to the patient and explain you cannot accept such a gift. This may cause embarrassment, but it is the most professional option.
2. Keep it and share it with your team. Explain to the patient that gifts over £50 should only be accepted on behalf of an organisation, not an individual staff member.
3. Give it to a charity. Be open and honest with the patient and suggest they donate the money to a charitable organisation.
4. Thank the patient and keep it. However, this could raise questions about your professionalism and could leave you vulnerable to criticism.
5. Thank the patient and use the money to buy something nice for the ward. While this is a kind gesture, the patient should directly give the money to the hospital and doctors should be cautious about accepting valuable gifts.
Remember, maintaining a professional relationship with your patients is crucial and accepting gifts should be done with caution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease has recently received a renal transplant. After three months he starts to feel unwell with flu-like symptoms, fever, and pain over the transplant area.
What is the most likely type of reaction that has occurred in the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute graft failure
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Graft Failure After Transplantation
Acute graft failure is a type of graft failure that occurs within six months after transplantation. If a patient presents with symptoms such as fever, flu-like symptoms, and pain over the transplant after three months, it may indicate acute graft failure. This type of failure is usually caused by mismatched human leukocyte antigen and may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.
Wound infection is not a likely cause of symptoms after three months since any wounds from the transplant would have healed by then. Chronic graft failure, on the other hand, occurs after six months to a year following the transplant and is caused by a combination of B- and T-cell-mediated immunity, infection, and previous occurrences of acute graft rejections.
Hyperacute rejection is a rare type of graft failure that occurs within minutes to hours after transplantation. It happens because of pre-existing antibodies towards the donor before transplantation. In cases of hyperacute rejection, removal of the organ and re-transplantation is necessary.
It is important to understand the different types of graft failure after transplantation to properly diagnose and treat patients who may be experiencing symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about coronary artery grafting for ischaemic heart disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It requires a preceding coronary angiography
Explanation:Myocardial Revascularization: Debunking Common Misconceptions
Myocardial revascularization, commonly known as coronary artery surgery, is a surgical procedure that aims to improve blood flow to the heart muscle. However, there are several misconceptions surrounding this procedure that need to be addressed.
Contrary to popular belief, coronary angiography is a necessary pre-surgery investigation. This is because it helps the surgeon identify the location and severity of the blockages in the coronary arteries.
Another misconception is that the success of the surgery is limited to patients with less than two major coronary artery blockages. In fact, patients with three or four-vessel disease can benefit greatly from the procedure, as it provides relief from symptoms and reduces morbidity.
It is also not true that the surgery always requires cardiopulmonary bypass. Depending on the patient’s condition, the surgery may be performed on or off bypass.
Lastly, while it is true that the surgery does not necessarily prolong life, it does provide significant relief from symptoms and reduces mortality.
In terms of the grafts used during the surgery, the left internal mammary artery or the saphenous vein are typically used, rather than intercostal arteries.
In conclusion, it is important to dispel these misconceptions surrounding myocardial revascularization in order to provide patients with accurate information and improve their understanding of the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old retired landscape gardener presents to clinic with his daughter, who is concerned about a lesion on his scalp.
The lesion is 45 mm × 30 mm, irregular, and she feels it has changed colour to become darker over recent months. He states it has occasionally bled and is more raised than before. He has a history of travel with the armed forces in South-East Asia.
You suspect malignant melanoma.
Which of the following features is most likely to be associated with a poor prognosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depth of lesion on biopsy
Explanation:Understanding Prognostic Indicators for Melanoma Diagnosis
When it comes to diagnosing melanoma, the depth of the lesion on biopsy is the most crucial factor in determining prognosis. The American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) depth is now used instead of Breslow’s thickness. A raised lesion may indicate nodular malignant melanoma, which has a poor prognosis. Bleeding may occur with malignant melanoma, but it is not a reliable prognostic indicator. While a change in color and irregular border may help identify melanoma, they are not directly linked to prognosis. The size of the lesion is also not a reliable indicator, as depth is required to assess prognosis. Understanding these prognostic indicators is essential for accurate diagnosis and treatment of melanoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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