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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male is referred to the endocrine clinic due to a change in his shoe size and numbness in his hand. He reports increased sweating and oily skin. The endocrinologist suspects pituitary gland pathology and orders an MRI. What is the most abundant secretory cell type in the anterior pituitary gland?
Your Answer: Lactotrophs
Correct Answer: Somatotrophs
Explanation:Understanding Growth Hormone and Its Functions
Growth hormone (GH) is a hormone produced by the somatotroph cells in the anterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in postnatal growth and development, as well as in regulating protein, lipid, and carbohydrate metabolism. GH acts on a transmembrane receptor for growth factor, leading to receptor dimerization and direct or indirect effects on tissues via insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), which is primarily secreted by the liver.
GH secretion is regulated by various factors, including growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH), fasting, exercise, and sleep. Conversely, glucose and somatostatin can decrease GH secretion. Disorders associated with GH include acromegaly, which results from excess GH, and GH deficiency, which can lead to short stature.
In summary, GH is a vital hormone that plays a significant role in growth and metabolism. Understanding its functions and regulation can help in the diagnosis and treatment of GH-related disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother due to concerns about his height compared to other boys his age. The boy also shares that he often receives comments about his appearance, with some likening him to a toy doll. What can be inferred about the pattern of hormone release that he may be lacking?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is released in a pulsatile manner
Explanation:The doll-like appearance of the boy in his presentation suggests that he may be suffering from growth hormone deficiency, which can cause short stature, forehead prominence, and maxillary hypoplasia. The hypothalamus controls the release of growth hormone through the pulsatile release of growth hormone releasing hormone. Therefore, measuring GHRH levels is not a useful method for investigating growth hormone deficiency.
Understanding Growth Hormone and Its Functions
Growth hormone (GH) is a hormone produced by the somatotroph cells in the anterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in postnatal growth and development, as well as in regulating protein, lipid, and carbohydrate metabolism. GH acts on a transmembrane receptor for growth factor, leading to receptor dimerization and direct or indirect effects on tissues via insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), which is primarily secreted by the liver.
GH secretion is regulated by various factors, including growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH), fasting, exercise, and sleep. Conversely, glucose and somatostatin can decrease GH secretion. Disorders associated with GH include acromegaly, which results from excess GH, and GH deficiency, which can lead to short stature.
In summary, GH is a vital hormone that plays a significant role in growth and metabolism. Understanding its functions and regulation can help in the diagnosis and treatment of GH-related disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with refractory hypertension. She was diagnosed with hypertension at the age of 33 and has been on multiple antihypertensive medications without success. She reports experiencing intermittent headaches, flushes, and palpitations.
During the discussion of further treatment options, the patient reveals that her blood pressure dropped to an average of 100/65 mmHg when she was prescribed an alpha-blocker. This suggests that her hypertension may have a secondary cause.
What is the most likely anatomical location of the underlying issue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenal medulla
Explanation:Although a 1.5cm difference in kidney size or a single occurrence of flash edema may prompt the initiation of an ACE inhibitor, the symptoms described in the patient’s medical history are more indicative of a phaeochromocytoma, which is likely originating from the adrenal medulla.
The Function of Adrenal Medulla
The adrenal medulla is responsible for producing almost all of the adrenaline in the body, along with small amounts of noradrenaline. Essentially, it is a specialized and enlarged sympathetic ganglion. This gland plays a crucial role in the body’s response to stress and danger, as adrenaline is a hormone that prepares the body for the fight or flight response. When the body perceives a threat, the adrenal medulla releases adrenaline into the bloodstream, which increases heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration, while also dilating the pupils and increasing blood flow to the muscles. This response helps the body to react quickly and effectively to danger. Overall, the adrenal medulla is an important component of the body’s stress response system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man visits the clinic complaining of weakness and frequent muscle cramps that have been ongoing for the past two weeks. Upon examination, you observe widespread hyporeflexia. A blood test reveals hypokalaemia, but the cause has not yet been determined. Which of the following conditions is linked to hypokalaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conn's syndrome
Explanation:Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, can lead to hypertension, hypernatraemia, and hypokalemia. This condition is caused by an excess of aldosterone, which is responsible for maintaining potassium balance by activating Na+/K+ pumps. However, in excess, aldosterone can cause the movement of potassium into cells, resulting in hypokalaemia. The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining potassium balance, along with other factors such as insulin, catecholamines, and aldosterone. On the other hand, congenital adrenal hypoplasia, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and metabolic acidosis are all causes of hyperkalaemia, which is an excess of potassium in the blood. Addison’s disease and adrenal hypoplasia result in mineralocorticoid deficiency, which can lead to hyperkalaemia. Acidosis can also cause hyperkalaemia by causing positively charged hydrogen ions to enter cells while positively charged potassium ions leave cells and enter the bloodstream.
Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.
To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.
The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 19-year-old female with type 1 diabetes. After dinner, she goes out for the night and drinks 15 units of alcohol. She has taken her insulin according to her carbohydrate counting. However, in the early morning, her friend finds it difficult to wake her up and she is hospitalized due to hypoglycemia. How did her alcohol consumption play a role in this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol inhibits glycogenolysis
Explanation:Alcoholic drinks contain carbohydrates that can cause an increase in blood glucose levels. However, the consumption of alcohol can also inhibit glycogenolysis, leading to a delayed hypoglycemia, particularly during the night. This can result in neuroglycopenia, which may impair one’s level of consciousness.
Understanding Diabetes Mellitus: A Basic Overview
Diabetes mellitus is a chronic condition characterized by abnormally raised levels of blood glucose. It is one of the most common conditions encountered in clinical practice and represents a significant burden on the health systems of the developed world. The management of diabetes mellitus is crucial as untreated type 1 diabetes would usually result in death. Poorly treated type 1 diabetes mellitus can still result in significant morbidity and mortality. The main focus of diabetes management now is reducing the incidence of macrovascular and microvascular complications.
There are different types of diabetes mellitus, including type 1 diabetes mellitus, type 2 diabetes mellitus, prediabetes, gestational diabetes, maturity onset diabetes of the young, latent autoimmune diabetes of adults, and other types. The presentation of diabetes mellitus depends on the type, with type 1 diabetes mellitus often presenting with weight loss, polydipsia, polyuria, and diabetic ketoacidosis. On the other hand, type 2 diabetes mellitus is often picked up incidentally on routine blood tests and presents with polydipsia and polyuria.
There are four main ways to check blood glucose, including a finger-prick bedside glucose monitor, a one-off blood glucose, a HbA1c, and a glucose tolerance test. The diagnostic criteria are determined by WHO, with a fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l and random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l being diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. Management of diabetes mellitus involves drug therapy to normalize blood glucose levels, monitoring for and treating any complications related to diabetes, and modifying any other risk factors for other conditions such as cardiovascular disease. The first-line drug for the vast majority of patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus is metformin, with second-line drugs including sulfonylureas, gliptins, and pioglitazone. Insulin is used if oral medication is not controlling the blood glucose to a sufficient degree.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male visits his GP for an insurance medical. The GP observes that the patient has rough facial features, an enlarged tongue, and greasy skin. The patient is also experiencing profuse sweating. Which hormone excess is likely to be accountable for these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Growth hormone
Explanation:Acromegaly is a condition that results from an excess of growth hormone, which can cause a person to have a coarse facial appearance, a larger tongue, and excessive sweating and oily skin. This condition is often caused by a pituitary adenoma.
If a person has an excess of insulin, they may experience hypoglycemia and confusion. This can occur in cases of factitious illness, over-administration of insulin in diabetics, and insulinomas (neuroendocrine pancreatic tumors).
An excess of glucagon can cause hyperglycemia. Glucagon is secreted by alpha cells in the pancreas and is often elevated in cases of glucagonomas (neuroendocrine pancreatic tumors).
An excess of thyroid-stimulating hormone can be seen in cases of primary hypothyroidism and secondary hyperthyroidism.
Acromegaly is a condition characterized by excess growth hormone, which is usually caused by a pituitary adenoma in over 95% of cases. However, in some cases, it can be caused by ectopic GHRH or GH production by tumors, such as those found in the pancreas. The condition is associated with a number of physical features, including a coarse facial appearance, spade-like hands, and an increase in shoe size. Other features include a large tongue, prognathism, interdental spaces, excessive sweating, and oily skin, which are caused by sweat gland hypertrophy. In some cases, patients may also experience hypopituitarism, headaches, bitemporal hemianopia, and raised prolactin levels, which can lead to galactorrhea. Approximately 6% of patients with acromegaly also have MEN-1.
Complications associated with acromegaly include hypertension, diabetes (which affects over 10% of patients), cardiomyopathy, and colorectal cancer. It is important to diagnose and treat acromegaly early to prevent these complications from developing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with right hip pain following a fall at home. She is unable to bear weight and her right leg appears externally rotated and shorter. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis in her knee, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. She is currently being tapered off prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica which was diagnosed 2 years ago. Which medication in her regimen may have contributed to her increased risk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Patients who take systemic corticosteroids over a long period of time are at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis and experiencing fractures. In this case, the patient’s hip fracture may have been caused by her pre-existing osteoporosis.
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled type-2 diabetes is prescribed a new medication that increases urinary glucose excretion. The doctor informs him that it belongs to the SGLT-2 inhibitor drug class.
Which of the following medications is classified as an SGLT-2 inhibitor?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dapagliflozin
Explanation:SGLT2 inhibitors are known as gliflozins.
Sulfonylurea refers to tolbutamide.
GLP-1 receptor agonist is exenatide.
DPP-4 inhibitor is linagliptin.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy visits his paediatrician with his mother. He is worried that he hasn't started puberty yet while some of his classmates have. The paediatrician explains to the young boy and his mother that the onset of puberty can vary and that it is considered delayed if there are no signs of puberty by the age of 13 years. The paediatrician reassures the boy that there is no need to worry and that he should be patient. What is the first sign of puberty the boy should expect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testicular enlargement
Explanation:The initial indication of male puberty is the growth of the testicles. This typically happens between the ages of 9.5 and 13.5 years and is the first sign of male puberty. Testicular enlargement is the only pubertal change present in Tanner stage 1.
During Tanner stage 2, which usually occurs between the ages of 10.5 and 14.5 years, penis growth begins.
Pubic hair development also starts during Tanner stage 2, between the ages of 9.9 and 14.0 years.
The height growth spurt occurs at age 14 and reaches a maximum of 10cm/year in Tanner.
The voice changes during Tanner stage 3, which typically happens around 13.5 years old.
Puberty: Normal Changes in Males and Females
Puberty is a natural process that marks the transition from childhood to adolescence. In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular growth, which typically occurs around the age of 12. Testicular volume greater than 4 ml indicates the onset of puberty. The maximum height spurt for boys occurs at the age of 14. On the other hand, in females, the first sign of puberty is breast development, which usually occurs around the age of 11.5. The height spurt for girls reaches its maximum early in puberty, at the age of 12, before menarche. Menarche, or the first menstrual period, typically occurs at the age of 13, with a range of 11-15 years. Following menarche, there is only a slight increase of about 4% in height.
During puberty, it is normal for boys to experience gynaecomastia, or the development of breast tissue. Girls may also experience asymmetrical breast growth. Additionally, diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland may be seen in both males and females. These changes are all part of the normal process of puberty and should not be a cause for concern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male visits his primary care physician complaining of polyuria, nocturia, and chronic dry mouth that have persisted for 4 months. He has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with associated renal involvement. His recent eGFR result was:
eGFR 23ml/min/1.73m²
The physician orders a water deprivation test along with other investigations.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient, and what can be expected from his water deprivation test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin
Explanation:The correct answer is low urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin in the water deprivation test for a patient with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI). This condition is characterized by renal insensitivity to antidiuretic hormone (ADH), resulting in an inability to concentrate urine. As a result, urine osmolality will be low even during water deprivation and will not respond to desmopressin (synthetic ADH). This is in contrast to primary polydipsia, where high urine osmolality would be seen after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin, and cranial DI, where low urine osmolality would be seen during water deprivation but high urine osmolality would be seen after desmopressin.
The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool used to assess patients with polydipsia, or excessive thirst. During the test, the patient is instructed to refrain from drinking water, and their bladder is emptied. Hourly measurements of urine and plasma osmolalities are taken to monitor changes in the body’s fluid balance. The results of the test can help identify the underlying cause of the patient’s polydipsia. Normal results show a high urine osmolality after the administration of DDAVP, while psychogenic polydipsia is characterized by a low urine osmolality. Cranial DI and nephrogenic DI are both associated with high plasma osmolalities and low urine osmolalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and started on carbimazole. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevents iodination of the tyrosine residue on thyroglobulin
Explanation:Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. It is usually given in high doses for six weeks until the patient’s thyroid hormone levels become normal, after which the dosage is reduced. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme that is responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately leads to a reduction in thyroid hormone production. In contrast, propylthiouracil has a dual mechanism of action, inhibiting both thyroid peroxidase and 5′-deiodinase, which reduces the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
However, carbimazole is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition where the body’s white blood cell count drops significantly, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, although it may be used in low doses during pregnancy under close medical supervision. Overall, carbimazole is an effective medication for managing thyrotoxicosis, but its potential side effects should be carefully monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently undergoing treatment for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux. Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia
Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, ciclosporin, cimetidine, and omeprazole are some of the drugs that have been associated with this condition. Ramipril has also been linked to gynaecomastia, but it is a rare occurrence.
Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, cimetidine, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man who has been morbidly obese for the past six years is being evaluated at the surgical bariatric clinic. Which hormone release would lead to an increase in appetite in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ghrelin
Explanation:Leptin is a hormone that reduces appetite, while ghrelin is a hormone that stimulates appetite. Although thyroxine can increase appetite, it is not consistent with the symptoms being described.
The Physiology of Obesity: Leptin and Ghrelin
Leptin is a hormone produced by adipose tissue that plays a crucial role in regulating body weight. It acts on the hypothalamus, specifically on the satiety centers, to decrease appetite and induce feelings of fullness. In cases of obesity, where there is an excess of adipose tissue, leptin levels are high. Leptin also stimulates the release of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which further contribute to the regulation of appetite. On the other hand, low levels of leptin stimulate the release of neuropeptide Y (NPY), which increases appetite.
Ghrelin, on the other hand, is a hormone that stimulates hunger. It is mainly produced by the P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas. Ghrelin levels increase before meals, signaling the body to prepare for food intake, and decrease after meals, indicating that the body has received enough nutrients.
In summary, the balance between leptin and ghrelin plays a crucial role in regulating appetite and body weight. In cases of obesity, there is an imbalance in this system, with high levels of leptin and potentially disrupted ghrelin signaling, leading to increased appetite and weight gain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman with a history of coeliac disease presents to the emergency department with palpitations, diaphoresis, and tremors. Upon examination, her vital signs reveal a heart rate of 110 bpm and respiratory rate of 24 per min. She displays hand tremors, bulging eyeballs, and diffuse swelling in her neck. Her blood tests show:
TSH 0.1 mU/l
Free T4 32.5 pmol/l
Free T3 12.5 pmol/l
What is the most probable underlying pathophysiology in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibodies to TSH receptors
Explanation:Graves’ disease is the most probable cause of thyrotoxicosis in a middle-aged woman, particularly if she exhibits exophthalmos. This autoimmune disorder is characterised by the presence of antibodies to the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) receptors.
Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs
Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also displays specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.
Graves’ disease is characterized by the presence of autoantibodies, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy reveals a diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine. These features help distinguish Graves’ disease from other causes of thyrotoxicosis and aid in its diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old obese man comes to your clinic for a diabetes check-up. Despite being treated with metformin and gliclazide, his HbA1c remains elevated at 55 mmol/mol. He has previously found it difficult to follow dietary advice and lose weight. To enhance his diabetic management, you prescribe sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor. What is the mode of action of this novel medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits the breakdown of incretins
Explanation:DPP-4 inhibitors, GLP-1 agonists, SGLT-2 inhibitors, thiazolidinediones, and sulfonylureas are all medications used to treat diabetes. DPP-4 inhibitors work by inhibiting the breakdown of incretins such as GLP-1 and GIP, which are released in response to food and help to lower blood glucose levels. GLP-1 agonists directly stimulate incretin receptors, while SGLT-2 inhibitors increase the urinary secretion of glucose. Thiazolidinediones stimulate intracellular signaling molecules responsible for glucose and lipid metabolism, and sulfonylureas stimulate beta cells to secrete more insulin. However, sulfonylureas may be less effective in long-standing diabetes as many beta cells may no longer function properly.
Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus, who is currently on metformin, visits for his diabetic check-up. His blood sugar levels are not well-controlled and the doctor decides to prescribe gliclazide in addition to his current medication. During the consultation, the doctor discusses the potential side effects of sulfonylureas. What is a possible side effect of sulfonylureas?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Hypoglycaemia is a significant adverse effect of sulfonylureas, including gliclazide, which stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas. Patients taking sulfonylureas should be educated about the possibility of hypoglycaemia and instructed on how to manage it if it occurs. Acarbose commonly causes flatulence, while PPAR agonists (glitazones) can lead to fluid retention, and metformin may cause nausea and diarrhoea.
Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but only if the beta cells in the pancreas are functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, known as the ATP-dependent K+ channel (KATP).
While sulfonylureas can be effective in managing diabetes, they can also cause some adverse effects. The most common side effect is hypoglycemia, which is more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Another common side effect is weight gain. However, there are also rarer side effects that can occur, such as hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to inappropriate ADH secretion, bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy.
It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female visits her GP complaining of chronic thirst, polyuria, and nocturia that have persisted for 2 months. She has a medical history of premenstrual dysphoric disorder diagnosed 3 years ago. After a series of tests, the patient is diagnosed with primary polydipsia. What results are expected from her water deprivation test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin
Explanation:The patient has primary polydipsia, a psychogenic disorder causing excessive drinking despite being hydrated. Urine osmolality is high after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin, as the patient still produces and responds to ADH. Low urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin is typical of nephrogenic DI, while low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation but high after desmopressin is typical of cranial DI. Low urine osmolality after desmopressin and low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation but normal after desmopressin are not commonly seen with any pathological state.
The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool used to assess patients with polydipsia, or excessive thirst. During the test, the patient is instructed to refrain from drinking water, and their bladder is emptied. Hourly measurements of urine and plasma osmolalities are taken to monitor changes in the body’s fluid balance. The results of the test can help identify the underlying cause of the patient’s polydipsia. Normal results show a high urine osmolality after the administration of DDAVP, while psychogenic polydipsia is characterized by a low urine osmolality. Cranial DI and nephrogenic DI are both associated with high plasma osmolalities and low urine osmolalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The acute phase response to injury in elderly patients does not involve which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased transferrin
Explanation:The acute phase response is characterized by various physiological changes, such as the production of acute phase proteins, decreased levels of transport proteins like albumin and transferrin, hepatic retention of cations, fever, an increase in neutrophil count, elevated muscle proteolysis, and alterations in vascular permeability.
Surgery triggers a stress response that causes hormonal and metabolic changes in the body. This response is characterized by substrate mobilization, muscle protein loss, sodium and water retention, suppression of anabolic hormone secretion, activation of the sympathetic nervous system, and immunological and haematological changes. The hypothalamic-pituitary axis and the sympathetic nervous systems are activated, and the normal feedback mechanisms of control of hormone secretion fail. The stress response is associated with increased growth hormone, cortisol, renin, adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), aldosterone, prolactin, antidiuretic hormone, and glucagon, while insulin, testosterone, oestrogen, thyroid stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, and follicle stimulating hormone are decreased or remain unchanged. The metabolic effects of cortisol are enhanced, including skeletal muscle protein breakdown, stimulation of lipolysis, anti-insulin effect, mineralocorticoid effects, and anti-inflammatory effects. The stress response also affects carbohydrate, protein, lipid, salt and water metabolism, and cytokine release. Modifying the response can be achieved through opioids, spinal anaesthesia, nutrition, growth hormone, anabolic steroids, and normothermia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male presents with gynaecomastia. He is later diagnosed with a testicular germ cell tumour.
What is the underlying mechanism that causes this type of cancer to present with gynaecomastia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testicular tumours secrete beta-HCG, which increases oestrogen levels, promoting the proliferation of breast tissue
Explanation:Gynaecomastia can be caused by testicular cancer, specifically seminoma that secretes beta-HCG. This hormone acts as a tumour marker for testicular germ cell cancer and increases oestrogen levels, leading to an imbalance of oestrogen to androgen ratio. This imbalance promotes the growth of breast tissue, resulting in gynaecomastia.
Alpha-fetoprotein is another tumour marker for testicular cancer, but it does not affect oestrogen levels or breast glandular tissue. It is important to note that gynaecomastia is a separate condition from metastatic testicular cancer in the breast.
Testicular involution, or shrinkage of the testes, is not a common symptom of testicular cancer. Instead, patients typically present with a painless swelling or nodule in the testis.
Elevated testosterone levels are not associated with testicular cancer, as they would prevent the growth of breast tissue and gynaecomastia.
Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers
Gynaecomastia is a condition characterized by the abnormal growth of breast tissue in males, often caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to distinguish the causes of gynaecomastia from those of galactorrhoea, which is caused by the actions of prolactin on breast tissue.
Physiological changes during puberty can lead to gynaecomastia, but it can also be caused by syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallmann and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure due to mumps, liver disease, testicular cancer, and hyperthyroidism. Additionally, haemodialysis and ectopic tumour secretion can also trigger gynaecomastia.
Drug-induced gynaecomastia is also a common cause, with spironolactone being the most frequent trigger. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids. However, it is important to note that very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa.
In summary, understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man comes to the diabetes clinic for a check-up. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, which is currently managed with metformin and sitagliptin, and hypertension, for which he takes ramipril. His recent blood tests show an increase in HbA1c from 51mmol/L to 59mmol/L. He has not experienced any hypoglycaemic events and reports good adherence to his medication and blood glucose monitoring. He expresses interest in trying an additional antidiabetic medication and is prescribed tolbutamide after receiving counselling on hypoglycaemic awareness.
What is the mechanism of action of tolbutamide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Binds to and shuts pancreatic beta cell ATP-dependent K+ channels, causing membrane depolarisation and increased insulin exocytosis
Explanation:Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but only if the beta cells in the pancreas are functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, known as the ATP-dependent K+ channel (KATP).
While sulfonylureas can be effective in managing diabetes, they can also cause some adverse effects. The most common side effect is hypoglycemia, which is more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Another common side effect is weight gain. However, there are also rarer side effects that can occur, such as hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to inappropriate ADH secretion, bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy.
It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female with a two year history of type 1 diabetes presents with a two day history of colicky abdominal pain and vomiting. She has been relatively anorexic and has cut down on her insulin today as she has not been able to eat that much.
On examination she has a sweet smell to her breath, has some loss of skin turgor, has a pulse of 102 bpm regular and a blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg. Her abdomen is generally soft with some epigastric tenderness.
BM stix analysis reveals a glucose of 19 mmol/L (3.0-6.0).
What investigation would be the most important for this woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood gas analysis
Explanation:Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Diagnosis and Investigations
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that can lead to life-threatening consequences. Symptoms include ketotic breath, vomiting, abdominal pain, and dehydration. To confirm the diagnosis, it is essential to prove the presence of acidosis and ketosis. The most urgent and important investigation is arterial or venous blood gas analysis, which can reveal the level of acidosis and low bicarbonate.
Other investigations that can be helpful include a full blood count (FBC) to show haemoconcentration and a raised white cell count, and urinalysis to detect glucose and ketones. However, venous or capillary ketones are needed to confirm DKA. A plasma glucose test is also part of the investigation, but it is not as urgent as the blood gas analysis.
An abdominal x-ray is not useful in diagnosing DKA, and a chest x-ray is only indicated if there are signs of a lower respiratory tract infection. Blood cultures are unlikely to grow anything, and amylase levels are often raised but do not provide diagnostic information in this case.
It is important to note that DKA can occur even if the plasma glucose level is normal. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of breast tissue enlargement that has been progressively worsening for the past 3 months. He also reports the presence of a new lump on his left testicle. Upon thorough examination and taking a detailed medical history, the GP suspects that the patient may be suffering from testicular cancer.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HCG secreting seminoma
Explanation:Gynaecomastia can be caused by testicular conditions such as seminoma that secrete hCG.
Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers
Gynaecomastia is a condition characterized by the abnormal growth of breast tissue in males, often caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to distinguish the causes of gynaecomastia from those of galactorrhoea, which is caused by the actions of prolactin on breast tissue.
Physiological changes during puberty can lead to gynaecomastia, but it can also be caused by syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallmann and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure due to mumps, liver disease, testicular cancer, and hyperthyroidism. Additionally, haemodialysis and ectopic tumour secretion can also trigger gynaecomastia.
Drug-induced gynaecomastia is also a common cause, with spironolactone being the most frequent trigger. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids. However, it is important to note that very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa.
In summary, understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male is undergoing evaluation for Cushing's syndrome. During the assessment, his primary care physician requests a serum cortisol test. In its unbound form, cortisol is responsible for the manifestations of Cushing's syndrome. What is the primary substance that binds to cortisol in the bloodstream, rendering it inactive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cortisol binding globulin
Explanation:Cortisol: Functions and Regulation
Cortisol is a hormone produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. It plays a crucial role in various bodily functions and is essential for life. Cortisol increases blood pressure by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles, allowing for a normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines. However, it inhibits bone formation by decreasing osteoblasts, type 1 collagen, and absorption of calcium from the gut, while increasing osteoclastic activity. Cortisol also increases insulin resistance and metabolism by increasing gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, and proteolysis. It inhibits inflammatory and immune responses, but maintains the function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.
The regulation of cortisol secretion is controlled by the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. The pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol. The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH. Stress can also increase cortisol secretion.
Excess cortisol in the body can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms such as weight gain, muscle weakness, and high blood pressure. Understanding the functions and regulation of cortisol is important for maintaining overall health and preventing hormonal imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The medical team at a pediatric unit faces difficulty in determining the sex of a newborn baby as the external genitalia appear ambiguous. The suspected condition is linked to an excess of androgen and a deficiency of mineralocorticoid. Can you explain the underlying pathophysiology?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deficiency of 21-alphahydroxylase
Explanation:The clinical scenario described in the question is indicative of congenital adrenal hyperplasia, which is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme 21-alphahydroxylase. This leads to an increase in androgen production, resulting in virilization of genitalia in XX females, making them appear as males at birth.
On the other hand, a deficiency of 5-alpha reductase causes the opposite situation, where genetically XY males have external female genitalia.
Type 1 diabetes mellitus may be associated with the presence of autoantibodies against glutamic acid decarboxylase.
A defect in the AIRE gene can lead to APECED, which is characterized by hypoparathyroidism, adrenal failure, and candidiasis.
Similarly, a defect in the FOXP3 gene can cause IPEX, which presents with immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, and enteropathy.
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic condition that affects the adrenal glands and can result in various symptoms depending on the specific enzyme deficiency. One common form is 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which can cause virilization of female genitalia, precocious puberty in males, and a salt-losing crisis in 60-70% of patients during the first few weeks of life. Another form is 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, which can also cause virilization and precocious puberty, as well as hypertension and hypokalemia. A third form is 17-hydroxylase deficiency, which typically does not cause virilization in females but can result in intersex characteristics in boys and hypertension.
Overall, congenital adrenal hyperplasia can have significant impacts on a person’s physical development and health, and early diagnosis and treatment are important for managing symptoms and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male presents to the respiratory clinic for the management of his COPD. He has a history of multiple courses of prednisolone, but has recently experienced significant weight gain, facial redness, and elevated blood pressure of 180/96 mmHg. The physician suspects Cushing syndrome due to exogenous steroid use and decides to discontinue the prescription. What is the specific region of the adrenal gland responsible for producing glucocorticoids?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata
Explanation:Cortisol: Functions and Regulation
Cortisol is a hormone produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. It plays a crucial role in various bodily functions and is essential for life. Cortisol increases blood pressure by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles, allowing for a normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines. However, it inhibits bone formation by decreasing osteoblasts, type 1 collagen, and absorption of calcium from the gut, while increasing osteoclastic activity. Cortisol also increases insulin resistance and metabolism by increasing gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, and proteolysis. It inhibits inflammatory and immune responses, but maintains the function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.
The regulation of cortisol secretion is controlled by the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. The pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol. The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH. Stress can also increase cortisol secretion.
Excess cortisol in the body can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms such as weight gain, muscle weakness, and high blood pressure. Understanding the functions and regulation of cortisol is important for maintaining overall health and preventing hormonal imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female with a three year history of type 1 diabetes complains of sudden confusion and excessive sweating. Upon examination, her pulse is 105 bpm, respiratory rate is 16/min, and she appears disoriented. What would be the most suitable initial test to perform for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plasma glucose concentration
Explanation:Differentiating Hypoglycaemia from Diabetic Ketoacidosis in Critically Ill Patients
When assessing a critically ill patient, it is important not to forget the E in the ABCDE algorithm. In the case of a woman presenting acutely, with a normal respiratory rate, it is more likely that she is hypoglycaemic rather than experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). To confirm this, it is essential to check her glucose or blood sugar levels and then administer glucose as necessary.
It is crucial to differentiate between hypoglycaemia and DKA as the treatment for each condition is vastly different. While hypoglycaemia requires immediate administration of glucose, DKA requires insulin therapy and fluid replacement. Therefore, a correct diagnosis is essential to ensure the patient receives the appropriate treatment promptly.
In conclusion, when assessing a critically ill patient, it is vital to consider all aspects of the ABCDE algorithm, including the often-overlooked E for exposure. In cases where a patient presents acutely, with a normal respiratory rate, it is essential to differentiate between hypoglycaemia and DKA by checking glucose levels and administering glucose or insulin therapy accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, and lethargy. The pain started suddenly 2 hours ago and is spread across her entire abdomen. She has a medical history of appendicectomy eight years ago and type 1 diabetes mellitus. Upon examination, her pH is 7.25 (normal range: 7.35-7.45) and bicarbonate is 9 mmol/L (normal range: 22-29mmol/L). What additional investigations are necessary to confirm the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood ketones
Explanation:Abdominal pain can be an initial symptom of DKA, which is the most probable diagnosis in this case. The patient’s symptoms, including abdominal pain, strongly suggest DKA. Blood ketones are the appropriate investigation as they are part of the diagnostic criteria for DKA, along with pH and bicarbonate.
Amylase could help rule out acute pancreatitis, but it is not the most likely diagnosis, so it would not confirm it. Pancreatitis typically presents with severe upper abdominal pain and vomiting. Polydipsia and polyuria are more indicative of DKA, and the patient’s known history of type 1 diabetes mellitus makes DKA more likely.
Beta-hCG would be an appropriate investigation for abdominal pain in a woman of childbearing age, but it is not necessary in this case as DKA is the most likely diagnosis.
Blood glucose levels would be useful if the patient were not a known type 1 diabetic, but they do not form part of the diagnostic criteria for DKA. Blood glucose levels would also be helpful in distinguishing between DKA and HHS, but HHS is unlikely in this case as it occurs in patients with type 2 diabetes.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up and is prescribed a new medication, a glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1) analogue. Where is this hormone typically secreted from in the body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ileum
Explanation:When comparing the effects of oral glucose and IV glucose on insulin release, it was found that oral glucose resulted in a higher insulin release. This suggests that the response of the gut plays a role in insulin release. Incretins are a group of hormones produced in the gastrointestinal tract that stimulate insulin release from β-cells, even before blood glucose levels become elevated.
There are two main types of incretins: gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP), which is released from the duodenum and is glucose-dependent, and glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1), which is produced in the distal ileum.
The glucagon gene is processed differently in the brain and intestines than in the pancreas. In the brain and intestines, GLP1&2 are released, which function as appetite suppressants. In the pancreas, they increase insulin release and β-cell proliferation.
Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to a consultant endocrinologist for a discussion regarding her thyroid function test outcomes. The results are as follows:
- Elevated TSH
- Decreased FT4
- Decreased FT3
- Positive Anti-TPO
What is the association of her condition with any of the following options?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MALT lymphoma
Explanation:The development of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is linked to
Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by a firm, non-tender goitre and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions such as coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father who is worried that his daughter has not yet had a menstrual period. The girl reports that she has been unable to smell for as long as she can remember but is otherwise in good health. During the examination, the girl is found to have underdeveloped breasts and no pubic hair. Her vital signs and body mass index are within normal limits.
What is the probable reason for the girl's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kallman syndrome
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this girl is Kallmann syndrome, which is characterized by a combination of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and anosmia. This genetic disorder occurs due to a failure in neuron migration, resulting in deficient hypothalamic gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) and a lack of secondary sexual characteristics. Anosmia is a distinguishing feature of Kallmann syndrome compared to other causes of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Congenital adrenal hypoplasia, which results in insufficient cortisol production due to adrenal cortex enzyme deficiency, can also cause hypogonadotropic hypogonadism but is less likely in this case due to the presence of anosmia. Imperforate hymen, which presents with lower abdominal/pelvic pain without vaginal bleeding, is not consistent with this patient’s symptoms. Malnutrition is not indicated as a possible diagnosis.
Kallmann’s syndrome is a condition that can cause delayed puberty due to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is often inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is believed to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. One of the key indicators of Kallmann’s syndrome is anosmia, or a lack of smell, in boys with delayed puberty. Other features may include hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, low sex hormone levels, and normal or above-average height. Some patients may also have cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.
Management of Kallmann’s syndrome typically involves testosterone supplementation. Gonadotrophin supplementation may also be used to stimulate sperm production if fertility is desired later in life. It is important for individuals with Kallmann’s syndrome to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and ensure optimal health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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