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  • Question 1 - Following your morning surgery you receive a telephone call from the lab at...

    Correct

    • Following your morning surgery you receive a telephone call from the lab at the local hospital regarding a 78-year-old patient of yours whom you admitted from her nursing home with headache, photophobia and neck stiffness.

      When you saw her, her temperature was 39.0°C, pulse rate 115 beats/min and there were no skin rashes or focal neurological signs. Her Glasgow coma scale was 15/15.

      Following admission, CSF was obtained and Gram stain showed Gram-negative coccobacilli, subsequent culture confirms a Haemophilus influenza meningitis.

      What chemoprophylaxis should be offered to the nurses at her home?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Chemoprophylaxis for Contacts of Meningitis Patients

      The decision to administer chemoprophylaxis to contacts of patients with confirmed meningitis is typically made by Public Health England or the appropriate public health agency. However, it is important to understand the basic principles of chemoprophylaxis.

      For Haemophilus influenza, prophylaxis is recommended for three main groups: household contacts, room contacts of children in playgrounds, nurseries, or creches, and the index case. Household contacts who are not immunized and under 4 years of age should receive the Hib vaccine and take rifampicin once daily for four days. The index case should be immunized regardless of age. Room contacts of unimmunized children under 4 years of age should be vaccinated, and chemoprophylaxis should be offered when two or more cases of Hib disease have occurred within 120 days.

      The Department of Health and Public Health England recommend rifampicin at a dose of 20 mg/kg once a day for four days for adults and children older than three months as the prophylaxis of choice for eliminating carriage in the index case and among household contacts. This is because it is highly effective, with an eradication rate of 92-97%, and Hib resistance to rifampicin is extremely rare (<0.1%) in the UK. Ciprofloxacin is an acceptable alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      2.8
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  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a history of fever,...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a history of fever, chills and a headache after returning from a trip to Sub-Saharan Africa. Past data shows that 70% of patients with these symptoms and a travel history to this region have Malaria. The calculated likelihood for a negative test result is 0.1.

      What is the significance of this result?

      Your Answer: There is a 10 fold decrease in the odds of the patient having malaria with a negative test result

      Explanation:

      When a test result is negative, the likelihood ratio measures how much the odds of having the disease decrease. This ratio is used to determine the likelihood of a patient having a particular condition or disease. A higher likelihood ratio indicates a greater likelihood of having the condition, while a lower likelihood ratio suggests that the patient is less likely to have the condition. The negative likelihood ratio specifically measures the change in odds for patients with a negative test result. Conversely, the positive likelihood ratio measures the change in odds for patients with a positive test result.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old woman is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease and requires long-term haemodialysis....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease and requires long-term haemodialysis. What is the most common long-term complication for patients receiving haemodialysis?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular Disease and Other Complications in End-Stage Renal Disease Patients

      End-stage renal disease (ESRD) patients are at high risk for cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Atherosclerosis is present in all long-term dialysis patients, and premature cardiac death occurs at a much higher rate than in the general population. Hypertension is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease and is often poorly controlled in ESRD patients.

      In addition to cardiovascular disease, ESRD patients may also develop β2 microglobulin amyloidosis, which can cause physical handicaps and even life-threatening cervical spinal cord compression. This condition typically appears after 5 years or more of hemodialysis and can affect any joint, but is especially common in the sternoclavicular joint and hips. Clinical features include periarthritis of the shoulders, carpal tunnel syndrome, and spondyloarthropathy.

      Kidney transplant recipients may also face complications, including an increased risk of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and skin cancers due to prolonged immunosuppressive therapy. However, there is no known increased risk of gastrointestinal malignancy in patients on long-term dialysis.

      Overall, ESRD patients require careful monitoring and management to prevent and address these potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      2
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  • Question 4 - A 21-year-old woman presents herself for consultation a day after being discharged from...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman presents herself for consultation a day after being discharged from the hospital following a termination of pregnancy at 16 weeks. Despite discussing long-acting reversible contraceptives, she expresses her eagerness to commence the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill. What is the best course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Start COC immediately

      Explanation:

      Following a miscarriage or abortion, the COC can be initiated without delay and provides immediate protection against pregnancy for women.

      Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on various aspects. This includes the potential benefits and harms of the COC, such as its high effectiveness rate of over 99% when taken correctly, but also the small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, strokes, and increased risk of breast and cervical cancer. Additionally, advice on taking the pill should be provided, such as starting it within the first 5 days of the cycle to avoid the need for additional contraception, taking it at the same time every day, and considering tailored regimens that eliminate the pill-free interval. It is also important to discuss situations where efficacy may be reduced, such as vomiting or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. Finally, counselling should include information on STIs and the use of concurrent antibiotics, which may no longer require extra precautions except for enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin.

      Overall, women should receive comprehensive counselling on the COC to make informed decisions about their reproductive health. This includes discussing the potential benefits and harms, advice on taking the pill, and situations where efficacy may be reduced. By providing this information, women can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and reduce the risk of unintended pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      2
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  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old man has been divorced for five years and now lives alone....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man has been divorced for five years and now lives alone. He has a history of chronic back pain. He has been fully investigated and he has lumbar spondylosis. He becomes very emotional during a medication review consultation. The General Practitioner wants to screen for depression.
      According to current National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance, what would be most appropriate to ask about as an initial part of this screening process?

      Your Answer: Having little interest or pleasure in doing things

      Explanation:

      Identifying and Assessing Depression in Patients with Chronic Diseases

      Depression is more common in patients with chronic diseases than in those with good health. To identify depression in patients, doctors should be alert to possible symptoms and consider asking two screening questions recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE): During the last month, have you often been bothered by feeling down, depressed or hopeless? and During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things? If a patient answers ‘yes’ to either question, further questions should be asked to improve the accuracy of the assessment of depression. These questions should include exploring thoughts of death, feelings of worthlessness, inability to sleep, and poor concentration. By identifying and assessing depression in patients with chronic diseases, healthcare providers can provide appropriate treatment and support to improve their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An eighty-two-year-old gentleman with a history of renal stones is seen with an...

    Incorrect

    • An eighty-two-year-old gentleman with a history of renal stones is seen with an acute episode of left sided loin pain and dipstick haematuria. He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and angina.

      Bloods are requested which show:

      Na+ 137 mmol/L (137-144)

      K+ 5.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Urea 18.9 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 296 µmol/L (60-110)

      eGFR 17 -

      Which one of his medications should be withheld?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Contraindications to Metformin Use

      Metformin is a commonly prescribed medication for the treatment of type 2 diabetes. However, there are certain situations where its use is contraindicated. Ketoacidosis, use of iodine-containing contrast media, and use of general anesthesia are all contraindications to metformin use. Additionally, patients with renal impairment are at an increased risk of lactic acidosis and should have their dose reviewed if their estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 45. Metformin should be avoided if the eGFR is less than 30 and should be withdrawn or treatment interrupted in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function. These patients include those with shock, sepsis, acute heart failure, respiratory failure, and those who have recently had a myocardial infarction. In the case of a patient with a renal calculus and significantly impaired renal function, metformin should be withheld.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the clinic. Despite the MMR scare,...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the clinic. Despite the MMR scare, he had her immunised. However, he is concerned about the recent increase in measles cases and wonders if she needs a booster shot. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Cannot vaccinate at this age as live vaccine

      Correct Answer: Give MMR with repeat dose in 3 months

      Explanation:

      According to the Green Book, it is recommended to have a 3-month gap between doses for optimal response rate. However, if the child is over 10 years old, a 1-month gap is sufficient. In case of an emergency, such as an outbreak at the child’s school, younger children can have a shorter gap of 1 month.

      MMR Vaccine: Information on Administration, Contraindications, and Adverse Effects

      The Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is given to children in the UK twice before they enter primary school. The first dose is administered at 12-15 months, while the second dose is given at 3-4 years old. This vaccine is part of the routine immunisation schedule for children.

      However, there are certain contraindications to the MMR vaccine. Children with severe immunosuppression, allergies to neomycin, or those who have received another live vaccine by injection within four weeks should not receive the MMR vaccine. Pregnant women should also avoid getting vaccinated for at least one month following the MMR vaccine. Additionally, if a child has undergone immunoglobulin therapy within the past three months, there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present.

      While the MMR vaccine is generally safe, some adverse effects may occur. After the first dose of the vaccine, children may experience malaise, fever, and rash. These symptoms typically occur after 5-10 days and last for around 2-3 days. It is important to note that the benefits of the MMR vaccine far outweigh the risks, as it protects against serious and potentially life-threatening diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of difficulty reading for...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of difficulty reading for the past two weeks. She has never worn glasses and is not taking any medications. On examination, her pupils are of normal size but react sluggishly to light. Both optic discs appear sharp with no signs of haemorrhages or exudates. The patient's visual acuity is significantly impaired and remains so even with the use of a pinhole card. During left lateral gaze, five-beat nystagmus and double vision are observed. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis

      This young woman exhibits symptoms that suggest retrobulbar neuritis and cerebellar features, including nystagmus. The most likely diagnosis is Multiple sclerosis. To confirm this diagnosis, visual evoked responses, MRI scans revealing demyelinating plaques, and oligoclonal bands on CSF examination can be conducted.

      Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system. It can cause a wide range of symptoms, including vision problems, muscle weakness, and difficulty with coordination and balance. Early diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and slow the progression of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 25 year old woman presents to you with worries about a lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old woman presents to you with worries about a lesion on the dorsal side of her left hand that has grown in size over the last six months. She reports that it disappeared during the summer but has now reappeared. The lesion is asymptomatic. On examination, you observe an annular plaque without any scaling. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Granuloma annulare

      Explanation:

      A common presentation of granuloma annulare involves the development of circular lesions on the skin. In contrast, tinea often presents as a rash with scales.

      Understanding Granuloma Annulare

      Granuloma annulare is a skin condition characterized by papular lesions that are slightly hyperpigmented and depressed in the center. These lesions typically appear on the dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet, as well as on the extensor aspects of the arms and legs. While there have been associations proposed between granuloma annulare and conditions such as diabetes mellitus, the evidence for these links is weak.

      Despite the lack of clear associations with other conditions, granuloma annulare can still be a frustrating and uncomfortable condition for those who experience it. The lesions can be unsightly and may cause itching or discomfort. Treatment options for granuloma annulare include topical or oral medications, as well as light therapy in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 42 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrizinamide) for pulmonary tuberculosis. The patient also takes sertraline for a history of depression. The patient reports a decline in vision, specifically a decrease in color vibrancy. Which medication is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The use of ethambutol has been linked to optic neuropathy and the onset of color blindness. If these symptoms occur, the medication should be stopped. To prevent these adverse effects, pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is often administered alongside ethambutol in medical settings.

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
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