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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old man with osteoarthritis affecting his left shoulder presents for follow-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with osteoarthritis affecting his left shoulder presents for follow-up. He is currently on regular co-codamol 30/500 for pain relief and takes oral ibuprofen as needed. The patient has been experiencing shoulder problems for several years and has had to increase his pain medication to manage his symptoms. He has also tried using heat and cold packs and has purchased a TENS machine. Despite these interventions, he continues to experience significant daily pain and reduced function of his left arm due to restricted shoulder movement. The patient is hesitant to pursue surgical intervention. What would be an appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Intra-articular steroid injection

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline orally

      Explanation:

      Intra-Articular Corticosteroid Injections for Osteoarthritis Pain

      Intra-articular corticosteroid injections can be a helpful addition to treating moderate to severe osteoarthritis pain. If traditional treatments have failed, a corticosteroid injection may be an appropriate option for patients who are not interested in surgical intervention. While the injection provides short-term pain relief, it may also allow patients to engage in other interventions such as physiotherapy, which can provide longer-lasting benefits in terms of both pain and function. However, repeated injections over longer periods may cause joint damage and are generally not recommended.

      Other treatment options such as capsaicin, electro-acupuncture, amitriptyline, and glucosamine are not recommended for osteoarthritis pain. Capsaicin is not recommended for shoulder problems, electro-acupuncture is not recommended for any form of osteoarthritis, and amitriptyline is not a licensed or recommended treatment for osteoarthritis. Glucosamine has insufficient data of significant efficacy to justify its cost, but patients can try over-the-counter glucosamine sulfate at a dose of 1500 mg daily and monitor their symptoms before and after three months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 2 - A 36-year-old woman presents with malaise, joint pain and swelling, Raynaud's phenomenon, Sjögren...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with malaise, joint pain and swelling, Raynaud's phenomenon, Sjögren syndrome, muscle pain and sclerodactyly. Her immunology results show a positive ANA and high titre of anti-nRNP, but no antibodies to Ro (SSA), La (SSB), Jo-1 (RNA synthetase), PM-1 (nucleolar protein), double-stranded DNA, SCL-70 (topoisomerase) and centromere. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic sclerosis and/or CREST

      Correct Answer: Mixed connective tissue disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autoimmune Disorders: Differentiating Between Mixed Connective Tissue Disorder and Other Conditions

      Autoimmune disorders can be difficult to diagnose due to their overlapping symptoms and shared antibodies. One such disorder is mixed connective tissue disorder, which presents with undifferentiated connective tissue disorder and anti-nRNP antibodies along with Raynaud’s phenomenon. However, it is important to differentiate this disorder from others with similar features.

      Polymyositis and/or dermatomyositis, for example, are associated with anti-Jo-1 and anti-PM-1 antibodies. Sjögren syndrome, on the other hand, is commonly associated with SSA and SSB antibodies, which can also be seen in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Systemic sclerosis and/or CREST may present with anti-centromere or topoisomerase antibodies.

      Therefore, a thorough understanding of the specific antibodies associated with each autoimmune disorder is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of fatigue and muscle weakness....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of fatigue and muscle weakness. He reports difficulty swallowing and has lost 2kg. He struggles with standing up from a seated position and ascending stairs. Upon examination, you note mildly tender and weak proximal muscles with intact reflexes. Laboratory results reveal a significantly elevated creatine kinase level.

      What is the definitive diagnostic test for confirming this condition?

      Your Answer: Muscle biopsy

      Explanation:

      To confirm a diagnosis of polymyositis, medical professionals typically rely on EMG and muscle biopsy. The condition is characterized by a gradual and painless weakening of the proximal muscles, and patients typically exhibit a significant increase in creatine kinase levels. A muscle biopsy is considered the most reliable diagnostic test for polymyositis.

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory condition that causes weakness in the muscles, particularly in the proximal areas. It is believed to be caused by T-cell mediated cytotoxic processes that target muscle fibers. This condition can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders and is often linked to malignancy. Dermatomyositis is a variant of this disease that is characterized by prominent skin manifestations, such as a purple rash on the cheeks and eyelids. It typically affects middle-aged individuals, with a female to male ratio of 3:1.

      The symptoms of polymyositis include proximal muscle weakness, which may be accompanied by tenderness. Other symptoms may include Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, and dysphagia or dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, may also occur in around 20% of patients, which is a poor prognostic indicator.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including measuring elevated creatine kinase levels and other muscle enzymes, such as lactate dehydrogenase, aldolase, AST, and ALT. An EMG and muscle biopsy may also be performed. Additionally, anti-synthetase antibodies and anti-Jo-1 antibodies may be present in patients with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis typically involves high-dose corticosteroids, which are tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old man presents to you with his test results. He has experienced...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents to you with his test results. He has experienced three instances of a swollen left big toe in the past year. As a delivery driver, each episode prevents him from working for at least 5 days. He typically takes paracetamol and ibuprofen, but was given colchicine during his last attack which greatly improved his symptoms. He is not currently taking any other medications. A colleague ordered a blood test 4 weeks after his most recent episode, which revealed a serum urate level of 450µmol/L. He is curious if there are any preventative measures he can take to avoid future attacks. What would be your recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: Start allopurinol now

      Explanation:

      Gout Treatment Guidelines

      Gout is a condition that requires proper management to prevent acute attacks and complications. When initiating prophylactic medication for gout, it is important to be aware of the criteria for starting allopurinol. This medication can be started after two or more attacks of gout within a year or after the first attack in people at higher risk. However, allopurinol should not be initiated during an acute attack and should be started 1-2 weeks after inflammation has settled. The dose should be titrated every few weeks until the serum uric acid level is below 300µmol/L.

      When starting allopurinol, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory tablet or colchicine should be co-prescribed and advised if an acute attack is precipitated. It is important to note that colchicine is only used for acute attacks and should not be used lifelong or for prophylaxis. Fenbuxostat is second-line therapy if allopurinol is not tolerated or is contraindicated.

      A rheumatology referral is not indicated at present and should only be instigated if the diagnosis is uncertain or the patient is having acute attacks despite maximum doses of prophylactic medication or if complications are present. For more information on gout treatment guidelines, please refer to the CKS website.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old woman complains she has been feeling generally unwell for several weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman complains she has been feeling generally unwell for several weeks. She reports a relapsing pain in her left ankle for the last four weeks following a 2-week history of diarrhoea. Over the last two weeks, she has also developed lower back pain. On further questioning, she mentions that for the last few days she has noticed painful nodules over her shins. Her full blood count and kidney and liver function tests are all normal. An autoimmune screen is negative.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Reactive Arthritis from Other Arthropathies

      Reactive arthritis is an autoimmune condition that occurs as a response to an infection. It typically develops 2-4 weeks after a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection and presents with joint pain, malaise, and fever. However, it is important to differentiate reactive arthritis from other arthropathies based on their unique features.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy that affects the axial skeleton and doesn’t present with ankle pain or erythema nodosum. Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriatic lesions and presents with joint swelling in the knees, ankles, hands, and feet, but the rash described in this case is typical for erythema nodosum, not psoriasis. Rheumatic fever is a complication of an untreated streptococcal throat infection and can affect the heart and nervous system, but the patient in this case has symptoms of a gastrointestinal infection preceding her joint pain. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory autoimmune condition that affects the small joints of the hands and feet and tends to have bilateral symmetrical distribution of joint involvement, unlike in this case where there is unilateral ankle pain.

      Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history and symptoms is necessary to accurately diagnose reactive arthritis and differentiate it from other arthropathies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of pain at the base of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of pain at the base of her right thumb. She has no significant medical history. During examination, there is widespread tenderness and swelling of her right first carpometacarpal joint. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Hand osteoarthritis most frequently occurs at the trapeziometacarpal joint, which is located at the base of the thumb.

      The Role of Glucosamine in Osteoarthritis Management

      Glucosamine is a natural component found in cartilage and synovial fluid. Several double-blind randomized controlled trials have reported significant short-term symptomatic benefits of glucosamine in knee osteoarthritis, including reduced joint space narrowing and improved pain scores. However, more recent studies have produced mixed results. The 2008 NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of glucosamine, and a Drug and Therapeutics Bulletin review advised against prescribing it on the NHS due to limited evidence of cost-effectiveness. Despite this, some patients may still choose to use glucosamine as a complementary therapy for osteoarthritis management. It is important for healthcare professionals to discuss the potential benefits and risks of glucosamine with their patients and to consider individual patient preferences and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old woman presents with malaise, fever, malar rash, two swollen joints and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with malaise, fever, malar rash, two swollen joints and the following results: ANA positive, double-stranded DNA antibody (anti-dsDNA) positive, rheumatoid factor positive and reduced C3, C4 complement levels. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Screening Tests

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organs in the body. It is more common in women, especially those aged between 15 and 35. SLE is characterized by the presence of antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and autoantibodies, which can be detected through screening tests such as ESR, ANA, and anti-dsDNA antibodies. However, the diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of 11 criteria specified by the American College of Rheumatology, including rash, joint swelling, ANA positivity, and autoantibodies. The course of SLE is unpredictable, with periods of illness alternating with remissions. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and screening tests for SLE is crucial for early detection and management of this complex disease.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old Afro-Caribbean female patient complains of fatigue, fever, and a rash that...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old Afro-Caribbean female patient complains of fatigue, fever, and a rash that has persisted for 3 months. During the examination, the doctor observes a rash that doesn't affect the nasolabial folds and cold extremities.

      What is the most precise diagnostic test for the probable diagnosis of this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-double stranded DNA

      Explanation:

      A certain percentage of individuals diagnosed with SLE exhibit positivity for rheumatoid factor.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of low back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of low back pain that has been gradually worsening for the past 14 days. He reports that the pain is worse in the evening after a long day at work and improves with rest, but it wakes him up at night. He denies any history of trauma and has been taking paracetamol to manage the pain. What is the most likely feature in his history to indicate severe underlying pathology such as spinal fracture or cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pain that disturbs sleep

      Explanation:

      Identifying Red Flags for Spinal Malignancy: Understanding the Clinical Picture

      When evaluating a patient with back pain, it is important to consider red flags that may indicate an underlying pathology, such as spinal malignancy. However, it is crucial to understand that suspicion should not be based on a single red flag, but on the overall clinical picture, including the patient’s medical history and risk factors.

      One red flag is aching night-time pain that disturbs sleep, which may suggest spinal malignancy. Another is sudden severe central spinal pain that is relieved by lying down, which may indicate spinal fracture. However, nonspecific lower back pain that varies with posture and is exacerbated by movement is more likely to be a diagnosis for most patients.

      Age is also a factor, as new onset of back pain in those over 50 years old is a risk factor for cancer. However, for patients under 50 years old, this is not the most likely indicator of an underlying pathology. Additionally, thoracic pain is more concerning for spinal malignancy and aortic aneurysm, while lower back pain is less specific.

      In summary, identifying red flags for spinal malignancy requires a comprehensive evaluation of the patient’s clinical picture, including their medical history and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

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  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old man visits the outpatient department for a review of his osteoporosis,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits the outpatient department for a review of his osteoporosis, where he is booked in for a DEXA scan. His T-score from his scan is recorded as -2.0, suggesting reduced bone mineral density. His consultant wishes to calculate his Z-score.

      Which patient factors are required to calculate this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Age, gender, ethnicity

      Explanation:

      When interpreting DEXA scan results, it is important to consider the patient’s age, gender, and ethnicity. The Z-score is adjusted for these factors and provides a comparison of the patient’s bone density with that of an average person of the same age, sex, and race. Meanwhile, the T-score compares the patient’s bone density with that of a healthy 30-year-old of the same sex. It is worth noting that ethnicity can impact bone mineral density, with some studies indicating that Black individuals tend to have higher BMD than White and Hispanic individuals.

      Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis

      When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of thoracic back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of thoracic back pain at night. He reports that the pain has been present for a few months and has recently worsened over the past two weeks. He denies any other symptoms and states that he generally feels well. He has no history of limb weakness, walking difficulties, pins and needles, or bladder and bowel problems. Additionally, he has never had any previous back injuries.
      The patient's medical history includes childhood asthma, mild osteoarthritis of the fingers and knees, and prostate cancer three years ago.
      Upon examination, there is tenderness over the thoracic spine area, and he experiences discomfort on flexion. Straight leg raising is normal, and there are no neurological abnormalities in the limbs.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to oncology

      Explanation:

      Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression: A Medical Emergency

      Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) is a medical emergency that should be considered in all cancer patients with back pain. Back pain is the most common sign, occurring in 90% of cases and may pre-date neurological changes by a considerable length of time. However, once neurological symptoms and signs are present, such as leg weakness, increased reflexes, a sensory ‘level’ and sphincter disturbance, the prognosis for recovery with treatment (surgery or radiotherapy) is much poorer.

      NICE guidelines on metastatic spinal cord compression (CG75) advise contacting the MSCC coordinator urgently (within 24 hours) to discuss the care of patients with cancer and any symptoms suggestive of spinal metastases. These symptoms include pain in the middle or upper spine, progressive lower spinal pain, severe unremitting lower spinal pain, spinal pain aggravated by straining, localised spinal tenderness, or nocturnal spinal pain preventing sleep.

      It is worth noting that 77% of people diagnosed with MSCC have an established diagnosis of cancer, where 23% present with MSCC as the first presentation of malignancy. This medical emergency can occur in any area of the spine, and prompt recognition and treatment are essential for the best possible outcome. Therefore, it is crucial to contact the MSCC coordinator immediately to discuss the care of patients with cancer and symptoms suggestive of spinal metastases who have any neurological symptoms or signs suggestive of MSCC.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 12 - How should the medication 'methotrexate 15 mg weekly' be entered on the repeat...

    Incorrect

    • How should the medication 'methotrexate 15 mg weekly' be entered on the repeat medication screen for a patient who was previously taking a lower dose and has completed all necessary monitoring as per shared care protocol, based on a letter received from the rheumatology department of the local hospital?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate tablets 2.5 mg (six per week)

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate Dosage Policy

      Methotrexate is only available in 10 mg and 2.5 mg strengths, with no 5 mg formulation. However, there have been cases where two different strengths were co-prescribed, leading to potential medication errors. One patient received 10 mg tablets instead of the required 2.5 mg tablets, prompting a complaint and highlighting the need for caution. To prevent such incidents, it is recommended that only one strength of methotrexate is prescribed.

      Most Local Health Boards (LHBs) and Primary Care Trusts (PCTs) advise that dosages in primary care should be multiples of the 2.5 mg formulation. This policy aims to reduce the risk of errors and ensure consistent dosing. Patients should also be advised to double-check their prescription and request slips to avoid confusion. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure safe and effective use of methotrexate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 13 - A 24-year-old kayaker complains of discomfort in the right distal dorsoradial forearm, approximately...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old kayaker complains of discomfort in the right distal dorsoradial forearm, approximately 5-10 cm away from the wrist joint. Upon examination, there is slight redness and swelling in the area. The patient experiences crepitus when moving their right hand. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intersection syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intersection Syndrome

      Intersection syndrome is a condition that occurs when the tendons of the extensor carpi radialis longus and the extensor carpi radialis brevis intersect with the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis muscles. This results in inflammation and tenosynovitis, which can cause pain in the distal dorsoradial forearm, around 5-10 cm proximal of the wrist joint. Swelling and erythema may also be present.

      It is important to note that intersection syndrome is often misdiagnosed as de Quervain’s tenosynovitis. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who engage in activities such as skiing, tennis, weightlifting, and canoeing.

      Fortunately, intersection syndrome can be managed with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), steroid injections, and physiotherapy. Surgical treatment is rarely required. By understanding the symptoms and causes of intersection syndrome, individuals can seek appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old man with osteoarthritis is evaluated. He has been taking regular paracetamol...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with osteoarthritis is evaluated. He has been taking regular paracetamol and a topical NSAID for symptom control, but due to insufficient pain relief, an oral NSAID was recently added. He has been taking ibuprofen 400 mg as needed up to three times a day, but upon further discussion, he is using it at least once daily. He has no significant gastrointestinal medical history, particularly no prior issues with gastroesophageal reflux or peptic ulceration. What is the most appropriate management strategy for gastroprotection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-prescribe an alginate preparation to use on a PRN basis (e.g. Gaviscon)

      Explanation:

      Co-prescription of Proton Pump Inhibitors with NSAIDs

      When prescribing oral NSAIDs or COX-2 inhibitors for the treatment of osteoarthritis, it is important to co-prescribe a proton pump inhibitor with the lowest acquisition cost. This is recommended by NICE guidance to prevent gastrointestinal, liver, or cardio-renal side effects.

      To minimize the risk of these side effects, anti-inflammatories should be used at the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible time period. Even if a patient has no history of gastrointestinal problems, a proton pump inhibitor should still be co-prescribed.

      It is also important to consider other medications that may increase the risk of gastrointestinal problems when used in combination with NSAIDs, such as steroids, aspirin, and certain antidepressants. By taking these precautions, healthcare professionals can help ensure the safe and effective use of NSAIDs in the treatment of osteoarthritis.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 15 - An 83 year old man presents to your clinic complaining of a painful...

    Incorrect

    • An 83 year old man presents to your clinic complaining of a painful and swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint on his right foot for the past four days. He has a medical history of hypertension, osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, and hiatus hernia. Laboratory results reveal:

      - Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 4.6 mmol/l
      - Urea: 12 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 140 µmol/l
      - Uric acid: 300 µmol/l (normal range: 200-420µmol/l)

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      The individual is experiencing a sudden and severe attack of gout. Despite this, their uric acid levels may appear normal as the acid is confined to the joint space. Allopurinol is effective in preventing gout but should not be administered during an acute flare-up. NSAIDs are not recommended due to the individual’s ischemic heart disease, renal dysfunction, and hiatus hernia.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 16 - You are evaluating a 55-year-old man with osteoarthritis. His symptoms are not adequately...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 55-year-old man with osteoarthritis. His symptoms are not adequately managed with regular paracetamol and a topical NSAID. During your discussion of treatment options, he mentions experiencing constipation with previous use of opioid analgesics. As a result, you decide to initiate a brief course of oral anti-inflammatory therapy on an as-needed basis. What is the most suitable initial NSAID to recommend for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen 400 mg TDS

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs and COX-2 Inhibitors: Balancing Thrombotic and GI Risks

      Cyclo-oxygenase-2 selective inhibitors (COX-2 inhibitors) and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief, but they carry different risks. COX-2 inhibitors have an increased risk of thrombotic events, while all NSAIDs are associated with potential serious gastrointestinal (GI) problems. However, there is variation in risk among different NSAIDs.

      Diclofenac at high doses and high dose ibuprofen are linked with an increased thrombotic risk, while naproxen and lower doses of ibuprofen have not been shown to increase the risk of myocardial infarction. In terms of GI toxicity, azapropazone has the highest risk, ibuprofen the lowest, and naproxen and diclofenac are intermediate. Selective COX-2 inhibitors provide the lowest risk of serious GI toxicity.

      When choosing a pain reliever, the specific indication and patient factors should be considered. Etoricoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, should only be used if a specific indication to avoid a traditional NSAID is present. Ketorolac is licensed for short-term management of postoperative pain. The doses of diclofenac given in the options increase the risk of thrombotic events. The naproxen and ibuprofen doses given provide the lowest thrombotic risk, but ibuprofen has a better GI safety profile and is the cheapest option. Gastroprotection, such as proton-pump inhibitors, should also be considered based on patient factors.

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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, red and painful left knee....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, red and painful left knee. On examination, he is afebrile, and aspiration of the knee effusion reveals slightly turbid fluid. Under microscopy, positively birefringent crystals are seen that are rod-shaped with blunt ends.
      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient is suffering from pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Pseudogout from Gout and Septic Arthritis

      Pseudogout is a joint inflammation caused by the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals. It is often idiopathic but can also be associated with metabolic abnormalities such as hyperparathyroidism and haemochromatosis. Symptoms can last for days to weeks and commonly affect the knees, wrists, and hips. Radiographs may show chondrocalcinosis or osteoarthrosis. Urate crystals in gout are shaped like needles with pointed ends and exhibit negative birefringence. Septic arthritis requires cues such as exposure to gonorrhoea, a recent puncture wound over the joint, or systemic signs of disseminated infection. Synovial fluid examination can exclude infection. Anticoagulant therapy is not a cause of pseudogout.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 18 - You conduct a home visit for an 82-year-old woman who has experienced a...

    Incorrect

    • You conduct a home visit for an 82-year-old woman who has experienced a few falls in recent months. During your risk assessment for future falls, you observe that she has limited mobility. Despite using her walking stick, she struggles to complete the TUG (Timed Up and Go test) and requires 8 steps to turn around 180 degrees. What other factor is the strongest predictor of future falls in the community?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Explanation:

      Falls in the Elderly: Causes, Risk Factors, and Prevention

      As people age, they become more prone to falls, which can result in injuries and affect their confidence and independence. In fact, around one-third of elderly individuals living in the community experience falls every year. Gait abnormalities are one of the primary causes of falls, which can be due to medical problems affecting the neurological and musculoskeletal systems, as well as the processing of senses such as sight, sound, and sensation. Other risk factors for falling include lower limb muscle weakness, vision problems, balance/gait disturbances, polypharmacy, incontinence, fear of falling, depression, postural hypotension, arthritis in lower limbs, psychoactive drugs, and cognitive impairment.

      To prevent falls, it is crucial to limit these risk factors where possible and conduct a falls risk assessment for all patients, especially those in hospitals or homes. The assessment should include a thorough history of the patient’s falls, systems review, past medical history, and social history. Medication reviews are also essential to reduce the chances of falling again, particularly for patients on more than four drugs. Medications that cause postural hypotension and those associated with falls due to other mechanisms should be stopped or swapped.

      When examining a patient who has fallen, a full A to E approach and assessment of all systems are necessary to rule out the cause. Investigations to consider include bedside tests, bloods, and imaging. NICE CKS recommendations suggest identifying all individuals who have fallen in the last 12 months and assessing their risk factors. For those at risk, completing the ‘Turn 180° test’ or the ‘Timed up and Go test’ and offering a multidisciplinary assessment by a qualified clinician are recommended. Individuals who fall but do not meet these criteria should be reviewed annually and given written information on falls.

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  • Question 19 - A 42-year-old woman has developed symmetrical synovitis affecting the small joints of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has developed symmetrical synovitis affecting the small joints of the hands and feet. This has persisted for eight weeks. She has returned to her General Practitioner (GP) to discuss her test results. Her C-reactive protein is slightly elevated but her test for rheumatoid factor is negative.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management option in primary care in addition to analgesia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to rheumatology

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Urgent Referral to Rheumatology for Suspected Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Suspected rheumatoid arthritis requires urgent referral to a rheumatologist to prevent irreversible joint damage. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends immediate referral as there is no specific diagnostic test for rheumatoid arthritis, and delaying treatment can lead to joint deformity and pain. Corticosteroids and DMARDs such as sulfasalazine are effective treatments, but should only be prescribed by a specialist. Repeat testing is not recommended as rheumatoid factors can be negative in a significant number of cases. Early referral to rheumatology is crucial for managing suspected rheumatoid arthritis and preventing long-term disability.

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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic with joint issues. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic with joint issues. He has been experiencing swelling of the small joints in both hands upon waking up for the past few weeks, along with severe morning stiffness that takes about three hours to improve. He occasionally experiences discomfort in other joints and has had a swollen knee in the past. His current medications include allopurinol and Nizoral shampoo, which he has been purchasing over the counter to treat the scales on his scalp. He has tested negative for rheumatoid factor. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Possible Seronegative Arthritis Diagnosis

      It is possible that the patient is taking allopurinol for gout, which can suppress symptoms once the correct dose is established. Haemochromatosis typically causes joint pain but not acute swelling. Palindromic rheumatism is often a diagnosis of exclusion and can progress to rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) causes morning stiffness and mainly affects the shoulder girdle in older individuals. Although the description could fit for RA, acute psoriatic arthropathy can be clinically indistinguishable. However, the patient’s seronegative arthritis and likely scalp psoriasis provide further clues. While skin lesions may not be present, nail changes are usually observed. Approximately 25% of RA cases are seronegative, but the overall presentation suggests a possible diagnosis of seronegative arthritis.

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  • Question 21 - You assess a 48-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis....

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 48-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. She was initiated on methotrexate three months ago and prednisolone was added to achieve quick symptom control. Currently, she is taking methotrexate 15mg once a week and prednisolone 10 mg once daily. However, she is encountering several adverse effects. What is the most probable side effect caused by prednisolone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 'My shoulder and leg muscles feel weak'

      Explanation:

      Proximal myopathy is a frequent occurrence in individuals who use steroids for an extended period. It is possible that some of the other adverse effects are a result of either the ongoing rheumatoid disease or the use of methotrexate.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

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  • Question 22 - A 63-year-old poorly controlled, diabetic man comes back to your clinic with persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old poorly controlled, diabetic man comes back to your clinic with persistent swelling and pain in his left ankle over the past 4 weeks. He was previously evaluated by one of your colleagues who ordered an ankle x-ray. The result revealed significant disruption and subluxation of the tarsometatarsal joints. His HbA1c level was 74mmol/mol two months ago.

      What condition is the patient most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charcot joint

      Explanation:

      When a patient with poorly controlled diabetes presents with foot pain lasting more than a week, it is important to consider the possibility of Charcot joint. While septic arthritis should be ruled out in a hot swollen joint, this patient’s symptoms have persisted for several weeks, making septic arthritis less likely. Gout or pseudogout may also be considered, but typically affect the 1st MTPJ and are often recurrent. An anterior talo-fibular ligament tear could be a potential cause of forefoot pain and swelling, but would require a history of trauma. Ultimately, Charcot joint should be considered as a possible diagnosis in this patient.

      Understanding Charcot Joints

      A Charcot joint, also known as a neuropathic joint, is a condition where a joint becomes severely damaged due to a loss of sensation. While it was previously caused by syphilis, it is now commonly seen in diabetic patients. Despite the degree of joint disruption, Charcot joints are typically less painful than expected due to the sensory neuropathy. However, patients may still experience some degree of pain, with 75% reporting it. The joint is often swollen, red, and warm.

      Charcot joints are characterized by extensive bone remodeling and fragmentation, particularly in the midfoot. This condition can cause significant disability and deformity if left untreated. Therefore, early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent further damage and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 23 - You are conducting the yearly evaluation of a 55-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis....

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting the yearly evaluation of a 55-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most probable complication that may arise due to her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at a higher risk of developing IHD.

      Complications of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing inflammation and pain. However, it can also lead to a variety of extra-articular complications. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and mental health.

      Respiratory complications of RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, methotrexate pneumonitis, and pleurisy. Ocular complications can include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, keratitis, steroid-induced cataracts, and chloroquine retinopathy. RA can also lead to osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, and an increased risk of infections. Depression is also a common complication of RA.

      Less common complications of RA include Felty’s syndrome, which is characterized by RA, splenomegaly, and a low white cell count, and amyloidosis, which is a rare condition where abnormal proteins build up in organs and tissues.

      In summary, RA can lead to a variety of complications that affect different parts of the body. It is important for patients with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or treat any complications that may arise.

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  • Question 24 - A patient in their 60s has been seen by a rheumatologist and diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s has been seen by a rheumatologist and diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. The rheumatologist recommends methotrexate to be prescribed through a shared care agreement. Can you identify which of the patient's current medications interacts with methotrexate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      According to the British National Formulary, the combination of methotrexate and antibiotics containing trimethoprim can lead to bone marrow suppression and potentially fatal pancytopenia. Therefore, it is advised to avoid prescribing these two medications together. There are no reported interactions between methotrexate and the other listed medications.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old woman presents with complaints of lethargy and aching shoulders and upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with complaints of lethargy and aching shoulders and upper arms. Suspecting polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), what other symptom or sign is frequently associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Back pain

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: Symptoms and Presentation

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR) is a condition that affects individuals over the age of 50. The core features of PMR include bilateral shoulder or pelvic ache, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate/C reactive protein (ESR/CRP), morning stiffness, and up to 40% of patients may present with weight loss. In addition to these symptoms, patients may also experience systemic symptoms such as lethargy, loss of appetite, or a low-grade fever.

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  • Question 26 - Which of the following tumors is most likely to spread to the bone...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tumors is most likely to spread to the bone in elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate

      Explanation:

      Metastasis to the bone is most frequently observed in cases of primary tumours of the prostate.

      Bone Metastases: Common Tumours and Sites

      Bone metastases occur when cancer cells from a primary tumour spread to the bones. The most common tumours that cause bone metastases are prostate, breast, and lung cancer, with prostate cancer being the most frequent. The most common sites for bone metastases are the spine, pelvis, ribs, skull, and long bones.

      Aside from bone pain, other features of bone metastases may include pathological fractures, hypercalcaemia, and raised levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Pathological fractures occur when the bone weakens due to the cancer cells, causing it to break. Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is too much calcium in the blood, which can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, nausea, and confusion. ALP is an enzyme that is produced by bone cells, and its levels can be elevated in the presence of bone metastases.

      A common diagnostic tool for bone metastases is an isotope bone scan, which uses technetium-99m labelled diphosphonates that accumulate in the bones. The scan can show multiple irregular foci of high-grade activity in the bones, indicating the presence of metastatic cancer. In the image provided, the bone scan shows multiple osteoblastic metastases in a patient with metastatic prostate cancer.

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  • Question 27 - A 64-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of hip pain. He reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of hip pain. He reports that the pain began a week ago while he was picking up a toy belonging to his grandchild. How can it be determined if the hip pain is actually referred from his lumbar spine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A positive femoral nerve stretch test

      Explanation:

      A potential indication of referred lumbar spine pain causing hip pain is a positive result on the femoral nerve stretch test. This is because compression of the femoral nerve may be the root cause of the pain, and stretching the nerve can reproduce the symptoms.

      Hip pain in adults can be caused by a variety of conditions. Osteoarthritis is a common cause, with pain that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. Reduced internal rotation is often the first sign, and risk factors include age, obesity, and previous joint problems. Inflammatory arthritis can cause pain in the morning, systemic symptoms, and elevated inflammatory markers. Referred lumbar spine pain may be caused by femoral nerve compression, which can be tested with a positive femoral nerve stretch test. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, or trochanteric bursitis, is often seen in women aged 50-70 and is caused by repeated movement of the iliotibial band. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and results in a burning sensation over the antero-lateral aspect of the thigh. Avascular necrosis can have gradual or sudden onset and may follow high dose steroid therapy or previous hip fracture or dislocation. Pubic symphysis dysfunction is common in pregnancy and causes pain over the pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thighs. Transient idiopathic osteoporosis is an uncommon condition sometimes seen in the third trimester of pregnancy, causing groin pain and limited range of movement in the hip, with elevated ESR.

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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old patient, who is being treated for TB and is sputum smear...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient, who is being treated for TB and is sputum smear negative, complains of severe pain in her big toe.

      On examination the toe is swollen and red and you suspect she has gout.

      Which one of the following drugs is most likely to have caused her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyrazinamide

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pyrazinamide Side Effects during TB Treatment

      Treatment for tuberculosis (TB) is typically initiated in specialist clinics, but patients may present in primary care if they experience adverse reactions, interactions, or side effects. As a healthcare provider, it is important to have an understanding of common side effects and potential problems during treatment. Pyrazinamide, a medication commonly used in TB treatment, can cause hyperuricaemia and attacks of gout. Additionally, patients may experience hepatitis and rashes as side effects of pyrazinamide. Being aware of these potential side effects can help healthcare providers monitor and manage patients’ treatment effectively.

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  • Question 29 - A 47-year-old male has been diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome. He suffers...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old male has been diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome. He suffers with significant pain around his foot and ankle, which started after ankle surgery. He has been reviewed by orthopaedics and a specialist pain clinic.

      What management options are recommended for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      For patients with complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS), early physiotherapy is a highly recommended management option. It is often necessary to involve a pain specialist and provide ongoing neuropathic analgesia.

      Although counselling may be beneficial for chronic pain, it is not a recommended treatment option. Referring patients to psychiatry is not appropriate as there is no clear evidence of a mental health issue.

      Opiate analgesia and triptans are not recommended for CRPS management.

      Understanding Complex Regional Pain Syndrome

      Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that cause neurological and related symptoms following surgery or minor injury. It is more common in women, and there are two types: type I, where there is no visible nerve lesion, and type II, where there is a lesion to a major nerve.

      Symptoms of CRPS include progressive and disproportionate pain to the original injury or surgery, allodynia, changes in skin color and temperature, swelling, sweating, and motor dysfunction. The Budapest Diagnostic Criteria are commonly used in the UK to diagnose CRPS.

      Early physiotherapy is important in managing CRPS, along with neuropathic analgesia in line with NICE guidelines. Specialist management from a pain team is also required. Understanding CRPS and its symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.

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  • Question 30 - You are asked to do a house call on a 35-year-old man with...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to do a house call on a 35-year-old man with aching legs. Not unreasonably you suggest that a surgery consultation would be more appropriate. The wife is insistent that he cannot get there.

      When you visit, you find a well-looking man lying in bed. He gives a story of having done a sponsored walk two days previously and halfway through after a mile uphill, he had to be carried back.

      He is overweight. He doesn't normally take exercise and reports that he found exercise painful as a child. He also smokes. Since that episode he has been virtually unable to walk due to stiff legs. He is eating and drinking normally but his urine is a brownish colour. You confirm that, and the dipstick is positive for blood.

      When you examine him, he is barely able to move his legs, and has absent knee and ankle jerks both sides. His thigh muscles feel quite solid in texture, and he has no sphincter disturbance. He is on no medication.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He is overweight and unfit

      Explanation:

      Myoglobinuria: A Rare Condition Causing Muscle Breakdown

      The texture of the muscles and brown urine are key indicators of myoglobinuria, a condition caused by catastrophic muscle breakdown. In this case, confirmation was made through a CK level beyond 16,000, a creatinine level of 360, and a urea level of 18. The large myoglobin molecules quickly compromised the glomerular filtration rate, leading to the need for dialysis within 24 hours. Further investigation revealed a rare congenital enzyme deficiency that causes rhabdomyolysis on exertion, which explains why the patient experienced pain during physical exercise as a child and adolescent.

      It is important to note that a urine dipstick test can also be used to diagnose myoglobinuria. This test involves dipping a strip into a urine sample and checking for the presence of myoglobin. Early detection and treatment of myoglobinuria is crucial to prevent kidney damage and other complications.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal Health (2/6) 33%
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