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  • Question 1 - An elderly patient presents to ED following a fall after feeling light headed...

    Correct

    • An elderly patient presents to ED following a fall after feeling light headed when standing up. You are reviewing his medication and note that he is taking a high dose of furosemide. Loop diuretics act primarily at which of the following sites in the nephron:

      Your Answer: Thick ascending limb

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics inhibit the Na+/K+/2Cl- symporter on the luminal membrane in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, thus preventing reabsorption of NaCl and water. These agents reduce reabsorption of Cl- and Na+ and increase Ca2+ excretion and loss of K+ and Mg2+.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - During bedside rounds, an 82-year old female in the Medicine Ward complains of...

    Correct

    • During bedside rounds, an 82-year old female in the Medicine Ward complains of pain and tingling of all fingers of the right hand. The attending physician is considering carpal tunnel syndrome.Which of the following is expected to undergo atrophy in carpal tunnel syndrome?

      Your Answer: The thenar eminence

      Explanation:

      Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is an entrapment neuropathy caused by compression of the median nerve as it travels through the wrist’s carpal tunnel. It is the most common nerve entrapment neuropathy, accounting for 90% of all neuropathies. Early symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome include pain, numbness, and paraesthesia’s. These symptoms typically present, with some variability, in the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and the radial half (thumb side) of the ring finger. Pain also can radiate up the affected arm. With further progression, hand weakness, decreased fine motor coordination, clumsiness, and thenar atrophy can occur.The muscles innervated by the median nerve can be remembered using the mnemonic ‘LOAF’:L– lateral two lumbricalsO– Opponens pollicisA– Abductor pollicisF– Flexor pollicis brevisIn the early presentation of the disease, symptoms most often present at night when lying down and are relieved during the day. With further progression of the disease, symptoms will also be present during the day, especially with certain repetitive activities, such as when drawing, typing, or playing video games. In more advanced disease, symptoms can be constant.Typical occupations of patients with carpal tunnel syndrome include those who use computers for extended periods of time, those who use equipment that has vibration such as construction workers, and any other occupation requiring frequent, repetitive movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man comes for a visit at the clinic with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes for a visit at the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. On inquiring about drug history, you find out that he has been taking around 8-10 paracetamol to help relieve the pain. Out of the following, which one is believed to be the main mechanism of action for paracetamol?

      Your Answer: Selective inhibition of COX-3 receptors

      Explanation:

      The FDA categorizes Paracetamol as an NSAID (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug) as it is believed to selectively inhibit cyclo-oxygenase 3 (COX-3) receptors in the brain and spinal cord. COX-3 is a unique variant of the more known COX-1 and COX-2. It is responsible for the production of prostaglandins in central areas, which sensitizes free nerve endings to the chemical mediators of pain. Therefore, by selectively inhibiting COX-3, paracetamol effectively reduces pain sensation by increasing the pain threshold.Acetaminophen does not inhibit cyclooxygenase in peripheral tissues and, therefore, has no peripheral anti-inflammatory effects.The antipyretic actions of acetaminophen are likely attributed to direct action on heat-regulating centres in the brain, resulting in peripheral vasodilation, sweating, and loss of body heat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - During her pregnancy, a 28-year-old lady was given an antibiotic. The neonate is...

    Correct

    • During her pregnancy, a 28-year-old lady was given an antibiotic. The neonate is born with bilateral deafness as a result of this.From the  following antibiotics, which one is most likely to cause this side effect? 

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Aminoglycosides cross the placenta and are linked to poisoning of the 8th cranial nerve in the foetus, as well as permanent bilateral deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains of chest pain that is worse on breathing, shortness of breath, palpitations, and haemoptysis. She undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram, which reveals a large pulmonary embolus. She is immediately started on heparin and shifted to the acute medical ward.Which of the following does heparin activate?

      Your Answer: Antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Heparin works by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III. Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin (factor IIa) by forming a 1:1 complex with thrombin. The heparin-antithrombin III complex also inhibits factor Xa and some other proteases involved with clotting. The heparin-ATIII complex can also inactivate IX, XI, XII, and plasmin.Heparin is a polymer of glycosaminoglycan. It occurs naturally and is found in mast cells. Clinically, it is used in two forms:1. Unfractionated: widely varying polymer chain lengths2. Low molecular weight: Smaller polymers only Heparin is not thrombolytic or fibrinolytic. It prevents the progression of existing clots by inhibiting further clotting. The lysis of existing clots relies on endogenous thrombolytics.Heparin is used for:1. Prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism2. Treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation3. Treatment of fat embolism4. Priming of haemodialysis and cardiopulmonary bypass machines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the approximate lifespan of the mature erythrocyte: ...

    Correct

    • What is the approximate lifespan of the mature erythrocyte:

      Your Answer: 120 days

      Explanation:

      Erythrocytes have a normal lifespan of about 120 days. Mature erythrocytes are biconcave discs with no nucleus, ribosomes or mitochondria but with the ability to generate energy as ATP by the anaerobic glycolytic pathway. The red cell membrane consists of a bipolar lipid layer with a membrane skeleton of penetrating and integral proteins anchoring carbohydrate surface antigens. The shape and flexibility of red cells allows them to deform easily and pass through capillaries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient presents with an acute severe asthma attack. Following a poor response...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with an acute severe asthma attack. Following a poor response to his initial salbutamol nebuliser, you administer a further nebuliser that this time also contains ipratropium bromide.After what time period would you expect the maximum effect of the ipratropium bromide to occur? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: 30 -60 minutes

      Explanation:

      Ipratropium bromide is an antimuscarinic drug used in the management of acute asthma and COPD. It can provide short-term relief in chronic asthma, but short-acting β2agonists act more quickly and are preferred.The BTS guidelines recommend that nebulised ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4-6 hourly) can be added to β2agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to β2 agonist therapy.The aerosol inhalation of ipratropium can be used for short-term relief in mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in patients who are not already using a long-acting antimuscarinic drug (e.g. tiotropium).Its maximum effect occurs 30-60 minutes after use; its duration of action is 3-6 hours, and bronchodilation can usually be maintained with treatment three times per day.The commonest side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. It can also trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in susceptible patients. Tremor is commonly seen with β2agonists but not with antimuscarinics. Ipratropium bromide should be used with caution in: Men with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder-outflow obstruction (worsened urinary retention has been reported in elderly men), People with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stages 3 and above (because of the risk of drug toxicity), People with angle-closure glaucoma (nebulised mist of antimuscarinic drugs can precipitate or worsen acute angle-closure glaucoma)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A known epileptic is transported in status epilepticus by ambulance. On the way...

    Incorrect

    • A known epileptic is transported in status epilepticus by ambulance. On the way to the hospital, she took some diazepam.Which of the following statements about diazepam is correct?

      Your Answer: It is a short-acting benzodiazepine

      Correct Answer: It crosses into breast milk

      Explanation:

      Diazepam boosts GABA’s effects, giving it sedative, hypnotic, anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle-relaxing properties. It can be administered orally, rectally, or intravenously.With a half-life of 20-100 hours, it is a long-acting benzodiazepine. Midazolam, oxazepam, and alprazolam are examples of short-acting benzodiazepines with a half-life of less than 12 hours (Xanax).If used in the presence of hepatic impairment, benzodiazepines can cause coma. If treatment is necessary, benzodiazepines with shorter half-lives should be used in lower doses. Diazepam is a sedative that crosses into breast milk and should be avoided by breastfeeding mothers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding V/Q mismatch, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding V/Q mismatch, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Both ventilation and perfusion decrease towards the base of the lung.

      Correct Answer: In a true shunt, increasing inspired oxygen has no effect on improving hypoxaemia.

      Explanation:

      Both ventilation and perfusion increase towards the lung base, because of the effects of gravity, but the gravitational effects are greater on perfusion than ventilation and therefore there is a regional variation in V/Q ratio from lung apex (high V/Q) to lung base (low V/Q). In a pure shunt, there is normal perfusion but absent ventilation and the V/Q ratio = 0. In a true shunt increasing oxygen fraction has no effect because the oxygen-enriched air fails to reach the shunted blood. An increased A-a gradient is seen in V/Q mismatch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      55.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old African American male presents to your clinic complaining of swelling of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old African American male presents to your clinic complaining of swelling of his feet for the past six months. On examination, there is periorbital and pedal oedema. A 24-hour urine collection is ordered, which shows 8 g of protein. The serum cholesterol is ten mmol/L. You order a renal biopsy to confirm the diagnosis. Which one of the following findings are you most likely to see in this patient's biopsy?

      Your Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

      Explanation:

      This patient has Nephrotic Syndrome confirmed by the presence of 1. Heavy proteinuria (greater than 3-3.5 g/24 hours)2. Hypoalbuminemia (serum albumin < 25 g/L)3. Generalised oedema (often with periorbital involvement)4. Severe hyperlipidaemia (total cholesterol is often > 10 mmol/L). Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis will be the most likely answer as it is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in African American adults. Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children. Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in Caucasian adults. In IgA nephropathy, patients will complain of cola-coloured urine. Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis presents with features of Nephritic Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      24.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (5/6) 83%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
CNS Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Infections (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Basic Cellular (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/2) 50%
Respiratory Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
General Pathology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (0/1) 0%
Passmed