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  • Question 1 - You encounter a 50-year-old man who presents with a personal issue. He has...

    Correct

    • You encounter a 50-year-old man who presents with a personal issue. He has been experiencing difficulties with achieving and maintaining erections for the past year, with a gradual worsening of symptoms. He infrequently seeks medical attention and has no prior medical history.

      What is the predominant organic etiology for this particular symptom?

      Your Answer: Vascular causes

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection sufficient for sexual activity. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, and mixed, with certain medications also contributing to the condition.

      Organic causes of ED include vasculogenic, neurogenic, structural, and hormonal factors. Among these, vasculogenic causes are the most common and are often linked to cardiovascular disease, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, smoking, and major pelvic surgery.

      The risk factors for ED are similar to those for cardiovascular disease and include obesity, diabetes, dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, hypertension, endothelial dysfunction, and lifestyle factors such as lack of exercise and smoking. Therefore, when evaluating a man with ED, it is important to screen for cardiovascular disease and obtain a thorough psychosexual history.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      299.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old gentleman has just begun taking galantamine for his moderate dementia. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old gentleman has just begun taking galantamine for his moderate dementia. He initially experienced a runny nose and dry cough. Presently, he is expressing concern about new mouth ulcers, a tender red rash on his trunk, and feeling generally unwell. When his skin is gently rubbed, blisters appear.

      What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythroderma

      Correct Answer: Shingles

      Explanation:

      Galantamine and Serious Skin Reactions

      Clues that suggest a diagnosis of serious skin reactions include the recent use of galantamine, a prodromal illness, a tender red rash with mucosal involvement, and a positive Nikolsky sign. Patients taking galantamine should be informed about the signs of serious skin reactions and advised to discontinue the medication at the first appearance of a skin rash. Galantamine is known to increase the risk of developing Stevens-Johnson syndrome, erythema multiforme, and acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis. As the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors is becoming more common, it is important to review the common and rare side effects of these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      168.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old woman presents with severe sharp pain in the left groin following...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with severe sharp pain in the left groin following a minor fall and is unable to walk. Radiological examination reveals a left neck of femur fracture. Routine laboratory evaluation shows a serum calcium concentration of 1.8 mmol/l (normal range 2.20–2.60 mmol/l), a serum phosphorus concentration of 0.72 mmol/l (normal range 0.7–1.4 mmol/l) and increased serum alkaline phosphatase activity. The serum parathyroid hormone level was subsequently found to be elevated.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitamin D Deficiency and its Differential Diagnosis

      Vitamin D deficiency is a common condition that can lead to osteomalacia, characterized by hypocalcaemia and hypophosphataemia. This deficiency can be caused by dietary deficiency or malabsorption. Patients with osteomalacia often have elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels, and the severity and chronicity of the disease can affect calcium intake in the diet. Secondary hyperparathyroidism may also be present in patients with vitamin D insufficiency.

      Paget’s disease of bone, hypervitaminosis D, osteoporosis, and primary hyperparathyroidism are differential diagnoses that should be considered. Paget’s disease is associated with bone pain, increased risk of fracture, and elevated serum alkaline phosphatase activity, but serum calcium levels are usually normal. Hypervitaminosis D is associated with hypercalcaemia, while osteoporosis is not associated with any specific abnormality in the standard bone biochemistry profile. Primary hyperparathyroidism is also associated with hypercalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      123.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers, leading to demyelination. This results in symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling sensations, and paralysis.

      The pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. Studies have shown a correlation between the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, and the clinical features of the syndrome. In fact, anti-GM1 antibodies are present in 25% of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. This syndrome typically presents as a descending paralysis, unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome that present as an ascending paralysis. The eye muscles are usually affected first in Miller Fisher syndrome. Studies have shown that anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases of Miller Fisher syndrome.

      In summary, Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome are conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system and are often triggered by infections. The pathogenesis of these syndromes involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. While Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, Miller Fisher syndrome is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      90.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Samantha is a 28-year-old woman who recently gave birth to a baby girl...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 28-year-old woman who recently gave birth to a baby girl and wants to discuss contraception options. She used to take the combined pill but prefers not to use any form of contraception if possible. She is not currently breastfeeding. What is the duration after childbirth when she no longer needs contraception?

      Your Answer: She needs contraception immediately after giving birth

      Correct Answer: Up to 21 days

      Explanation:

      Nancy can be advised that she doesn’t need contraception for up to 21 days after giving birth. According to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare Guideline on Postnatal Sexual and Reproductive Health, contraceptive protection is not necessary before Day 21 postpartum. However, if Nancy wants to avoid pregnancy after Day 21, she should use a contraceptive method as ovulation may occur as early as Day 28 in non-breastfeeding women. Breastfeeding women who want to prevent pregnancy should also use a contraceptive method, although any method will be more effective due to reduced fertility. Fully breastfeeding women may rely on the lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) alone until breastfeeding decreases or other LAM criteria are no longer met.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The Progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than 6 weeks postpartum. If breastfeeding is between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum, it is UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk postpartum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days.

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks. Meanwhile, the Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      19.7
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  • Question 6 - A 49-year-old female becomes ill after returning from a foreign holiday.

    She complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old female becomes ill after returning from a foreign holiday.

      She complains of a dry cough, myalgia, abdominal pain and diarrhoea. She has a temperature of 38.3°C and auscultation of the chest reveals bibasal crepitations.

      She had seen the out of hours GP two days previously who had prescribed her amoxicillin but this has not produced a clinical response.

      Blood tests show:

      Haemoglobin 136 g/L (130-180)

      WBC 14.1 ×109/L (4-11)

      Neutrophils 12.2 ×109/L (1.5-7)

      Lymphocytes 0.9 ×109/L (1.5-4)

      Sodium 121 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Urea 10.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 176 µmol/L (60-110)

      What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Legionella pneumophilia

      Correct Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii

      Explanation:

      Legionnaires Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Gram-negative bacillus, Legionella pneumophilia. The disease is usually associated with contaminated water cooling systems, air conditioning units, or showers. However, sporadic cases can also occur. People who travel and stay in hotels or resorts with poorly maintained air conditioning or showers are at risk of exposure to the bacteria.

      The symptoms of Legionnaires disease can vary and may include gastrointestinal upset, flu-like symptoms, diarrhea, jaundice, headache, and confusion. Patients may also experience a decrease in their white blood cell count, resulting in lymphopenia. Additionally, the disease can cause the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), leading to hyponatremia. Abnormal liver and renal biochemistry occur in about half of patients.

      Amoxicillin is not an effective treatment for Legionnaires disease. Instead, macrolides such as erythromycin or clarithromycin are typically used. Some doctors prefer to use quinolones as the first choice of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      215.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A breastfeeding mother brings in her three-month-old infant who has been experiencing some...

    Correct

    • A breastfeeding mother brings in her three-month-old infant who has been experiencing some burning pain in both nipples during feeds and for up to an hour after. She also reports some itching and sensitivity in her nipples. The baby is growing well and there are no other concerns. During examination, the mother's breasts and nipples appear normal, but the infant has white patches on their tongue. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Miconazole cream for the mother and nystatin suspension for the baby

      Explanation:

      When treating nipple candidiasis during breastfeeding, it is recommended to use miconazole cream for the mother and nystatin suspension for the baby. This is likely to be nipple thrush, and it’s important to treat both mother and baby simultaneously to prevent re-infection, even if the baby shows no signs of infection. It’s worth noting that while miconazole gel can also be used for babies over 4 months, it’s not licensed for those under 4 months due to concerns about choking on the gel. Parents should be carefully informed about the risks and how to administer it safely if it’s prescribed.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      64.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes in for a routine check-up. During...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes in for a routine check-up. During a thorough skin examination, a darkly pigmented macule is observed on the palmar side of his left index finger. The lesion measures approximately 4 mm in size and displays poorly defined, irregular borders with an irregular pigment network on dermoscopy. No other pigmented lesions are detected on the patient. He has never noticed it before and is uncertain if it is evolving.

      What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Acral lentiginous melanoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s atypical lesion, with three of the five following characteristics, suggests a diagnosis of melanoma. The most common subtype in this patient population is acral lentiginous melanoma, which can occur in areas not exposed to the sun, such as the soles of the feet and palms.

      It is unlikely that the lesion is an acquired or congenital naevus. New-onset pigmented lesions in patients over 50 should always be referred to a dermatologist for assessment. Congenital naevi are present at birth and the patient would have a long history with them.

      Nodular melanoma is less likely in this case, as it typically presents as dark papules on sun-exposed areas of skin in the Caucasian population.

      While superficial spreading melanoma is a possibility, a dark-skinned patient with a lesion on the palmar hand or soles of the feet is more likely to have acral lentiginous melanoma.

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.

      The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2 cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      182.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old female presents with tiredness following a flu like illness 2 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female presents with tiredness following a flu like illness 2 weeks ago. Investigations reveal:

      Free T4 9.3 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
      TSH 49.3 mU/L (0.35-5.50)

      On examination she has a smooth modest goitre and a pulse of 68 bpm.

      Which other investigation would you use to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: TSH receptor antibodies

      Correct Answer: No further investigations necessary

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Primary Hypothyroidism with Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

      These test results indicate a case of primary hypothyroidism, characterized by low levels of thyroxine (T4) and elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). The most likely diagnosis is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is often accompanied by the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies. A thyroid ultrasound is not necessary, as the goitre appears smooth and there are no indications of malignancy. A radio-iodine uptake scan is also unnecessary, as it is expected to show little or no uptake. Positive TSH receptor antibodies are typically associated with Graves’ disease, which is not the case here. Overall, these findings suggest a diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      64.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A pair undergo examinations for sterility. What is the most suitable guidance to...

    Incorrect

    • A pair undergo examinations for sterility. What is the most suitable guidance to provide concerning sperm collection?

      Your Answer: Abstain for 3-5 days before giving sample + deliver sample to lab within 4 hours

      Correct Answer: Abstain for 3-5 days before giving sample + deliver sample to lab within 1 hour

      Explanation:

      Semen analysis is a test that requires a man to abstain from sexual activity for at least 3 days but no more than 5 days before providing a sample to the lab. It is important that the sample is delivered to the lab within 1 hour of collection. The results of the test are compared to normal values, which include a semen volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of greater than 7.2, a sperm concentration of over 15 million per ml, a morphology of more than 4% normal forms, a motility of over 32% progressive motility, and a vitality of over 58% live spermatozoa. It is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, but these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      31
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Kidney And Urology (1/2) 50%
Older Adults (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/2) 50%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
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