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  • Question 1 - A 4-year-old boy with a history of atopic eczema presents with his mother,...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy with a history of atopic eczema presents with his mother, who has observed an atypical rash on her son's abdomen. On the upper abdomen, there is a group of approximately 12 pearly white papules with a central depression, with each lesion measuring around 3-5 mm in size. There is no discomfort or itching. What self-care recommendations should be provided, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected people

      Explanation:

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly found in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, the lesions are commonly found on the trunk and flexures, while in adults, they can appear on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be necessary to alleviate itching or if the lesions are considered unsightly. Treatment options include simple trauma or cryotherapy, depending on the age of the child and the parents’ wishes. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent the spread of the infection and alleviate symptoms if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      330.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You suspect that a 52-year-old man is suffering from Cushing syndrome.
    What time of...

    Incorrect

    • You suspect that a 52-year-old man is suffering from Cushing syndrome.
      What time of day is a random cortisol test most likely to be abnormal?

      Your Answer: 2000 h

      Correct Answer: 2400 h

      Explanation:

      Cortisol Levels and Cushing Syndrome: Diagnostic Tests and Circadian Rhythms

      Plasma cortisol levels in normal individuals follow a circadian rhythm, with the highest levels in the morning and the lowest levels at night. However, in patients with Cushing syndrome, this rhythm is disrupted, and late-night cortisol levels do not fall as they should. This alteration in cortisol secretion can be used to diagnose Cushing syndrome, with an elevated serum cortisol at 2400 h being an early indicator.

      The 0900 h cortisol level is not a reliable indicator of Cushing syndrome, as it may still be within the normal range. Instead, a low-dose dexamethasone suppression test is used, where a failure to suppress cortisol suggests Cushing syndrome.

      A 24-hour urine collection with cortisol level analysis is a better test for Cushing syndrome than serum cortisol, with two or more samples showing cortisol excretion more than three times the upper limit of normal being a confident diagnosis.

      Late-night cortisol samples should be taken between 2300 h and 0100 h, while melatonin, which regulates sleep and wakefulness, follows a reverse circadian rhythm, with levels highest during periods of sleep. Synthetic melatonin is commonly used to alleviate jet lag.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      69
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman visited her doctor with complaints of intense pain in the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visited her doctor with complaints of intense pain in the anal area. She reported that the pain began after she strained to have a bowel movement. She had been experiencing constipation for the past 4 days and had been using over-the-counter laxatives. During the examination, the doctor observed a painful, firm, bluish-black lump at the edge of the anus.

      What is the probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Thrombosed haemorrhoid

      Explanation:

      Thrombosed haemorrhoids are characterized by severe pain and the presence of a tender lump. Upon examination, a purplish, swollen, and tender subcutaneous perianal mass can be observed. If the patient seeks medical attention within 72 hours of onset, referral for excision may be necessary. However, if the condition has progressed beyond this timeframe, patients can typically manage their symptoms with stool softeners, ice packs, and pain relief medication. Symptoms usually subside within 10 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A worried father brings his 14 month old child into the clinic, concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A worried father brings his 14 month old child into the clinic, concerned that he is not walking. He says that many other children his age in his playgroup are already walking but his child is still crawling.

      At what age would you consider referring a child who is not yet walking?

      Your Answer: 20 months

      Correct Answer: 18 months

      Explanation:

      Further assessment should be sought if a child is unable to walk without support by the age of 18 months.

      Gross Motor Developmental Milestones

      Gross motor developmental milestones refer to the physical abilities that a child acquires as they grow and develop. These milestones are important indicators of a child’s overall development and can help parents and healthcare professionals identify any potential delays or concerns. The table below summarizes the major gross motor developmental milestones from 3 months to 4 years of age.

      At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a sitting position and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to crawl and pull themselves to a standing position. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. Finally, at 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.

      It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. By monitoring a child’s gross motor developmental milestones, parents and healthcare professionals can ensure that they are meeting their developmental goals and identify any potential concerns early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old teacher comes to the clinic seeking a medical certificate after undergoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old teacher comes to the clinic seeking a medical certificate after undergoing an open repair for an inguinal hernia. As per the guidelines of the Department of Work and Pensions, what is the recommended duration before he can resume work?

      Your Answer: After 3 - 4 weeks

      Correct Answer: After 2 - 3 weeks

      Explanation:

      Returning to work after inguinal hernia repair takes 2-3 weeks for open surgery and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic surgery.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.

      The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.

      After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 14-year-old boy visits his GP with a complaint of knee pain that...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy visits his GP with a complaint of knee pain that has been bothering him for a week. He has no notable medical history. What factor would increase the likelihood of a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease?

      Your Answer: Pain relieved by rest and made worse by kneeling and activity, such as running or jumping.

      Explanation:

      Patellofemoral pain syndrome is a common knee condition that affects a large number of individuals. It typically develops slowly and starts off as mild and sporadic, but can eventually become severe and persistent. The pain is alleviated by taking a break and exacerbated by activities like kneeling, running, or jumping.

      Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults

      Knee problems are common in children and young adults, and can be caused by a variety of conditions. Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that affects teenage girls and is characterized by softening of the cartilage of the patella. This can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. However, it usually responds well to physiotherapy.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle. Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking. Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella, and the knee may give way. Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys and causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. It is tender below the patella on examination.

      It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis. Understanding the key features of these common knee problems can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      102.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are the on-call doctor for the afternoon clinic and have received an...

    Incorrect

    • You are the on-call doctor for the afternoon clinic and have received an email from a consultant psychiatrist regarding a patient with bipolar disorder who is registered at your practice. The psychiatrist has just reviewed the patient and increased their lithium dose from 200 mg to 400 mg daily. The patient has already started taking the new dose. As the duty doctor, when should you schedule the next lithium level check for this patient?

      Your Answer: 10 days after change

      Correct Answer: 1 week after change

      Explanation:

      Following a change in dosage, it is recommended to monitor lithium levels one week later and continue to do so on a weekly basis until the levels stabilize. Checking lithium levels three days after a dosage change may not provide accurate results as the medication may not have reached a steady state. However, it is crucial to not delay monitoring for more than a week as an increase in lithium dosage can increase the risk of toxicity. Neglecting to monitor lithium levels can be unsafe.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.

      Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      402.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are discussing smoking cessation with a patient in their 60s newly diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • You are discussing smoking cessation with a patient in their 60s newly diagnosed with COPD.

      You wish to use the 'stages of change' model, which is comprised of:

      A Action
      B Contemplation
      C Maintenance
      D precontemplation
      E Preparation

      Which of the following correctly orders the listed stages in the 'stages of change' model?

      Your Answer: E D B A C

      Correct Answer: A D C B E

      Explanation:

      The Stages of Change Model for Smoking Cessation

      The ‘stages of change’ model is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to categorize a patient’s readiness to act on a new health behavior, such as smoking cessation. The correct order of the model is precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance.

      It is important to determine where the patient fits in the model to tailor the approach accordingly. Patients in the earlier stages may benefit from education on the benefits of quitting smoking and increasing their awareness of the positive outcomes. This can help them move towards the later stages of the model.

      Patients in the later stages may require more direct intervention, such as pharmacological management with nicotine replacement or varenicline, and advice on preventing relapse. By utilizing the stages of change model, healthcare professionals can provide personalized care and support for patients seeking to quit smoking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      101.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man has a serum cholesterol of 6.5 mmol/l on routine testing....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has a serum cholesterol of 6.5 mmol/l on routine testing. His low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol is 3.8 mmol/l. His triglyceride level is within the normal range.
      What is the most likely mode of inheritance of this condition?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Correct Answer: Polygenic inheritance

      Explanation:

      Types of Inheritance in Hypercholesterolaemia

      Hypercholesterolaemia, or high cholesterol, can be inherited through different types of genetic inheritance. Polygenic inheritance is the most common cause of elevated serum cholesterol concentrations, involving several genes and worsened by environmental factors. Autosomal dominant familial hypercholesterolaemia is the most common type, with high LDL levels and an increased risk for coronary heart disease. Autosomal recessive familial hypercholesterolaemia is rare and has a similar phenotype to homozygous autosomal-dominant disease. Environmental factors such as diet, obesity, and a sedentary lifestyle can also contribute to high cholesterol levels. However, hypercholesterolaemia is not inherited in an X-linked manner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the most valuable tool for assessing a patient with suspected occupational...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most valuable tool for assessing a patient with suspected occupational asthma?

      Your Answer: Serial measurements of ventilatory function performed before, during, and after work

      Correct Answer: Documentation of a known sensitising agent at the patient's workplace

      Explanation:

      Understanding Occupational Asthma

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by conditions and factors present in a particular work environment. It is characterized by variable air flow limitation and/or airway hyper-responsiveness. This type of asthma accounts for about 10% of adult asthma cases.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, there are several investigations that are proven to be effective. These include serial peak flow measurements at and away from work, specific IgE assay or skin prick testing, and specific inhalation testing. If there is a consistent fall in peak flow values and increased intraday variability on working days, and improvement on days away from work, then occupational asthma is confirmed.

      It is important to understand occupational asthma and its causes to prevent and manage this condition effectively. Proper diagnosis and management can help individuals continue to work safely and maintain their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      180.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A trial is proposed to see whether excess alcohol use is a risk...

    Incorrect

    • A trial is proposed to see whether excess alcohol use is a risk factor for osteoporosis. It is decided to perform a case-control study rather than a cohort study.

      What is an advantage of a case-control study?

      Your Answer: It is possible to control for all aspects of bias

      Correct Answer: It is possible to study exposure to unusual risk factors

      Explanation:

      Advantages and Limitations of Case-Control Studies

      A case-control study is a type of research that compares the characteristics of patients with a particular disease to a control group of patients who do not have the disease. This type of study is particularly useful for investigating unusual risk factors, as a wide range of factors can be explored without the risk of loss to follow up. Results are typically presented as an odds ratio.

      While case-control studies can provide valuable information on specific questions, they do have limitations. For example, it is not possible to control for all sources of bias, and factors that are identified as potentially causative may not actually be related to the disease in question. Additionally, incidence cannot be directly measured from a case-control study.

      Despite these limitations, case-control studies have been instrumental in providing insights into the relationship between various risk factors and diseases. Examples include studies on hormone replacement therapy and breast cancer risk, as well as studies on alcohol consumption and the risk of osteoporosis. Overall, case-control studies are a valuable tool for researchers, but must be interpreted with caution and in the context of other available evidence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      159.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old female attends surgery requesting a sterilisation because she has completed her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female attends surgery requesting a sterilisation because she has completed her family.

      You discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the procedure with her fully.

      Which of the following pieces of information would you give?

      Your Answer: There are no contraceptive methods as effective as sterilisation

      Correct Answer: Overall failure rates of the procedure are approximately 1 in 200

      Explanation:

      Sterilisation as a Permanent Contraceptive Method

      Sterilisation is a permanent contraceptive method with an overall failure rate of approximately 1 per 200. However, the individual failure rate may be lower depending on the method used. It is important to note that sterilisation should be considered permanent, even though reversal is possible. This is because it is an operation performed with the intention of being permanent and reversal cannot be guaranteed.

      The proportion of women expressing regret after undergoing sterilisation varies between different studies and different countries but tends to range from 3% to 10% in the United Kingdom. Sterilisation is usually done laparoscopically, although methods involving a vaginal approach are possible.

      It is crucial to counsel patients about the effectiveness of other contraceptive methods that are as effective as sterilisation. Patients may not be aware of this, and it may alter their decision. For some, a long-acting form of contraception such as the intrauterine system (Mirena) may be more acceptable and preferable. Therefore, it is essential to discuss all available options with patients to help them make an informed decision about their contraceptive choices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      118
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A new antiplatelet agent has been proven to reduce the risk of heart...

    Incorrect

    • A new antiplatelet agent has been proven to reduce the risk of heart attack in a year from 15% in patients treated with conventional treatment to 10% in patients treated with conventional treatment plus the new agent.

      The cost of this new drug is £150 per month.

      How much extra would a hospital need to spend over the course of a year to prevent one heart attack?

      Your Answer: £18,000

      Correct Answer: £30,000

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Cost to Prevent Stroke

      The calculation of the cost to prevent a stroke involves determining the absolute risk reduction and the number needed to treat. In this case, the absolute risk reduction is 4%, which means that 25 patients would need to be treated to prevent one stroke. Assuming a cost of £100 per month for 12 months, the total cost to prevent a stroke would be £30,000. This calculation is important for healthcare providers and policymakers to consider when making decisions about the allocation of resources for stroke prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      232.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old mother who has not accessed antenatal care gives birth to a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old mother who has not accessed antenatal care gives birth to a 2 kg baby. The baby becomes agitated, with a high-pitched cry, tremor, sweating, excessive yawning, and a high respiratory rate 24 hours after delivery. What is the most likely substance abused during this pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Heroin

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Withdrawal Symptoms and Associated Substance Use During Pregnancy

      Neonatal withdrawal symptoms can occur when a baby is born to a mother who has used certain substances during pregnancy. Opiate withdrawal is characterized by classic symptoms such as sweating, yawning, vomiting, diarrhea, and seizures, and typically begins 24-48 hours after birth. Cocaine withdrawal can cause tremors, agitation, and difficulty feeding, and is associated with intrauterine growth restriction. Alcohol use during pregnancy can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which presents with craniofacial features, low birth weight, and neurodevelopmental dysfunction. Cannabis use is not typically associated with poor outcomes, while heavy use may lead to growth restriction and sudden infant death syndrome. Methadone withdrawal typically begins 48-72 hours after birth and presents with symptoms similar to opiate withdrawal. Antenatal care can help identify substance use during pregnancy and provide additional support and monitoring for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      111.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 75-year-old woman is experiencing fatigue and shortness of breath. She appears to...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman is experiencing fatigue and shortness of breath. She appears to be anaemic and the following blood test results are significant:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Haemoglobin 68 g/l 115-155 g/l
      White cell count 2.6 x 109/l 4.0-11.0 x 109/l
      Platelets 160 x 109/l 150-400 x 109/l
      Reticulocyte count 0.75% 0.5%-1.5%
      Mean corpuscular volume 135 fl 76-98 fl
      Ferritin 110 μg/l 10-120 μg/l
      What is the most probable cause of her anaemia?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Macrocytosis and its Differential Diagnosis

      Macrocytosis is a condition characterized by the presence of abnormally large red blood cells in the bloodstream. While there are several possible causes of macrocytosis, one of the most common is vitamin B12 deficiency. This deficiency can lead to anaemia and macrocytosis, with a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 130 femtolitres or more being a strong indicator of B12 deficiency.

      Other potential causes of macrocytosis include drug-induced effects, excessive alcohol intake, and human immunodeficiency virus infection. However, these conditions may not necessarily lead to anaemia unless poor nutrition is also a factor.

      Myelodysplasia and aplastic anaemia are also in the differential diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency, but the MCV level can help differentiate between these conditions. If the MCV is between 100-110 femtolitres, other causes of macrocytosis should be considered.

      Overall, understanding the potential causes of macrocytosis and their differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      79.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the doctor by her mother. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the doctor by her mother. She has been experiencing a cold for the past few days but has been generally healthy and has not had a fever. Her mother has brought her to see you because she has developed some spots over the past day. During the examination, the child is cooperative and happy, with a normal heart rate and capillary refill time. She has a runny nose and her throat appears inflamed, but there is no exudate. You also notice a small ulcer on her mucous membranes. There are two small red papules at the edge of her lower lip, and there are a few vesicles and red papules on the palmar aspect of her hands. Her chest is clear, and her tympanic membranes are normal.

      What is the recommended duration for keeping her away from daycare?

      Your Answer: Four days after onset of illness

      Correct Answer: No exclusion required

      Explanation:

      Children with hand foot and mouth infection can attend school or nursery as long as they are well enough to do so, and do not need to be excluded. This is because the infection is typically mild and self-limiting. However, if the child has a fever, they should be kept at home. It is important to note that exclusion periods for other illnesses, such as Chickenpox, rubella, measles, scarlet fever, and impetigo, differ from those for hand foot and mouth. For more information on exclusion periods, refer to the Public Health Agency website.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.

      Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      92.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old woman’s mother has been diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. She wants to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman’s mother has been diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. She wants to know how likely it is that she will inherit the condition.

      What is the correct mode of inheritance for this condition?

      Your Answer: Autosomal-recessive

      Correct Answer: Autosomal-dominant

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inheritance Pattern of Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of this disease in order to assess the risk of developing it.

      Huntington’s disease is an autosomal-dominant trait, which means that a person only needs one copy of the affected gene to develop the disorder. This also means that if a parent has the disease, their child has a 50% chance of inheriting it.

      It is important to note that Huntington’s disease does run in families and is caused by a defect in a single gene (huntingtin) on chromosome 4. However, it doesn’t follow an X-linked dominant pattern of inheritance, as both men and women are equally affected.

      In summary, understanding the inheritance pattern of Huntington’s disease can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and potential risk for developing the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      52
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You are contemplating prescribing enalapril for a patient with recently diagnosed heart failure....

    Incorrect

    • You are contemplating prescribing enalapril for a patient with recently diagnosed heart failure. What are the most typical side-effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cough + anaphylactoid reactions + hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - What is the most appropriate next step in managing a patient with erectile...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate next step in managing a patient with erectile dysfunction who has a reduced morning serum total testosterone level?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action

      Explanation:

      Testing for Reduced Serum Testosterone

      Patients who exhibit symptoms of reduced serum testosterone should undergo a repeat test, preferably in the morning, along with FSH, LH, and prolactin. This helps determine which part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis is affected. It is crucial to take action as the patient may have an underlying endocrinological cause. If the repeat test shows abnormal results, referral to a secondary care physician is necessary. The physician may then consider treatments such as testogel or nebido.

      In summary, testing for reduced serum testosterone is essential in diagnosing and treating patients with symptoms of low testosterone levels. A repeat test, along with other hormone tests, can help identify the root cause of the problem and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 20 - What factors in a patient's medical record could potentially elevate natriuretic peptide levels...

    Incorrect

    • What factors in a patient's medical record could potentially elevate natriuretic peptide levels (such as NT-proBNP) that are utilized to evaluate possible heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Explanation:

      Natriuretic Peptide Levels in Heart Failure Assessment

      Natriuretic peptide levels, specifically NT-ProBNP levels, are utilized in the evaluation of heart failure to determine the likelihood of diagnosis and the urgency of any necessary referral. These levels can be influenced by various factors.

      Factors that can decrease natriuretic peptide levels include a body mass index over 35 kg/m2, diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, beta blockers, and aldosterone antagonists. On the other hand, factors that can increase natriuretic peptide levels include age over 70, left ventricular hypertrophy, myocardial ischaemia, tachycardia, right ventricular overload, hypoxia, pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary embolism, chronic kidney disease with an eGFR less than 60 mL/min/1.73m2, sepsis, COPD, diabetes mellitus, and liver cirrhosis.

      It is important to consider these factors when interpreting natriuretic peptide levels in the assessment of heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 21 - What is the most suitable first-line medication for a 75-year-old woman with depression...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable first-line medication for a 75-year-old woman with depression in primary care, assuming there are no contraindications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptylline

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Options for Treating Depression in the Elderly

      There are several pharmacological options available for treating depression in the elderly, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), tricyclics, monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). However, all medications carry the risk of side effects, which may be more problematic in older patients who are more likely to be on additional medications and more susceptible to iatrogenic disease.

      A 2006 Cochrane review found that SSRIs and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were of equivalent efficacy, but TCAs were associated with a greater withdrawal rate due to side effects. The general view based on available evidence is that SSRIs are better tolerated and generally safer, although there are instances when a TCA may be more appropriate. For example, its sedative properties can be useful when a sleep disorder is part of the clinical problem.

      Of the options, sertraline is the only SSRI and is generally considered the most appropriate first-line treatment option in the absence of contraindications. Amitriptyline is a TCA and would generally not be used ahead of an SSRI. MAOIs should be prescribed by a specialist, and venlafaxine is considered a second-line option due to its greater risk of death from overdose. Haloperidol, an antipsychotic, should not be considered as an initial option in the treatment of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old lady presents to your clinic after receiving a health screen at...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old lady presents to your clinic after receiving a health screen at a private clinic. The results showed a slightly elevated CA 125 level of 55 (normal range 0-35). She provides you with a printout of her normal FBC, LFT, U&E, height, weight, and ECG. Her QRisk2 score is 8.4%. During the consultation, she mentions experiencing occasional bloating, but a VE examination reveals no abnormalities. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an ultrasound scan of her abdomen and pelvis

      Explanation:

      Elevated Ca125 and Normal Examination: What to Do Next?

      This patient has an elevated Ca125 but a normal examination. Although the elevated result was detected during screening, she admits to experiencing bloating, which can be an early symptom of ovarian cancer. However, it’s important to note that Ca125 can be elevated for non-malignancy reasons, and if the ovarian cancer is not epithelial in origin, the Ca125 can be normal.

      According to NICE guidelines, if a woman has symptoms that suggest ovarian cancer, serum CA125 should be measured in primary care. If the serum CA125 is 35 IU/ml or greater, an ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be arranged. If the ultrasound suggests ovarian cancer, the woman should be referred urgently for further investigation.

      If a woman has a normal serum CA125 (less than 35 IU/ml) or a CA125 of 35 IU/ml or greater but a normal ultrasound, she should be assessed carefully for other clinical causes of her symptoms and investigated if appropriate. If no other clinical cause is apparent, she should be advised to return to her GP if her symptoms become more frequent and/or persistent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old man with type 2 diabetic attends annual review at the GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with type 2 diabetic attends annual review at the GP practice.

      His current treatment consists of: aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, simvastatin 40 mg ON, metformin 1g BD, pioglitazone 45 mg OD and glibenclamide 15 mg OD.

      He complains of episodes of blurred vision and feeling lightheaded. He has taken his blood sugar during one of these episodes and it was 2.3.

      Which one of his medicines is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glibenclamide

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypoglycaemic Episodes and Sulphonylureas

      This gentleman is experiencing hypoglycaemic episodes that are causing symptoms of blurred vision and lightheadedness. The most likely cause of these episodes is the sulphonylurea he is taking. Sulphonylureas stimulate insulin secretion, which can cause significant problems with hypoglycaemia. On the other hand, metformin increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis, while pioglitazone reduces insulin resistance. Hypoglycaemia is uncommon with pioglitazone, and metformin doesn’t cause it.

      Glibenclamide is a long-acting sulphonylurea that is associated with a greater risk of hypoglycaemia. It should be avoided in the elderly, and shorter-acting alternatives, such as gliclazide, are more appropriate. The above patient is also on the maximum dose, which increases the risk of hypoglycaemia further. Therefore, glibenclamide is the correct answer. Understanding the relationship between hypoglycaemic episodes and sulphonylureas is crucial in managing diabetes and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old woman presents with dysuria and suprapubic pain for the past 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with dysuria and suprapubic pain for the past 3 days. She reports feeling increasingly unwell and feverish over the last 24 hours. What symptom would suggest 'red flag' sepsis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heart rate 136/min

      Explanation:

      In recent years, there has been a push to enhance the handling of septic patients in secondary healthcare settings. This endeavor is now shifting towards primary care and aims to enhance the identification and prompt treatment of such patients.

      Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. The Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognise sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, while septic shock is a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favour, with quick SOFA (qSOFA) score being used to identify adult patients outside of ICU with suspected infection who are at heightened risk of mortality.

      Management of sepsis involves identifying and treating the underlying cause of the patient’s condition, as well as providing support regardless of the cause or severity. NICE guidelines recommend using red flag and amber flag criteria for risk stratification. If any of the red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started straight away, which includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.

      To help identify and categorise patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasising the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 25 - Among the given options, what is considered as the primary risk factor for...

    Incorrect

    • Among the given options, what is considered as the primary risk factor for the onset of depression? Please choose only one.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic physical illness

      Explanation:

      Factors that Influence the Risk of Depression

      Depression is a complex illness with various factors that can influence its development. These factors include genetic, biochemical, endocrine, neurophysiological, psychological, and social processes. Physical illnesses, especially chronic ones, can increase the risk of depression, which has led to the emphasis on physical and endocrine theories of causation. Neuroimaging has also reinforced the idea of depression as a disorder of brain structure and function, while psychological findings highlight the importance of cognitive and emotional processes. Intrauterine infections, particularly viral infections, have been linked to an increased risk of schizophrenia. On the other hand, high self-esteem is likely to be protective against depression. Women are more likely to experience depressive disorders than men, and not having a confiding relationship with another person is a risk factor. Therefore, marriage is often considered protective against depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 26 - A 5-year-old girl presents with a three-day history of paroxysms of colicky central...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with a three-day history of paroxysms of colicky central abdominal pain and bile-stained vomiting. The abdomen feels full and tender. Some red mucous has been passed from the rectum.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Abdominal Pain in Children: Intussusception as the Most Likely Diagnosis

      Intussusception is a common cause of intestinal obstruction in young children. It occurs when a section of bowel invaginates into the section next to it, leading to the sloughing off of ischaemic bowel mucosa and the characteristic redcurrant jelly stool. In most cases, the cause of intussusception is unclear, but in some cases, a pathological lead-point may be present. Meckel’s diverticulum is the most common lead-point, but an enlarged Peyer patch caused by a viral infection may also be a factor.

      Other potential causes of abdominal pain in children include intestinal duplication, appendicitis, and Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). Intestinal duplication is a rare congenital malformation that may present as a solid or cystic tumor, intussusception, perforation, or bleeding. Appendicitis is most common in older children and typically presents with central abdominal pain that localizes to the right iliac fossa. HSP may cause abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and bloody diarrhea, but it is typically accompanied by a purpuric rash, which is absent in this scenario.

      Overall, given the age of the patient and the presence of a tender mass in the upper abdomen and emptiness in the right lower quadrant, intussusception is the most likely diagnosis. A lead-point may be present, making non-operative reduction unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old woman complains of neck pain. Yesterday she was stopped at a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman complains of neck pain. Yesterday she was stopped at a red light when a car rear-ended her, causing her to jolt forward. She did not experience any neck pain immediately after the incident. However, it has gradually worsened since yesterday evening and she woke up with it today. Her neurological and musculoskeletal examinations are normal, and she has no tenderness in the midline of her cervical spine. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer oral analgesia

      Explanation:

      Management of Whiplash Neck Injury: Recommendations and Precautions

      Whiplash neck injuries are caused by sudden movements of the neck, such as extension, flexion, or rotation. To manage the pain associated with this injury, oral analgesics should be offered based on the severity of the pain, personal preferences, tolerability, and risk of adverse effects. However, certain factors such as age, mechanism of injury, paraesthesiae, tenderness, or altered consciousness may indicate a serious neck injury and require immediate assessment in the Emergency Department.

      While muscle relaxants like diazepam are not recommended for whiplash injuries, a cervical spine MRI may be useful in patients with upper limb radicular symptoms, weakness, radicular pain, myelopathy, or severe neck pain associated with a neurological deficit. Antidepressants like sertraline are not recommended for the management of whiplash injuries. Therefore, it is important to follow the recommended precautions and treatment options to ensure proper management of whiplash neck injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 28 - A 67-year-old man who had a stroke 2 years ago is being evaluated....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man who had a stroke 2 years ago is being evaluated. He was prescribed simvastatin 40 mg for secondary prevention of further cardiovascular disease after his diagnosis. A fasting lipid profile was conducted last week and the results are as follows:

      Total cholesterol 5.2 mmol/l
      HDL cholesterol 1.1 mmol/l
      LDL cholesterol 4.0 mmol/l
      Triglyceride 1.6 mmol/l

      Based on the latest NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Switch to atorvastatin 80 mg on

      Explanation:

      In 2014, the NICE guidelines were updated regarding the use of statins for primary and secondary prevention. Patients with established cardiovascular disease are now recommended to be treated with Atorvastatin 80 mg. If the LDL cholesterol levels remain high, it is suitable to consider switching the patient’s medication.

      Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines

      Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - Which patient with cardiac issues would you deem suitable for air travel? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which patient with cardiac issues would you deem suitable for air travel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patient who had an uncomplicated myocardial infarction (MI) two days ago

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fitness to Fly Guidelines for Medical Conditions

      Fitness to fly can be a complex topic, and it is important to advise patients to consult their airline for specific policies regarding their medical condition. The UK Civil Aviation Authority’s aviation health unit has produced guidelines for healthcare professionals to clarify fitness to fly for various medical conditions. These guidelines provide a concise overview of key points that are commonly encountered in general practice.

      When it comes to cardiovascular contraindications for commercial airline flights, there are several factors to consider. For example, patients who have had an uncomplicated myocardial infarction within the last seven days or a coronary artery bypass graft within the last ten days are not fit to travel. However, patients who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention/stenting may be fit to travel after a minimum of five days, but they require medical assessment. Additionally, patients with unstable angina or uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia should not fly.

      It is important to note that different sources may provide slightly different guidance on fitness to fly. However, the CAA guidelines are considered the closest to national guidance and are likely to be used in examination questions. Examining bodies may also choose answers that fall within the reference range of multiple accredited sources to avoid controversial answers. Overall, understanding fitness to fly guidelines for medical conditions is crucial for ensuring the safety and well-being of patients during air travel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - An 80-year-old man who lives alone is evaluated. He has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man who lives alone is evaluated. He has a history of dementia. His neighbors are becoming worried about his behavior as they frequently observe him wandering outside in a seemingly disoriented state. You believe he may require a care package or residential care, but he adamantly refuses to consider such an option. Which legal framework is the most suitable for addressing this matter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mental Capacity Act

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate legal framework to use for non-mental health disorders is the Mental Capacity Act. This act, which was established in 2005 and implemented in 2007, applies to individuals over the age of 16 and outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity encompasses the ability to make decisions regarding daily life, healthcare, and financial matters.

      The Mental Capacity Act is based on five key principles. Firstly, a person is assumed to have capacity unless it is proven otherwise. Secondly, a person should not be considered unable to make a decision unless all possible steps have been taken to assist them in doing so. Thirdly, a person should not be deemed incapable of making a decision simply because they make an unwise choice. Fourthly, any action or decision made on behalf of a person who lacks capacity must be in their best interests. Finally, before any action or decision is taken, consideration must be given to whether there is a less restrictive way to achieve the desired outcome that respects the person’s rights and freedom.

      When patients lack capacity, they are typically treated without issue. However, problems arise when these patients refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest. In such cases, there are three frameworks that can be used: common law for emergency scenarios, the Mental Capacity Act for physical disorders affecting brain function, and the Mental Health Act for mental disorders. For patients already admitted to hospital, a section 5(2) may be used if there is not enough time for a more formal section 2 or 3. An example of this would be a patient with a mental health disorder attempting to discharge themselves, which could result in harm. For a more detailed review, the BMJ article When and how to treat patients who refuse treatment provides an excellent resource.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (1/3) 33%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Genomic Medicine (0/2) 0%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/2) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Passmed