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  • Question 1 - Depression of the eyeball is primarily produced by which of the following muscles: ...

    Correct

    • Depression of the eyeball is primarily produced by which of the following muscles:

      Your Answer: Inferior rectus and superior oblique

      Explanation:

      Depression of the eyeball is produced by the inferior rectus and the superior oblique muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is not true regarding the structure and function of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not true regarding the structure and function of glomerular filtration membrane?

      Your Answer: Filtration slits allow free passage of water and ions

      Correct Answer: The absence of a basement membrane reduces impedance to filtration

      Explanation:

      The glomerular filtration membrane is composed of fenestrated capillary endothelium, basement membrane, and filtration slits. It is an organized, semipermeable membrane preventing the passage of most of the proteins into the urine. The anatomical arrangement of the glomerular filtration membrane maximizes the surface area available for filtration. The arrangement of its arterioles results in high hydrostatic pressures and facilitates filtration. Fenestrated capillary endothelium of the glomerular filtration membrane is with relatively large pores. It allows the free movement of plasma proteins and solutes but still restricts the movement of blood cells. Filtration slits are the smallest filters and restrict the movement of plasma proteins but still allow free movement of ions and nutrients. The glomerular basement membrane (GBM) is a critical component of the glomerular filtration membrane. Thus, it is not true that its absence will reduce the resistance of flow. The basement membrane is true to be more selective and contains negatively charged glycoproteins. However, it still allows free passage of water, nutrients, and ions. Severe structural abnormalities of the GBM can result in protein (albumin) leakage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      90.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You review a patient with urinary sepsis and decide to start her on...

    Correct

    • You review a patient with urinary sepsis and decide to start her on gentamicin.Which statement about gentamicin is true?

      Your Answer: Ototoxicity is a dose-related effect

      Explanation:

      Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, acts by binding to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA, and thus prevents initiation of protein synthesis.Gentamicin is given by injection because it is NOT absorbed orally. It is excreted in the kidneys by glomerular filtrationGentamicin is not to be used for the treatment of Neisseria meningitidis, Neisseria gonorrhoea, or Legionella pneumophila.There is a risk of patient going into shock from lipid A endotoxin release.Two of its most notable side effects are hearing loss reversible nephrotoxicity and which are both dose-related and levels should be monitored in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 62-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room....

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room. You diagnose him with an acute coronary syndrome and prescribe enoxaparin as part of his treatment plan.Enoxaparin inactivates which of the following?

      Your Answer: Thrombin

      Explanation:

      Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that works in the same way as heparin by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III. Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin by forming a 1:1 complex with it. Factor Xa and a few other clotting proteases are also inhibited by the heparin-antithrombin III complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following immunoglobulins is most important for mast cell degranulation: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following immunoglobulins is most important for mast cell degranulation:

      Your Answer: IgE

      Explanation:

      IgA is the major Ig in secretions, particularly from the gastrointestinal tract (but also in saliva, tears, sweat and breast milk).IgE is important for mast cell degranulation in allergic and antiparasitic response. In the allergic response, the plasma cell produces IgE-antibodies, which, like antibodies of other immunoglobulin isotypes, are capable of binding a specific allergen via its Fab portion.IgG is the most abundant in plasma (comprising 80% of normal serum immunoglobulin) and the main circulatory Ig for the secondary immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following clinical features is a feature of a chronic extravascular...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical features is a feature of a chronic extravascular haemolytic anaemia:

      Your Answer: Hypocellular bone marrow

      Correct Answer: Gallstones

      Explanation:

      Clinical features of haemolytic anaemia include:AnaemiaJaundice (caused by unconjugated bilirubin in plasma, bilirubin is absent from urine)Pigment gallstonesSplenomegalyAnkle ulcersExpansion of marrow with, in children, bone expansion e.g. frontal bossing in beta-thalassaemia majorAplastic crisis caused by parvovirus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Anatomical barriers to infection include all of the following EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Anatomical barriers to infection include all of the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Acidic pH of vaginal secretions

      Correct Answer: Mucociliary escalator in the gastrointestinal tract

      Explanation:

      Anatomical barriers to infection include:tight junctions between cells of the skin and mucosal membranesthe flushing action of tears, saliva and urinethe mucociliary escalator in the respiratory tract (together with the actions of coughing and sneezing)the acidic pH of gastric and vaginal secretionsthe acidic pH of the skin (maintained by lactic acid and fatty acids in sebum)enzymes such as lysozyme found in saliva, sweat and tearspepsin present in the stomachbiological commensal flora formed on the skin and the respiratory, gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts which protect the host by competing with pathogenic bacteria for nutrients and attachment sites and by producing antibacterial substances

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following accurately describes the extensor pollicis brevis muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following accurately describes the extensor pollicis brevis muscle?

      Your Answer: Its tendon forms the medial border of the anatomical snuffbox

      Correct Answer: It lies on the medial side of abductor pollicis longus

      Explanation:

      Extensor pollicis brevis is a short and slender muscle located in the posterior compartment of the forearm, extending from the posterior surface of radius to the proximal phalanx of thumb. It is one of the deep extensors of the forearm, together with supinator, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus and extensor indicis muscles.Extensor pollicis brevis is a deep extensor of the thumb that lies deep to extensor digitorum muscle. It sits directly medial to abductor pollicis longus and posterolateral to extensor pollicis longus muscle. Just above the wrist, extensor pollicis brevis obliquely crosses the tendons of extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor carpi radialis longus muscles.Extensor pollicis brevis is innervated by posterior interosseous nerve which is a continuation of a deep branch of radial nerve (root value C7 and C8).Extensor pollicis brevis receives its blood supply by posterior interosseous artery and perforating branches from the anterior interosseous artery, which are the branches of common interosseous artery. The common interosseous artery arises immediately below the tuberosity of radius from the ulnar artery.Together with extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis is in charge of extension of the thumb in the first metacarpophalangeal joint. It also extends the thumb in the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb. This movement is important in the anatomy of the grip, as it enables letting go of an object. As it crosses the wrist, extensor pollicis brevis also participates in the extension and abduction of this joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 57-year-old male presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and swelling...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old male presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and swelling in the left knee joint. On examination, the left knee is swollen, tender and erythematous. The patient is booked for joint aspiration, and a diagnosis of pseudogout is made following the aspiration. Which types of crystals would be seen in the joint aspirate to lead to this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Positively birefringent brick-shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Gout and pseudogout are both characterised by crystal deposition in the affected joints. The deposition of urate crystals causes gout, while calcium pyrophosphate crystals cause pseudogout. The crystals can be distinguished microscopically because urate crystals are negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals, whilst calcium pyrophosphate crystals are positively birefringent brick-shaped crystals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      188.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is NOT a notifiable disease: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a notifiable disease:

      Your Answer: Food poisoning

      Correct Answer: HIV

      Explanation:

      HIV mainly infects CD4+ T helper cells. Viral replication results in progressive T-cell depletion and impaired cell-mediated immunity with subsequent secondary opportunistic infections and increased risk of malignancy. B-cell function is also reduced as a result of lack of T-cell stimulation.HIV is not a notifiable disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for the symptoms of a patient...

    Correct

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for the symptoms of a patient with history of recurrent herpes simplex outbreaks on his face and presents with ophthalmic herpes zoster and a painful vesicle on the tip of his nose?

      Your Answer: Nasociliary nerve

      Explanation:

      Hutchinson sign relates to involvement of the tip of the nose from facial herpes zoster. It implies involvement of the external nasal branch of the nasociliary nerve which is a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. The nasociliary branch of the trigeminal nerve innervates the apex and lateral aspect of the nose, as well as the cornea. Therefore, lesions on the side or tip of the nose should raise suspicion of ocular involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient diagnosed with cranial nerve palsy exhibits asymmetrical movement of the palate,...

    Incorrect

    • A patient diagnosed with cranial nerve palsy exhibits asymmetrical movement of the palate, nasal regurgitation of food, and nasal quality to the voice. Which of the following cranial nerves is most likely responsible for the aforementioned features?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerve, ‘the wanderer’, contains motor fibres (to the palate and vocal cords), sensory components (posterior and floor of external acoustic meatus) and visceral afferent and efferent fibres. Palatal weakness can cause nasal speech and nasal regurgitation of food. The palate moves asymmetrically when the patient says ‘ahh’. Recurrent nerve palsy results in hoarseness, loss of volume and ‘bovine cough’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 30 year old man presents to ED after a road traffic accident....

    Correct

    • A 30 year old man presents to ED after a road traffic accident. Free intraperitoneal fluid is found on FAST (Focussed assessment for sonography in trauma) done in the supine position. Which of these is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Hepatorenal recess

      Explanation:

      Fluid accumulates most often in the hepatorenal pouch (of Morrison) in a supine patient. The hepatorenal pouch is located behind the liver and anterior to the right kidney and is the lowest space in the peritoneal cavity in the supine position.Although the vesicouterine and rectouterine spaces are also potential spaces for fluid accumulation, fluid accumulation in them occur in the erect position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      50.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. The cardiology...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. The cardiology team recently discharged him. He underwent a procedure and was given several medications, including abciximab, during his stay. Which of the following statements about abciximab is correct?

      Your Answer: It is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor agonist

      Correct Answer: The platelet count should be checked 2-4 hours after starting treatment

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.It’s approved for use as a supplement to heparin and aspirin in high-risk patients undergoing percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention to prevent ischaemic complications. Only one dose of abciximab should be given (to avoid additional risk of thrombocytopenia).

      Before using, it is recommended that baseline prothrombin time, activated clotting time, activated partial thromboplastin time, platelet count, haemoglobin, and haematocrit be measured. 12 and 24 hours after starting treatment, haemoglobin and haematocrit should be measured again, as should platelet count 2-4 hours and 24 hours after starting treatment.

      When used for high-risk patients undergoing angioplasty, the EPIC trial found that abciximab reduced the risk of death, myocardial infarction, repeat angioplasty, bypass surgery, and balloon pump insertion.The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:

      Internal bleeding is present.

      Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.

      Stroke in the previous two yearsIntracranial tumour

      Aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation

      Haemorrhagic diathesis

      Vasculitis

      Retinopathy caused by hypertension

      The following are some of the most common abciximab side effects:

      Manifestations of bleeding

      Bradycardia

      Back ache

      Pain in the chest

      Vomiting and nausea

      Pain at the puncture site

      Thrombocytopenia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following best describes the popliteal artery's course? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the popliteal artery's course?

      Your Answer: Begins at the mid-thigh as a continuation of the femoral artery

      Correct Answer: After exiting the popliteal fossa terminates at the lower border of the popliteus muscle

      Explanation:

      The popliteal artery divides into the anterior and posterior tibial arteries at the lower border of the popliteus after exiting the popliteal fossa between the gastrocnemius and popliteus muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 22-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sore throat, low-grade...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sore throat, low-grade fever, and malaise. His partner has infectious mononucleosis, which was recently diagnosed. In this situation, which of the following cells is the most proliferative:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Histologic findings in EBV infectious mononucleosis: Oropharyngeal epithelium demonstrates an intense lymphoproliferative response in the cells of the oropharynx. The lymph nodes and spleen show lymphocytic infiltration primarily in the periphery of a lymph node.Relative lymphocytosis (≥ 60%) plus atypical lymphocytosis (≥ 10%) are the characteristic findings of Epstein Barr virus (EBV) infectious mononucleosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following statements is correct with regards to immunoglobulin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct with regards to immunoglobulin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The isotype of immunoglobulin is determined by the heavy chain.

      Explanation:

      The composition of immunoglobulin molecules is two identical heavy and two identical light chains. These chains are linked by disulphide bridges and are each have highly variable regions which give the immunoglobulin its specificity. In addition, they have constant regions and there is virtual complete correspondence in amino acid sequence in all antibodies of a given isotype. Five isotypes of immunoglobulin exist – these are IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE and IgD. They are determined by the heavy chain (gamma, alpha, mu, epsilon or delta respectively). The light chains are either kappa or lambda.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of Hodgkin lymphoma: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of Hodgkin lymphoma:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basophilia

      Explanation:

      Features may include:Normochromic normocytic anaemia is most common; bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease, but if it occurs bone marrow failure may develop with leucoerythroblastic anaemiaOne-third of patients have a neutrophilia; eosinophilia is frequentAdvanced disease is associated with lymphopenia and loss of cell-mediated immunityPlatelet count is normal or increased in early disease and reduced in later stagesESR and CRP are usually raised (ESR is useful in monitoring disease progress)Serum LDH is raised initially in 30-40% of casesDiagnosis is made by histological examination of an excised lymph nodeThe distinctive multinucleate polypoid RS cell is central to the diagnosis of the four classic types of HL (95% of cases)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 26-year-old woman is currently 9 weeks pregnant. Upon interview and history taking,...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman is currently 9 weeks pregnant. Upon interview and history taking, she mentioned that she visited a friend whose child had just been diagnosed with slapped cheek disease.If the mother contracts an illness during pregnancy, which among the following is not known to cause fetal abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A usually doesn’t pose a special risk to a pregnant woman or her baby. Maternal infection doesn’t result in birth defects, and a mother typically doesn’t transmit the infection to her baby. HAV is almost always transmitted by the faecal-oral route and is usually acquired through close personal contact or via contaminated food.When a woman has chickenpox in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, there is a 1 in 50 chance for the baby to develop a set of birth defects. This is called the congenital varicella syndrome. It includes scars, defects of muscle and bone, malformed and paralyzed limbs, small head size, blindness, seizures, and intellectual disability.TORCH Syndrome refers to infection of a developing foetus or newborn by any of a group of infectious agents. “TORCH” is an acronym meaning (T)toxoplasmosis, (O)ther Agents, (R)ubella (also known as German Measles), (C)ytomegalovirus, and (H)erpes Simplex.Infection with any of these agents may cause a constellation of similar symptoms in affected newborns. These may include fever; difficulties feeding; small areas of bleeding under the skin, causing the appearance of small reddish or purplish spots; enlargement of the liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly); yellowish discoloration of the skin, whites of the eyes, and mucous membranes (jaundice); hearing impairment; abnormalities of the eyes; and other symptoms and findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 19-year-old woman presents with dysuria and vaginal discharge. A swab was taken...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman presents with dysuria and vaginal discharge. A swab was taken for culture. Culture results showed the presence of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection. Treatment of azithromycin and doxycycline was started.Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Throat swabs can be used for diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a Gram-negative diplococcus that causes gonorrhoea. Gonorrhoea is an acute pyogenic infection of nonciliated columnar and transitional epithelium; infection can be established at any site where these cells are found. Gonococcal infections are primarily acquired by sexual contact and occur primarily in the urethra, endocervix, anal canal, pharynx, and conjunctiva.In men, acute urethritis, usually resulting in purulent discharge and dysuria (painful urination), is the most common manifestation. The endocervix is the most common site of infection in women. Symptoms of infection, when present, include dysuria, cervical discharge, and lower abdominal pain. Some cases in women may be asymptomatic leading to complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease. Blood-borne dissemination occurs in less than 1% of all infections, resulting in purulent arthritis and rarely septicaemia. Fever and a rash on the extremities can also be present. Other conditions associated with N. gonorrhoeae include anorectal and oropharyngeal infections. Infections in these sites are more common in men who have sex with men but can also occur in women. Pharyngitis is the chief complaint in symptomatic oropharyngeal infections, whereas discharge, rectal pain, or bloody stools may be seen in rectal gonorrhoea. Approximately 30% to 60% of women with genital gonorrhoea have concurrent rectal infection. Newborns can acquire ophthalmia neonatorum, a gonococcal eye infection, during vaginal delivery through an infected birth canal. Specimens collected for the recovery of N. gonorrhoeae may come from genital sources or from other sites, such as the rectum, pharynx, and jointfluid. According to the 2010 STD Treatment guidelines, cephalosporins (e.g., ceftriaxone, cefixime) are currently recommended treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 22-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance from her GP surgery with...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance from her GP surgery with suspected meningitis. She has been given a dose of benzylpenicillin already.What is the mechanism of action of benzylpenicillin? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Penicillins and the other ß-lactam antibiotics are bactericidal. They produce their antimicrobial action by preventing cross-linkage between the linear peptidoglycan polymer chains that make up the bacterial cell wall. They, therefore, inhibit cell wall synthesis.An overview of the different mechanisms of action of the various types of antimicrobial agents is shown below:Mechanism of actionExamplesInhibition of cell wall synthesisPenicillinsCephalosporinsVancomycinDisruption of cell membrane functionPolymyxinsNystatinAmphotericin BInhibition of protein synthesisMacrolidesAminoglycosidesTetracyclinesChloramphenicolInhibition of nucleic acid synthesisQuinolonesTrimethoprim5-nitroimidazolesRifampicinAnti-metabolic activitySulfonamidesIsoniazid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following intravenous induction drugs results in the highest drop in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following intravenous induction drugs results in the highest drop in blood pressure:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Propofol’s most frequent side effect is hypotension, which affects 17% of paediatric patients and 26% of adults. This is attributable to systemic vasodilation as well as a decrease in preload and afterload. Propofol has a little negative inotropic impact as well. The drop in blood pressure is dosage-dependent and is more noticeable in the elderly, thus this should be expected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 72-year-old man presents with chest pain that is characteristic of angina. You...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with chest pain that is characteristic of angina. You administer a dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), which rapidly resolved his symptoms. Unfortunately, he also develops an unpleasant side effect.Which of the following side effects is he most likely to have developed? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Nitrates are used in the treatment of angina pectoris and the prevention of myocardial ischaemia. Commonly used examples of nitrates are glyceryl trinitrate and isosorbide dinitrate. Unwanted effects, however, are common and can limit therapy, particularly when angina is severe or when patients are unusually sensitive to the effects of nitrates.The following are common or very common side effects of nitratesArrhythmiasAstheniaCerebral ischaemiaDizzinessDrowsinessFlushingHeadacheHypotensionNausea and vomitingDiarrhoea, syncope and cyanosis can occur, but these are rare side effects. Dry eyes, bradycardia and metabolic acidosis have not been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A fracture on which of the following structures is associated with a posterior...

    Incorrect

    • A fracture on which of the following structures is associated with a posterior elbow dislocation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial head

      Explanation:

      Fracture dislocations of the elbow appear extremely complex, and identification of the basic injury patterns can facilitate management. The simplest pattern of elbow fracture dislocation is posterior dislocation of the elbow with fracture of the radial head. Addition of a coronoid fracture, no matter how small, to elbow dislocation and radial head fracture is called the terrible triad of the elbow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following terms describes the proportion of individuals with a negative...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following terms describes the proportion of individuals with a negative test result who actually do not have a disease:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Negative predictive value

      Explanation:

      Negative predictive value (NPV) is the proportion of individuals with a negative test result who do not have the disease.NPV = d/(c+d)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 20-year-old male receives a small cut over his hand while climbing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male receives a small cut over his hand while climbing a fence causing it to bleed. Upon applying pressure for a few minutes, the bleeding stops. Which one of the following physiological components of the blood is responsible for the primary haemostasis reaction, such as in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Platelet plug formation

      Explanation:

      Haemostasis is your body’s defence against an injury that causes bleeding. It stops bleeding in three main steps: 1) Primary haemostasis – formation of a weak platelet plug- The primary reaction of the body is to cause local vasoconstriction at the site of injury and decrease blood flow to the affected area- the release of cytokines and inflammatory markers lead to adhesion of platelets and aggregation at the site of injury forming a platelet plug- the injured vessel wall has exposed subendothelial collagen that releases von Willebrand factor Any damage to the vessel wall causes the release of the Von Willebrand factor, which is necessary for platelet adhesion. Tissue Thromboplastin is also released, which activates the coagulation pathway, a component of secondary haemostasis. The coagulation cascade ultimately results in the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.2) Secondary haemostasis 3) Fibrinolysis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing his heart medication. Verapamil immediate-release 240 mg is the tablet he takes for this condition, he says. He took the pills about 30 minutes ago, but his wife discovered him right away and rushed him to the emergency room.At the moment, he is completely symptom-free. When it comes to this type of overdose, how long does it usually take for symptoms to appear?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1-2 hours

      Explanation:

      Overdosing on calcium-channel blockers should always be taken seriously and regarded as potentially fatal. Verapamil and diltiazem are the two most lethal calcium channel blockers in overdose. These work by binding the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, preventing calcium from entering the cell. In cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells, these channels play an important role.>10 tablets of verapamil (160 mg or 240 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules) or diltiazem can cause serious toxicity (180 mg, 240 mg or 360 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules)In children, 1-2 tablets of verapamil or diltiazem (immediate or sustained-release)Symptoms usually appear within 1-2 hours of ingestion with standard preparations. However, with slow-release preparations, significant toxicity may take 12-16 hours to manifest, with peak effects occurring after 24 hours.The following are the main clinical features of calcium-channel blocker overdose:Nausea and vomitingHypotensionBradycardia and first-degree heart blockMyocardial ischaemia and strokeRenal failurePulmonary oedemaHyperglycaemiaThe following are some of the most important bedside investigations to conduct:Blood glucoseECGArterial blood gasOther investigations that can be helpful includeUrea & electrolytesChest X-ray (pulmonary oedema)Echocardiography

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome and has a history of weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome and has a history of weight gain, hypertension, and easy bruising.Which of these assertions about Cushing's syndrome is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diagnosis can be confirmed by a dexamethasone suppression test

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids.Iatrogenic corticosteroid injection is the most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome. Cushing’s illness is the second most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome. Cushing’s disease is distinct from Cushing’s syndrome in that it refers to a single cause of the illness, a pituitary adenoma that secretes high quantities of ACTH, which raises cortisol levels.Because cortisol enhances the vasoconstrictive impact of endogenous adrenaline, patients with Cushing’s syndrome are usually hypertensive.Hyperglycaemia (due to insulin resistance) rather than hypoglycaemia is a common symptom.Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep. The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater throughout the 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed.A dexamethasone suppression test or a 24-hour urine free cortisol collection can both be used to establish the existence of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old patient who has been in a car accident needs to be...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient who has been in a car accident needs to be intubated using a rapid sequence induction. As an induction agent, you intend to use etomidate.Etomidate works by interacting with which type of receptor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

      Explanation:

      Etomidate is a carboxylated imidazole derivative with a short half-life that is primarily used to induce anaesthesia.It is thought to modulate fast inhibitory synaptic transmission in the central nervous system by acting on GABA type A receptors.The dose for anaesthesia induction is 0.3 mg/kg. Etomidate takes 10-65 seconds to take effect after an intravenous injection, and it lasts 6-8 minutes. With repeated administration, the effects are non-cumulative.The relative cardiovascular stability of etomidate is noteworthy. During induction, it causes less hypotension than thiopental sodium and propofol. It’s also linked to a quick recovery without the hangover.Etomidate is a strong steroidogenesis inhibitor. The drug inhibits the enzymes responsible for adrenal 11 beta-hydroxylase and cholesterol cleavage, resulting in a decrease in cortisol and aldosterone synthesis for up to 24 hours after administration. It should not be used to maintain anaesthesia because of the adrenocortical suppression.Other side effects associated with etomidate use include:Vomiting and nauseaThe injection causes pain (in up to 50 percent )Phlebitis and thrombosis of the veinsHeart block and arrhythmiasHyperventilationApnoea and respiratory depressionIt has the potential to cause both hypo- and hypertension.Critically ill patients have a higher mortality rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - Regarding the foetal oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve, which of the following statements is CORRECT:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the foetal oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The HbF dissociation curve lies to the left of that for HbA.

      Explanation:

      Foetal haemoglobin (HbF) has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin (HbA) because it’s gamma chains bind 2,3-DPG less avidly than beta chains of HbA. The HbF dissociation curve lies to the left of that for HbA. In the placenta PCO2moves from the foetal to the maternal circulation, shifting the maternal curve further right and the foetal curve further left (the double Bohr effect). The higher affinity of HbF relative to HbA helps transfer oxygen from mother to foetus. Therefore even through blood returning from the placenta to the foetus in the umbilical vein has a PO2of only about 4 kPa, its saturation is 70%. Oxygen transport in the foetus is also helped by a high Hb of about 170 – 180 g/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (2/5) 40%
Head And Neck (1/1) 100%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Renal Physiology (0/1) 0%
Infections (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (2/4) 50%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Immune Responses (1/1) 100%
Pathology (2/3) 67%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Principles (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/1) 100%
Central Nervous System (0/1) 0%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
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