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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old nulliparous woman arrives at the emergency department with a positive home...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old nulliparous woman arrives at the emergency department with a positive home pregnancy test and symptoms of diarrhoea and mild abdominal discomfort that have been present for 6 hours. She has not been using any regular contraception and her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. The patient has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease. A transvaginal ultrasound shows a 40mm foetal sac at the ampulla of the fallopian tube without a visible heartbeat, and her serum B-HCG level is 1200 IU/L. What is the definitive indication for surgical management in this case?

      Your Answer: Foetal sac size

      Explanation:

      Surgical management is recommended for all ectopic pregnancies with a foetal sac larger than 35mm or a serum B-hCG level exceeding 5,000 IU/L, as per NICE guidelines. Foetal sacs larger than 35mm are at a higher risk of spontaneous rupture, making expectant or medical management unsuitable. The size of the foetal sac is measured using transvaginal ultrasound. Detection of a foetal heartbeat on transvaginal ultrasound requires urgent surgical management. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease is not an indication for surgical management, although it is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy. Serum HCG levels between 1,500IU/L and 5,000 IU/L may be managed medically if the patient can return for follow-up and has no significant abdominal pain or haemodynamic instability. A septate uterus is not an indication for surgical management of ectopic pregnancy, but it may increase the risk of miscarriage.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 52-year-old female visits her GP complaining of hot flashes, irritability, and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old female visits her GP complaining of hot flashes, irritability, and a 7-month history of lighter periods that have become more irregular. The GP diagnoses her as perimenopausal and prescribes Elleste duet tablets (estradiol + norethisterone) as sequential combined HRT since she has not had a total abdominal hysterectomy. The GP discusses the potential risks with the patient. What is the most crucial risk to mention regarding the norethisterone component?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of endometrial carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      The risk of breast cancer is increased when progesterone is added to HRT. However, it is important to note that the risk is minimal and patients should be informed of this. According to the Women Health Institute, if 1000 women on HRT for 5 years were compared to 1000 women not on HRT for 5 years, there would only be 4 more cases of breast cancer. Women who start HRT under the age of 60 are not at an increased risk of dying from cardiovascular disease. Norethisterone, a progesterone, reduces the risk of endometrial carcinoma, so women with a uterus are always started on combined HRT. Women without a uterus are started on unopposed oestrogen. While HRT may increase the risk of headaches, this is less important to mention compared to the risk of breast cancer.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old woman, with a history of ulcerative colitis, presents with a history...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman, with a history of ulcerative colitis, presents with a history of heavy, painful periods. She reports regular periods, lasting seven days.
      During the first three days, she has to wear both a tampon and sanitary pads and has to take time off work due to the embarrassment of flooding and dizziness. She declined contraception, as she is trying for a baby.
      A pelvic ultrasound revealed two small fibroids (< 3 cm in size) in the uterus, and a full blood count was as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 95 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 73 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 390 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Iron 12 μg/dl 50 to 170 µg/dl
      Ferritin 5 μg/l 10–120 μg/l
      What is the best first-line treatment for this patient's menorrhagia if she is 29 years old?

      Your Answer: Tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Menorrhagia Secondary to Fibroids

      Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids is a common gynecological problem that can significantly impact a woman’s quality of life. There are several management options available, depending on the severity of symptoms, the patient’s desire for fertility preservation, and the presence of other medical conditions.

      Tranexamic acid is the first-line medical management option for women with menorrhagia secondary to fibroids who do not want contraception. It is an antifibrinolytic agent that reduces bleeding by inhibiting the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. Hormonal therapies, such as combined oral contraceptives, are not indicated in this scenario.

      Surgical options, such as myomectomy, endometrial ablation, or hysterectomy, may be considered if medical management fails or the patient declines medication. Myomectomy is a surgical procedure that removes fibroids while preserving the uterus and fertility. However, fibroids can recur following myomectomy. Hysterectomy is the only definitive method of management, but it is only recommended for women who have completed their family.

      Iron supplementation with ferrous sulfate is appropriate for patients with iron deficiency anemia secondary to menorrhagia. Mefenamic acid, an NSAID, is contraindicated in patients with inflammatory bowel disease due to the increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (Mirena® coil) is recommended as the first-line treatment for menorrhagia without underlying pathology, suspected or diagnosed adenomyosis, or small fibroids that do not cause uterine distortion, but it is not appropriate for women who want to conceive.

      In conclusion, the management of menorrhagia secondary to fibroids requires a tailored approach that takes into account the patient’s symptoms, desire for fertility preservation, and medical history. A multidisciplinary team approach involving gynecologists, hematologists, and other specialists may be necessary to provide optimal care.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth comes to the gynaecology clinic...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth comes to the gynaecology clinic complaining of worsening menstrual pain over the past three years. Despite taking ibuprofen, she has found no relief. She is sexually active with her husband and experiences pain during intercourse. Additionally, she has dysuria and urgency when urinating. She has been trying to conceive for two years without success. During the examination, her uterus appears normal in size, but there is tenderness and uterosacral nodularity upon rectovaginal examination.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia, and subfertility are classic signs of endometriosis, a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. The presence of uterosacral nodularity and tenderness further supports this diagnosis. Some patients with endometriosis may also experience urinary symptoms due to bladder involvement or adhesions. Uterine leiomyoma, or fibroid, is a common pelvic tumor that causes abnormal uterine bleeding, pelvic pressure and pain, and reproductive dysfunction. However, it does not typically present with uterosacral nodularity and tenderness on rectal examination. Interstitial cystitis causes urinary frequency and urgency, with pain relieved upon voiding. Pelvic inflammatory disease presents with fever, nausea, acute pain, malodorous vaginal discharge, and cervical motion tenderness/adnexal tenderness.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman has presented to your clinic for postmenopausal bleeding. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has presented to your clinic for postmenopausal bleeding. During the medical history, you inquire about her medical and family history to identify any factors that may elevate her risk of endometrial cancer. What factors are linked to an increased risk of endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Use of combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: HNPCC/Lynch syndrome

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer is strongly linked to HNPCC/Lynch syndrome, while the use of combined oral contraceptives can help reduce the risk. Other factors that increase the risk of endometrial cancer include obesity, a higher number of ovulations (due to factors such as early menarche, late menopause, and fewer pregnancies), certain medications like tamoxifen, and medical conditions like diabetes and polycystic ovarian syndrome. Anorexia, the Mirena coil, and familial adenomatous polyposis are not considered risk factors for endometrial cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - As a junior doctor working in a GP practice, a 14-year-old girl comes...

    Correct

    • As a junior doctor working in a GP practice, a 14-year-old girl comes to see you seeking a prescription for the oral contraceptive pill. Upon further inquiry, she discloses that she is sexually active with her 15-year-old boyfriend. She refuses to discuss the matter with her parents and asserts that she will continue to engage in sexual activity even if she does not receive the pill. She has no medical issues, and her blood pressure is normal. What is your course of action?

      Your Answer: Give her a prescription for the contraceptive pill but encourage her to discuss this with a parent

      Explanation:

      According to the GMC’s good medical practice advice, healthcare professionals can provide contraceptive, abortion, and STI advice and treatment to individuals aged 0-18 years without parental knowledge or consent if certain criteria are met. These include ensuring that the individual fully understands the advice and its implications, not persuading them to tell their parents or allowing you to do so, and determining that their physical or mental health is likely to suffer without such advice or treatment. Confidentiality should be maintained even if advice or treatment is not provided. In this scenario, the correct course of action is to prescribe the pill as the young girl fulfills the Fraser guidelines. Breaking confidentiality, as suggested in answer 4, is not recommended by the GMC guidelines. Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

      When it comes to providing contraception to young people, there are legal and ethical considerations to take into account. In the UK, the age of consent for sexual activity is 16 years, but practitioners may still offer advice and contraception to young people they deem competent. The Fraser Guidelines are often used to assess a young person’s competence. Children under the age of 13 are considered unable to consent to sexual intercourse, and consultations regarding this age group should trigger child protection measures automatically.

      It’s important to advise young people to have STI tests 2 and 12 weeks after an incident of unprotected sexual intercourse. Long-acting reversible contraceptive methods (LARCs) are often the best choice for young people, as they may be less reliable in remembering to take medication. However, there are concerns about the effect of progesterone-only injections (Depo-provera) on bone mineral density, and the UKMEC category of the IUS and IUD is 2 for women under the age of 20 years, meaning they may not be the best choice. The progesterone-only implant (Nexplanon) is therefore the LARC of choice for young people.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old female presents with a one day history of dysuria and urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents with a one day history of dysuria and urinary frequency. She was diagnosed with a simple urinary tract infection and prescribed a three day course of ciprofloxacin. She returns two weeks later with new onset vaginal discharge. A whiff test is negative and no clue cells are observed on microscopy.
      What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: The strain of the likely causative agent is intrinsically resistant to the antibiotic

      Correct Answer: The patients vaginal discharge is most likely caused by a fungal infection

      Explanation:

      Thrush, also known as candidal infection, is a prevalent condition that is often triggered or worsened by recent use of antibiotics. Therefore, it is the most probable reason for the symptoms in this case. It should be noted that urinary tract infections do not typically cause vaginal discharge.

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 59-year-old woman presents to the GP with vaginal dryness for the past...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old woman presents to the GP with vaginal dryness for the past 4 weeks and occasional small amounts of vaginal bleeding after intercourse. She denies any pain, dysuria, or changes in bowel habits. Her last period was 2 years ago and she has unprotected sexual intercourse with her husband, who is her only partner. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and obesity.

      On examination, her abdomen and pelvis appear normal. What would be the most suitable course of action in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to secondary care

      Explanation:

      If a woman is 55 years old or older and experiences postmenopausal bleeding (which occurs after 12 months of no menstruation), she should be referred for further evaluation within 2 weeks using the suspected cancer pathway to rule out endometrial cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman, presenting with a 4-month history of severe mood swings, breast...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman, presenting with a 4-month history of severe mood swings, breast tenderness and reduced cognitive ability to perform functions at work, comes for a review with her diary of symptoms corresponding to a period of three cycles. She attends work regularly during these episodes and goes out with friends, but does not enjoy it as much and is less productive.
      Going through the diary, symptoms occur during the luteal phase and resolve 2–3 days into menstruation.
      Blood tests, including thyroid function tests, are normal. She has tried the progesterone implant, which made her symptoms worse; therefore, she is not currently using any contraception.
      A diagnosis of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is made.
      Which of the following is the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)

      Explanation:

      Management of Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) is a diagnosis of exclusion, characterized by cyclical psychological, behavioral, and physical symptoms during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. The exact causes are not yet identified, but studies suggest that the effects of hormones on serotonin and GABA signaling may have a significant role, in addition to psychological and environmental factors.

      For moderate PMS, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of new-generation combined oral contraceptives, which prevent the natural cyclical change in hormones seen in the physiological menstrual cycle. Continuous use, rather than cyclical, showed better improvement. Response is unpredictable, and NICE suggests a trial of three months, and then to review.

      Referral to a specialist clinic is reserved for women who have severe PMS, resistant to medication, that cannot be managed in the community. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, has been used successfully in the treatment of women with severe PMS symptoms or in women with moderate PMS that fails to respond to other treatments.

      Lifestyle modification advice is given to patients with mild PMS, including regular exercise, restriction in alcohol intake, smoking cessation, regular meals, regular sleep, and stress reduction. St John’s wort, an over-the-counter herbal remedy, has shown improvement of symptoms in some studies, but its safety profile is unknown, and it can interact with prescribed medication. Its use is at the discretion of the individual, but the patient needs to be warned of the potential risks.

      Management Options for Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 22-year-old law student, with a history of cyclical pelvic pain and dysmenorrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old law student, with a history of cyclical pelvic pain and dysmenorrhoea not responding to paracetamol is attending her follow-up appointment to receive the histology results of her diagnostic laparoscopy. She does not want to conceive at present and uses barrier methods of contraception. She has asthma, which is well controlled with inhalers but was made worse in the past when she took some painkillers.
      The histology report concludes that: ‘The peritoneal deposits, submitted in their entirety, contain evidence of endometrial glands and stroma surrounded by red blood cells and a mixed chronic inflammatory cell infiltrate’. The operation notes say that all deposits seen were removed.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Endometriosis-Related Pain: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals

      Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus, causing pain and discomfort. Hormonal contraception is an effective treatment option for women who do not wish to conceive. The combined oral contraceptive pill suppresses ovarian function and limits the effect of estrogen on endometrial tissue. progesterone-containing contraceptives cause atrophy of the endometrial tissue. A trial of three months is recommended before reassessment.

      Hysterectomy is indicated for adenomyosis or heavy menstrual bleeding that has not resolved with other treatments. A hysteroscopy is not necessary for a newly diagnosed young patient. A trial of ibuprofen or combination therapy is the first step in pain management, but NSAIDs are contraindicated for asthmatic patients who have already tried paracetamol.

      Further laparoscopy for excision and/or ablation of endometriotic deposits is indicated if there is further disease. However, if all visible deposits were removed during diagnostic laparoscopy, a further laparoscopy is not necessary at present.

      Ovarian cystectomy is recommended for women with endometriotic cysts who are concerned about fertility. Laparoscopic removal of the cyst wall can improve the chances of spontaneous pregnancy and reduce the risk of recurrence of endometriomas. These guidelines are based on NICE recommendations.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A 26-year-old female patient visits your clinic six days after having unprotected sex...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits your clinic six days after having unprotected sex following her recent vacation. She mentions having a consistent 28-day menstrual cycle with ovulation occurring around day 14, and she is currently on day 16 of her cycle. What is the most suitable emergency contraception method for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine system

      Correct Answer: Copper intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      The copper intrauterine device is a viable option for emergency contraception if inserted within 5 days after the first unprotected sexual intercourse in a cycle or within 5 days of the earliest estimated ovulation date, whichever is later. It can be inserted up to 120 hours after unprotected sex, but if the patient presents after this time period, it can still be inserted up to 5 days after the earliest predicted ovulation date, which is typically 14 days before the start of the next cycle for patients with a regular 28-day cycle. It should be noted that the intrauterine system cannot be used for emergency contraception, and options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect as they fall outside of the recommended time frame.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old teacher visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of abnormal discharge...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old teacher visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of abnormal discharge and vaginal discomfort. She also reports experiencing dyspareunia. During a speculum examination, the GP observes a curdy, white discharge covering the vaginal walls with a non-offensive odour. The GP also notes some vulval excoriations. What infection is likely causing this woman's discharge?

      Your Answer: Candidiasis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Vaginal Discharge: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Vaginal discharge is a common symptom experienced by women, and it can be caused by various infections. Here are some of the most common causes of vaginal discharge, along with their symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment options.

      Candidiasis: This infection is caused by Candida fungi, particularly Candida albicans. Symptoms include vaginal itch, thick discharge with a consistency similar to cottage cheese, vaginal discomfort, and pain during sexual intercourse. Diagnosis is usually clinical, and treatment includes good hygiene, emollients, loose-fitting underwear, and antifungal cream or pessary, or oral antifungal medication.

      Trichomoniasis: This infection is caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. Symptoms include dysuria, itch, and yellow-green discharge that can have a strong odor. Up to 50% of infected individuals are asymptomatic.

      Bacterial vaginosis: This infection is caused by an overgrowth of anaerobes in the vagina, most commonly Gardnerella vaginalis. Symptoms include a thin, white discharge, vaginal pH >4.5, and clue cells seen on microscopy. Treatment of choice is oral metronidazole.

      Streptococcal infection: Streptococcal vulvovaginitis presents with inflammation, itch, and a strong-smelling vaginal discharge. It is most commonly seen in pre-pubertal girls.

      Chlamydia: Although Chlamydia infection can present with urethral purulent discharge and dyspareunia, most infected individuals are asymptomatic. Chlamydia-associated discharge is typically more purulent and yellow-clear in appearance, rather than cheese-like.

      In conclusion, proper diagnosis and treatment of vaginal discharge depend on identifying the underlying cause. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any symptoms of vaginal discharge.

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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman visits the fertility clinic with her partner. She has a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits the fertility clinic with her partner. She has a record of consistent 35-day menstrual cycles. What is the most effective test to determine ovulation?

      Your Answer: Day 28 progesterone

      Explanation:

      The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle remains constant at 14 days, while the follicular phase can vary. The serum progesterone level reaches its peak 7 days after ovulation. For a 35-day cycle, the follicular phase would be 21 days (with ovulation occurring on day 21) and the luteal phase would be 14 days, resulting in the progesterone level peaking on day 28 (35-7). However, relying on day 21 progesterone levels would only be useful for women with a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days. While basal body temperature charting can be used to track ovulation, it is not the recommended method by NICE. An increase in basal temperature after ovulation can indicate successful ovulation.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine smear test and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine smear test and is found to be HPV positive. A follow-up cytology swab reveals normal cells. She is asked to return for a second HPV swab after 12 months, which comes back negative. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat HPV test in 3 years

      Correct Answer: Repeat HPV test in 5 years

      Explanation:

      If the 2nd repeat smear at 24 months shows a negative result for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can return to routine recall for cervical cancer screening. Since the patient is over 50 years old, a smear test should be taken every 5 years as part of routine recall. It is not necessary to perform a cytology swab or refer the patient to colposcopy as a negative HPV result does not indicate the presence of cervical cancer. Additionally, repeating the HPV test in 3 years is not necessary for this patient as it is only the routine recall protocol for patients aged 25-49.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraceptive options as she is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraceptive options as she is in a committed relationship. She has been diagnosed with partial epilepsy and takes carbamazepine regularly. Additionally, she has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding. Apart from this, her medical history is unremarkable. What would be the most suitable contraception method for her at present?

      Your Answer: Depo- provera

      Correct Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena)

      Explanation:

      When choosing a contraceptive method, individual preferences and any cautions or contraindications must be taken into account. In this case, the priority is to find a method that won’t be affected by carbamazepine’s enzyme-inducing effect, such as the intrauterine system. While the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) could help with heavy bleeding, its failure rate would be high due to enzyme induction. Nexplanon may cause heavy bleeding and its low progesterone dose would also be affected by enzyme induction. Depo-Provera is an option, but prolonged use in young individuals could lead to reduced bone density. The Mirena intrauterine system would be effective in reducing heavy bleeding and providing reliable contraception alongside the anti-epileptic medication.

      Contraception for Women with Epilepsy

      Women with epilepsy need to consider several factors when choosing a contraceptive method. Firstly, they need to consider how the contraceptive may affect the effectiveness of their anti-epileptic medication. Secondly, they need to consider how their anti-epileptic medication may affect the effectiveness of the contraceptive. Lastly, they need to consider the potential teratogenic effects of their anti-epileptic medication if they become pregnant.

      To address these concerns, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) recommends that women with epilepsy consistently use condoms in addition to other forms of contraception. For women taking certain anti-epileptic medications such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, primidone, topiramate, and oxcarbazepine, the FSRH recommends the use of the COCP and POP as UKMEC 3, the implant as UKMEC 2, and the Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS as UKMEC 1.

      For women taking lamotrigine, the FSRH recommends the use of the COCP as UKMEC 3 and the POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS as UKMEC 1. If a COCP is chosen, it should contain a minimum of 30 µg of ethinylestradiol. By considering these recommendations, women with epilepsy can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and ensure the safety and effectiveness of their chosen method.

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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of yellow vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of yellow vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal odor, vulvar itching, and pain while urinating. During the examination, the PCP notices a purulent discharge and a patchy erythematous lesion on the cervix. The PCP suspects Trichomonas vaginalis as the possible diagnosis. What would be the most suitable investigation to assist in the diagnosis of T. vaginalis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cervical swab

      Correct Answer: Wet mount and high vaginal swab

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Testing for Trichomoniasis: A Common STD

      Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted disease caused by the protozoan parasite T. vaginalis. While both men and women can be affected, women are more likely to experience symptoms. Diagnosis of trichomoniasis is typically made through wet mount microscopy and direct visualisation, with DNA amplification techniques offering higher sensitivity. Urine testing is not considered the gold standard, and cervical swabs are not sensitive enough. Treatment involves a single dose of metronidazole, and sexual partners should be treated simultaneously. Trichomoniasis may increase susceptibility to HIV infection and transmission. Symptoms in women include a yellow-green vaginal discharge with a strong odour, dysuria, pain on intercourse, and vaginal itching. Men may experience penile irritation, mild discharge, dysuria, or pain after ejaculation.

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  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old woman with a lengthy history of vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman with a lengthy history of vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus complains of escalating itching and bleeding upon contact of the vulva. Upon examination, a 2.2 cm unilateral ulcer with an aggressive appearance is discovered. Biopsy results indicate invasive squamous cell carcinoma. There is no clinical indication of lymph node metastasis, and the patient is in good health. What is the suggested course of action?

      Your Answer: Simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Vulval Cancer: Simple Vulvectomy and Bilateral Inguinal Lymphadenectomy

      Vulval cancer is a rare form of cancer that accounts for less than 1% of cancer diagnoses. The labia majora are the most common site, followed by labia minora. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of vulval cancer, with carcinoma-in-situ being a precursor lesion that does not invade through the basement membrane. Risk factors for developing vulval cancer include increasing age, exposure to HPV, vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, smoking, and immunosuppression.

      Patients may present with symptoms such as itching, pain, easy-contact bleeding of the vulva, changes in vulval skin, or frank ulcers/masses. The first lymph node station for metastases is the inguinal group. Surgery is the primary treatment for vulval cancer, with a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy being the usual surgery performed, even in the absence of clinically palpable groin lymph nodes.

      Radiotherapy is commonly used before and/or after surgery depending on the stage of the disease, but it is not curative and would not be offered in isolation to an otherwise healthy patient. Chemotherapy is not usually used as a primary treatment but is offered in disseminated malignancy. Wide local excision is only used for lesions less than 2 cm in diameter with a depth of less than 1 mm. Lesions larger than this require vulvectomy and lymph node clearance due to the risk of metastasis.

      In conclusion, a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy are the mainstay of treatment for vulval cancer, with radiotherapy and chemotherapy being used in certain cases. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with vulval cancer.

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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the out-of-hours clinic seeking emergency contraception. She is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the out-of-hours clinic seeking emergency contraception. She is currently on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and reports having taken each pill regularly for the first 7 days of her cycle. However, she forgot to pack her contraception while on a weekend trip and missed 2 doses. She had unprotected sexual intercourse during this time. Upon returning home, she resumed taking her COCP on day 10 of her cycle. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: No emergency contraception required and barrier contraception for next 7 days

      Explanation:

      If a woman misses two COCP doses between days 8-14 of her menstrual cycle, emergency contraception is not necessary as long as the previous seven doses were taken correctly. In this case, the woman missed doses on days 8 and 9 but resumed taking the medication on day 10, so emergency contraception is not needed. However, until seven consecutive days of the COCP are taken, using barrier contraception or abstaining from sex is recommended to prevent pregnancy. The intrauterine system is not a form of emergency contraception, and introducing it in this situation is unnecessary. Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraception option that must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sex, but it is not needed in this case. If the patient had missed more than two COCP doses, levonorgestrel and barrier contraception for seven days would be appropriate. Ulipristal acetate is another emergency contraception option that must be taken within five days of unprotected sex, but it is also not necessary in this situation. If it were indicated, barrier contraception would need to be used for the next seven days until the COCP takes effect.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

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  • Question 19 - A 15-year-old girl is brought in by her parents who are concerned about...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought in by her parents who are concerned about her lack of menstruation. They have noticed that all her friends have already started their periods and are worried that something may be wrong with her. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
      FSH 12 IU/L (4-8)
      LH 13 IU/L (4-8)
      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      If a patient with primary amenorrhea has elevated FSH/LH levels, it may indicate gonadal dysgenesis, such as Turner’s syndrome.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

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  • Question 20 - A 16-year-old girl is brought to the general practitioner by her mother who...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought to the general practitioner by her mother who is concerned about her. She has experienced irregular and unpredictable uterine bleeding during the last 2 years. Her menses started at age 14 and have always varied in amount, duration and timing. The mother states that her older daughter who is 22 years old now had normal menses at teenage years. There is no adnexal mass or tenderness.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding

      Correct Answer: Anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Young Women

      Abnormal uterine bleeding is a common problem among young women, especially within the first years of menarche. There are several possible causes, including anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding, cervical cancer, ovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding, submucosal leiomyoma, and prolactinoma.

      Anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding occurs when the hormonal axis that regulates the menstrual cycle is not fully matured. This can lead to irregular and unpredictable bleeding due to the lack of ovulation and the resulting hyperoestrogenic state that induces endometrial hyperplasia.

      Cervical cancer is associated with human papillomavirus infection and other risk factors such as smoking, early intercourse, multiple sexual partners, oral contraceptive use, and immunosuppression. It can cause vaginal spotting, post-coital bleeding, dyspareunia, and vaginal discharge.

      Ovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding is caused by excessive production of vasoconstrictive prostaglandins in the endometrium during a menstrual period. This can result in more severe and prolonged bleeding associated with painful uterine contractions.

      Submucosal leiomyoma is a benign neoplastic mass that protrudes into the intrauterine cavity and can cause metrorrhagia or menorrhagia. It is rare in young women.

      Prolactinoma can result in oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea or anovulation and metromenorrhagia by inhibiting the action of hypothalamic gonadotrophin-releasing hormone on the anterior pituitary gland. This leads to reduced follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinising hormone secretion, resulting in abnormal uterine bleeding.

      In conclusion, abnormal uterine bleeding in young women can have various causes, and a proper diagnosis is essential for appropriate treatment. Anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding is the most likely cause in this case due to the patient’s age.

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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue, bloating, and significant weight loss over...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue, bloating, and significant weight loss over the past two months. She visits her GP, who discovers that two of her first-degree relatives died from cancer after asking further questions. During the physical examination, the GP observes an abdominal mass and distension. The GP is concerned about the symptoms and orders a CA-125 test, which returns as elevated. What gene mutation carries the greatest risk for the condition indicated by high CA-125 levels?

      Your Answer: BRCA1

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s symptoms and an elevated level of CA-125, it is likely that she has ovarian cancer. Additionally, her family history of cancer in first-degree relatives and early onset cancer suggest the possibility of an inherited cancer-related gene. One such gene is BRCA1, which increases the risk of ovarian and breast cancer in those who have inherited a mutated copy. Other tumour suppressor genes, such as WT1 for Wilm’s tumour, Rb for retinoblastoma, and c-Myc for Burkitt lymphoma, confer a higher risk for other types of cancer.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

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  • Question 22 - A 27-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her Micronor pill (progesterone-only) this...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her Micronor pill (progesterone-only) this morning and is uncertain about what to do. She typically takes the pill at approximately 08:30, and it is currently 10:00. What guidance should be provided?

      Your Answer: Take missed pill now and no further action needed

      Explanation:

      progesterone Only Pill: What to Do When You Miss a Pill

      The progesterone only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to note that the rules for the two types of pills should not be confused. The traditional POPs (Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, Femulen) and Cerazette (desogestrel) have the following guidelines for missed pills:

      – If the pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
      – If the pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e., more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
      – If the pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
      – If the pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e., more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.

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  • Question 23 - What is the appropriate management for endometrial cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate management for endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Chemotherapy is used more extensively in treatment than radiotherapy

      Correct Answer: Most patients present with stage 1 disease, and are therefore amenable to surgery alone

      Explanation:

      1. The initial stage of endometrial cancer typically involves a hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy.
      2. Diagnosis of endometrial cancer requires an endometrial biopsy.
      3. Radiotherapy is the preferred treatment over chemotherapy, especially for high-risk patients after a hysterectomy or in cases of pelvic recurrence.
      4. Lymphadenectomy is not typically recommended as a routine procedure.
      5. Progestogens are no longer commonly used in the treatment of endometrial cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

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  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old female presents with menorrhagia that has not responded to treatment with...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female presents with menorrhagia that has not responded to treatment with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

      She underwent sterilisation two years ago.

      What would be the most suitable treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Menorrhagia

      Menorrhagia, or heavy menstrual bleeding, can be a distressing condition for women. Current guidelines recommend the use of Mirena (IUS) as the first line of treatment, even for women who do not require contraception. Patient preference is important in the decision-making process, but IUS is still the preferred option.

      If IUS is not suitable or preferred, there are several other treatment options available. Tranexamic acid, a medication that prevents the breakdown of blood clots, is a second-line option. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and combined oral contraceptive pills can also be used to prevent the proliferation of the endometrium.

      If these options are not effective, oral or injected progestogens can be used to prevent endometrial proliferation. Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists, such as Goserelin, are also available as a last resort.

      It is important for women to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and choose the treatment that is best for them. With the variety of options available, there is likely a treatment that can effectively manage menorrhagia and improve quality of life.

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  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old married woman has been struggling with infertility for a while. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old married woman has been struggling with infertility for a while. Upon undergoing an ultrasound, it was discovered that her ovaries are enlarged. She has also been experiencing scant or absent menses, but her external genitalia appears normal. Additionally, she has gained weight without explanation and developed hirsutism. Hormonal tests indicate decreased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and increased luteinising hormone (LH), increased androgens, and undetectable beta human chorionic gonadotropin. What is the most likely cause of her condition?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS) and Related Conditions

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a hormonal disorder that affects women of reproductive age. It is characterized by enlarged ovaries with many atretic follicles but no mature antral follicles. This leads to increased production of luteinizing hormone (LH), which stimulates the cells of the theca interna to secrete testosterone. Peripheral aromatase then converts testosterone to estrogen, which suppresses follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) secretion and upregulates LH secretion from the adenohypophysis. This results in decreased aromatase production in granulosa cells, low levels of estradiol, and failure of follicles to develop normally.

      To remember the signs and symptoms of PCOS, use the mnemonic PCOS PAL. PCOS is associated with male pattern balding (alopecia), hirsutism, obesity, hypertension, acanthosis nigricans (thickening and hyperpigmentation of the skin), and menstrual irregularities (oligo- or amenorrhea). It can also cause hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, which is characterized by impaired secretion of gonadotropins from the pituitary, including FSH and LH. This condition can be caused by various factors, such as Kallmann syndrome and GnRH insensitivity. Gonadal dysgenesis, monosomy X variant, is another condition that affects sexually juvenile women with an abnormal karyotype (45, X). It results in complete failure of development of the ovary and therefore no secondary sexual characteristics. Chronic adrenal insufficiency (or Addison’s disease) is another condition that can cause anorexia, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation of the skin in sun-exposed areas.

      It is important to note that early pregnancy is not a possibility in women with PCOS who are not ovulating. Additionally, if a woman with PCOS were pregnant, she would have elevated beta human chorionic gonadotropin. Understanding these conditions and their associated symptoms can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage PCOS effectively.

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  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old patient who has not undergone a hysterectomy visits her GP clinic...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old patient who has not undergone a hysterectomy visits her GP clinic for a follow-up on her hormone replacement therapy (HRT). She is currently using an estradiol patch that she changes once a week and taking norethisterone orally on a daily basis.

      What is the primary advice that the patient should be mindful of when taking progestogens?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      The addition of progesterone to hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, as well as venous thromboembolism and cardiovascular disease. HRT may be recommended for menopausal patients experiencing vasomotor symptoms such as hot flashes, night sweats, and palpitations. However, if a patient only presents with urogenital symptoms, topical oestrogens such as oestradiol creams or pessaries may be more appropriate. These act locally to alleviate vaginal dryness, reduce UTI recurrence, and ease dyspareunia. For patients with vasomotor symptoms, HRT preparations with systemic effects (such as oral medications, topical patches, and implants) may be considered. If the patient has not undergone a hysterectomy, their HRT regime must include both oestrogen and progesterone to prevent hypertrophy of the uterus and a 5-10x increased risk of endometrial carcinoma associated with unopposed oestrogen therapy.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old multiparous woman presents to a specialist clinic with menorrhagia. She has...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old multiparous woman presents to a specialist clinic with menorrhagia. She has multiple fibroids that distort the uterine cavity and has already completed a 3-month trial of tranexamic acid, which did not improve her symptoms. On examination, you notice that she appears pale and her uterus is equivalent to 16 weeks of pregnancy. The patient expresses her frustration and desire for a definitive treatment. A negative urinary pregnancy test is obtained. What would be the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient's menorrhagia?

      Your Answer: Hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Hysterectomy is the most effective treatment for menorrhagia caused by large fibroids, which are benign tumors of smooth muscle that can grow in response to hormones. Risk factors for fibroids include obesity, early menarche, African-American origin, and a family history of fibroids. Symptoms of fibroids include heavy periods, anemia, abdominal discomfort, and pressure symptoms. Diagnosis is made through pelvic ultrasound. Medical management with NSAIDs or tranexamic acid can be tried first, but if it fails, surgical management is necessary. Uterine-sparing surgeries like myomectomy or uterine artery embolization can be considered for women who want to preserve their fertility, but hysterectomy is the definitive method of treatment for women who have completed their family or have severe symptoms. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system is not recommended for women with large fibroids causing uterine distortion. Mefenamic acid is less effective than tranexamic acid for fibroid-related menorrhagia. Myomectomy is not a definitive method of management as fibroids can recur. Uterine artery embolization is an option for women who want to preserve their uterus but not their fertility, but its effect on fertility and pregnancy is not well established.

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  • Question 28 - A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency department worried that she cannot locate...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency department worried that she cannot locate the threads of her intra-uterine device and is unable to schedule an appointment with her primary care physician. She reports no pain, fever, or unusual discharge. She has a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days, and her last period was a week ago.

      During a speculum examination, the threads are not visible, so a transvaginal ultrasound is performed. The device is detected, and the threads are discovered to have retracted into the cervical canal. The threads are brought back into view. Additionally, a 4 cm multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow is found in the right ovary.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Yearly transvaginal ultrasound to assess for cyst growth or changes

      Correct Answer: Refer for biopsy of cyst

      Explanation:

      When a complex ovarian cyst is discovered, there should be a high level of suspicion for ovarian cancer and a biopsy should be performed. The IOTA criteria can be used to determine if a cyst is likely benign or malignant. If any of the ‘M rules’ are present, such as an irregular solid tumor, ascites, at least 4 papillary structures, an irregular multilocular solid tumor with a diameter of at least 100mm, or very strong blood flow, the patient should be referred to a gynecology oncology department for further evaluation. In this case, the patient has a multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow, so a referral to the gynecology oncology service for biopsy is necessary. It is important not to reassure the patient that the cyst is benign just because it is asymptomatic, as many ovarian cancers are asymptomatic until a late stage. It is also not appropriate to immediately perform surgery, as the cyst may be benign and not require urgent intervention. Yearly ultrasounds may be appropriate for simple ovarian cysts of a certain size, but in this case, further investigation is necessary due to the concerning features of the cyst. While cysts under 5 cm in diameter are often physiological and do not require follow-up, the presence of a multiloculated cyst with strong blood flow warrants further investigation.

      Understanding the Different Types of Ovarian Cysts

      Ovarian cysts are a common occurrence in women, and they can be classified into different types. The most common type of ovarian cyst is the physiological cyst, which includes follicular cysts and corpus luteum cysts. Follicular cysts occur when the dominant follicle fails to rupture or when a non-dominant follicle fails to undergo atresia. These cysts usually regress after a few menstrual cycles. Corpus luteum cysts, on the other hand, occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and disappear after the menstrual cycle. These cysts may fill with blood or fluid and are more likely to cause intraperitoneal bleeding than follicular cysts.

      Another type of ovarian cyst is the benign germ cell tumour, which includes dermoid cysts. Dermoid cysts are also known as mature cystic teratomas and are usually lined with epithelial tissue. They may contain skin appendages, hair, and teeth. Dermoid cysts are the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 30, and they are usually asymptomatic. However, torsion is more likely to occur with dermoid cysts than with other ovarian tumours.

      Lastly, there are benign epithelial tumours, which arise from the ovarian surface epithelium. The most common benign epithelial tumour is the serous cystadenoma, which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma). Serous cystadenomas are bilateral in around 20% of cases. The second most common benign epithelial tumour is the mucinous cystadenoma, which is typically large and may become massive. If it ruptures, it may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of ovarian cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Complex ovarian cysts should be biopsied to exclude malignancy, while benign cysts may require monitoring or surgical removal depending on their size and symptoms.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor for contraception options after having two children...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor for contraception options after having two children and deciding not to have any more. She expresses interest in long-acting reversible contraception and ultimately chooses the copper IUD. What other condition should be ruled out besides pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease

      Explanation:

      If a woman has pelvic inflammatory disease, she cannot have a copper IUD inserted. Women who are at risk of this condition, such as those with multiple sexual partners or symptoms that suggest pelvic inflammatory disease, should be tested for infections like Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae and treated if necessary. To test for these infections, endocervical swabs are used. While the insertion of a copper IUD does carry a risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease, this risk is low for women who are at low risk of sexually transmitted infections.

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old female patient presents to her GP seeking emergency contraception. She started...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient presents to her GP seeking emergency contraception. She started taking the progesterone-only pill on day 10 of her menstrual cycle and had unprotected sex with a new partner 3 days later. She is concerned about the lack of barrier contraception used during the encounter. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Levonorgestrel

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and discharge

      Explanation:

      The progesterone-only pill requires 48 hours to become effective, except when started on or before day 5 of the menstrual cycle. During this time, additional barrier methods of contraception should be used. Since the patient is currently on day 10 of her menstrual cycle, it will take 48 hours for the POP to become effective. Therefore, having unprotected sex on day 14 of her menstrual cycle would be considered safe, and emergency contraception is not necessary.

      The intrauterine device can be used as emergency contraception within 5 days of unprotected sex, but it is not necessary in this case since the POP has become effective. The intrauterine system is not a form of emergency contraception and is not recommended for this patient. Levonorgestrel is a type of emergency contraception that must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sex.

      Counselling for Women Considering the progesterone-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progesterone-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.

      In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.

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      • Gynaecology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (18/30) 60%
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