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  • Question 1 - As a third year medical student working in a GP surgery, you come...

    Incorrect

    • As a third year medical student working in a GP surgery, you come across a worried 54-year-old male patient who is experiencing chest discomfort. He has recently begun taking a new tablet for his high blood pressure and suspects it may be the cause of his symptoms. During your examination, you notice bilateral non-tender glandular swellings around the areolae. There are no signs of lymphadenopathy in the axillary region, and testicular examination is normal. Which medication is most likely responsible for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone-Induced Gynaecomastia

      Spironolactone is a type of diuretic that helps to increase urine production by blocking aldosterone receptors in the kidneys. However, it also has anti-androgenic properties that can lead to the development of gynaecomastia, a condition where men develop breast tissue. This is because spironolactone inhibits the production of testosterone and increases the level of free oestrogen in the blood, causing the proliferation of glandular tissue in the mammary glands.

      While gynaecomastia is not commonly associated with other medications, they all have their own side effects. Aspirin, for example, can cause gastrointestinal ulceration by inhibiting COX enzymes and prostaglandin synthesis. Thiazide diuretics work by blocking the sodium chloride co-transporter in the distal convoluted tubule, which can lead to a decrease in blood volume. Loop diuretics, on the other hand, can cause severe hyponatraemia but do not affect testosterone production. Statins, which are used to lower cholesterol levels, can cause rhabdomyolysis, a serious condition where muscle tissue breaks down and releases harmful substances into the bloodstream.

      In summary, while spironolactone can be an effective diuretic, it is important to be aware of its potential side effects, including gynaecomastia. Patients should always consult with their healthcare provider before starting any new medication and report any unusual symptoms or side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old male visits his GP with a complaint of blood in his...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male visits his GP with a complaint of blood in his stool and increased frequency of bowel movements. He has also experienced mild weight loss due to a change in appetite. Upon referral to secondary care, a mass is discovered in his ascending colon. If the mass were to perforate the bowel wall, where would bowel gas most likely accumulate?

      Your Answer: Intra-mural space

      Correct Answer: Retroperitoneal space

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that he may have bowel cancer in his ascending colon. As the ascending colon is located behind the peritoneum, a rupture of the colon could lead to the accumulation of gas in the retroperitoneal space.

      Pneumoperitoneum, which is the presence of gas in the peritoneum, is typically caused by a perforated peptic ulcer. On the other hand, subcutaneous emphysema is the trapping of air under the skin layer and is usually associated with chest wall trauma or pneumothorax.

      Air in the intra-mural space refers to the presence of air within the bowel wall and is not likely to occur in cases of perforation. This condition is typically associated with intestinal ischaemia and infarction.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the molecule produced at the end of glycolysis that connects to...

    Correct

    • What is the molecule produced at the end of glycolysis that connects to the Kreb cycle?

      Your Answer: Acetyl CoA

      Explanation:

      The Process of Energy Production from Glucose

      The process of producing energy from glucose involves several steps. The first step is glycolysis, where glucose is converted into fructose 1,6 bisphosphate and split into two 3-carbon particles. These particles are then converted into acetyl CoA, which provides the link with the Kreb cycle. The Kreb cycle, also known as the tricarboxylic acid cycle, is a process where organic acids are modified in a series of steps to produce NADH. Succinate and oxaloacetate are intermediates in the Kreb cycle.

      The final step in the process is the electron transfer chain, which occurs inside mitochondria. The NADH generated during the Kreb cycle is used to produce energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) by a series of redox reactions. This process is essential for the production of energy in the body, as ATP is the primary source of energy for cellular processes. By the process of energy production from glucose, we can better understand the importance of maintaining a healthy diet and lifestyle to ensure optimal energy production in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old male patient presents with choreiform movements that he is unable to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male patient presents with choreiform movements that he is unable to control or cease. During the consultation, you inquire about his family history and discover that his father experienced similar symptoms at a slightly later age. Based on this information, what genetic phenomenon is likely to have taken place between the patient and his father?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance

      Correct Answer: Anticipation

      Explanation:

      Anticipation may be observed in Huntington’s disease due to its nature as a trinucleotide repeat disorder. The disease is caused by an autosomal dominant gene with CAG repeats in exon 1 of the Huntingtin gene. The number of CAG repeats is indicative of the severity of the disease, with individuals having 36 to 39 repeats potentially developing symptoms, while those with 40 or more repeats almost always develop the disorder. HD can occur in individuals with 36 to 120 CAG repeats.

      Anticipation is observed as the number of CAG repeats increases between generations. Offspring of individuals with 27 to 35 CAG repeats are at risk of developing HD, even though the parent does not suffer from the disease. Additionally, higher numbers of CAG repeats tend to cause HD to manifest at earlier ages, resulting in younger generations being affected by the disease.

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that causes progressive and incurable neurodegeneration. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a trinucleotide repeat expansion of CAG in the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4. This can result in the phenomenon of anticipation, where the disease presents at an earlier age in successive generations. The disease leads to the degeneration of cholinergic and GABAergic neurons in the striatum of the basal ganglia, which can cause a range of symptoms.

      Typically, symptoms of Huntington’s disease develop after the age of 35 and can include chorea, personality changes such as irritability, apathy, and depression, intellectual impairment, dystonia, and saccadic eye movements. Unfortunately, there is currently no cure for Huntington’s disease, and it usually results in death around 20 years after the initial symptoms develop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      11.9
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  • Question 5 - Sarah is a 31-year-old woman presenting with diplopia. She has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 31-year-old woman presenting with diplopia. She has a history of type 1 diabetes and multiple sclerosis. Over the past 3 days, she has been experiencing double vision, particularly when looking to the right.

      Sarah denies any associated double vision when looking vertically. She has not noticed any difficulty in moving her eyelids, increased sensitivity to light, or redness in her eye.

      During examination, both eyelids display normal strength. With the left eye closed, the right eye displays a full range of movement. However, with the right eye closed, the left eye fails to adduct when looking towards the right. Nystagmus on the right eye is noted when the patient is asked to look to the right with both eyes. On convergence, both eyes can adduct towards the midline. The pupillary exam is normal with both pupils reacting appropriately to light.

      What is the underlying pathology responsible for Sarah's diplopia?

      Your Answer: Lesion of the left abducens nerve

      Correct Answer: Lesion on the left paramedian area of the midbrain and pons

      Explanation:

      The medial longitudinal fasciculus is located in the midbrain and pons and is responsible for conjugate gaze. Lesions in this area can cause internuclear ophthalmoplegia, which affects adduction but not convergence. A 3rd nerve palsy affects multiple muscles and can involve the pupil, while abducens nerve lesions affect abduction. Lesions in the midbrain and superior pons contain the centres of vision.

      Understanding Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

      Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is a condition that affects the horizontal movement of the eyes. It is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF), which is responsible for interconnecting the IIIrd, IVth, and VIth cranial nuclei. This area is located in the paramedian region of the midbrain and pons. The main feature of this condition is impaired adduction of the eye on the same side as the lesion, along with horizontal nystagmus of the abducting eye on the opposite side.

      The most common causes of internuclear ophthalmoplegia are multiple sclerosis and vascular disease. It is important to note that this condition can also be a sign of other underlying neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe generalised abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe generalised abdominal pain and haematemesis. The patient reports ongoing epigastric pain over the past few months which was worse after eating meals. She had a similar but milder episode about 4 years ago, which was treated with omeprazole. Past medical history includes osteoarthritis for which she takes ibuprofen.

      Clinical observations reveal a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, blood pressure of 90/78 mmHg, respiratory rate of 25/min, oxygen saturations of 98% on air and a temperature of 37.5ºC. On examination, the patient has severe epigastric tenderness on palpation.

      What is the first-line treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endoscopic intervention

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the patient is a perforated peptic ulcer, which may have been caused by their use of ibuprofen. The recommended first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines is endoscopic intervention, which can confirm the diagnosis and stop the bleeding. This involves injecting adrenaline into the bleeding site and using cautery and/or clip application. Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy is not appropriate in this case, as the patient’s symptoms suggest a perforated peptic ulcer rather than peptic ulcer disease caused by H. pylori. IV proton-pump inhibitor infusion may be considered later, but the patient requires immediate management with endoscopic intervention.

      Managing Acute Bleeding in Peptic Ulcer Disease

      Peptic ulcer disease is a condition that can lead to acute bleeding, which is the most common complication of the disease. In fact, bleeding accounts for about three-quarters of all problems associated with peptic ulcer disease. The gastroduodenal artery is often the source of significant gastrointestinal bleeding in patients with this condition. The most common symptom of acute bleeding in peptic ulcer disease is haematemesis, but patients may also experience melaena, hypotension, and tachycardia.

      When managing acute bleeding in peptic ulcer disease, an ABC approach should be taken, as with any upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage. Intravenous proton pump inhibitors are the first-line treatment, and endoscopic intervention is typically the preferred approach. However, if endoscopic intervention fails (which occurs in approximately 10% of patients), urgent interventional angiography with transarterial embolization or surgery may be necessary. By following these management strategies, healthcare providers can effectively address acute bleeding in patients with peptic ulcer disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the primary mechanism by which this hormone reduces plasma calcium levels,...

    Correct

    • What is the primary mechanism by which this hormone reduces plasma calcium levels, and how does it differ from the role of the thyroid hormone in calcium homeostasis?

      The main organ responsible for maintaining calcium homeostasis is the parathyroid gland, which releases parathyroid hormone (PTH) to regulate calcium levels. However, the thyroid also plays a role by releasing calcitonin from parafollicular C cells in response to high levels of calcium in the blood. Despite their similar functions, these hormones work through different mechanisms to regulate calcium levels in the body.

      Your Answer: Inhibits osteoclast activity

      Explanation:

      Calcitonin reduces plasma levels of calcium and phosphate by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts.

      The function of osteoclasts is to reabsorb bone, which releases calcium and phosphate into the bloodstream. By inhibiting osteoclast activity, calcitonin decreases the levels of both plasma calcium and phosphate. Conversely, all other options listed would increase plasma calcium levels.

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is released in response to low plasma calcium levels and inhibits renal reabsorption of phosphate. PTH increases plasma calcium levels by promoting calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and gut, as well as indirectly increasing osteoclast activity to release more calcium from bones.

      The active form of vitamin D, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases gut reabsorption of calcium. PTH stimulates the synthesis of this active form of vitamin D.

      While PTH and calcitonin do not directly affect osteoblast activity, PTH does interact with osteoblasts to signal to osteoclasts to increase their activity in response to hypocalcemia.

      Understanding Calcitonin and Its Role in Regulating Calcium Levels

      Calcitonin is a hormone that is produced by the parafollicular cells or C cells of the thyroid gland. It is released in response to high levels of calcium in the blood, which can occur due to various factors such as bone resorption, vitamin D toxicity, or certain cancers. The main function of calcitonin is to decrease the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue and release calcium into the bloodstream.

      Calcitonin works by binding to specific receptors on the surface of osteoclasts, which reduces their ability to resorb bone. This leads to a decrease in the release of calcium and phosphate into the bloodstream, which helps to restore normal levels of these minerals. In addition to its effects on bone metabolism, calcitonin also has other physiological functions such as regulating kidney function and modulating the immune system.

      Overall, calcitonin plays an important role in maintaining calcium homeostasis in the body and preventing the development of conditions such as hypercalcemia, which can have serious health consequences. By inhibiting osteoclast activity and promoting bone formation, calcitonin helps to maintain the structural integrity of bones and prevent fractures. Understanding the mechanisms of calcitonin action can provide insights into the pathophysiology of bone diseases and inform the development of new treatments for these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old man in India is attacked by a wild dog and subsequently...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man in India is attacked by a wild dog and subsequently shows symptoms of rabies, including irritability, drooling, and seizures. The virus responsible for rabies is a rhabdovirus, which uses RNA polymerase to create a complementary RNA strand from a single strand of RNA. This newly-synthesised strand then acts as messenger-RNA (mRNA). What is the best description of the rhabdovirus genome?

      Your Answer: Single stranded DNA (ssDNA)

      Correct Answer: Negative-sense RNA (−RNA)

      Explanation:

      Virus Classification Based on Genome

      Viruses are categorized based on their genome, which can either be DNA or RNA. The RNA or DNA can be single or double-stranded. The genome of a virus determines its classification. The rhabdovirus, for instance, contains a single strand of RNA initially, which means that the first, second, and last answer options cannot be correct.

      Positive-sense RNA viruses, such as picornavirus, flavivirus, coronavirus, and calicivirus, use the RNA strand directly as mRNA. On the other hand, negative-sense RNA viruses require RNA polymerase to copy the RNA strand and generate a complementary RNA strand, which then acts as mRNA. The rhabdovirus falls under this category. virus classification based on genome is crucial in developing effective treatments and vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old woman who migrated from Papua New Guinea with her parents during...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who migrated from Papua New Guinea with her parents during her childhood is seeking preconception counseling. She is concerned about the possibility of her future child having sickle cell disease since both her parents are known to be carriers of the sickle cell trait. As a child, she witnessed sickle cell disease in others, which has heightened her anxiety. Her partner is also a carrier of the sickle cell trait. Sickle cell disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.

      What is the likelihood that the woman is a carrier of the sickle cell trait?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

      Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.

      When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.

      Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and are generally more life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of genetic disorders to provide appropriate genetic counseling and medical management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      129.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old man comes to the smoking cessation clinic seeking help to quit...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the smoking cessation clinic seeking help to quit smoking. He is motivated to quit after witnessing his brother's death from lung cancer.

      What health condition is the patient more susceptible to if he successfully quits smoking?

      Your Answer: Bladder cancer

      Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Smoking is a protective factor against only one type of cancer, which is endometrial cancer (3), as found by a meta-analysis. However, smoking is a risk factor for all the other types of cancer mentioned.

      For bladder cancer (1), it is suggested that the aromatic amines found in cigarettes are a known carcinogen of the bladder, thus contributing to the increased risk of bladder cancer with smoking.

      Although smoking is a well-established co-factor for the development of cervical cancer (2), the mechanism by which smoking increases the risk is not known, although there are two theories.

      Smoking has been found to cause numerous DNA changes in laryngeal cancer (4), including TP53 gene mutations.

      Smoking is also theorized to cause renal cell cancer (5) as cigarette smoke induces oxidative stress and injury in the kidney, and free radicals in cigarettes can cause DNA damage that may lead to the development of cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Symptoms of endometrial cancer include postmenopausal bleeding, which is usually slight and intermittent at first before becoming heavier, and changes in intermenstrual bleeding for premenopausal women. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness of less than 4 mm. Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for diagnosis. Treatment for localized disease typically involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may require postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy may be used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      33.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrine System (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal System (1/2) 50%
Clinical Sciences (1/2) 50%
Neurological System (0/2) 0%
General Principles (1/2) 50%
Reproductive System (0/1) 0%
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