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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old junior doctor presents to the Emergency department with complaints of a severe headache and neck stiffness. He reports experiencing mild diarrhoea over the past few days and some coryzal symptoms. On examination, his blood pressure is 155/82 mmHg, his pulse is 85 and regular, and his temperature is 37.8℃. He displays signs consistent with severe meningism, but there are no skin rashes or other signs of vasculitis.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 138 g/L (135-177)
- White cells: 8.9 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelet: 183 ×109/L (150-400)
- Sodium: 141 mmol/L (135-146)
- Potassium: 4.4 mmol/L (3.5-5)
- Creatinine: 92 µmol/L (79-118)
- Lumbar puncture: lymphocytosis, slightly raised protein, normal glucose.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus meningitis
Correct Answer: Enterovirus meningitis
Explanation:Enterovirus Meningitis: The Commonest Cause of Viral Meningitis in Adults
Enterovirus meningitis is the most common cause of viral meningitis in adults. The symptoms of a mild diarrhoeal illness and a runny nose, along with the lumbar puncture findings, are consistent with this diagnosis. The management of viral meningitis is conservative, with adequate hydration and analgesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is hospitalized with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) and develops acute kidney injury (AKI) on the third day of admission. His eGFR drops from 58 to 26 ml/min/1.73 m2 and creatinine rises from 122 to 196 umol/L. Which of his usual medications should be discontinued?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where there is a sudden decrease in kidney function, which can be defined by a decrease in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or a decrease in urine output. AKI can be caused by various factors such as prerenal, renal, or postrenal causes. Medications can also cause AKI, and caution should be taken when prescribing ACE inhibitors to patients with declining renal function. In the event of an AKI, certain medications such as ACE inhibitors, A2RBs, NSAIDs, diuretics, aminoglycosides, metformin, and lithium should be temporarily discontinued. Atorvastatin and bisoprolol are safe to prescribe in patients with kidney disease, while finasteride and tamsulosin can be prescribed for benign prostatic hyperplasia but should be used with caution in patients with poor renal function.
Understanding Acute Kidney Injury: A Basic Overview
Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where the kidneys experience a reduction in function due to an insult. In the past, the kidneys were often neglected in acute medicine, resulting in slow recognition and limited action. However, around 15% of patients admitted to the hospital develop AKI. While most patients recover their renal function, some may have long-term impaired kidney function due to AKI, which can result in acute complications, including death. Identifying patients at increased risk of AKI is crucial in reducing its incidence. Risk factors for AKI include chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, and the use of drugs with nephrotoxic potential.
AKI has three main causes: prerenal, intrinsic, and postrenal. Prerenal causes are due to a lack of blood flow to the kidneys, while intrinsic causes relate to intrinsic damage to the kidneys themselves. Postrenal causes occur when there is an obstruction to the urine coming from the kidneys. Symptoms of AKI include reduced urine output, fluid overload, arrhythmias, and features of uraemia. Diagnosis of AKI is made through blood tests, urinalysis, and imaging.
The management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review being crucial. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Prompt review by a urologist is required for patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction, while specialist input from a nephrologist is necessary for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male blood donor presents with the following blood results:
Bilirubin 41 µmol/L
ALP 84 U/L
ALT 23 U/L
Albumin 41 g/L
Dipstick urinalysis normal
He has been experiencing symptoms of a cold, including a runny nose and dry cough. What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hepatitis C infection
Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome
Explanation:Gilbert’s syndrome is typically characterized by a rise in bilirubin levels in response to physiological stress. Therefore, it is likely that a 22-year-old male with isolated hyperbilirubinemia has Gilbert’s syndrome. Dubin-Johnson and Rotor syndrome, which both result in conjugated bilirubinemia, can be ruled out based on a normal dipstick urinalysis. Viral infections are often responsible for triggering a bilirubin increase in individuals with Gilbert’s syndrome.
Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain situations such as intercurrent illness, exercise, or fasting. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.
To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. The exact mode of inheritance for Gilbert’s syndrome is still a matter of debate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the most prevalent form of colorectal cancer that is inherited?
Familial adenomatous polyposis, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, Fanconi syndrome, and Peutz-Jeghers syndrome are all types of inherited colorectal cancer. However, which one is the most common?Your Answer: Li-Fraumeni syndrome
Correct Answer: Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma
Explanation:Genetics and Types of Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a type of cancer that affects the colon and rectum. There are three main types of colorectal cancer: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is the most common type, accounting for 95% of cases. It is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumour suppressor genes.
HNPCC, also known as Lynch syndrome, is an autosomal dominant condition that accounts for 5% of cases. It is the most common form of inherited colon cancer and is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most commonly affected genes are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of developing other cancers, such as endometrial cancer.
FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that accounts for less than 1% of cases. It is caused by a mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli gene (APC), which leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. Patients with FAP inevitably develop carcinoma and are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin.
In conclusion, understanding the genetics behind colorectal cancer is important for diagnosis and treatment. While sporadic colon cancer is the most common type, HNPCC and FAP are inherited conditions that require genetic testing and surveillance for early detection and prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with difficulty swallowing and blurred vision. He is worried about his slurred speech which started the day before. He has no past medical history or current medications.
Upon examination, the patient appears disheveled and has multiple track marks on both arms with surrounding redness. His vital signs are normal. Cranial nerve examination reveals bilateral ptosis, diplopia, impaired pupil accommodation, and impaired gag reflex. The patient's speech is also slurred. Upper limb examination shows hypotonia and 4/5 power bilaterally, while sensation is intact. Lower limb examination is unremarkable.
What is the most likely causative organism for this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Correct Answer: Clostridium botulinum
Explanation:There are various bacterial infections that can cause different diseases. For example, Salmonella can cause food poisoning, while Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of diarrhoea and can also be linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome. Additionally, Clostridium tetani infection can lead to tetanus.
Understanding Botulism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Botulism is a rare but serious illness caused by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. This gram-positive anaerobic bacillus produces botulinum toxin, a neurotoxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine, leading to flaccid paralysis and other symptoms. There are seven serotypes of the bacterium, labeled A-G. Botulism can result from eating contaminated food, particularly tinned food, or from intravenous drug use.
The neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum often affects bulbar muscles and the autonomic nervous system, leading to symptoms such as diplopia, ataxia, and bulbar palsy. However, patients are usually fully conscious and do not experience any sensory disturbance.
Treatment for botulism involves administering botulism antitoxin and providing supportive care. It is important to note that the antitoxin is only effective if given early, as once the toxin has bound, its actions cannot be reversed. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman is seeking preconception advice from her GP as she plans to start trying for a baby. Despite feeling relatively well, she has several pre-existing medical conditions. She is classified as grade 2 obese and has type 2 diabetes (which is managed with metformin), hypertension (treated with ramipril), gastro-oesophageal reflux (using ranitidine), and allergic rhinitis (taking loratadine). Additionally, she experiences back pain and takes paracetamol on a daily basis.
Which medication should she avoid during pregnancy?Your Answer: Metformin
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Pregnant women should avoid taking ACE inhibitors like ramipril as they can lead to fetal abnormalities and renal failure. These medications are believed to hinder the production of fetal urine, resulting in oligohydramnios, and increase the likelihood of cranial and cardiac defects. However, other drugs do not pose any known risks during pregnancy and can be continued if necessary.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of sharp chest pain on the left side and difficulty breathing. He has a medical history of COPD and uses a salbutamol inhaler. Upon examination, there is decreased chest expansion and breath sounds on the left side, as well as hyper-resonance on percussion. A chest x-ray reveals a 2.1 cm left-sided pneumothorax at the lung hilum. What is the next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Chest drain
Explanation:For a patient with a history of COPD, a pneumothorax is classified as secondary. If the pneumothorax is greater than 2 cm or the patient is experiencing shortness of breath, the recommended first-line treatment is a chest drain, not aspiration. However, if the pneumothorax is primary and greater than 2 cm or the patient is breathless, or if the secondary pneumothorax is between 1-2 cm, needle aspiration may be indicated. If a patient is admitted for observation, they may receive high flow oxygen unless they are oxygen sensitive. Admission for observation is recommended for a secondary pneumothorax measuring less than 1 cm or a secondary pneumothorax measuring 1-2 cm that is aspirated and subsequently measures less than 1 cm. A primary pneumothorax measuring less than 2 cm may be considered for discharge.
Management of Pneumothorax: BTS Guidelines
Pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. The British Thoracic Society (BTS) has published updated guidelines for the management of spontaneous pneumothorax, which can be primary or secondary. Primary pneumothorax occurs without any underlying lung disease, while secondary pneumothorax is associated with lung disease.
The BTS guidelines recommend that patients with a rim of air less than 2 cm and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with a larger rim of air or shortness of breath should undergo aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, patients over 50 years old with a rim of air greater than 2 cm or shortness of breath should undergo chest drain insertion. Aspiration may be attempted for those with a rim of air between 1-2 cm, but chest drain insertion is necessary if aspiration fails.
For iatrogenic pneumothorax, observation is usually sufficient, but chest drain insertion may be necessary in some cases. Ventilated patients and those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) may require chest drain insertion. If a patient has persistent or recurrent pneumothorax, video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) may be necessary.
Patients should be advised to avoid smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes. Fitness to fly is an absolute contraindication, but patients may travel 1 week after successful drainage if there is no residual air. Scuba diving should be permanently avoided unless the patient has undergone bilateral surgical pleurectomy and has normal lung function and chest CT scan postoperatively.
Overall, the BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the management of pneumothorax, taking into account the type of pneumothorax, patient characteristics, and potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old male with non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) presents to the emergency department complaining of fever, chills, and feeling generally unwell. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.6ºC, pulse rate is 116 beats/min, blood pressure is 102/62 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 24 beats/min. Crackles and bronchial breathing are heard in the left upper zone of his chest. A urine dip is negative for leucocytes and blood tests reveal a neutrophil count of 0.4. He received his last cycle of chemotherapy 10 days ago. What is the most appropriate antibiotic treatment to initiate for this patient?
Your Answer: Intravenous piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin)
Explanation:Neutropenic sepsis is a serious condition that requires immediate treatment with antibiotics. Piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) is the preferred antibiotic for this condition, even before neutropenia is confirmed on blood testing. This combination works by breaking down the cell walls of bacteria and preventing bacterial resistance to piperacillin. However, if a patient is unable to tolerate Tazocin, alternative antibiotics should be considered based on local guidelines or microbiology advice.
Amoxicillin with clavulanic acid and gentamicin are other antibiotics that can be used for severe infections, but they are not the best choice for neutropenic sepsis. Aztreonam and vancomycin can be used in combination when Tazocin is not an option, but a third antibiotic may be necessary for additional coverage. It is important to note that gentamicin should be used with caution due to the risk of kidney damage and ototoxicity.
Neutropenic Sepsis: A Common Complication of Cancer Therapy
Neutropenic sepsis is a frequent complication of cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs or symptoms consistent with clinically significant sepsis.
To prevent neutropenic sepsis, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 as a result of their treatment should be offered a fluoroquinolone. In the event of neutropenic sepsis, antibiotics must be initiated immediately, without waiting for the white blood cell count.
According to NICE guidelines, empirical antibiotic therapy should begin with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) immediately. While some units may add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE does not support this approach. After initial treatment, patients are typically assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they may be able to receive outpatient treatment.
If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) rather than blindly initiating antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male is admitted to the respiratory ward for severe community-acquired pneumonia and is being treated with amoxicillin. He has a medical history of a heart attack 2 years ago, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes. His current medications include aspirin 75 mg, atorvastatin 40 mg, ramipril 5mg, bendroflumethiazide 5mg, and metformin 500 mg BD. On the third day of treatment, the medical team noticed that the patient's creatinine levels increased from a baseline of 67 micromol/litre to 190 micromol/litre. His eGFR is found to be 25 ml/min, and he is diagnosed with acute kidney injury. Which of the patient's current medications can he continue taking in his current condition?
Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:In cases of acute kidney injury (AKI), it is important to identify drugs that may worsen renal function and those that can result in toxicity. AKI is defined as a 50% or greater rise in serum creatinine within the past 7 days or a fall in urine output to less than 0.5 ml/kg/hour for more than 6 hours.
For patients on aspirin for secondary prevention of acute coronary syndrome, the cardioprotective dose of 75 mg per day should be continued as there is strong evidence supporting its use. Aspirin is a COX-inhibitor that inhibits thromboxane synthesis via the COX-1 pathway, exhibiting antithrombotic effects.
Drugs that should be stopped in AKI as they may worsen renal function include diuretics, aminoglycosides, ACE inhibitors/ARBs, and NSAIDs that are not at cardioprotective doses. On the other hand, drugs that do not worsen renal function but can result in toxicity include metformin, lithium, and digoxin. A helpful mnemonic to remember the drugs to stop in AKI is DAMN AKI: Diuretics, Aminoglycosides and ACE inhibitors, Metformin, and NSAIDs.
Understanding Acute Kidney Injury: A Basic Overview
Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where the kidneys experience a reduction in function due to an insult. In the past, the kidneys were often neglected in acute medicine, resulting in slow recognition and limited action. However, around 15% of patients admitted to the hospital develop AKI. While most patients recover their renal function, some may have long-term impaired kidney function due to AKI, which can result in acute complications, including death. Identifying patients at increased risk of AKI is crucial in reducing its incidence. Risk factors for AKI include chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, and the use of drugs with nephrotoxic potential.
AKI has three main causes: prerenal, intrinsic, and postrenal. Prerenal causes are due to a lack of blood flow to the kidneys, while intrinsic causes relate to intrinsic damage to the kidneys themselves. Postrenal causes occur when there is an obstruction to the urine coming from the kidneys. Symptoms of AKI include reduced urine output, fluid overload, arrhythmias, and features of uraemia. Diagnosis of AKI is made through blood tests, urinalysis, and imaging.
The management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review being crucial. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Prompt review by a urologist is required for patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction, while specialist input from a nephrologist is necessary for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents to a rural medical assessment unit with recurrent episodes of syncope. He is admitted into the hospital in the cardiology ward for a work-up.
After two hours of admission, he experiences dizziness and mild disorientation. Upon examination, his airway is clear, he is breathing at a rate of 15 breaths per minute, his oxygen saturation is 96% on air, his blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, and his heart rate is 40 beats per minute. It is noted that he has a documented anaphylactic allergy to atropine.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer: Adrenaline
Explanation:An adrenaline infusion can be used as an alternative treatment for symptomatic bradycardia if transcutaneous pacing is not available. In this case, the patient requires rapid intervention to address their haemodynamic instability. Atropine infusion is not appropriate due to the patient’s allergy and potential to worsen their condition. Amiodarone is not useful in this situation, as it is typically used for other arrhythmias. Digoxin is not helpful in bradycardia and can actually reduce AV conduction speed. Glucagon is reserved for cases of cardiovascular failure caused by beta-blocker overdose, which is not the case for this patient.
Management of Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms
The 2021 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines highlight that the management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms depends on two factors. Firstly, identifying adverse signs that indicate haemodynamic compromise, such as shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure. Secondly, identifying the potential risk of asystole, which can occur in patients with complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, or ventricular pause > 3 seconds.
If adverse signs are present, Atropine (500 mcg IV) is the first line treatment. If there is an unsatisfactory response, interventions such as atropine (up to a maximum of 3mg), transcutaneous pacing, or isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.
Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing in patients with risk factors for asystole. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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A 60-year-old male patient complains of chronic productive cough and difficulty breathing. He has been smoking 10 cigarettes per day for the past 30 years. What is the number of pack years equivalent to his smoking history?
Your Answer: 15
Explanation:Pack Year Calculation
Pack year calculation is a tool used to estimate the risk of tobacco exposure. It is calculated by multiplying the number of packs of cigarettes smoked per day by the number of years of smoking. One pack of cigarettes contains 20 cigarettes. For instance, if a person smoked half a pack of cigarettes per day for 30 years, their pack year history would be 15 (1/2 x 30 = 15).
The pack year calculation is a standardized method of measuring tobacco exposure. It helps healthcare professionals to estimate the risk of developing smoking-related diseases such as lung cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and heart disease. The higher the pack year history, the greater the risk of developing these diseases. Therefore, it is important for individuals who smoke or have a history of smoking to discuss their pack year history with their healthcare provider to determine appropriate screening and prevention measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to his doctor with complaints of persistent vomiting, palpitations, and flushing. He has a history of chronic alcohol abuse, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes. The patient reports that these symptoms began a week ago after he visited his dentist for a dental abscess and was prescribed metronidazole 400 mg three times a day. He is currently taking thiamine supplements 100 mg twice daily, atorvastatin 40 mg daily, and metformin 500 mg three times a day. Additionally, he has been taking paracetamol 1 g four times a day for dental pain. The doctor suspects that one of his medications may have interacted with the metronidazole to cause his symptoms. Which medication is most likely to have caused this interaction?
Your Answer: Ethanol
Explanation:Alcohol can affect the way many drugs are metabolized and can alter their bioavailability. Chronic alcohol excess can cause a paradoxical induction in the cytochrome P450 enzyme system, leading to a relative reduction in bioavailability of drugs that utilize this metabolism pathway. Atorvastatin and other drugs of this class can have altered bioavailability when used with alcohol. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when mixed with alcohol. Paracetamol and metformin have few interactions with alcohol but should be closely monitored in alcoholic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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A 78-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of vomiting and abdominal pain. He has a medical history of heart failure and COPD. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender, and his vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 105/72 mmHg, pulse 94 bpm, respiratory rate 14/min, and temperature 36.9 deg C. His initial blood tests reveal hyponatremia with a sodium level of 123 mmol/L (135 - 145). What is the best approach to manage this patient's hyponatremia?
Your Answer: IV isotonic normal saline
Explanation:Hypertonic saline is not the appropriate treatment for this patient as they do not have acute severe hyponatraemia with symptoms.
Treating Hyponatremia: Factors to Consider
Hyponatremia, if left untreated, can lead to cerebral edema and brain herniation. Therefore, it is crucial to identify and treat it promptly. However, the management of hyponatremia is complex and depends on several factors. These include the duration and severity of hyponatremia, the patient’s symptoms, and the suspected cause of hyponatremia. Over-rapid correction can also result in osmotic demyelination syndrome, which can cause irreversible symptoms.
In all patients, initial steps include ruling out a spurious result and reviewing medications that may cause hyponatremia. For chronic hyponatremia without severe symptoms, the treatment approach depends on the suspected cause. If hypovolemic, normal saline may be given as a trial. If euvolemic, fluid restriction and medications such as demeclocycline or vaptans may be considered. If hypervolemic, fluid restriction and loop diuretics or vaptans may be used.
For acute hyponatremia with severe symptoms, patients require close monitoring and may need hypertonic saline to correct the sodium level more quickly. However, over-correction can lead to osmotic demyelination syndrome, which can cause irreversible symptoms.
Vasopressin/ADH receptor antagonists (vaptans) can be used in some cases but should be avoided in patients with hypovolemic hyponatremia and those with underlying liver disease. They can also stimulate thirst receptors, leading to the desire to drink free water.
Overall, treating hyponatremia requires careful consideration of various factors to avoid complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with symptoms of fever and headache after returning from a trip to central America. He has no significant medical history or regular medications. Upon investigation, he is diagnosed with Plasmodium vivax and completes a course of acute treatment without adverse effects. It is confirmed that he has no allergies. What is the appropriate treatment to initiate at this point?
Your Answer: Chloroquine
Correct Answer: Primaquine
Explanation:Non-Falciparum Malaria: Causes, Features, and Treatment
Non-falciparum malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi. Plasmodium vivax is commonly found in Central America and the Indian Subcontinent, while Plasmodium ovale is typically found in Africa. Plasmodium malariae is associated with nephrotic syndrome, and Plasmodium knowlesi is found predominantly in South East Asia.
The general features of non-falciparum malaria include fever, headache, and splenomegaly. Cyclical fever every 48 hours is observed in Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale, while Plasmodium malariae has a cyclical fever every 72 hours. Ovale and vivax malaria have a hypnozoite stage, which may cause relapse following treatment.
In areas known to be chloroquine-sensitive, the World Health Organization recommends either an artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine for treatment. However, in areas known to be chloroquine-resistant, an ACT should be used. Pregnant women should avoid ACTs. Patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse.
Overall, non-falciparum malaria has distinct causes, features, and treatment options that should be considered for effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 70-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of fatigue and lower back pain. Upon conducting a thorough examination and taking a complete medical history, the physician orders blood tests. The results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 101 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180; females: 115-160)
- Platelets: 138 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
- White blood cells (WBC): 4.9 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
- Sodium (Na+): 132 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
- Potassium (K+): 3.7 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
- Bicarbonate: 27 mmol/L (normal range: 22-29)
- Urea: 8.4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 142 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
- Calcium: 3.2 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
- Phosphate: 1.4 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4)
- Magnesium: 1.0 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0)
What is the recommended first-line imaging for this patient?Your Answer: Whole body MRI
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations
Multiple myeloma is a type of blood cancer that occurs due to genetic mutations in plasma cells. It is commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 70. The disease is characterized by the acronym CRABBI, which stands for Calcium, Renal, Anaemia, Bleeding, Bones, and Infection. Patients with multiple myeloma may experience hypercalcemia, renal damage, anaemia, bleeding, bone pain, and increased susceptibility to infections. Other symptoms may include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.
To diagnose multiple myeloma, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including blood tests, protein electrophoresis, bone marrow aspiration, and imaging studies. Blood tests may reveal anaemia, elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine, and renal failure. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised concentrations of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum or urine. Bone marrow aspiration confirms the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can detect osteolytic lesions or the characteristic raindrop skull pattern.
The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, and elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, and low levels of antibodies not produced by the cancer cells in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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A 26-year-old man presents to the gastroenterology clinic with symptoms of intermittent diarrhoea, abdominal distention, and unintentional weight loss. His investigations reveal low Hb, ferritin, and vitamin B12 levels, as well as complete villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia on endoscopy and biopsy. The IgA tissue transglutaminase level is also elevated. What dietary recommendations should be given to this patient?
Your Answer: Corn, potatoes, rice
Explanation:Coeliac disease affects approximately 1% of the population and is managed through a gluten-free diet. As a healthcare professional, it is important to have a basic understanding of which foods contain gluten in order to advise patients on what to avoid and what is safe to eat. Safe foods for coeliac patients include corn, potatoes, and rice, as they do not contain gluten. On the other hand, foods such as barley and wheat should be avoided as they contain gluten. While oats may be tolerated by some patients, there is a risk of a reaction and should be approached with caution.
Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten is found in cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats. Patients with coeliac disease must avoid consuming foods that contain gluten, including bread, pasta, pastry, and beer made from barley. However, whisky made from malted barley is safe to drink as the distillation process removes proteins like gluten. Patients with coeliac disease can consume gluten-free foods such as rice, potatoes, and corn.
To ensure compliance with a gluten-free diet, doctors may check tissue transglutaminase antibodies. Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which means they are more susceptible to infections. Therefore, all patients with coeliac disease are offered the pneumococcal vaccine and are recommended to have a booster every five years. Coeliac UK also recommends vaccinating against pneumococcal infection. The influenzae vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.
Managing coeliac disease with a gluten-free diet is crucial to prevent complications and improve quality of life. By avoiding gluten-containing foods and consuming gluten-free alternatives, patients with coeliac disease can manage their condition effectively. Vaccinations against infections are also essential to protect patients with coeliac disease, who may have a weakened immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man has been experiencing itchy skin, particularly after bathing, and headaches. He has been diagnosed with a condition that requires regular venesection and medical therapy to reduce his risk of clots. Assuming he has received lifestyle advice, what is the appropriate medical management for him?
Your Answer: Hydroxyurea
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Aspirin is the recommended medication for patients with polycythaemia vera to lower the risk of thrombotic events caused by hyperviscosity. This patient is experiencing symptoms of hyperviscosity due to an excess of red blood cells in their serum. Aspirin works by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) and reducing the production of thromboxane from arachidonic acid, which decreases platelet aggregation and lowers the risk of thrombotic events.
Apixaban is not the first-line prophylaxis for polycythaemia vera and is therefore incorrect for this patient. It is typically used for provoked or unprovoked deep vein thrombosis by directly inhibiting activated factor X (Xa) and preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Clopidogrel is an anti-platelet drug commonly used in acute coronary syndrome management but is not recognized as a treatment for polycythaemia vera in national guidelines, making it an incorrect option for this patient.
Hydroxyurea is a chemotherapy drug that is a recognized treatment for polycythaemia vera. However, it is not appropriate as a first-line option for thrombotic event prophylaxis, and aspirin should be the initial medication prescribed for this patient.
Polycythaemia vera is a condition where a single marrow stem cell undergoes clonal proliferation, leading to an increase in red cell volume, as well as an overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. This disorder is most commonly seen in individuals in their sixth decade of life and is characterized by symptoms such as hyperviscosity, pruritus, and splenomegaly.
The management of polycythaemia vera involves several approaches. Aspirin is often prescribed to reduce the risk of thrombotic events. Venesection is the first-line treatment to keep the haemoglobin levels within the normal range. Chemotherapy, such as hydroxyurea, may also be used, but it carries a slight increased risk of secondary leukaemia. Phosphorus-32 therapy is another option.
The prognosis for polycythaemia vera is variable. Thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. Additionally, 5-15% of patients may progress to myelofibrosis, while another 5-15% may develop acute leukaemia, with the risk being increased with chemotherapy treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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A 16-year-old male presents to the nephrology unit with a complaint of recurrent visible haematuria following upper respiratory tract infections. He denies any abdominal or loin pain. The urine dipstick is unremarkable, and blood tests reveal normal electrolyte levels and kidney function. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:Understanding IgA Nephropathy
IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by the deposition of IgA immune complexes in the mesangium, leading to mesangial hypercellularity and positive immunofluorescence for IgA and C3. The classic presentation is recurrent episodes of macroscopic hematuria in young males following an upper respiratory tract infection. Unlike post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy is not associated with low complement levels and typically does not present with nephrotic range proteinuria or renal failure.
Management of IgA nephropathy depends on the severity of proteinuria and renal function. Isolated hematuria without or minimal proteinuria and normal GFR requires only follow-up to monitor renal function. Persistent proteinuria with normal or slightly reduced GFR can be treated with ACE inhibitors. If there is active disease or failure to respond to ACE inhibitors, immunosuppression with corticosteroids may be necessary. The prognosis of IgA nephropathy varies, with 25% of patients developing ESRF. Factors associated with a poor prognosis include male gender, proteinuria, hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidemia, and ACE genotype DD, while frank hematuria is a marker of good prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old patient visits his primary care physician complaining of a recent exacerbation of his chronic cough. He reports experiencing similar episodes in the past, during which his typically yellow sputum becomes thicker and slightly tinged with blood. The patient has a history of hypertension and bronchiectasis, and has received multiple courses of antibiotics for these exacerbations. Upon examination, the patient appears relatively healthy but continues to cough. Crackles are heard upon chest auscultation. Given the patient's medical history and likely diagnosis, the physician decides to obtain a sputum sample. What organism is most likely to be observed upon culturing?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:The most common organism associated with bronchiectasis is Haemophilus influenzae, making it the correct answer for an acute exacerbation of this condition. While Klebsiella pneumonia is also a possibility, it is less frequently seen and typically associated with pneumonia in patients with alcohol dependence. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an incorrect answer, as it is more commonly found in patients with cystic fibrosis than bronchiectasis. Staphylococcus aureus is also less commonly isolated in bronchiectasis, and is more commonly associated with other infective conditions such as infective endocarditis and skin infections, as well as being a secondary bacterial cause of pneumonia following influenzae.
Managing Bronchiectasis
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency. The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease. The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Spacing:
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency.
The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease.
The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman presents with symptoms of fatigue. Routine blood tests reveal Hb of 105 g/L, MCV of 104 fL, platelets of 305 * 109/L, and WBC of 9.3 * 109/L. Further tests reveal positive intrinsic factor antibodies. During the discussion of the diagnosis with the patient, the potential serious complications are brought up. What is one serious complication that can arise from this condition?
Your Answer: Gastric cancer
Explanation:The presence of pernicious anaemia, as indicated by the patient’s macrocytic anaemia and positive intrinsic factor antibodies, can increase the risk of developing gastric carcinoma. Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune disease that impairs the production of intrinsic factor, leading to low levels of vitamin B12 and anaemia. While chronic lymphocytic leukaemia and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma are not strongly linked to pernicious anaemia, they may be associated with genetic mutations acquired over time. Gastritis, which is not a serious complication, is more commonly associated with conditions such as Helicobacter pylori infection.
Understanding Pernicious Anaemia
Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in vitamin B12 deficiency due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious means causing harm in a gradual or subtle way, and this is reflected in the often subtle symptoms and delayed diagnosis of the condition. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition.
The pathophysiology of pernicious anaemia involves antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells. These antibodies can bind to intrinsic factor, blocking the vitamin B12 binding site, or reduce acid production and cause atrophic gastritis. This leads to reduced intrinsic factor production and reduced vitamin B12 absorption, which can result in megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Risk factors for pernicious anaemia include being female, middle to old age, and having other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid arthritis, and vitiligo. It is also more common in individuals with blood group A.
Symptoms of pernicious anaemia include anaemia features such as lethargy, pallor, and dyspnoea, as well as neurological features such as peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Neuropsychiatric features such as memory loss, poor concentration, confusion, depression, and irritability may also be present, along with mild jaundice and glossitis.
Diagnosis of pernicious anaemia involves a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and testing for antibodies such as anti intrinsic factor antibodies and anti gastric parietal cell antibodies. Treatment involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly, and folic acid supplementation may also be required. Complications of pernicious anaemia include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with vague abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of alcohol abuse and depression, and has been feeling particularly low following a recent breakup. He has not been eating much in the past few days.
Observations: heart rate 94 beats per minute, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, temperature 37.2ºC, oxygen saturations 99% on air.
Initial investigations are done including a capillary glucose, capillary ketones, arterial blood gas and electrocardiogram(ECG).
ECG: sinus tachycardia
Capillary glucose 4.8 mmol/L (4-7)
Capillary ketones 3.5 mmol/L (0-0.6)
pH 7.34 (7.35-7.45)
pO2 13 kPa (10-14)
pCO2 4.5 kPa (4.5-6)
Lactate 1.7 mmol/L (0-2)
What is the most appropriate management plan at this point?Your Answer: IV saline 0.9% with glucose
Correct Answer: IV saline 0.9% and thiamine
Explanation:Alcoholic ketoacidosis is treated by administering saline and thiamine through an infusion. This condition is characterized by acidosis, elevated ketones, and normal or low blood glucose levels, and typically occurs in chronic alcoholics who have not eaten enough food. When the body becomes malnourished, it starts breaking down body fat, leading to the production of ketones and the development of ketoacidosis. The first steps in managing this condition involve rehydration with IV fluids like saline and administering thiamine to prevent the onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy. It is important to note that simply replacing glucose without also replacing thiamine can be dangerous, as glucose promotes metabolism and thiamine acts as a co-factor. In contrast, IV insulin fixed rate infusion is used to manage diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which is characterized by high glucose levels. However, diabetic patients taking a sodium-glucose transport protein 2 inhibitor are at risk of developing euglycemic DKA. While chlordiazepoxide can help prevent alcohol withdrawal, preventing Wernicke’s should be the primary focus of initial management.
Alcoholic ketoacidosis is a type of ketoacidosis that occurs in individuals who consume large amounts of alcohol regularly. This condition is not related to diabetes and is characterized by normal blood sugar levels. Alcoholics often suffer from malnutrition due to their irregular eating habits and may vomit the food they consume, leading to starvation. When the body becomes malnourished, it starts breaking down body fat, which produces ketones and leads to ketoacidosis.
The typical symptoms of alcoholic ketoacidosis include metabolic acidosis, elevated anion gap, elevated serum ketone levels, and normal or low glucose concentration. The most effective treatment for this condition is an infusion of saline and thiamine. Thiamine is essential to prevent the development of Wernicke encephalopathy or Korsakoff psychosis. Therefore, it is crucial to provide timely and appropriate treatment to individuals suffering from alcoholic ketoacidosis to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about sudden weight gain. Despite following a balanced diet and exercising, she has gained 10 kilograms in the past month. She also reports an increase in body hair and new acne on her face. During the examination, the doctor observes central adiposity. The patient has been taking regular oral corticosteroids for adhesive capsulitis of the shoulder. Based on the likely diagnosis, what acid-base imbalance would be anticipated?
Your Answer: Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis, which is a common feature of Cushing’s syndrome. This condition is caused by an excess of corticosteroids, which can be exacerbated by corticosteroid therapy. The patient’s symptoms, such as central adiposity, stretch marks, bruising, hirsutism, and acne, are all indicative of Cushing’s syndrome.
Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis occurs when cortisol levels are high, allowing cortisol to bind to mineralocorticoid receptors. This leads to an increase in water and sodium retention, increased potassium excretion, and increased hydrogen ion excretion. The resulting decrease in hydrogen ions causes alkalosis, while the decrease in potassium causes hypokalemia.
Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis, on the other hand, is caused by bicarbonate loss, usually due to diarrhea. The patient does not report any gastrointestinal symptoms, so this is unlikely to be the cause. Hyperkalaemic metabolic acidosis is associated with type 4 renal tubular acidosis and hypoaldosteronism, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. Hyperkalaemic metabolic alkalosis is also unlikely, as a decrease in hydrogen ions would lead to a decrease in potassium ions. Finally, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis is most commonly caused by vomiting, which the patient did not report.
Investigations for Cushing’s Syndrome
Cushing’s syndrome is a condition caused by excessive cortisol production in the body. There are various causes of Cushing’s syndrome, including iatrogenic, ACTH-dependent, and ACTH-independent causes. To diagnose Cushing’s syndrome, doctors typically perform tests to confirm the condition and determine its underlying cause.
General lab findings consistent with Cushing’s syndrome include hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis and impaired glucose tolerance. Ectopic ACTH secretion, which is often associated with small cell lung cancer, is characterized by very low potassium levels.
The two most commonly used tests to confirm Cushing’s syndrome are the overnight dexamethasone suppression test and the 24-hour urinary free cortisol test. The overnight dexamethasone suppression test is the most sensitive test and is used first-line to test for Cushing’s syndrome. Patients with Cushing’s syndrome do not have their morning cortisol spike suppressed. The 24-hour urinary free cortisol test measures the amount of cortisol in the urine over a 24-hour period.
To localize the cause of Cushing’s syndrome, doctors may perform additional tests such as high-dose dexamethasone suppression test, CRH stimulation, and petrosal sinus sampling of ACTH. An insulin stress test may also be used to differentiate between true Cushing’s and pseudo-Cushing’s. Overall, a combination of these tests can help diagnose Cushing’s syndrome and determine its underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with frequent blood pressure readings above 160/95 mmHg on an ambulatory monitor. He has a history of well-controlled heart failure (New York Heart Association stage 2) and chronic kidney disease. The patient is currently taking ramipril, bisoprolol, and atorvastatin, with optimized dosages for the past year.
What is the most suitable course of action to take next?Your Answer: Stop ramipril and trial amlodipine with indapamide instead
Correct Answer: Add indapamide
Explanation:The appropriate course of action for a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor is to add indapamide to their medication regimen. This is in accordance with the NICE treatment algorithm, which recommends adding a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic in such cases. It is important to note that nifedipine should be avoided in patients with heart failure, and that amlodipine is the only calcium channel blocker licensed for use in such patients. Continuing to monitor blood pressure at home and reviewing in one month would not be sufficient in this case, as the patient’s hypertension needs to be addressed more aggressively. Stopping ramipril and trying amlodipine instead is not recommended, as combination therapy is the preferred approach. Similarly, stopping ramipril and trying amlodipine with indapamide instead is not recommended, as the combination should not be used in place of an ACE inhibitor.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A patient in their 60s presents to the emergency department with right-sided hemiplegia, facial weakness, and difficulty with speech. A stroke is suspected. What is the recommended tool for assessing a patient in this scenario?
Your Answer: ABCD2
Correct Answer: ROSIER
Explanation:ROSIER is an acronym for a tool used to assess stroke symptoms in an acute setting.
Assessment and Investigations for Stroke
Whilst diagnosing a stroke may be straightforward in some cases, it can be challenging when symptoms are vague. The FAST screening tool, which stands for Face/Arms/Speech/Time, is a well-known tool used by the general public to identify stroke symptoms. However, medical professionals use a validated tool called the ROSIER score, recommended by the Royal College of Physicians. The ROSIER score assesses for loss of consciousness or syncope, seizure activity, and new, acute onset of asymmetric facial, arm, or leg weakness, speech disturbance, or visual field defect. A score of greater than zero indicates a likely stroke.
When investigating suspected stroke, a non-contrast CT head scan is the first line radiological investigation. The key question to answer is whether the stroke is ischaemic or haemorrhagic, as this determines the appropriate management. Ischaemic strokes may show areas of low density in the grey and white matter of the territory, while haemorrhagic strokes typically show areas of hyperdense material surrounded by low density. It is important to identify the type of stroke promptly, as thrombolysis and thrombectomy play an increasing role in acute stroke management. In rare cases, a third pathology such as a tumour may also be detected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 25
Correct
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A 42-year-old obese female is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound, which was ordered due to recurrent urinary tract infections. Other than the UTIs, she is in good health. What is the best course of action for managing the gallstones?
Your Answer: Observation
Explanation:Gallstones: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis involves abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm the presence of stones in the bile duct. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and early ERCP or surgical exploration for stones in the bile duct. Intraoperative cholangiography or laparoscopic ultrasound may be used to confirm anatomy or exclude CBD stones during surgery. ERCP carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 26
Correct
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A 35-year-old man has visited his doctor complaining of feeling unwell. He has been experiencing flu-like symptoms, nausea, and joint pain for the past 3 weeks. Additionally, he has noticeable yellowing of the skin. The patient recently returned from a trip to Mallorca, a Spanish island, 6 weeks ago. Although he did not engage in unprotected sex, he frequently dined at local seafood restaurants. He has no medical history. Upon examination, the doctor noted an enlargement of the liver and spleen. What is the most likely cause of this patient's hepatosplenomegaly?
Your Answer: Viral hepatitis A
Explanation:Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes
Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly, with a hard and irregular liver edge. Right heart failure can result in a firm, smooth, and tender liver edge, which may be pulsatile.
Other causes of hepatomegaly include viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hepatomegaly to determine the appropriate treatment and management plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old with type one diabetes is brought to the emergency department due to feeling unwell for the past few days. Upon examination, his blood glucose level is found to be 25.7 mmol/l and his ketone level is 5.8 mmol/l. What is the expected result of the arterial blood gas test?
Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
Explanation:Based on the information provided in the presentation and the patient’s medical history, it can be concluded that the patient is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which results in metabolic acidosis and an elevated anion gap.
Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation Made Easy
Arterial blood gas interpretation can be a daunting task for healthcare professionals. However, the Resuscitation Council (UK) has provided a simple 5-step approach to make it easier. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, which is indicated by a PaO2 level of less than 10 kPa on air. The third step is to check if the patient is academic or alkalaemic, which is determined by the pH level. A pH level of less than 7.35 indicates acidaemia, while a pH level of more than 7.45 indicates alkalaemia.
The fourth step is to assess the respiratory component by checking the PaCO2 level. A PaCO2 level of more than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level of less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth and final step is to evaluate the metabolic component by checking the bicarbonate level or base excess. A bicarbonate level of less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess of less than -2mmol/l indicates metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level of more than 26 mmol/l or a base excess of more than +2mmol/l indicates metabolic alkalosis.
To make it easier to remember, healthcare professionals can use the ROME acronym. Respiratory is opposite, which means that low pH and high PaCO2 indicate acidosis, while high pH and low PaCO2 indicate alkalosis. Metabolic is equal, which means that low pH and low bicarbonate indicate acidosis, while high pH and high bicarbonate indicate alkalosis. By following this simple approach, healthcare professionals can easily interpret arterial blood gas results and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 28
Correct
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A 90-year-old man is referred to the memory clinic for evaluation due to his family's concerns about his increasing forgetfulness in recent months. He scores 14/30 on the Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE). The consultant requests that you initiate treatment with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.
Which of the following drugs would you prescribe?Your Answer: Donepezil
Explanation:Donepezil is classified as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor and is considered a first-line treatment option for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia, along with galantamine and rivastigmine. Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is typically used as a second-line or adjunctive treatment for mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia, although it may be used as a first-line option for severe cases. Oxybutynin and tolterodine are anti-muscarinic medications that are commonly prescribed for urge incontinence, but immediate release oxybutynin should be avoided in frail older women, according to NICE guidelines. Finally, rotigotine is a dopamine agonist that is used to treat Parkinson’s disease and restless legs syndrome.
Managing Alzheimer’s Disease: Non-Pharmacological and Pharmacological Approaches
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. To manage this condition, there are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches available.
Non-pharmacological management involves offering a range of activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy is recommended for patients with mild to moderate dementia, while group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation are also options to consider.
Pharmacological management involves the use of medications. The three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is considered a second-line treatment and is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.
When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.
It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. By utilizing both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches, patients with Alzheimer’s disease can receive comprehensive care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 29
Correct
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A 45-year-old man has been referred to the hepatology clinic by his GP due to concerns of developing chronic liver disease. The patient reports feeling increasingly fatigued over the past few years, which he attributes to poor sleep and low libido causing relationship problems with his partner. During examination, the hepatologist notes the presence of gynaecomastia, palmar erythema, and grey skin pigmentation. Blood tests are ordered to investigate the underlying cause.
The following results were obtained:
Bilirubin: 18 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP: 110 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT: 220 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT: 90 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin: 37 g/L (35 - 50)
Ferritin: 1,250 ng/mL (20 - 230)
What is the initial treatment that should be offered to this patient?Your Answer: Venesection
Explanation:Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy with Perl’s stain. A typical iron study profile in a patient with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC.
The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis. It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man visits his GP complaining of watery diarrhoea that has persisted for a few days. The patient had received IM ceftriaxone for gonorrhoeae treatment the previous week. He has not traveled recently and has maintained his regular diet. This is the first time the patient has encountered diarrhoea in his life. The GP conducted some tests and found that the patient is positive for C.difficile toxin. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: Prescribe oral vancomycin with oral metronidazole
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral vancomycin
Explanation:The recommended first-line antibiotic for patients with C. difficile infection is oral vancomycin. This is the appropriate treatment for the patient in question, who has tested positive for C. difficile toxin in their stool while taking IM ceftriaxone. As this is their first episode of C. difficile, oral vancomycin should be prescribed. Prescribing oral fidaxomicin would be incorrect, as it is typically reserved for recurrent episodes of C. difficile within 12 weeks of symptom resolution. Oral metronidazole is an alternative but less effective option for non-severe cases, and should only be used if vancomycin is not available or contraindicated. Prescribing a combination of oral vancomycin and intravenous metronidazole would only be necessary in cases of life-threatening C. difficile infection, which is not the case for this patient.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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