-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 59-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic heart failure is seen in the diabetes clinic. His current medications include metformin, gliclazide, ramipril, bisoprolol, furosemide, and simvastatin. His annual blood work shows normal electrolyte levels, kidney function, and cholesterol levels, but his HbA1c is 7.7%. His blood pressure is 124/78 mmHg and his BMI is 29 kg/m². What is the most appropriate course of action regarding his anti-diabetic medication?
Your Answer: Pioglitazone
Correct Answer: Sitagliptin
Explanation:NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient does not achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman presents to the clinic with worsening bruising and frequent nose bleeds over the past week. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis and drinks 70 units of alcohol per week. On examination, she has widespread petechiae and purpura, as well as palpable hepatosplenomegaly. Her blood results show thrombocytopenia, elevated liver enzymes, and prolonged PT and APTT. What is the most likely cause of her thrombocytopenia?
Your Answer: Portal hypertension
Correct Answer: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Explanation:Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks platelets, leading to a reduction in their count. This condition is more common in older females and tends to be chronic in adults. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation. ITP is usually detected incidentally during routine blood tests.
Diagnosis of ITP is based on a full blood count, which shows isolated thrombocytopenia, and a blood film. A bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, and antiplatelet antibody testing has poor sensitivity and does not affect clinical management.
The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, which is effective in most cases. Pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used, especially if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. IVIG raises the platelet count quicker than steroids. Splenectomy, which used to be a common treatment for ITP, is now less commonly used.
In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), a condition known as Evan’s syndrome. In such cases, treatment may involve addressing both conditions simultaneously.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 35-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department following a car accident. As the attending physician, you are asked to assess the patient.
Upon examination, the patient is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. However, he cannot recall any details about the accident except for getting into the car to attend a meeting at 9 am. According to the paramedics who responded to the emergency call, the patient was involved in a frontal car collision and was found outside the car at 9:45 am. He was initially disoriented but regained his senses after a few minutes.
The patient has only minor injuries, including superficial scratches and bruises on his face, elbows, and knees, as well as a small hematoma on his forehead. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15, and he is able to move around and is eager to leave the hospital.
As the physician in charge, what would be your recommended course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: CT scan head
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Head Injury Management
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for the management of head injury. According to these guidelines, a CT scan is recommended in cases where the patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 at any point since the injury, or a GCS score of 13 or 14 at two hours after the injury. Other indications for a CT scan include suspected open or depressed skull fracture, any sign of basal skull fracture (such as haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid otorrhoea, or Battle’s sign), post-traumatic seizure, focal neurological deficit, more than one episode of vomiting, and amnesia for greater than 30 minutes of events before impact.
In summary, NICE recommends a CT scan for patients who have experienced head injury and exhibit any of the aforementioned symptoms. This will help to evaluate the extent of the injury and determine the appropriate course of treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
You assess a 59-year-old man with severe hypertension who has come to the Emergency Department complaining of intractable headache, diplopia, nausea and vomiting. His BP is 195/115 mmHg and he has papilloedema, diplopia, nausea and vomiting. You initiate a labetalol infusion but his hypertension persists. You contemplate administering a sodium nitroprusside infusion. What is the most appropriate action to take?
Your Answer: Should not be used in coarctation of the aorta
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Sodium Nitroprusside: Mechanism of Action and Considerations
Sodium nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator that acts via the nitric oxide pathway to increase cGMP within smooth muscle cells. It has a rapid hypotensive effect that begins to appear within 30-60 seconds of commencing the infusion. However, overdose may be associated with the accumulation of cyanide, which can lead to side effects such as nausea, sweating, headache, and twitching.
There is no evidence that nitroprusside significantly impacts B12 levels when used at therapeutic doses, despite historical recommendations to avoid it in B12 deficiency. However, it should not be used in coarctation of the aorta as the marked reduction in preload could precipitate dangerous hypotension.
While nitroprusside does lead to relaxation of vascular smooth muscle, it does not impact GI smooth muscle. It is important to consider these factors when using sodium nitroprusside in clinical practice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
You receive a request for a second opinion from a GP who has performed a general physical check on one of their new patients. He is a 52-year-old man who is from Thailand. He had been complaining of low mood, fatigue and sensitivity to the cold. His body mass index is 31 kg/m². The following is a list of investigations performed by the GP.
Na+ 141 mmol/l
K+ 4.8 mmol/l
Urea 9.8 mmol/l
Creatinine 142 µmol/l
CRP 4 mg/l
Bilirubin 14 µmol/l
ALP 86 u/l
ALT 27 u/l
Calcium 2.89 mmol/l
Albumin 39 g/l
TSH 24.0 mU/l
Free T4 0.8 pmol/l
Free T3 0.4 pmol/l
ECG: Heart rate 68, sinus rhythm, QRS width 128ms, flattened T waves V1 to V6
The patient has told the GP that he takes one medication regularly but is unable to give the name. Which medication is most likely to cause the following abnormalities?Your Answer: Amiodarone
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium is the correct answer. Prolonged use of Lithium can lead to hypothyroidism in around one-third of patients, with middle-aged women being the most susceptible. Lithium therapy can also cause hypercalcaemia and hyperparathyroidism. Renal impairment is a well-known side effect of long-term Lithium use, and weight gain is also common. While cardiac side effects are rare, flattened T waves and a widened QRS complex are the most common ECG changes, and a modified Brugada pattern may be observed.
Lithium is a drug used to stabilize mood in patients with bipolar disorder and refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole. Symptoms of toxicity include coarse tremors, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and coma.
To manage mild to moderate toxicity, volume resuscitation with normal saline may be effective. Severe toxicity may require hemodialysis. Sodium bicarbonate may also be used to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, but there is limited evidence to support its use. It is important to monitor lithium levels closely and adjust the dosage accordingly to prevent toxicity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 28-year-old female diagnosed with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, which involves glomerulonephritis and pulmonary complications, undergoes six months of monthly pulsed i.v. cyclophosphamide treatment. Despite the treatment, her disease remains active, and she is prescribed oral cyclophosphamide (100 mg/day for six months) followed by azathioprine. What is her highest risk factor?
Risk Factor:Your Answer: Premature ovarian failure
Explanation:Cyclophosphamide and its Effects on Fertility and Cancer Risk
Cyclophosphamide is a medication that can cause premature ovarian failure and infertility in both men and women. The risk of these side effects increases with higher doses of the drug and is more likely to occur in younger patients. However, it is important to note that cyclophosphamide treatment does not lead to an increased risk of breast cancer, hyperthyroidism, ovarian cancer, or venous thromboembolism.
It is crucial for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of cyclophosphamide treatment with their healthcare provider. For those who may be at risk for fertility issues, options such as fertility preservation may be available. Additionally, regular monitoring and screening for potential cancer risks may be recommended. Overall, while cyclophosphamide can be an effective treatment for certain conditions, it is important to be aware of its potential side effects and to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage any risks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of syncope, dizziness, and lethargy that have been ongoing for one month. She has a medical history of asthma, COPD, and breast cancer, and is currently taking oral herceptin. Additionally, she recently had a pacemaker fitted due to sinus bradycardia. Upon examination, her respiratory rate is 17/min, oxygen saturations are 99% on air, heart rate is 60, blood pressure is 89/50 mmHg, and she is apyrexial with a GCS of 15. The diagnosis of pacemaker syndrome is made. What are the typical ECG findings associated with this syndrome?
Your Answer: Small P waves with dissociation from QRS complex
Explanation:Pacemaker Syndrome
Pacemaker syndrome, also known as AV desynchronisation, is a condition that affects individuals who have been fitted with a pacemaker and have inadequate AV synchronisation. The symptoms of this syndrome include dizziness, syncope, hypotension, and peripheral oedema, which can lead to heart failure. Patients who are at a higher risk of developing AV desynchronisation are those with low sinus rate, hypotension, or low compliance ventricles before the insertion of the pacemaker.
ECG changes can show AV desynchronisation with small P waves. The treatment for this condition involves replacing the device with a dual-chamber device. It is important to note that there are no specific diagnostic criteria for pacemaker syndrome.
It is essential to differentiate pacemaker syndrome from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. For instance, hyperkalaemia can cause ECG changes similar to those seen in pacemaker syndrome. Mobitz type 2 heart block shows intermittent non-conductive p waves without PR elongation compared to type 1 where there is PR interval prolongation before a beat is dropped. T wave inversion can be non-specific but when accompanied with chest pain is a sign of evolving infarction.
In conclusion, pacemaker syndrome is a condition that affects individuals with pacemakers and inadequate AV synchronisation. It is important to identify the symptoms and differentiate them from other conditions to provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with fatigue and lethargy that have persisted for several years. She reports difficulty sleeping at night and experiences discomfort in her lower extremities at rest, particularly when trying to fall asleep. She also describes an abnormal crawling and itching sensation below the knees that is relieved by walking. There is no history of pain or snoring at night. Despite several tests ordered by her general practitioner, including brain imaging, thyroid function, and haemoglobin monitoring, all results have been normal. She is not taking any medications and is now working part-time due to her symptoms. What treatment would you recommend to alleviate her symptoms, given the likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Pramipexole
Explanation:Restless leg syndrome (RLS) is a neurological disorder that causes an irresistible urge to move the legs, often accompanied by uncomfortable sensations. Many patients with RLS also experience periodic leg movements of sleep (PLMS), which involve involuntary, forceful dorsiflexion of the foot every 20-40 seconds throughout sleep. It is important to take a collateral history from a partner if available to assess the extent of sleep disturbance.
Investigations should include ruling out iron deficiency, which can exacerbate RLS, and ordering sleep studies to further characterize the condition. Dopaminergic agents such as pramipexole, ropinirole, bromocriptine, levodopa-carbidopa, and rotigotine, as well as gabapentin/pregabalin, are first-line drug treatments. Non-pharmacologic approaches include exercise and avoiding caffeine, alcohol, and nicotine. It is also important to discontinue medications that worsen RLS, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), diphenhydramine, and dopamine antagonists.
Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Management
Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a common condition that affects between 2-10% of the general population. It is characterized by spontaneous, continuous movements in the lower limbs, often accompanied by paraesthesia. Both males and females are equally affected, and a family history may be present. Symptoms typically occur at night but may progress to occur during the day, and are worse at rest. Movements during sleep may also be noted by a partner, known as periodic limb movements of sleep (PLMS).
There are several causes and associations with RLS, including a positive family history in 50% of patients with idiopathic RLS, iron deficiency anaemia, uraemia, diabetes mellitus, and pregnancy. Diagnosis is primarily clinical, although blood tests such as ferritin may be appropriate to exclude iron deficiency anaemia.
Management of RLS includes simple measures such as walking, stretching, and massaging affected limbs, as well as treating any underlying iron deficiency. Dopamine agonists such as Pramipexole and ropinirole are first-line treatments, while benzodiazepines and gabapentin may also be used. With proper management, individuals with RLS can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman comes to the Cardiology Clinic seeking advice. She works as a teacher, maintains a healthy weight, and does not smoke. She is concerned because her mother and aunt both had heart attacks in their early thirties.
During the examination, her weight is normal with a BMI of 22 kg/m2, and her blood pressure is 130/75 mmHg.
Her fasting blood test results are as follows:
LDL cholesterol 5.5 mmol/l < 3.5 mmol/l
Triglycerides 2.8 mmol/l < 1.5 mmol/l
HDL cholesterol 1.2 mmol/l > 1.0 mmol/l
Glucose 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
TSH 1.2 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?Your Answer: Start atorvastatin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Familial Combined Hyperlipidaemia
Familial combined hyperlipidaemia is a common genetic disorder that increases the risk of premature cardiovascular disease. The first-line treatment for this condition is a statin, which can reduce LDL cholesterol levels and lower the risk of cardiovascular events. However, if triglyceride levels remain high, fenofibrate may be added to the treatment regimen. Dietary modifications may not have a significant impact on lipid parameters in individuals who already lead a healthy lifestyle. Ezetimibe is an option for individuals who cannot tolerate statin therapy or require additional lipid-lowering therapy. It is recommended to use ezetimibe in combination with a statin when serum cholesterol levels are not adequately controlled with the maximum tolerated dose of statin. It is important to identify and treat familial combined hyperlipidaemia early to prevent cardiovascular events.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her husband. She tells you that she is not real and is living in a dream, that she does not exist in this world.
Her husband tells you that she barely eats, sleeps for long periods in the day and wakes in the early hours of the morning. She says she became preoccupied and very low in mood after some problems at work. Most recently, she had tried to jump out of the car whilst they were driving to the hospital.
On examination, she stares continuously at the wall, mumbling only that she is in a dream, nothing is real and she’s not really here. She looks unkempt and as if she has not been taking good care of herself.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 142 g/l 135 - 175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4.0 - 11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 189 × 109/l 150 - 400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135 - 145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/
Creatinine (Cr) 90 µmol/l 50 - 120 µmol/l
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.8 mu/l 0.4 - 5.0 mu/l
Which of the following treatments is most likely to be effective in this case?Your Answer: Citalopram
Correct Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy
Explanation:Delusional depression with Cotard syndrome is a severe form of depression where patients believe they are already dead and do not exist. This condition can cause early morning waking, daytime somnolence, and poor appetite. Tricyclic antidepressants, SSRIs, and major tranquillisers are less effective in treating this condition. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is the most successful treatment option for this patient, as it can have a rapid and positive impact on their symptoms.
Citalopram and fluoxetine are not recommended in the initial stages of treatment due to the risk of increasing agitation, which can lead to an increased risk of suicide. Amitriptyline is not usually effective as monotherapy and is more effective when combined with an anti-psychotic. Haloperidol may be used to manage delusions in patients with this form of depression, but it is usually combined with a second antidepressant medication. Overall, ECT is the most effective treatment option for delusional depression with Cotard syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 16-year-old boy presented with exercise-induced collapse and underwent cardiac catheterisation for investigation. The results are as follows:
Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg)
End systolic/End diastolic
Superior vena cava 74 -
Inferior vena cava 72 -
Right atrium 73 5
Right ventricle 74 20/4
Pulmonary artery 74 20/5
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 15
Left ventricle 98 210/15
Aorta 99 125/75
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Elevated Left Ventricular Pressures and Sharp Decline in Aortic Systolic Pressures
The pressure in the left ventricle is high and there is a significant decrease in pressure between the left ventricle and the aorta during systole. This means that the heart is working harder to pump blood out of the left ventricle and into the aorta. The steep drop-off in pressure can be an indication of aortic stenosis, a condition where the aortic valve is narrowed and obstructs blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta. It can also be a sign of other cardiovascular diseases such as hypertension or heart failure. Monitoring left ventricular and aortic pressures can help diagnose and manage these conditions. Proper treatment can help reduce the workload on the heart and improve overall cardiovascular health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man has been referred to you due to a personality change that has been going on for a year. He has become loud, sexually flirtatious, and inappropriate in social situations. He has also been experiencing difficulties with memory and abstract thinking, but his arithmetic ability remains intact. There is no motor impairment, and his speech is relatively preserved. Which area of the brain is most likely affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:Pick’s Disease: A Rare Form of Dementia
Pick’s disease is a type of dementia that is not commonly seen. It is characterized by the degeneration of the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. The symptoms of this disease depend on the location of the lobar atrophy, with patients experiencing either frontal or temporal lobe syndromes. Those with frontal atrophy may exhibit early personality changes, while those with temporal lobe atrophy may experience aphasia and semantic memory impairment.
Pathologically, Pick’s disease is associated with Pick bodies, which are inclusion bodies found in the neuronal cytoplasm. These bodies are argyrophilic, meaning they have an affinity for silver staining. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, EEG readings for Pick’s disease are relatively normal.
To learn more about Pick’s disease, the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke provides an information page on frontotemporal dementia. this rare form of dementia can help individuals and their loved ones better manage the symptoms and seek appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old male, who is the cousin of the British High Commissioner in Nairobi, Kenya, visited his cousin for a two-week vacation about six months ago. He was prescribed mefloquine for malaria prophylaxis but failed to complete the medication. He now presents with symptoms of fever, chills, rigors, and headaches. You suspect malaria and send his blood samples to the laboratory. The thick blood smear reveals large parasites with fragmented cytoplasm, while the thin film shows amoeboid parasites with Schuffner's nodes in enlarged red blood cells. Which malarial parasite is most likely causing his illness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: P. vivax
Explanation:Differentiating between types of malaria
Malaria is a disease caused by parasites that are transmitted through mosquito bites. There are several types of malaria, each with its own unique characteristics. P. vivax is one type of malaria that has a long incubation period of up to six months or more. This is because it can be caused by hypnozoites. The symptoms of P. vivax may not appear until several months after being bitten by an infected mosquito. The thin film and thick film of P. vivax are diagnostic, showing distinct characteristics.
P. falciparum is another type of malaria that has a shorter incubation period of around six days. Its thin film usually shows many ring forms of crescent-shaped gametocytes. P. knowlesi is a type of malaria that usually affects apes and monkeys and is usually isolated in the forests around South East Asia. P. ovale is quite rare and has a similar incubation period to P. vivax. On the thick film, the parasites are more compact and smaller, while on the thin film, the red blood cells appear oval with ragged ends. P. malariae is also rare and has an incubation period of up to 14 days like P. falciparum. The thick film will show a few compact rings or small neat schizonts or small round gametocytes with yellow-brown pigment. The thin film will show red blood cells in band forms. By the unique characteristics of each type of malaria, doctors can accurately diagnose and treat the disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 59-year-old man with a history of multiple myocardial infarctions presents to the cardiology clinic with symptoms of NYHA class III heart failure. Despite taking ramipril, bisoprolol, furosemide, aspirin, and atorvastatin, he still experiences shortness of breath and difficulty walking. On examination, he has crackles in both lung bases and pitting edema in both ankles. His blood pressure is 105/70 mmHg, and his pulse is 64/min and regular. Further investigations reveal an ejection fraction of 31% and evidence of an old anterior infarct. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Heart Failure Patients
Heart failure patients with a low ejection fraction (<35%) and symptomatic heart failure, but no left bundle branch block (LBBB) and QRS between 120-149 ms, are recommended to have an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) according to NICE guidelines. This is because of the risk of ventricular tachycardia. For patients with class III heart failure who have LBBB or a very prolonged QRS (>150 ms) without LBBB, cardiac resynchronization therapy with a defibrillator (CRT-D) is recommended. CRT-P is also an option for patients with class III heart failure who have LBBB or a markedly prolonged QRS without LBBB. For patients with class IV heart failure who have a prolonged QRS, CRT-P is recommended. Ivabradine is recommended for patients who are tachycardic with heart failure (who have a pulse of 75 or more). Valsartan is not recommended in this situation as it does not bring a significant enough improvement in symptoms of heart failure versus the risk of worsening hyperkalemia.
In summary, the treatment options for heart failure patients depend on their specific condition and symptoms. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 16 year old male patient presents to the acute medical unit with a seizure. He has no past medical history of note. On assessment, he is post-ictal but maintaining airway, breathing, circulation independently. His capillary blood glucose is 5.8.
CT brain reveals no bleed, no infarct and no space occupying lesion.
ECG: normal sinus rhythm
Bloods are as follows:
Hb 135 g/dl
Plt 70 x10^9/l
WCC 15.0 x10^9/l
Na+ 132 mmol/l
K+ 5.7 mmol/l
Ur 42 mmol/l
Cr 980 µmol/l
Blood gas analysis:
pH 7.35
pCO2 4.2 kPa
pO2 12.8 kPa
BE -3 mmol/l
HCO3- 17 mEq/l
You note his renal function and arrange for further investigation by booking a renal ultrasound and performing immunology bloods to assess for the underlying cause. You catheterise the patient - urine dipstick shows PRO +++, BLD ++. Therefore, a mid-stream sample of urine is sent for microscopy, culture and sensitivity(results awaited). Following discussion with the renal team, the decision is made to dialyse the patient.
What is one of the indications for dialysis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seizure
Explanation:The patient’s underlying diagnosis is still unknown, but it is evident that she is suffering from acute kidney injury. The reason for her seizure is also unclear, but given the normal CT head, uraemia is a possible cause. The renal team has decided to perform dialysis on the patient because they suspect symptomatic uraemia, which could be the reason for her seizure. While an elevated urea level alone is not an indication for dialysis, a urea level of >25 mmol/l, along with concomitant symptoms, could be considered for dialysis to prevent uraemic symptoms from progressing. Similarly, a creatinine level of >1000 µmol/l is indicative of severe renal impairment but not an indication for dialysis. Dialysis would only be considered if the patient’s potassium level is >6.5 mmol/l or if the pH level is <7.1. A pH level of 7.34 is not severe enough to warrant dialysis. Before resorting to dialysis, attempts would be made to medically treat the patient's potassium levels. The NICE guidelines for acute kidney injury (AKI) identify several risk factors, including emergency surgery, CKD, diabetes, and use of nephrotoxic drugs. Diagnostic criteria for AKI include a rise in creatinine, a fall in urine output, or a fall in eGFR. The KDIGO criteria are used to stage AKI based on the severity of the creatinine increase or reduction in urine output. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for certain cases, such as stage 3 AKI, inadequate response to treatment, or complications of AKI.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic accompanied by his wife. He has been experiencing strange noises and occasional non-threatening voices for the past two months. His wife reports that he also hears music. Upon further questioning, he admits to feeling more withdrawn lately and spending most of his time doing nothing. He has been experiencing poor sleep and frequently wakes up at 2-3 am. His appetite has decreased, resulting in a weight loss of approximately 10 kg over the past three months. He confesses to consuming one and a half bottles of whisky daily. During the conversation, he appears calm, speaks clearly and articulately, but has poor attention. He does not exhibit any tremors, and his three-minute recall of a given address is impaired. There is no indication of delusions or paranoid symptoms, and he does not display any clouding of consciousness. What is the most probable diagnosis for this man?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Major depression with psychosis
Explanation:Psychotic Disorders and Depression: Symptoms and Characteristics
Psychotic disorders and depression can present with a variety of symptoms and characteristics. Major depression is often characterized by psychomotor retardation, anorexia, weight loss, and insomnia, while psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations may also occur. In cases where psychotic symptoms are present, treatment with both an antidepressant and an antipsychotic is recommended.
Alcohol-induced psychotic disorder with hallucinations is characterized by auditory hallucinations, typically maligning, reproachful, or threatening voices. These hallucinations usually last less than a week, and after the episode, most patients realize the hallucinatory nature of the symptoms.
Korsakoff’s psychosis is characterized by both anterograde and retrograde amnesia, with confabulation early in the course. In psychotic depression, the depression is of psychotic intensity with delusional convictions of disease, putrefaction and poverty, contaminating others or causing evil. There may also be hallucinations, typically accusing or derogatory voices.
Schizophrenia is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, negative symptoms (such as blunted affect and poverty of speech), and disorganized behavior. the symptoms and characteristics of these disorders is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old male patient visits the clinic with a complaint of motor and verbal tics that are causing him embarrassment. He was diagnosed with Tourette syndrome at the age of 16 and had undergone habit reversal therapy (HRT) which provided partial relief. However, his symptoms have worsened now. He has no significant medical history and is not on any regular medication.
What medication would you prescribe to block the effects of dopamine in the basal ganglia for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:The most effective treatment for tics is antipsychotics, which work by blocking dopamine levels that cause the repetitive, stereotyped motor or vocal movements. Risperidone is a commonly used antipsychotic, while clozapine is reserved as a last resort due to its potentially dangerous side effects such as myocarditis and neutropaenia. It is important to note that drugs such as methylphenidate, dextroamphetamine, and lamotrigine can actually cause tics.
Tics are characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements that occur intermittently and follow a stereotypical pattern. These movements can include blinking and shrugging, and are present in around 15% of primary school age children.
There are various treatment options available for tics, including the use of clonidine and atypical antipsychotics. These medications can help to alleviate the symptoms of tics and improve the quality of life for those affected. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the most appropriate treatment plan for each individual case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man is admitted to the specialist burns unit with severe burns following a house fire. He is haemodynamically stable and receives IV fluids and oxygen, although does not require intubation. Three days after his admission, he develops acute-onset shortness of breath. The only past medical history reported was hay-fever as a child and his mother has relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. He smoked 1-2 roll-up cigarettes per week and did not drink any alcohol.
His observations include a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations of 91% on 12L of oxygen, a heart rate of 112 beats per minute and blood pressure of 114/78 mmHg. His temperature was 36.9ºC. Examination revealed widespread crackles over both lung fields.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Explanation:The probable medical condition in this situation is adult respiratory distress syndrome, which has developed as a result of the patient’s extensive burns and potential exposure to smoke.
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a serious condition that has a mortality rate of around 40% and can cause significant morbidity in those who survive. It is caused by the increased permeability of alveolar capillaries, leading to fluid accumulation in the alveoli, which is known as non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema. ARDS can be caused by various factors such as infection, trauma, smoke inhalation, and Covid-19. The clinical features of ARDS are typically of an acute onset and severe, including dyspnoea, elevated respiratory rate, bilateral lung crackles, and low oxygen saturations. Key investigations for ARDS include a chest x-ray and arterial blood gases.
The American-European Consensus Conference has established criteria for the diagnosis of ARDS, which include an acute onset within one week of a known risk factor, pulmonary oedema with bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray, non-cardiogenic pulmonary artery wedge pressure, and pO2/FiO2 < 40 kPa (300 mmHg). Due to the severity of the condition, patients with ARDS are generally managed in the intensive care unit. Treatment involves oxygenation/ventilation to treat hypoxaemia, general organ support such as vasopressors as needed, and treatment of the underlying cause such as antibiotics for sepsis. Certain strategies such as prone positioning and muscle relaxation have been shown to improve outcomes in ARDS.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Sarah is a 19-year-old woman who was admitted with a fever and disseminated rash. She had not received any prior vaccinations and had been in contact with her 2-year-old cousin who had developed a fever and disseminated blisters and vesicles containing clear fluid. Two weeks after seeing her cousin, Sarah began to experience flu-like symptoms and developed similar clear-fluid filled vesicles and blisters. She was admitted for further observation.
After three days, Sarah noticed that while most of her skin lesions were healing, one of the lesions on her thigh appeared to be red and becoming hot to the touch. The affected area of skin was approximately 3x3cm and was erythematous. She was started on IV flucloxacillin and over the next 12 hours, the erythema around the lesion continued to spread. The pain around her leg increased in intensity, requiring morphine to alleviate the pain. A bluish discolouration began to develop around the rash.
What is the probable causative organism responsible for the complication that has arisen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: β- haemolytic Group A Streptococcus
Explanation:Chickenpox increases the risk of developing invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections, including necrotizing fasciitis.
If a patient presents with fevers, blisters, and vesicles, chickenpox is a likely cause, especially if they have been in contact with someone with similar symptoms. While chickenpox is usually mild in children, it can cause significant complications in adults.
If a patient develops a rapidly spreading rash and severe pain that is disproportionate to the rash, necrotizing fasciitis should be suspected. Bluish discoloration of the skin is also a concerning sign. Immediate surgical evaluation is necessary.
Necrotizing fasciitis can be caused by invasive group A Streptococcus, a type of β-hemolytic Streptococcus. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are used initially, with specific choices tailored to bacterial sensitivities when available.
While Staphylococcus aureus can also cause necrotizing fasciitis, it is more commonly associated with patients who have underlying medical conditions such as diabetes.
Enterococcus faecalis is not typically associated with skin infections and is more commonly associated with infections such as endocarditis.
Streptococcus bovis, a type of gamma-hemolytic Streptococcus, is most often associated with colorectal cancer-associated endocarditis and is not associated with skin infections.
Clostridium perfringens can cause necrotizing fasciitis and present as gas gangrene, which is characterized by crepitus under the skin. However, this is not seen in the case presented.
Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox.
One common complication of chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
You are asked to see a 28-year-old woman who is 10 weeks into her first pregnancy. She has been experiencing frequent nausea and has lost weight as a result.
During the examination, she appears nervous. Her blood pressure is 110/75, with a pulse of 80 and regular. Her BMI is 21.
The following investigations were conducted:
s
Haemoglobin (Hb) 122 g/l 135 - 175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.0 × 109/l 4.0 - 11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 195 × 109/l 150 - 400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135 - 145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.6 mmol/l 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 95 μmol/l 50 - 120 μmol/l
Glucose 5.0 mmol/l 3.9 - 7.1 mmol/l
Total Thyroxine (T4) 190 nmol/l 58 - 174 nmol/l
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.8 mu/l 0.4 - 5.0 mu/l
What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranberry juice
Explanation:Warfarin is a commonly prescribed anticoagulant medication that requires careful management to avoid adverse interactions with other substances. Here are some key points to keep in mind:- Cranberry juice is a known inhibitor of CYP2C9, the main route for warfarin metabolism. This means that consuming cranberry juice while taking warfarin can increase the risk of bleeding.- Grapefruit juice inhibits CYP3A4, which can affect the metabolism of other medications such as simvastatin and ciclosporin. It is important to be aware of this interaction and adjust medication dosages accordingly.- Prednisolone is a hepatic enzyme inducer, which means that it can reduce the effectiveness of warfarin rather than increase it.- While ciprofloxacin and clarithromycin are the antibiotics most likely to interact with warfarin due to P450 inhibition, other antibiotics may also have minor effects on INR due to changes in gut flora.- Amitriptyline is not known to have significant effects on INR.By understanding the potential interactions between warfarin and other substances, healthcare providers can help patients manage their medication regimens safely and effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and alcohol consumption presents to his General Practitioner with breathlessness, lower limb swelling, and abdominal distension. On examination, he has bilateral pitting pedal edema, free fluid in the abdomen, and bilateral basal crepitations. Ultrasonography reveals a coarse echotexture of the liver, and echocardiography shows global hypokinesia with an ejection fraction of 32%. His laboratory results show elevated levels of urea, aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase, total bilirubin, and decreased levels of sodium, potassium, total protein, and serum albumin. Which intervention is most likely to benefit this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abstinence from alcohol
Explanation:Management of Alcoholic Cardiomyopathy
Alcoholic cardiomyopathy is a condition that results from long-term alcohol abuse and can lead to heart failure. The primary intervention for this condition is complete and persistent abstinence from alcohol. While the volume overload status could indicate either cardiomyopathy or decompensated liver disease, the presence of basal crepitations increases the likelihood of a diagnosis of alcoholic cardiomyopathy.
Coronary artery stenting is not a suitable treatment for alcoholic cardiomyopathy as it causes regional abnormalities in the heart rather than global dilatation of the heart. Carvedilol has been associated with improved ejection fraction, but its use before abstinence from alcohol does not result in significant benefits.
The sacubitril/valsartan combination has been used for the treatment of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, but in alcoholic cardiomyopathy, the primary intervention would be abstinence from alcohol. Furosemide may help relieve congestive symptoms, and spironolactone may aid in the prevention of cardiac remodeling, but using these drugs alone will not offer benefits if the patient continues consuming alcohol. Therefore, the management of alcoholic cardiomyopathy involves complete abstinence from alcohol and anti-heart failure measures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman presented to the hospital with severe pain in her right loin and haematuria. She had experienced some discomfort in her right loin 24 hours prior, but the acute severe pain began two hours before admission. She denied having dysuria, fever, or rigors.
The patient had a history of Crohn's disease, which was diagnosed when she was 18 years old. A year ago, she underwent an ileal resection after presenting with an acute exacerbation of Crohn's with an intestinal perforation. She was taking azathioprine 150 mg daily. She was married with two children and smoked five cigarettes per day.
Upon examination, the patient was afebrile with a regular pulse of 100 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 115/65 mmHg. Heart sounds were normal, and the chest was clear. Her abdomen was soft and non-tender, but the right loin was tender to palpation.
Investigations revealed a haemoglobin level of 115 g/L (115-165), a white cell count of 8.1 ×109/L (4-11), and platelets of 367 ×109/L (150-400). Her serum sodium was 139 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium was 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea was 6.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), serum creatinine was 89 µmol/L (60-110), and ESR (Westergren) was 12 mm/1st hour (0-20). Urinalysis showed blood and protein but was negative for white cells and nitrates. Microscopy did not demonstrate any white cells or organisms.
A plain x-ray of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder (KUB) showed an ovoid opacity approximately 0.8 cm in diameter adjacent to the right kidney.
What is the most likely composition of the renal stones?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium oxalate
Explanation:Hyperoxaluria and Renal Stones
Hyperoxaluria is a condition that can occur in patients who have undergone an ileal resection or a distal small bowel resection due to Crohn’s disease or an infarcted bowel. This condition is characterized by an increased absorption of oxalate by the colon, which can lead to the formation of renal stones. Bile salts in the colon can further exacerbate oxalate absorption. Renal stones that are radio-opaque include calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, triple phosphate (calcium, magnesium, ammonium), and cysteine (semi-opaque). On the other hand, urate is a radiolucent renal stone.
To reduce the propensity to form stones, it is recommended to increase citrate intake. This can help prevent the formation of renal stones in patients with hyperoxaluria. It is important to monitor and manage this condition to prevent complications such as renal failure. By the causes and potential complications of hyperoxaluria, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and treatment to patients with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department after experiencing his third episode of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (PAF) in the past year. He has had difficulty tolerating flecainide due to feelings of lethargy and fatigue, and beta blockade is not an option due to a history of brittle asthma and previous ICU admissions.
During the examination, his blood pressure is 105/70 mmHg, and his pulse is 120/min (AF). Bi-basal crackles are heard when listening to his chest. Routine blood tests show no abnormalities, and he is successfully cardioverted.
What is the most appropriate long-term intervention for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left atrial catheter ablation
Explanation:Management of Paroxysmal Atrial Fibrillation
Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF) is a type of irregular heartbeat that comes and goes. In managing this condition, left atrial catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have had three or more attacks of AF in the past year. This procedure aims to achieve permanent sinus rhythm and prevent the development of permanent AF, which is more difficult to treat. Beta blockers and flecainide may not be suitable or tolerated by some patients, making left atrial catheter ablation the best option. This is supported by current NICE guidance.
Oral digoxin is not effective in managing paroxysmal AF, but it may be considered for patients with chronic AF who require rate control. Propafenone is an alternative option for maintaining sinus rhythm, but it may not be suitable for patients who have failed to tolerate flecanide. Dronaderone is recommended for patients with paroxysmal AF who have certain cardiovascular risk factors and do not have heart failure or left ventricular dysfunction. However, regular amiodarone is not recommended for long-term use in older patients where other options such as ablation exist.
In summary, left atrial catheter ablation is the recommended management option for patients with paroxysmal AF who have had multiple attacks in the past year. Other medications may be considered for rate control or maintaining sinus rhythm, but their suitability depends on the patient’s individual circumstances.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
You are summoned to a typically healthy 67-year-old individual in the medical assessment unit. The patient was admitted earlier in the day with pneumonia and met the requirements for severe sepsis. Despite receiving sufficient fluid replacement throughout the day, the patient's creatinine level is 1200 μmol/L and urea level is 30 mmol/L. What would be the most suitable justification for commencing renal replacement therapy in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Development of refractory fluid overload
Explanation:Indications for Emergency Renal Replacement Therapy
Emergency renal replacement therapy is necessary in certain situations. One such situation is when a patient experiences acute life-threatening hyperkalemia that is unresponsive to treatment. Another indication is the development of fluid overload, which can lead to pulmonary edema. Uremia, which can cause pericarditis, neuropathy, and confusion, is also a reason for emergency renal replacement therapy. However, a drop in hemoglobin is not an indication for this therapy, as it may be due to dilutional factors, and sources of bleeding should be investigated. In chronic renal failure, anemia may result from a lack of erythropoietin production, which can be treated with synthetic erythropoietin and iron infusion, not renal replacement therapy. It is important to recognize these indications for emergency renal replacement therapy to ensure timely and appropriate treatment for patients in need.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with a one-day history of swelling, heat, and exquisite pain in his big toe and foot. He also reports feeling unwell with a fever and reduced appetite. He has a history of stage 2 chronic kidney disease. On examination, there is erythema and swelling of the affected area, but no skin breaks or joint immobility. Blood tests show neutrophilia, a C-Reactive Protein of 200, and a White Blood Count of 12.4. He has a temperature of 38.4°C and a heart rate of 120 BPM. What is the recommended initial treatment for his probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin 1 gram qds IV
Explanation:Cellulitis and Septic Shock Treatment
Cellulitis is a condition that this patient is suffering from, as evidenced by his medical history and risk factors. Additionally, he is showing signs of septic shock. The most effective treatment for this patient would be to begin intravenous antibiotic therapy. While oral flucloxacillin is a viable option, it is recommended to initiate IV treatment during the initial sepsis period.
It is important to note that colchicine and ibuprofen are not appropriate treatments for cellulitis or septic shock. These medications are typically used to treat acute gout attacks. Joint aspiration is also not a suitable treatment option for cellulitis or septic shock. Instead, it is reserved for the diagnosis of gout, pseudogout, or septic arthritis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old retired builder presented to his GP with a progressive history of stiffness and weakness affecting both legs. He had recently started dragging his right leg and had noticed some urinary incontinence. His symptoms had come on gradually over a period of four months.
There was no history of trauma; however he had had a bout of gastroenteritis in the last few weeks, which he had attributed to eating a take-away curry. His past medical history included rheumatoid arthritis and tension headaches, which had been more frequent of late, and borderline hypertension. He was a smoker of 20 cigarettes per day and drank 20 units of alcohol per week.
On examination he was alert and orientated. His blood pressure was 142/89 mmHg, pulse 89/min and temperature was 36.7°C. On examination of cranial nerves, no abnormalities were found. On examination of the peripheral nervous system, upper limb was entirely normal, however on examination of the lower limb there was marked spasticity, hyperreflexia with extensor plantar responses. Power was grade 4/5 on the left and 3/5 on the right with a pyramidal pattern of weakness. There did appear to be some sensory neglect of the right lower limb and diminished vibration and light touch on the left lower limb. No sensory level could be detected. There was no cerebellar dysfunction. Chest and abdominal examination was normal.
He was investigated with an MRI thoracic spine, which was entirely normal, and lumbar puncture.
Lumbar puncture showed:
Opening pressure 13 cm H2O (5-18)
CSF protein 0.6 g/L (0.15-0.45)
CSF white cell count 20 per ml (> 5)
CSF red cell count 4 per ml (>5)
CSF glucose 3.4 mmol/L (3.3-4.4)
CSF oligoclonal bands Present -
Serum oligoclonal bands Present -
What is the likely diagnosis in this 65-year-old patient based on the history and findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parasagittal meningioma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Spastic Paraparesis
This patient is presenting with spastic paraparesis, which suggests a lesion in the thoracic spine or cerebral cortex. However, the MR thoracic spine is normal, indicating a probable cortical lesion. Other clues to this diagnosis include sensory neglect in the right leg, headaches, and absence of a sensory level. A parasagittal meningioma is a likely cause of these symptoms, as it primarily affects the lower limb and cortical sensory function, and can also impact bladder function and vibration and light touch sense. The CSF findings of raised protein and WCC support this diagnosis.
Multiple sclerosis is unlikely due to the patient’s age, normal MRI spine, and abnormal CSF analysis, which would typically only show intrathecal oligoclonal band production. The presence of both CSF and serum oligoclonal bands suggests a systemic cause, such as rheumatoid arthritis. Anterior spinal artery thrombosis would cause an acute anterior cord syndrome with dissociated sensory loss affecting the lower limbs. Guillain-Barré syndrome typically presents following viral or bacterial enteritis and would show lower motor neurone signs in the limbs. A central cord syndrome within the cervical spine would cause upper motor neurone weakness in the legs, lower motor neurone weakness at the level of the lesion, and dissociated sensory loss of pain and temperature in the upper limb.
In summary, this patient’s symptoms suggest a cortical lesion, possibly caused by a parasagittal meningioma. Other potential diagnoses include multiple sclerosis, anterior spinal artery thrombosis, Guillain-Barré syndrome, and central cord syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man is admitted with a two day exacerbation of COPD. He arrives unwell and is started on steroids, nebulisers, aminophylline, ciprofloxacin and non invasive ventilation. He improves well and is weaned off the ventilation by his second day but starts to complain of palpitations and chest pain on the third day. He is usually well taking fostair twice a day. He used to smoke and drinks 20 units of alcohol a week.
You review him and find he has a pulse of 134 beats per minute that is irregular. He is clammy and his blood pressure is 96/76 mmHg. He has a chest that is wheezy throughout and is saturating at 91% with 2 litres of nasal cannulae oxygen. He is visibly trembling and feels nauseous. A cardiac monitor is attached showing an irregular narrow complex tachycardia.
Based on the given information, what is the probable cause of his drug toxicity?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:The use of quinolones can lead to inhibition of liver enzymes, which in turn increases the risk of theophylline toxicity in patients experiencing COPD/asthma exacerbation. In this case, the patient initially showed improvement but later developed fast atrial fibrillation. Hypokalaemia may have contributed to this, but it was evident that the patient was toxic with aminophylline. The rate of liver metabolism greatly affects aminophylline concentrations, and the addition of ciprofloxacin as a liver enzyme inhibitor can slow down metabolism, causing patients to rapidly develop theophylline toxicity unless the dose is reduced.
Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis
Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.
The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.
While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for some patients.
Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old woman presents to the clinic with elevated blood pressure of 148/86 mmHg. She has had no significant medical history in the past.
Upon examination, her chest and abdominal examination are unremarkable except for the high blood pressure. You suspect that there may be an underlying serious condition and order a series of tests.
The results of the investigations are as follows:
Test Result Normal Range
Hemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 135–175 g/l
White blood cell count (WBC) 4.8 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 190 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 98 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Bicarbonate (HCO3-) 34 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
Aldosterone erect 180 pmol/l 200-1000 pmol/l
Renin erect 3.0 pmol/ml/hr 2.8-4.5 pmol/ml/hr
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liddle syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Liddle Syndrome and Other Renal Disorders
Liddle syndrome is a rare autosomal dominant condition that affects the highly selective epithelial sodium channel in the distal nephron. This results in sodium retention independent of mineralocorticoid activity, leading to hypertension at a young age, profound hypokalaemia, alkalosis, and suppressed renin and aldosterone levels.
Other renal disorders include Gitelman syndrome, which is an autosomal recessive inheritance that presents with low serum potassium, reduced magnesium, mild metabolic alkalosis, and increased renin and aldosterone levels. Renal artery stenosis is associated with elevated renin and aldosterone levels and may have a renal bruit on abdominal examination.
Bartter syndrome, an autosomal recessive inheritance, is usually diagnosed in children or adolescents with failure to thrive, polydipsia, polyuria, and cramps. It is associated with normo-tension or slightly reduced blood pressure, hypokalaemia, mild metabolic alkalosis, increased urinary sodium, potassium, and calcium, and increased serum renin and aldosterone levels.
Finally, Conn syndrome is associated with elevated aldosterone levels and may present with high blood pressure, muscle weakness, muscle spasms, paraesthesiae, or polyuria due to low serum potassium levels.
Understanding these renal disorders and their associated symptoms is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old male is admitted acutely unwell.
Four weeks prior to admission he had presented to the GP with tiredness and weight loss and had been diagnosed with hypothyroidism based on results which showed:
T4 8.2 pmol/L (10-22)
TSH 5.2 mU/L (0.4-5)
He was treated with thyroxine 75 micrograms daily and has since deteriorated. He has no other past medical history of note, does not smoke and drinks modest quantities of alcohol. He is married and is self-caring. His father had hypothyroidism.
On examination, he is drowsy, thin, has a temperature of 37.8°C, a pulse of 102 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examination are otherwise normal. There are no neurological abnormalities.
The house officer has sent some emergency bloods on this patient.
Whilst awaiting the results, what is the most appropriate immediate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV Hydrocortisone
Explanation:The Importance of Recognizing Hypoadrenalism in Patients with Low T4 and Normal TSH
In patients with a history of weight loss and low T4 but normal TSH, it is important to consider the possibility of hypoadrenalism or secondary hypothyroidism. This is because the addition of thyroxine in these cases can potentially trigger acute hypoadrenalism, which can be life-threatening. In such situations, the use of intravenous steroids is crucial and should be administered promptly.
To elaborate, sick euthyroidism is a condition that can be associated with hypoadrenalism or secondary hypothyroidism. Therefore, it is essential to investigate the underlying cause of low T4 levels in patients with a history of weight loss. If hypoadrenalism is present, the administration of thyroxine can exacerbate the condition and lead to acute adrenal insufficiency. This is why prompt recognition and treatment with IV steroids is critical in preventing potentially fatal outcomes.
In summary, recognizing the possibility of hypoadrenalism in patients with low T4 and normal TSH is crucial in preventing acute adrenal insufficiency. The use of IV steroids should be administered without hesitation in such cases to ensure prompt and effective treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man presents with mild breast tenderness, weight loss and anxiety. He is known to have Klinefelter syndrome and had an undescended testis for which he underwent orchidopexy as a child. He has no other past medical history of note. On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 120/70 mmHg, his body mass index (BMI) is 20, he has gynaecomastia and small testes, his left appears more swollen than the right, but he tells you this is the one he had the operation on.
Investigations:
- Haemoglobin (Hb): 130 g/l (135-175 g/l)
- White cell count (WCC): 17.2 x 10^9/l (4-11 x 10^9/l)
- Platelet (PLT): 250 x 10^9/l (150-400 x 10^9/l)
- Sodium (Na+): 142 mmol/l (135-145 mmol/l)
- Potassium (K+): 4.2 mmol/l (3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
- Creatinine: 70 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l)
- Beta human chorionic gonadotropin (B-HCG) 9000 U/l < 5 U/l
- Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) < 0.05 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
Which of the following is the next most appropriate investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Diagnostic Approach for Suspected Testicular Carcinoma
When a patient presents with symptoms such as weight loss, anxiety, and a suppressed TSH, along with a history of hypogonadism or undescended testis, there is a suspicion of testicular carcinoma. In such cases, an ultrasound scan of the testes is the optimal way to investigate the condition. Testicular biopsy is not recommended if the ultrasound scan is highly suggestive of a carcinoma and other findings correlate, such as raised B-HCG. In such cases, progression to orchidectomy is the most appropriate management.
However, if there is no suspicion of a thyroid mass, a toxic adenoma, goitre related to Graves’, or a multinodular goitre, there is no value in an ultrasound scan of the thyroid. Similarly, the suppressed TSH is due to B-HCG rather than related to thyroid stimulating autoantibodies. Pituitary driven thyrotoxicosis is associated with an elevated TSH rather than the suppressed TSH seen in suspected testicular carcinoma.
While a chest X-ray is of value in evaluating possible metastases, the most important next step is to confirm testicular carcinoma with an ultrasound. Therefore, a diagnostic approach that includes an ultrasound scan of the testes is crucial in suspected cases of testicular carcinoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)