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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old man is having surgery to remove his appendix. During the procedure,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is having surgery to remove his appendix. During the procedure, the external oblique aponeurosis is cut and the underlying muscle is split along its fibers. A strong fibrous structure is found at the medial edge of the incision. What is the most likely structure that will be encountered upon entering this fibrous structure?

      Your Answer: Linea alba

      Correct Answer: Rectus abdominis

      Explanation:

      Upon entry, the structure encountered will be the rectus abdominis muscle, which is surrounded by the rectus sheath.

      Abdominal Incisions: Types and Techniques

      Abdominal incisions are surgical procedures that involve making an opening in the abdominal wall to access the organs inside. The most common approach is the midline incision, which involves dividing the linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. Another type is the paramedian incision, which is parallel to the midline and involves dividing the anterior rectus sheath, rectus, posterior rectus sheath, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. The battle incision is similar to the paramedian but involves displacing the rectus medially.

      Other types of abdominal incisions include Kocher’s incision under the right subcostal margin for cholecystectomy, Lanz incision in the right iliac fossa for appendicectomy, gridiron oblique incision centered over McBurney’s point for appendicectomy, Pfannenstiel’s transverse supra-pubic incision primarily used to access pelvic organs, McEvedy’s groin incision for emergency repair of a strangulated femoral hernia, and Rutherford Morrison extraperitoneal approach to the left or right lower quadrants for access to iliac vessels and renal transplantation.

      Each type of incision has its own advantages and disadvantages, and the choice of incision depends on the specific surgical procedure and the surgeon’s preference. Proper closure of the incision is crucial to prevent complications such as infection and hernia formation. Overall, abdominal incisions are important techniques in surgical practice that allow for safe and effective access to the abdominal organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      18.9
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman is suspected to have hepatitis B. She presents with jaundice...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is suspected to have hepatitis B. She presents with jaundice and upper abdominal pain. A liver function test was conducted to assess her liver's synthetic capacity.

      Which characteristic will provide the most precise indication of her condition?

      Your Answer: C-reactive protein

      Correct Answer: Prothrombin time

      Explanation:

      Liver enzymes are not reliable indicators of liver function, especially in end-stage cirrhosis. Instead, coagulation and albumin levels are better measures to assess liver function.

      Prothrombin time is a useful indicator because it reflects the liver’s ability to produce the necessary coagulation factors for blood clotting. A high PT suggests that the liver is not functioning properly.

      C-reactive protein (CRP) is not a specific indicator of liver function as it can be elevated in response to any infection in the body.

      Hemoglobin levels are not a reliable indicator of liver function as they can be affected by other factors such as anemia or polycythemia.

      Liver function tests are not accurate in assessing synthetic liver function as they only reflect damage to the liver and its surrounding areas. Additionally, some LFTs can be elevated due to other conditions, not just liver disease. For example, elevated GGT levels in an LFT can indicate damage to the bile ducts, which can be caused by a gallstone blocking the duct.

      Understanding Acute Liver Failure

      Acute liver failure is a condition characterized by the sudden onset of liver dysfunction, which can lead to various complications in the body. The causes of acute liver failure include paracetamol overdose, alcohol, viral hepatitis (usually A or B), and acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The symptoms of acute liver failure include jaundice, raised prothrombin time, hypoalbuminaemia, hepatic encephalopathy, and hepatorenal syndrome. It is important to note that liver function tests may not always accurately reflect the synthetic function of the liver, and it is best to assess the prothrombin time and albumin level to determine the severity of the condition. Understanding acute liver failure is crucial in managing and treating this potentially life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      13.5
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old patient with consistent PR bleeding is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient with consistent PR bleeding is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. What is the primary medication used to induce remission of this condition?

      Your Answer: Infliximab

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      To induce remission of Crohn’s disease, glucocorticoids (whether oral, topical or intravenous) are typically the first line of treatment. 5-ASA drugs are considered a second option for inducing remission of IBD. Azathioprine is more commonly used for maintaining remission. Steroids are specifically used to induce remission of Crohn’s disease. Infliximab is particularly effective for treating refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s.

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.

      Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      14
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about experiencing dark, tarry stools...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about experiencing dark, tarry stools for the past 4 days. She has a medical history of hypertension, which is well controlled with ramipril. Apart from ibuprofen, which she is taking for a recent skiing injury, she is not on any other regular medication. She casually mentions that she has lost some weight but denies having any abdominal pain. She is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 17 units of alcohol per week. On examination, there are no signs of chronic liver disease, but her conjunctiva appears pale. The doctor is concerned and decides to conduct several blood tests.

      Hb 10.1 g/l
      Platelets 202 * 109/l
      WBC 9.2 * 109/l
      Na+ 137 mmol/l
      K+ 4.1 mmol/l
      Urea 34 mmol/l
      Creatinine 105 µmol/l

      What is the most probable reason for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Peptic ulcer

      Explanation:

      An upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed can lead to the formation of melaena, which is characterized by the passage of dark and tarry stool through the digestive tract. Peptic ulcer is a frequent cause of upper GI bleed, particularly in patients who have identifiable risk factors such as the use of NSAIDs, as seen in this patient.

      The blood tests reveal an elevated urea level without an increase in creatinine, which is a typical presentation in an upper GI bleed. Additionally, the presence of anemia is also suggestive of a bleed.

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The main symptoms include haematemesis (vomiting of blood), melena (passage of altered blood per rectum), and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The diagnosis can be determined by identifying the specific features associated with a particular condition, such as stigmata of chronic liver disease for oesophageal varices or abdominal pain for peptic ulcer disease.

      The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes. Oesophageal varices may present with a large volume of fresh blood, while gastric ulcers may cause low volume bleeds that present as iron deficiency anaemia. Duodenal ulcers are usually posteriorly sited and may erode the gastroduodenal artery. Aorto-enteric fistula is a rare but important cause of major haemorrhage associated with high mortality in patients with previous abdominal aortic aneurysm surgery.

      The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation involves ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. Treatment options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery for non-variceal bleeding, while terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients with variceal bleeding. Band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices, and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      63.2
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  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with haematemesis which he has...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with haematemesis which he has never experienced before. He reports a 3 week history of intermittent dull pain in the upper left quadrant and, upon further inquiry, he mentions that he believes he has been losing weight but he doesn't weigh himself often as he has always been in good shape. Other than a badly sprained ankle 10 weeks ago, for which he admits he is still taking ibuprofen, he has no medical conditions and is not taking any regular medication. He is a non-smoker and only drinks alcohol occasionally. What is the most probable cause of the patient's haematemesis?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer

      Explanation:

      Peptic ulcer is a frequent cause of haematemesis in patients who have been using NSAIDs extensively, as seen in this patient’s case. Peptic ulcers can manifest with various symptoms such as haematemesis, abdominal pain, nausea, weight loss, and acid reflux. Typically, the pain subsides when the patient eats or drinks.

      Although weight loss can be a sign of malignancy, this patient has few risk factors (over 55 years old, smoker, high alcohol consumption, and obesity).

      Any instance of repeated forceful vomiting can lead to a mallory-weiss tear, which presents as painful episodes of haematemesis.

      Oesophageal varices are expected in patients with a history of alcohol abuse and usually present with signs of chronic liver disease.

      Hereditary telangiectasia usually presents with a positive family history and telangiectasia around the lips, tongue, or mucus membranes. Epistaxis is a common symptom of this vascular malformation.

      Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.

      The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.

      The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old man needs a urethral catheter before his splenectomy. At what point...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man needs a urethral catheter before his splenectomy. At what point will the catheter encounter its first resistance during insertion?

      Your Answer: Membranous urethra

      Explanation:

      The external sphincter surrounding the membranous urethra causes it to be the least distensible part of the urethra.

      Urethral Anatomy: Differences Between Male and Female

      The anatomy of the urethra differs between males and females. In females, the urethra is shorter and more angled than in males. It is located outside of the peritoneum and is surrounded by the endopelvic fascia. The neck of the bladder is subject to intra-abdominal pressure, and any weakness in this area can lead to stress urinary incontinence. The female urethra is surrounded by the external urethral sphincter, which is innervated by the pudendal nerve. It is located in front of the vaginal opening.

      In males, the urethra is much longer and is divided into four parts. The pre-prostatic urethra is very short and lies between the bladder and prostate gland. The prostatic urethra is wider than the membranous urethra and contains several openings for the transmission of semen. The membranous urethra is the narrowest part of the urethra and is surrounded by the external sphincter. The penile urethra travels through the corpus spongiosum on the underside of the penis and is the longest segment of the urethra. The bulbo-urethral glands open into the spongiose section of the urethra.

      The urothelium, which lines the inside of the urethra, is transitional near the bladder and becomes squamous further down the urethra. Understanding the differences in urethral anatomy between males and females is important for diagnosing and treating urological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      44.3
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of haematemesis. He appears...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of haematemesis. He appears unkempt and emits a strong odour of alcohol. During the examination, the physician notes the presence of palmar erythema, spider naevi, and jaundiced sclera. The patient's vital signs indicate tachycardia and tachypnea, with a blood pressure of 90/55 mmHg. What is the probable reason for the patient's haematemesis?

      Your Answer: Hereditary telangiectasia

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal varices

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting signs of shock, possibly due to hypovolemia caused by significant blood loss from variceal bleeding. The patient’s physical examination reveals indications of chronic liver disease, making oesophageal varices the most probable cause of the bleeding. Mallory-Weiss tear, which causes painful episodes of haematemesis, usually occurs after repeated forceful vomiting, but there is no evidence of vomiting in this patient. Peptic ulcers typically affect older patients with abdominal pain and those taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

      Less Common Oesophageal Disorders

      Plummer-Vinson syndrome is a condition characterized by a triad of dysphagia, glossitis, and iron-deficiency anaemia. Dysphagia is caused by oesophageal webs, which are thin membranes that form in the oesophagus. Treatment for this condition includes iron supplementation and dilation of the webs.

      Mallory-Weiss syndrome is a disorder that occurs when severe vomiting leads to painful mucosal lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction, resulting in haematemesis. This condition is common in alcoholics.

      Boerhaave syndrome is a severe disorder that occurs when severe vomiting leads to oesophageal rupture. This condition requires immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      120.7
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  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old man is scheduled for a sub total oesophagectomy with anastomosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is scheduled for a sub total oesophagectomy with anastomosis of the stomach to the cervical oesophagus. What is the primary vessel responsible for supplying arterial blood to the oesophageal portion of the anastomosis?

      Your Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior thyroid artery supplies the cervical oesophagus, while direct branches from the thoracic aorta supply the thoracic oesophagus (which has been removed in this case).

      Anatomy of the Oesophagus

      The oesophagus is a muscular tube that is approximately 25 cm long and starts at the C6 vertebrae, pierces the diaphragm at T10, and ends at T11. It is lined with non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and has constrictions at various distances from the incisors, including the cricoid cartilage at 15cm, the arch of the aorta at 22.5cm, the left principal bronchus at 27cm, and the diaphragmatic hiatus at 40cm.

      The oesophagus is surrounded by various structures, including the trachea to T4, the recurrent laryngeal nerve, the left bronchus and left atrium, and the diaphragm anteriorly. Posteriorly, it is related to the thoracic duct to the left at T5, the hemiazygos to the left at T8, the descending aorta, and the first two intercostal branches of the aorta. The arterial, venous, and lymphatic drainage of the oesophagus varies depending on the location, with the upper third being supplied by the inferior thyroid artery and drained by the deep cervical lymphatics, the mid-third being supplied by aortic branches and drained by azygos branches and mediastinal lymphatics, and the lower third being supplied by the left gastric artery and drained by posterior mediastinal and coeliac veins and gastric lymphatics.

      The nerve supply of the oesophagus also varies, with the upper half being supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve and the lower half being supplied by the oesophageal plexus of the vagus nerve. The muscularis externa of the oesophagus is composed of both smooth and striated muscle, with the composition varying depending on the location.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 9 - A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue. She has experienced occasional bouts of diarrhea...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue. She has experienced occasional bouts of diarrhea for several years and has recurrent abdominal pain and bloating.

      During the abdominal examination, no abnormalities were found, but a blood test revealed anemia due to folate deficiency. The patient tested positive for immunoglobulin A-tissue transglutaminase (IgA-tTG), and an intestinal biopsy showed villous atrophy.

      Which serotype is most strongly linked to this condition?

      Your Answer: HLA-DQ2

      Explanation:

      The incorrect HLA serotypes are HLA-A3, HLA-B27, and HLA-B51. HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis, which can be asymptomatic in early stages and present with non-specific symptoms such as lethargy and arthralgia. HLA-B27 is associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, and anterior uveitis. Ankylosing spondylitis presents with lower back pain and stiffness that worsens in the morning and improves with exercise. Reactive arthritis is characterized by arthritis following an infection, along with possible symptoms of urethritis and conjunctivitis. Anterior uveitis is inflammation of the iris and ciliary body and is a differential diagnosis for red eye. HLA-B51 is associated with Behçet’s disease, which involves oral and genital ulcers and anterior uveitis.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following cell types is most likely to be found in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cell types is most likely to be found in the wall of a fistula in a 60-year-old patient?

      Your Answer: Squamous cells

      Explanation:

      A fistula is a connection that is not normal between two surfaces that are lined with epithelial cells. In the case of a fistula in ano, it will be lined with squamous cells.

      Fistulas are abnormal connections between two epithelial surfaces, with various types ranging from those in the neck to those in the abdomen. The majority of fistulas in surgical practice arise from diverticular disease and Crohn’s. In general, all fistulas will heal spontaneously as long as there is no distal obstruction. However, this is particularly true for intestinal fistulas. There are four types of fistulas: enterocutaneous, enteroenteric or enterocolic, enterovaginal, and enterovesicular. Management of fistulas involves protecting the skin, managing high output fistulas with octreotide, and addressing nutritional complications. When managing perianal fistulas, it is important to avoid probing the fistula in cases of acute inflammation and to use setons for drainage in cases of Crohn’s disease. It is also important to delineate the fistula anatomy using imaging studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 11 - A 52-year-old woman visits her primary care physician after her spouse noticed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman visits her primary care physician after her spouse noticed a gradual yellowing of her eyes over the past three days. The patient reports experiencing fatigue and excessive sleepiness for several years, along with occasional bouts of intense itching. She has no significant medical history. Lab tests reveal elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase, IgM antibodies, and anti-mitochondrial antibodies. What is the underlying pathology of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Triglyceride accumulation with the proliferation of myofibroblasts

      Correct Answer: Interlobular bile duct granulomatous destruction with dense lymphocytic infiltrate

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and laboratory findings suggest a cholestatic disease, specifically primary biliary cholangitis, which is an autoimmune condition of the biliary tract. This disease is more common in middle-aged women and can present with symptoms such as fatigue and pruritus. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis is a metabolic syndrome-related condition characterized by triglyceride accumulation and myofibroblast proliferation, while primary sclerosing cholangitis is characterized by bile duct inflammation and sclerosis. Alcoholic hepatitis is caused by long-term alcohol misuse and is characterized by macrovesicular fatty change, spotty necrosis, and fibrosis.

      Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disorder that affects middle-aged women. It is thought to be an autoimmune condition that damages interlobular bile ducts, causing progressive cholestasis and potentially leading to cirrhosis. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman. It is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Diagnosis involves immunology and imaging tests. Management includes ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine for pruritus, and liver transplantation in severe cases. Complications include cirrhosis, osteomalacia and osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 12 - Is the presence of liver metastases necessary for the development of carcinoid syndrome?...

    Incorrect

    • Is the presence of liver metastases necessary for the development of carcinoid syndrome?

      The following are true of carcinoid tumours except:

      - When present in the appendix tip and measure less than 2 cm have an excellent prognosis (33%)
      - Even when metastatic disease is present it tends to follow a protracted course (26%)
      - When present in the appendix body tend to present with carcinoid syndrome even when liver metastases are not present (17%)
      - May be imaged using 5 HIAA radionucleotide scanning (12%)
      - Advanced appendiceal carcinoids may require right hemicolectomy (12%)

      Rule of thirds:

      - 1/3 multiple
      - 1/3 small bowel
      - 1/3 metastasize
      - 1/3 second tumour

      Important for me:

      Less important:

      Your Answer: When present in the appendix tip and measure less than 2 cm have an excellent prognosis

      Correct Answer: When present in the appendix body tend to present with carcinoid syndrome even when liver metastases are not present

      Explanation:

      The presence of liver metastases is a requirement for the occurrence of carcinoid syndrome. The liver is divided into thirds, with one-third dedicated to multiple tumors, one-third to small bowel involvement, and one-third to metastasis or the development of a secondary tumor.

      Carcinoid tumours are a type of cancer that can cause a condition called carcinoid syndrome. This syndrome typically occurs when the cancer has spread to the liver and releases serotonin into the bloodstream. In some cases, it can also occur with lung carcinoid tumours, as the mediators are not cleared by the liver. The earliest symptom of carcinoid syndrome is often flushing, but it can also cause diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and right heart valvular stenosis (or left heart involvement in bronchial carcinoid). Additionally, other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may be secreted, leading to conditions like Cushing’s syndrome. Pellagra, a rare condition caused by a deficiency in niacin, can also develop as the tumour diverts dietary tryptophan to serotonin.

      To investigate carcinoid syndrome, doctors may perform a urinary 5-HIAA test or a plasma chromogranin A test. Treatment for the condition typically involves somatostatin analogues like octreotide, which can help manage symptoms like diarrhoea. Cyproheptadine may also be used to alleviate diarrhoea. Overall, early detection and treatment of carcinoid tumours can help prevent the development of carcinoid syndrome and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 13 - A 67-year-old female is hospitalized with acute pancreatitis. What factor would indicate a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female is hospitalized with acute pancreatitis. What factor would indicate a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer: Bicarbonate 35mmol/l

      Correct Answer: Glucose 15.8mmol/l

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Prognostic Score is a useful tool for assessing the severity of acute pancreatitis. If three or more of the following criteria are present within the first 48 hours, it is likely that the patient is experiencing severe pancreatitis and should be referred to the High Dependency Unit or Intensive Care Unit. Conversely, if the score is less than three, severe pancreatitis is unlikely. The criteria include: age over 55 years, white blood cell count over 15 x 109/L, urea over 16 mmol/L, glucose over 10 mmol/L, pO2 less than 8 kPa (60 mm Hg), albumin less than 32 g/L, calcium less than 2 mmol/L, LDH over 600 units/L, and AST/ALT over 200 units. Based on these criteria, the only option that meets the threshold for severe pancreatitis is a glucose level of 15.8 mmol/L.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 14 - An 83-year-old man visits his GP complaining of weight loss and a change...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old man visits his GP complaining of weight loss and a change in bowel habit that has been ongoing for the past 6 months. Following a colonoscopy and biopsy, he is diagnosed with a malignancy of the transverse colon. The transverse colon is connected to the posterior abdominal wall by a double fold of the peritoneum. Which other organ is also attached to similar double folds of the peritoneum?

      Your Answer: The left kidney

      Correct Answer: The stomach

      Explanation:

      The mesentery is present in the stomach and the first part of the duodenum as they are intraperitoneal structures.

      In the abdomen, organs are categorized as either intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal. The intraperitoneal organs include the stomach, spleen, liver, bulb of the duodenum, jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. The retroperitoneal organs include the remaining part of the duodenum, the cecum and ascending colon, the descending colon, the pancreas, and the kidneys.

      The peritoneum has different functions in the abdomen and can be classified accordingly. It is called a mesentery when it anchors organs to the posterior abdominal wall and a ligament when it connects two different organs. The lesser and greater curvatures of the stomach have folds known as the lesser and greater omenta.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 15 - You eagerly begin your second laparoscopic cholecystectomy and encounter unexpected difficulties with the...

    Correct

    • You eagerly begin your second laparoscopic cholecystectomy and encounter unexpected difficulties with the anatomy of Calots triangle. While attempting to apply a haemostatic clip, you accidentally tear the cystic artery, resulting in profuse bleeding. What is the most probable source of this bleeding?

      Your Answer: Right hepatic artery

      Explanation:

      The most frequent scenario is for the cystic artery to originate from the right hepatic artery, although there are known variations in the anatomy of the gallbladder’s blood supply.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of abrupt abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of abrupt abdominal pain. She has a 35-pack-year smoking history and has been managing polycythemia vera for 10 years with intermittent phlebotomy. Upon initial evaluation, she appears alert and has a distended abdomen with shifting dullness and tender hepatomegaly. What is the probable diagnosis based on these observations?

      Your Answer: Budd-Chiari syndrome

      Explanation:

      Budd-Chiari syndrome is the correct diagnosis for this patient, as it is caused by hepatic vein thrombosis. The patient has significant risk factors for thrombophilia and is presenting with the classic triad of right upper quadrant abdominal pain, ascites (as evidenced by shifting dullness on examination), and hepatomegaly.

      While decompensated cirrhosis can also cause ascites and hepatomegaly, it is unlikely to cause an acute abdomen and is more likely to present with associated jaundice and encephalopathy. Therefore, this option is incorrect.

      Right-sided heart failure can also lead to ascites due to raised portosystemic pressure, but this option is incorrect as the patient does not have risk factors for heart failure apart from smoking and does not have other typical findings of heart failure such as dyspnea and peripheral edema.

      Nephrotic syndrome can also cause ascites due to hypoalbuminemia-related fluid retention, but there is no mention of proteinuria or hypoalbuminemia, which typically causes peri-orbital edema. Therefore, this option is also incorrect.

      Understanding Budd-Chiari Syndrome

      Budd-Chiari syndrome, also known as hepatic vein thrombosis, is a condition that is often associated with an underlying hematological disease or another procoagulant condition. The causes of this syndrome include polycythemia rubra vera, thrombophilia, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. The symptoms of Budd-Chiari syndrome typically include sudden onset and severe abdominal pain, ascites leading to abdominal distension, and tender hepatomegaly.

      To diagnose Budd-Chiari syndrome, an ultrasound with Doppler flow studies is usually the initial radiological investigation. This test is highly sensitive and can help identify the presence of the condition. It is important to diagnose and treat Budd-Chiari syndrome promptly to prevent complications such as liver failure and portal hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      27.7
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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and vomiting. He reports not having a bowel movement for the past five days.

      His medical history includes a ruptured appendix three years ago. There is no significant medical or family history.

      During the examination, you observe abdominal distension and tinkling bowel sounds.

      An abdominal X-ray shows dilated loops of small bowel.

      What is the leading cause of the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Correct Answer: Adhesions

      Explanation:

      The leading cause of small bowel obstruction is adhesions, which can occur due to previous abdominal surgery and cause internal surfaces to stick together. An abdominal X-ray showing dilated small bowel loops is a common indicator of this condition. While a hernia can also cause small bowel obstruction, it is less likely in this case due to the patient’s surgical history. Intussusception is rare in adults and more commonly seen in young children. Malignancy is a less common cause of small bowel obstruction, especially in patients without risk factors or demographic factors that suggest a higher likelihood of cancer.

      Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common causes of this condition are adhesions resulting from previous surgeries and hernias. Symptoms include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first imaging test used to diagnose small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early stages of obstruction. Management involves NBM, IV fluids, and a nasogastric tube with free drainage. Conservative management may be effective for some patients, but surgery is often necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      17.7
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  • Question 18 - Which of the following genes is not involved in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following genes is not involved in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer: c-myc

      Correct Answer: src

      Explanation:

      Additional genes implicated include MCC, DCC, c-yes, and bcl-2.

      Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of cancer-related deaths. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      13.6
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old man complains of dyspepsia and is scheduled for an upper GI...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man complains of dyspepsia and is scheduled for an upper GI endoscopy. The procedure reveals diffuse gastric and duodenal ulcers. Upon conducting a Clo test, Helicobacter pylori infection is confirmed. What is the probable cause of the ulcers?

      Your Answer: Decreased release of mucous and bicarbonate

      Correct Answer: Increased acid production

      Explanation:

      H-Pylori is capable of causing both gastric and duodenal ulcers, but the mechanism behind this is not fully understood. One theory suggests that the organism induces gastric metaplasia in the duodenum by increasing acid levels. This metaplastic transformation is necessary for H-Pylori to colonize the duodenal mucosa and cause ulcers. Therefore, only individuals who have undergone this transformation are at risk for duodenal ulcers caused by H-Pylori.

      Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.

      The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.

      The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      24
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  • Question 20 - A 54-year-old male presents to the emergency department with frank haematemesis. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old male presents to the emergency department with frank haematemesis. He is urgently resuscitated and undergoes an urgent oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD), which reveals an active bleed in the distal part of the lesser curvature of the stomach. The bleed is successfully controlled with endoclips and adrenaline. The patient has a history of gastric ulcers. What is the most probable artery responsible for the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Short gastric arteries

      Correct Answer: Right gastric artery

      Explanation:

      The distal lesser curvature of the stomach is supplied by the right gastric artery, while the proximal lesser curvature is supplied by the left gastric artery. The proximal greater curvature is supplied by the left gastroepiploic artery, and the distal greater curvature is supplied by the right gastroepiploic artery.

      The Gastroduodenal Artery: Supply and Path

      The gastroduodenal artery is responsible for supplying blood to the pylorus, proximal part of the duodenum, and indirectly to the pancreatic head through the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries. It commonly arises from the common hepatic artery of the coeliac trunk and terminates by bifurcating into the right gastroepiploic artery and the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.

      To better understand the relationship of the gastroduodenal artery to the first part of the duodenum, the stomach is reflected superiorly in an image sourced from Wikipedia. This artery plays a crucial role in providing oxygenated blood to the digestive system, ensuring proper functioning and health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      139.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (8/20) 40%
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