00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 58-year-old male patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal pain, weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal pain, weight loss, and diarrhoea for the past 6 months. During gastroscopy, a gastrinoma is discovered in the antrum of his stomach. What is the purpose of the hormone produced by this tumor?

      Your Answer: It increases HCL production and reduces gastric motility

      Correct Answer: It increases HCL production and increases gastric motility

      Explanation:

      A tumor that secretes gastrin is known as a gastrinoma, which leads to an increase in both gastrointestinal motility and HCL production. It should be noted that while gastrin does increase gastric motility, it does not have an effect on the secretion of pancreatic fluid. This is instead regulated by hormones such as VIP, CCK, and secretin.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      136.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 58-year-old woman presents to the colorectal clinic with complaints of pruritus ani....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to the colorectal clinic with complaints of pruritus ani. During the examination, a polypoidal mass is discovered below the dentate line. A biopsy confirms the presence of squamous cell carcinoma. Which lymph node groups are at risk of metastasis from this lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inguinal

      Explanation:

      If there are any injuries or abnormalities located beyond the dentate line, they will be drained towards the inguinal nodes. In some cases, this may require a block dissection of the groin.

      Anatomy of the Rectum

      The rectum is a capacitance organ that measures approximately 12 cm in length. It consists of both intra and extraperitoneal components, with the transition from the sigmoid colon marked by the disappearance of the tenia coli. The extra peritoneal rectum is surrounded by mesorectal fat that contains lymph nodes, which are removed during rectal cancer surgery. The fascial layers that surround the rectum are important clinical landmarks, with the fascia of Denonvilliers located anteriorly and Waldeyers fascia located posteriorly.

      In males, the rectum is adjacent to the rectovesical pouch, bladder, prostate, and seminal vesicles, while in females, it is adjacent to the recto-uterine pouch (Douglas), cervix, and vaginal wall. Posteriorly, the rectum is in contact with the sacrum, coccyx, and middle sacral artery, while laterally, it is adjacent to the levator ani and coccygeus muscles.

      The superior rectal artery supplies blood to the rectum, while the superior rectal vein drains it. Mesorectal lymph nodes located superior to the dentate line drain into the internal iliac and then para-aortic nodes, while those located inferior to the dentate line drain into the inguinal nodes. Understanding the anatomy of the rectum is crucial for surgical procedures and the diagnosis and treatment of rectal diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Whilst conducting a cholecystectomy, a surgeon mistakenly tears the cystic artery. To minimize...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst conducting a cholecystectomy, a surgeon mistakenly tears the cystic artery. To minimize the bleeding, she applies a clamp to a vessel in the hepatoduodenal ligament.

      Which blood vessel is the surgeon probably compressing to manage the hemorrhage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic artery

      Explanation:

      The Pringle manoeuvre, named after James Pringle, involves compressing the hepatic artery in the anterior aspect of the omental foramen to stop blood flow to the cystic artery. This is because the cystic artery is a branch of the right hepatic artery, which in turn is a branch of the (common) hepatic artery. While compressing the aorta proximal to the celiac trunk may also reduce blood flow to the cystic artery, it carries the risk of ischaemic damage to the abdominal viscera and lower limbs. Compressing the hepatic artery is therefore the preferred method as it minimizes unnecessary ischaemia. The hepatic portal vein and inferior vena cava are veins and cannot be compressed to control blood flow to the cystic artery. Similarly, compressing the superior pancreatoduodenal artery, which does not precede the cystic artery, will have no effect on controlling bleeding.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You opt to obtain an arterial blood gas from the radial artery. Where...

    Incorrect

    • You opt to obtain an arterial blood gas from the radial artery. Where should the needle be inserted to obtain the sample?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mid inguinal point

      Explanation:

      The femoral artery can be located using the mid inguinal point, which is positioned halfway between the anterior superior iliac spine and the symphysis pubis.

      Understanding the Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle

      The femoral triangle is an important anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. The floor of the femoral triangle is made up of the iliacus, psoas major, adductor longus, and pectineus muscles, while the roof is formed by the fascia lata and superficial fascia. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the long saphenous vein are also found in this region.

      The femoral triangle contains several important structures, including the femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve, deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral cutaneous nerve, great saphenous vein, and femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid inguinal point, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.

      Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for procedures such as venipuncture, arterial puncture, and nerve blocks. It is also important for identifying and treating conditions that affect the structures within this region, such as femoral hernias and lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 16-year-old presents to the Emergency Department with her father, who has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old presents to the Emergency Department with her father, who has noticed a yellowish tint to her eyes. Upon further inquiry, she reports having a flu-like illness a few days ago, which has since resolved. She has no medical history and is not taking any medications. On examination, scleral icterus is the only significant finding. The following are her blood test results:

      Hb 130 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 320 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 6.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Bilirubin 80 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 42 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 30 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 50 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 45 g/L (35 - 50)

      What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is characterized by an inherited deficiency of an enzyme used to conjugate bilirubin, resulting in elevated levels of unconjugated bilirubin in the blood. This can lead to isolated jaundice of the sclera or mouth during times of physiological stress.

      Crigler Najjar syndrome, on the other hand, is a rare genetic disorder that causes an inability to convert and clear bilirubin from the body, resulting in jaundice shortly after birth.

      Gallstones, which can be asymptomatic or present with right upper quadrant pain following a meal, are associated with risk factors such as being overweight, over 40 years old, female, or fertile.

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is characterized by scarring and fibrosis of the bile ducts inside and outside the liver, and may occur alone or in combination with inflammatory diseases such as ulcerative colitis. Symptoms of PSC include jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, itching, fatigue, and weight loss.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of abdominal pain, weight loss,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of abdominal pain, weight loss, and persistent diarrhoea for the past 5 months. During a colonoscopy, a suspicious growth is detected in his colon, which is later confirmed as adenocarcinoma. The patient reveals that his father was diagnosed with colon cancer at the age of 55.

      Based on this information, which genetic mutations are likely to be present in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MSH2/MLH1

      Explanation:

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which one of the following does not result in the relaxation of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following does not result in the relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide directly causes contraction of the smooth muscle of the LOS.

      Peristalsis: The Movement of Food Through the Digestive System

      Peristalsis is the process by which food is moved through the digestive system. Circular smooth muscle contracts behind the food bolus, while longitudinal smooth muscle propels the food through the oesophagus. Primary peristalsis spontaneously moves the food from the oesophagus into the stomach, taking about 9 seconds. Secondary peristalsis occurs when food does not enter the stomach, and stretch receptors are stimulated to cause peristalsis.

      In the small intestine, peristalsis waves slow to a few seconds and cause a mixture of chyme. In the colon, three main types of peristaltic activity are recognised. Segmentation contractions are localised contractions in which the bolus is subjected to local forces to maximise mucosal absorption. Antiperistaltic contractions towards the ileum are localised reverse peristaltic waves to slow entry into the colon and maximise absorption. Mass movements are migratory peristaltic waves along the entire colon to empty the organ prior to the next ingestion of a food bolus.

      Overall, peristalsis is a crucial process in the digestive system that ensures food is moved efficiently through the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Sophie presents acutely to the hospital with severe epigastric pain that is radiating...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie presents acutely to the hospital with severe epigastric pain that is radiating to the back, nausea and vomiting. Upon questioning, she has suffered from several episodes of biliary colic in the past. A blood test reveals a lipase level of 1000U/L.

      What is the underlying pathophysiology of Sophie's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic enzymes released as a result of inflammation autodigest the pancreatic tissue

      Explanation:

      The cause of acute pancreatitis is the autodigestion of pancreatic tissue by pancreatic enzymes, which results in tissue necrosis. The patient is experiencing typical symptoms of acute pancreatitis, including epigastric pain that radiates to the back, nausea, and vomiting. The presence of elevated lipase levels, which are more than three times the upper limit of normal, is also indicative of acute pancreatitis. The patient’s history of biliary colic suggests that gallstones may be the underlying cause of this condition.

      During acute pancreatitis, inflammation of the pancreas triggers the release and activation of pancreatic enzymes, which then begin to digest the pancreatic tissue. This process is known as autodigestion. Autodigestion of fat can lead to tissue necrosis, while autodigestion of blood vessels can cause retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which can be identified by the presence of Grey Turner’s sign and Cullen’s sign.

      Understanding Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The most common symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. Although rare, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may also be present.

      To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life, making it useful for late presentations. Imaging, such as ultrasound or contrast-enhanced CT, may also be necessary to assess the aetiology of the condition.

      Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors indicating severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. However, the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.

      In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is important to diagnose and manage it promptly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A scan is being done on a foetus which is 34 weeks gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A scan is being done on a foetus which is 34 weeks gestation. The pancreas and its associated ducts are identified.

      What does the pancreatic duct in the foetus become in the adult?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ligamentum teres

      Explanation:

      The ligamentum teres in the adult is derived from the umbilical vein in the foetus.

      The Three Embryological Layers and their Corresponding Gastrointestinal Structures and Blood Supply

      The gastrointestinal system is a complex network of organs responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients. During embryonic development, the gastrointestinal system is formed from three distinct layers: the foregut, midgut, and hindgut. Each layer gives rise to specific structures and is supplied by a corresponding blood vessel.

      The foregut extends from the mouth to the proximal half of the duodenum and is supplied by the coeliac trunk. The midgut encompasses the distal half of the duodenum to the splenic flexure of the colon and is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. Lastly, the hindgut includes the descending colon to the rectum and is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      Understanding the embryological origin and blood supply of the gastrointestinal system is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By identifying the specific structures and blood vessels involved, healthcare professionals can better target their interventions and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 36-year-old woman is found to have an aggressive caecal adenocarcinoma. Her sister...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman is found to have an aggressive caecal adenocarcinoma. Her sister passed away from the same disease at 39 years of age. Her mother died from endometrial cancer at the age of 42. What genetic abnormality is the most probable cause of this family's cancer history?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mutation of mismatch repair genes

      Explanation:

      Microsatellite instability of DNA repair genes causes Lynch syndrome, which is identified by the presence of aggressive colon cancer on the right side and endometrial cancer.

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following hepatobiliary conditions is commonly linked with ulcerative colitis, typically...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hepatobiliary conditions is commonly linked with ulcerative colitis, typically seen in adult patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      The risk of developing liver cancer is higher in patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) and ulcerative colitis. However, the risk of malignant transformation is not increased in patients with Crohn’s disease. Impaired entero-hepatic circulation in Crohn’s disease is linked to the development of gallstones. Unlike PSC, ulcerative colitis does not elevate the risk of other liver lesions.

      Understanding Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 7-year-old girl with Down Syndrome is brought to the pediatrician by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl with Down Syndrome is brought to the pediatrician by her father. She has been complaining of intermittent abdominal pain for the past few months. During the physical examination, the doctor finds a soft, non-tender abdomen. Additionally, the girl has been experiencing episodes of diarrhea and has a vesicular rash on her leg.

      Hemoglobin: 120 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 75 fL (normal range: 78-100 fL)
      Platelet count: 320 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
      White Blood Cell count (WBC): 9.8 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the underlying pathophysiological cause of this girl's anemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Villous atrophy affecting the distal duodenum

      Explanation:

      Coeliac disease leads to malabsorption as a result of villous atrophy in the distal duodenum. This case exhibits typical symptoms of coeliac disease, including iron deficiency anaemia, abdominal pain, and diarrhoea. The presence of a vesicular rash on the skin indicates dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin manifestation of coeliac disease. The patient’s Down syndrome also increases the risk of developing this condition. Macrophages invading the intestinal wall is an incorrect answer as lymphocytic infiltration is involved in the pathogenesis of coeliac disease. Pancreatic insufficiency is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically causes malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins and Vitamin B12, which is not evident in this case. Villous atrophy affecting the proximal colon is also incorrect as the small intestine is responsible for nutrient absorption in the body.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 22-year-old university student with a history of primary sclerosing cholangitis presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old university student with a history of primary sclerosing cholangitis presents to the gastroenterologists with symptoms suggestive of ulcerative colitis. She has been experiencing bloody diarrhoea and fatigue for the past three months, with an average of seven bowel movements per day. Her medical history includes a childhood hepatitis A infection and an uncomplicated appendicectomy three years ago. She also has a family history of hepatocellular carcinoma.

      During examination, stage 1 haemorrhoids and a scar over McBurney's point are noted. Given her medical history, which condition warrants annual colonoscopy in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Annual colonoscopy is recommended for individuals who have both ulcerative colitis and PSC.

      Colorectal Cancer Risk in Ulcerative Colitis Patients

      Ulcerative colitis patients have a significantly higher risk of developing colorectal cancer compared to the general population. The risk is mainly related to chronic inflammation, and studies report varying rates. Unfortunately, patients with ulcerative colitis often experience delayed diagnosis, leading to a worse prognosis. Lesions may also be multifocal, further increasing the risk of cancer.

      Several factors increase the risk of colorectal cancer in ulcerative colitis patients, including disease duration of more than 10 years, pancolitis, onset before 15 years old, unremitting disease, and poor compliance to treatment. To manage this risk, colonoscopy surveillance is recommended, and the frequency of surveillance depends on the patient’s risk stratification.

      Patients with lower risk require a colonoscopy every five years, while those with intermediate risk require a colonoscopy every three years. Patients with higher risk require a colonoscopy every year. The risk stratification is based on factors such as the extent of colitis, the severity of active endoscopic/histological inflammation, the presence of post-inflammatory polyps, and family history of colorectal cancer. Primary sclerosing cholangitis or a family history of colorectal cancer in first-degree relatives aged less than 50 years also increase the risk of cancer. By following these guidelines, ulcerative colitis patients can receive appropriate surveillance and management to reduce their risk of developing colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 15-year-old boy, with a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, is showing symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy, with a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, is showing symptoms of hepatic dysfunction. Upon conducting liver function tests, it is found that he has elevated levels of unconjugated bilirubin. After genetic testing, it is confirmed that he has Gilbert's syndrome. What is the reason behind the increased levels of unconjugated bilirubin in Gilbert's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced levels of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase-1

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is characterized by a decrease in UDP glucuronosyltransferase levels.
      Enhanced drug effects can occur due to reduced warfarin metabolism caused by CYP2C9 deficiency.
      Elevated GGT levels are often caused by pancreatic disease, cholestasis, excessive alcohol consumption, and certain medications.
      Dubin-Johnson syndrome is associated with defective hepatocyte excretion of conjugated bilirubin.
      Disordered metabolism of clopidogrel and other drugs, including proton-pump inhibitors, anticonvulsants, and sedatives, can result from reduced CYP2C19 levels.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following anatomical planes separates the prostate from the rectum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anatomical planes separates the prostate from the rectum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Denonvilliers fascia

      Explanation:

      The rectum is separated from the prostate by the Denonvilliers fascia, while the sacrum is separated from the rectum by Waldeyer’s fascia.

      Anatomy of the Prostate Gland

      The prostate gland is a small, walnut-shaped gland located below the bladder and separated from the rectum by Denonvilliers fascia. It receives its blood supply from the internal iliac vessels, specifically the inferior vesical artery. The gland has an internal sphincter at its apex, which can be damaged during surgery and result in retrograde ejaculation.

      The prostate gland has four lobes: the posterior lobe, median lobe, and two lateral lobes. It also has an isthmus and three zones: the peripheral zone, central zone, and transition zone. The peripheral zone, which is the subcapsular portion of the posterior prostate, is where most prostate cancers occur.

      The gland is surrounded by various structures, including the pubic symphysis, prostatic venous plexus, Denonvilliers fascia, rectum, ejaculatory ducts, lateral venous plexus, and levator ani. Its lymphatic drainage is to the internal iliac nodes, and its innervation comes from the inferior hypogastric plexus.

      In summary, the prostate gland is a small but important gland in the male reproductive system. Its anatomy includes lobes, zones, and various surrounding structures, and it plays a crucial role in ejaculation and prostate health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old man is having a left hemicolectomy. During the procedure, the surgeons...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is having a left hemicolectomy. During the procedure, the surgeons come across a tubular structure located at the inferior aspect of psoas major. What is the most probable identity of this structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left ureter

      Explanation:

      The left colon is positioned anterior to the left ureter. The iliac vessels are usually in closer proximity to the sigmoid colon and upper rectum, which are not typically located above the L4 vertebrae.

      Anatomy of the Ureter

      The ureter is a muscular tube that measures 25-35 cm in length and is lined by transitional epithelium. It is surrounded by a thick muscular coat that becomes three muscular layers as it crosses the bony pelvis. This retroperitoneal structure overlies the transverse processes L2-L5 and lies anterior to the bifurcation of iliac vessels. The blood supply to the ureter is segmental and includes the renal artery, aortic branches, gonadal branches, common iliac, and internal iliac. It is important to note that the ureter lies beneath the uterine artery.

      In summary, the ureter is a vital structure in the urinary system that plays a crucial role in transporting urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Its unique anatomy and blood supply make it a complex structure that requires careful consideration in any surgical or medical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 26-year-old male presented with weight loss, cramping abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhea....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male presented with weight loss, cramping abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhea. During colonoscopy, a diffusely red and friable mucosa was observed in the rectum and sigmoid colon, while the mucosa was normal in the proximal region. Over time, the disease progressed to involve most of the colon, except for the ileum. After several years, a colonic biopsy revealed high grade epithelial dysplasia. What was the probable initial diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis advances from the distal to proximal regions in a progressive manner, leading to dysplastic changes over time. These endoscopic observations necessitate frequent endoscopic monitoring, and if a colonic mass is present, a pancproctocolectomy is typically recommended.

      Understanding Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Is the presence of liver metastases necessary for the development of carcinoid syndrome?...

    Incorrect

    • Is the presence of liver metastases necessary for the development of carcinoid syndrome?

      The following are true of carcinoid tumours except:

      - When present in the appendix tip and measure less than 2 cm have an excellent prognosis (33%)
      - Even when metastatic disease is present it tends to follow a protracted course (26%)
      - When present in the appendix body tend to present with carcinoid syndrome even when liver metastases are not present (17%)
      - May be imaged using 5 HIAA radionucleotide scanning (12%)
      - Advanced appendiceal carcinoids may require right hemicolectomy (12%)

      Rule of thirds:

      - 1/3 multiple
      - 1/3 small bowel
      - 1/3 metastasize
      - 1/3 second tumour

      Important for me:

      Less important:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: When present in the appendix body tend to present with carcinoid syndrome even when liver metastases are not present

      Explanation:

      The presence of liver metastases is a requirement for the occurrence of carcinoid syndrome. The liver is divided into thirds, with one-third dedicated to multiple tumors, one-third to small bowel involvement, and one-third to metastasis or the development of a secondary tumor.

      Carcinoid tumours are a type of cancer that can cause a condition called carcinoid syndrome. This syndrome typically occurs when the cancer has spread to the liver and releases serotonin into the bloodstream. In some cases, it can also occur with lung carcinoid tumours, as the mediators are not cleared by the liver. The earliest symptom of carcinoid syndrome is often flushing, but it can also cause diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and right heart valvular stenosis (or left heart involvement in bronchial carcinoid). Additionally, other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may be secreted, leading to conditions like Cushing’s syndrome. Pellagra, a rare condition caused by a deficiency in niacin, can also develop as the tumour diverts dietary tryptophan to serotonin.

      To investigate carcinoid syndrome, doctors may perform a urinary 5-HIAA test or a plasma chromogranin A test. Treatment for the condition typically involves somatostatin analogues like octreotide, which can help manage symptoms like diarrhoea. Cyproheptadine may also be used to alleviate diarrhoea. Overall, early detection and treatment of carcinoid tumours can help prevent the development of carcinoid syndrome and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of nausea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of nausea and vomiting that started 3 hours ago. The vomit contains some food content but no blood. He also reports experiencing abdominal pain, but is unable to pinpoint the location. On examination, his heart rate is 90 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 140/88 mmHg. The emergency physician observes that he has red palms and ascites in his abdomen. The following blood results are obtained:

      - Hemoglobin: 128 g/L
      - Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 82 U/L
      - Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 38 U/L

      Further questioning reveals that the man used to engage in binge drinking and currently consumes more than 60 units of alcohol per week since his divorce 15 years ago and recent job loss. Based on this information, what pathological feature is likely to be observed on liver biopsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Excess collagen and extracellular matrix deposition in periportal and pericentral zones leading to the formation of regenerative nodules

      Explanation:

      Patients with this condition typically exhibit the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies.

      Scoring Systems for Liver Cirrhosis

      Liver cirrhosis is a serious condition that can lead to liver failure and death. To assess the severity of the disease, doctors use scoring systems such as the Child-Pugh classification and the Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD). The Child-Pugh classification takes into account five factors: bilirubin levels, albumin levels, prothrombin time, encephalopathy, and ascites. Each factor is assigned a score of 1 to 3, depending on its severity, and the scores are added up to give a total score. The total score is then used to grade the severity of the disease as A, B, or C.

      The MELD system uses a formula that takes into account a patient’s bilirubin, creatinine, and international normalized ratio (INR) to predict their survival. The formula calculates a score that ranges from 6 to 40, with higher scores indicating a higher risk of mortality. The MELD score is particularly useful for patients who are on a liver transplant waiting list, as it helps to prioritize patients based on their risk of mortality. Overall, both the Child-Pugh classification and the MELD system are important tools for assessing the severity of liver cirrhosis and determining the best course of treatment for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old African American male presents to his physician with complaints of epigastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old African American male presents to his physician with complaints of epigastric pain occurring a few hours after eating. He reports experiencing this for several months but denies any weight loss, loss of appetite, or night sweats. He does not smoke or drink alcohol and maintains a healthy diet. He denies excessive use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. A Helicobacter pylori stool antigen test comes back negative, and he is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor. After three months, he reports no relief of symptoms and has been experiencing severe diarrhea.

      The patient's special laboratory investigations reveal negative stool ova and parasites, with normal levels of sodium, potassium, bicarbonate, and urea. His creatinine levels are within the normal range, but his fasting serum gastrin levels are significantly elevated at 1200 pg/mL (normal range: 0-125). Additionally, his gastric pH is measured at 1.2, which is lower than the normal range of >2.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zollinger- Ellison syndrome

      Explanation:

      Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) is the most likely diagnosis for the patient due to their persistent epigastric pain, diarrhea, and high levels of serum gastrin, which cannot be explained by peptic ulcer disease alone. ZES is caused by a gastrin-secreting tumor in the pancreas or duodenum, and is often associated with MEN 1. Diagnosis is confirmed by elevated serum gastrin levels at least 10 times the upper limit of normal, reduced gastric pH, and a secretin stimulation test if necessary.

      Carcinoid syndrome is an incorrect diagnosis as it presents with different symptoms such as diarrhea, wheezing, flushing, and valvular lesions due to serotonin secretion.

      Although celiac disease can cause epigastric pain and diarrhea, the elevated gastrin levels make ZES a more likely diagnosis. Celiac disease is diagnosed by measuring levels of anti-TTG and anti-endomysial IgA.

      Gastric carcinoma is unlikely as there are no risk factors, constitutional symptoms, or elevated fasting gastrin levels.

      H. pylori infection has been ruled out by a negative stool antigen test.

      Understanding Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

      Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a medical condition that is caused by the overproduction of gastrin, which is usually due to a tumor in the pancreas or duodenum. This condition is often associated with MEN type I syndrome, which affects around 30% of cases. The symptoms of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome include multiple gastroduodenal ulcers, diarrhea, and malabsorption.

      To diagnose Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, doctors typically perform a fasting gastrin level test, which is considered the best screening test. Additionally, a secretin stimulation test may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis. With early diagnosis and treatment, the symptoms of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can be managed effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 80-year-old male visits his GP with a complaint of blood in his...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male visits his GP with a complaint of blood in his stool and increased frequency of bowel movements. He has also experienced mild weight loss due to a change in appetite. Upon referral to secondary care, a mass is discovered in his ascending colon. If the mass were to perforate the bowel wall, where would bowel gas most likely accumulate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retroperitoneal space

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that he may have bowel cancer in his ascending colon. As the ascending colon is located behind the peritoneum, a rupture of the colon could lead to the accumulation of gas in the retroperitoneal space.

      Pneumoperitoneum, which is the presence of gas in the peritoneum, is typically caused by a perforated peptic ulcer. On the other hand, subcutaneous emphysema is the trapping of air under the skin layer and is usually associated with chest wall trauma or pneumothorax.

      Air in the intra-mural space refers to the presence of air within the bowel wall and is not likely to occur in cases of perforation. This condition is typically associated with intestinal ischaemia and infarction.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old female patient presents to the gastroenterology clinic complaining of recurrent epigastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female patient presents to the gastroenterology clinic complaining of recurrent epigastric pain and acid reflux that has not responded to antacids or proton-pump inhibitors. Upon gastroscopy, an ulcer is discovered in the descending duodenum and a tumor is found in the antrum of the stomach. What type of cell is the origin of this tumor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G cells

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is synthesized by the G cells located in the antrum of the stomach.

      Based on the symptoms presented, it is probable that the patient has a gastrinoma. This type of tumor produces an excess of gastrin, which stimulates the production of hydrochloric acid, leading to the development of peptic ulcers. Normally, gastrin is secreted by the G cells located in the antrum of the stomach.

      Other cells found in the stomach include S cells, which produce secretin, I cells, which produce CCK, and D cells, which produce somatostatin. However, there is no such cell as an H cell in the stomach.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 16-year-old boy undergoes an emergency splenectomy for trauma and is discharged home...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy undergoes an emergency splenectomy for trauma and is discharged home after making a full recovery. After eight weeks, his general practitioner performs a full blood count with a blood film. What is the most likely finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Howell-Jolly bodies

      Explanation:

      After a splenectomy, the blood film may show the presence of Howell-Jolly bodies, Pappenheimer bodies, target cells, and irregular contracted erythrocytes due to the absence of the spleen’s filtration function.

      Blood Film Changes after Splenectomy

      After undergoing splenectomy, the body loses its ability to remove immature or abnormal red blood cells from circulation. This results in the appearance of cytoplasmic inclusions such as Howell-Jolly bodies, although the red cell count remains relatively unchanged. In the first few days following the procedure, target cells, siderocytes, and reticulocytes may be observed in the bloodstream. Additionally, agranulocytosis composed mainly of neutrophils is seen immediately after the operation, which is then replaced by a lymphocytosis and monocytosis over the next few weeks. The platelet count is typically elevated and may persist, necessitating the use of oral antiplatelet agents in some patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which one of the following structures is located most posteriorly at the porta...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures is located most posteriorly at the porta hepatis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Portal vein

      Explanation:

      At the porta hepatis, the most posterior structure is the portal vein, while the common bile duct is created by the merging of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct. The common hepatic duct extends and becomes the common bile duct.

      Structure and Relations of the Liver

      The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.

      The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.

      The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 6-month history of fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 6-month history of fatigue and weakness, with a recent increase in shortness of breath upon walking.

      Past medical history - vitiligo.

      Medications - over the counter multivitamins.

      On examination - lung sounds were vesicular with equal air entry bilaterally; mild jaundice noticed in her sclera.


      Hb 95 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 210 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 6.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)


      Vitamin B12 105 ng/L (200 - 900)

      What is the underlying pathological process given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune destruction of gastroparietal cells

      Explanation:

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition where the body’s immune system attacks either the intrinsic factor or the gastroparietal cells, leading to a deficiency in vitamin B12 absorption. The patient’s history, examination, and blood results can provide clues to the diagnosis, such as fatigue, dyspnoea, mild jaundice, and low haemoglobin levels. The correct answer for the cause of pernicious anaemia is autoimmune destruction of gastroparietal cells, as intrinsic factor destruction is not an option. Autoimmune destruction of chief or goblet cells is not related to this condition. Ulcerative colitis may cause similar symptoms, but it is unlikely to affect vitamin B12 absorption and cause jaundice.

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.

      Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.

      Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An 73-year-old man with chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) is admitted to your...

    Incorrect

    • An 73-year-old man with chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) is admitted to your ward. He presents with dyspnea and inability to lie flat. What physical examination findings would indicate a possible diagnosis of cor pulmonale, or right-sided heart failure secondary to COPD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smooth hepatomegaly

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes

      Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly. In this case, the liver edge is hard and irregular. Right heart failure can also lead to an enlarged liver, which is firm, smooth, and tender. It may even be pulsatile.

      Aside from these common causes, hepatomegaly can also be caused by viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis.

      Understanding the causes of hepatomegaly is important in diagnosing and treating the underlying condition. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 49-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that started an hour ago. She reports feeling unwell recently, but this is the first time she has experienced this type of pain, which is mainly located in the right upper quadrant. During the examination, the physician notes hepatomegaly and ascites, and the patient's eyes have a slight yellow tint. An ultrasound scan reveals reduced blood flow in the hepatic veins, and there is no history of recent travel, drug use, or needlestick injury. The patient has not experienced recent weight loss, and her last menstrual period was two weeks ago. She is not taking any regular or over-the-counter medications. What condition could potentially be causing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protein C deficiency

      Explanation:

      Budd-Chiari syndrome, which is characterized by abdominal pain, ascites, hepatomegaly, and jaundice, can be caused by hypercoagulable states such as protein C and S deficiencies. In this case, the patient’s protein C deficiency increased their risk of developing a thrombus in the hepatic veins, leading to Budd-Chiari syndrome. Other risk factors for thrombus formation include pregnancy and hepatocellular carcinoma. The use of oral contraceptives would also increase the risk of thrombus formation, while warfarin treatment would decrease it. Atrial fibrillation, on the other hand, would predispose a patient to systemic embolism, which can cause ischaemic symptoms in various arterial circulations.

      Understanding Budd-Chiari Syndrome

      Budd-Chiari syndrome, also known as hepatic vein thrombosis, is a condition that is often associated with an underlying hematological disease or another procoagulant condition. The causes of this syndrome include polycythemia rubra vera, thrombophilia, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. The symptoms of Budd-Chiari syndrome typically include sudden onset and severe abdominal pain, ascites leading to abdominal distension, and tender hepatomegaly.

      To diagnose Budd-Chiari syndrome, an ultrasound with Doppler flow studies is usually the initial radiological investigation. This test is highly sensitive and can help identify the presence of the condition. It is important to diagnose and treat Budd-Chiari syndrome promptly to prevent complications such as liver failure and portal hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old man is having surgery to remove a tumor in the descending...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is having surgery to remove a tumor in the descending colon. What embryological structure does this part of the digestive system originate from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hind gut

      Explanation:

      The hind gut is responsible for the development of the left colon, which is why it has its own distinct blood supply through the IMA.

      The colon begins with the caecum, which is the most dilated segment of the colon and is marked by the convergence of taenia coli. The ascending colon follows, which is retroperitoneal on its posterior aspect. The transverse colon comes after passing the hepatic flexure and becomes wholly intraperitoneal again. The splenic flexure marks the point where the transverse colon makes an oblique inferior turn to the left upper quadrant. The descending colon becomes wholly intraperitoneal at the level of L4 and becomes the sigmoid colon. The sigmoid colon is wholly intraperitoneal, but there are usually attachments laterally between the sigmoid and the lateral pelvic sidewall. At its distal end, the sigmoid becomes the upper rectum, which passes through the peritoneum and becomes extraperitoneal.

      The arterial supply of the colon comes from the superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery, which are linked by the marginal artery. The ascending colon is supplied by the ileocolic and right colic arteries, while the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery. The descending and sigmoid colon are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The venous drainage comes from regional veins that accompany arteries to the superior and inferior mesenteric vein. The lymphatic drainage initially follows nodal chains that accompany supplying arteries, then para-aortic nodes.

      The colon has both intraperitoneal and extraperitoneal segments. The right and left colon are part intraperitoneal and part extraperitoneal, while the sigmoid and transverse colon are generally wholly intraperitoneal. The colon has various relations with other organs, such as the right ureter and gonadal vessels for the caecum/right colon, the gallbladder for the hepatic flexure, the spleen and tail of pancreas for the splenic flexure, the left ureter for the distal sigmoid/upper rectum, and the ureters, autonomic nerves, seminal vesicles, prostate, and urethra for the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 40-year-old male presents with a six-month history of frequent diarrhoea. He describes...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male presents with a six-month history of frequent diarrhoea. He describes up to ten episodes a day of bloody stool. The patient denies any night sweats, fever, or weight loss, explains that he has not changed his diet recently.

      On examination he has;
      Normal vital signs
      No ulcerations in his mouth
      Mild lower abdominal tenderness
      Pain and blood noted on rectal examination

      What is the most probable finding on colonoscopy or biopsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crypt abscesses

      Explanation:

      ASCA, also known as anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies, can be abbreviated as 6.

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - After an oesophagogastrectomy, the surgeons will connect the remaining oesophagus to the stomach....

    Incorrect

    • After an oesophagogastrectomy, the surgeons will connect the remaining oesophagus to the stomach. Which layer is not included in the composition of the oesophageal wall?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serosa

      Explanation:

      Due to the absence of a serosa layer, the oesophageal wall may not provide a strong grip for sutures.

      Anatomy of the Oesophagus

      The oesophagus is a muscular tube that is approximately 25 cm long and starts at the C6 vertebrae, pierces the diaphragm at T10, and ends at T11. It is lined with non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and has constrictions at various distances from the incisors, including the cricoid cartilage at 15cm, the arch of the aorta at 22.5cm, the left principal bronchus at 27cm, and the diaphragmatic hiatus at 40cm.

      The oesophagus is surrounded by various structures, including the trachea to T4, the recurrent laryngeal nerve, the left bronchus and left atrium, and the diaphragm anteriorly. Posteriorly, it is related to the thoracic duct to the left at T5, the hemiazygos to the left at T8, the descending aorta, and the first two intercostal branches of the aorta. The arterial, venous, and lymphatic drainage of the oesophagus varies depending on the location, with the upper third being supplied by the inferior thyroid artery and drained by the deep cervical lymphatics, the mid-third being supplied by aortic branches and drained by azygos branches and mediastinal lymphatics, and the lower third being supplied by the left gastric artery and drained by posterior mediastinal and coeliac veins and gastric lymphatics.

      The nerve supply of the oesophagus also varies, with the upper half being supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve and the lower half being supplied by the oesophageal plexus of the vagus nerve. The muscularis externa of the oesophagus is composed of both smooth and striated muscle, with the composition varying depending on the location.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (0/1) 0%
Passmed